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QUESTION 1
Which consideration is true for a Vulnerability Assessment (VA) deployment?
A. Collectors running VA cannot also perform database monitoring.
B. Each collector can run up to 20 Vulnerability Assessments simultaneously.
C. S-TAP must be running on the database server before VA is run for a database on that server.
D. There is a need to create an account with appropriate privileges on the database for VA to work.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 2
Which Guardium appliance cannot be managed?
A. S-TAP
B. Collector
C. Aggregator
D. Central manager

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 3
When planning the deployment for Data Activity Monitoring (DAM) there is a need to determine the location of the various Guardium solution components (I.e. Agents, appliances). Which statement is correct?
A. S-TAP agents need to reside in the same data center the aggregators reside in.
B. Collectors can report to aggregators that are located in data centers other then their own.
C. Collectors can reside anywhere in the customer network regardless of database server location.
D. Aggregators need to reside in the same data center the collectors that report to them (Aggregator) reside.

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 4
When sizing a Vulnerability Assessment solution, what is the recommendation for calculating the number of collectors needed?
A. One collector for every 30K PVU.
B. One collector for every data center.
C. One collector for every 35 database servers.
D. One collector for every 255 database instances.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 5
What are the mechanisms used by UNIX S-TAP to capture database traffic?
A. K-TAP, A-TAP, and PCAP
B. K-TAP, LHMON, and PCAP
C. PCAP, DB2TAP, and K-TAP
D. A-TAP, Shared Memory Driver, and K-TAP

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 6
Which parameter should be used to enable K-TAP flex loading through GIM?
A. KTAP_ENABLED set to “1”
B. KTAP_LIVE_UPDATE set to “Y”
C. KTAP_FAST_FILE_VERDICT set to “1”
D. KTAP_ALLOW_MODULE_COMBOS set to “Y”

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 7
Before uninstalling A-TAP, which procedure must be done?
A. K-TAP must be unloaded using guard_ktap_loader.
B. A-TAP must be deactivated on all database instances.
C. The Guardium group must be removed from the server.
D. The sniffer must be stopped on the Guardium appliance.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 8
Which guard_tap.ini parameter should be used to set the virtual IP of a Microsoft SQL Server cluster environment?
A. tap_ip
B. sqlguard_ip
C. alternate_ips
D. connect_to_ip

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 9
What statement is true regarding policy push down?
A. Policy push down pushes a classification process into S-TAP for Z on IMS.
B. Policy push down allows ZSecure to push policies into the Guardium appliance.
C. Policy push down allows the Guardium appliance to identify sensitive objects inside the DB2 database.
D. Policy-push-down enables policy push down of collected profiles, collection activation, and collection inactivation from the Guardium appliance.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 10
What is the correct way to stop a UNIX S-TAP that was installed with a non-GIM installer?
A. Use the Stop S-TAP button in the S-TAP Control window.
B. Find the S-TAP Process ID and terminate with kill -9 command.
C. Comment the U-TAP section of /etc/inittab, followed by the init q command.
D. Under the Modules parameter in the Central Manager, set STAP_ENABLED = 0 for the appropriate S-TAP.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 11
Which appliance type(s) can serve as a Guardium host for S-TAPs?
A. A collector only.
B. Collectors and Aggregators only.
C. Collectors and standalone Central Managers.
D. All appliance types can accept S-TAP connections.

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12
In the Session level entity, how many UID Chain attribute(s) are there?
A. 1 – UID Chain
B. 2 – UID Chain & UID Chain Compressed
C. 3 – UID Chain, UID Chain Compressed & UID Chain Expanded
D. 4 – UID Chain, UID Chain Compressed, UID Chain Expanded & UID Chain for z/OS

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 13
What is the main command line utility to control and configure A-TAP on all platforms?
A. guardctl
B. guard-atap-ctl
C. guard-ktap-ctl
D. guard-executor-32

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 14
What is the documented procedure for handling delayed cluster disk mounting?
A. Manually restart the S-TAP process after mounting the database server directory.
B. Configure the wait_for_db_exec parameter in the guard_tap.ini with an appropriate delay.
C. Ensure that the S-TAP process is started only after the database installation directory is available.
D. There is no special procedure, S-TAP can automatically detect when the database directory becomes available.

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 15
Which GIM component controls starting and stopping managed agents on UNIX?
A. gim_client.pl
B. guardium_stap
C. guard_supervisor
D. guard_ktap_loader

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 16
What is the correct way to stop S-TAP that is managed by GIM?
A. Uninstall S-TAP.
B. Use kill -9 on S-TAP process.
C. Comment S-TAP entry in /etc/inittab.
D. Set STAP_ENABLED to “0” in GIM parameters.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 17
Where are DB2 z audit rules stored?
A. Collection profiles
B. CICS audit profiles
C. Group audit profiles
D. VSAM audit profiles

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 18
Which ports are used by UNIX S-TAP?
A. 9500 TCP (unencrypted) and 8075 TCP (encrypted)
B. 16016 TCP (unencrypted) and 16018 TCP (encrypted)
C. 9500 TCP (unencrypted) and 8075 UDP (heartbeat signal)
D. 16016 TCP (unencrypted) and 16018 UDP (hearbeat signal)

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 19
Which mechanism is used to intercept DB2 and Informix shared memory traffic on all UNIX platforms except Linux?
A. TEE
B. PCAP
C. A-TAP
D. K-TAP

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 20
What is the purpose of K-TAP flex load in Linux installations?
A. Allows upgrade of the K-TAP module without requiring a reboot of the host operating system.
B. Give the system administrator the ability to stop traffic interception by manually unloading the K- TAP module.
C. Allows installation of K-TAP module with closest match in cases where an exact kernel match is not available.
D. Allows the system administrator to upgrade the K-TAP module directly from GIM interface on Central Manager.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 21
Which statement about Configuration Audit System (CAS) is true?
A. It does not support windows platform.
B. It supports running operating system shell scripts.
C. It does not support monitoring of file permissions (rwxrwxrwx).
D. It supports vulnerability assessment tests using observed behavior.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 22
What is the primary purpose of Group Builder?
A. To update vulnerability assessment rules.
B. To trigger compliance workflow automation.
C. To adapt to the dynamic needs of the business.
D. To associate policy rules with audit process results.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 23
What query change requires the report portlet to be regenerated?
A. Main entity
B. Query fields
C. Runtime parameters
D. Timestamp attributes

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 24
In a rule definition, what DB User field value would test for a blank database user name in the traffic?
A. %
B. NULL
C. guardium://empty
D. Leaving the field blank
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 25
The policy has an extrusion rule with action of ‘Log Extrusion Counter’ when a credit card number is returned by the query. The inspection engine is configured with:

Query ‘select credit_card from TABLE1 where customer_id in (1,2,3);’ returns a total of 120 records with 10 credit cards returned in each network packet. What is expected result for SUM(Returned Data Count) from Full SQL domain for this query?
A. 0
B. 12
C. 74
D. 120

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 26
An audit workflow process may contain any number of audit tasks. Which is NOT a valid audit task?
A. a privacy set
B. a policy process
C. a security assessment
D. a classification process

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 27
When creating a new report there is a need to choose a main entity. There are six levels in the entity hierarchy for the access domain. Which of the following represents the correct hierarchy order (top to bottom)?
A. SQL, Client/Server By Session, Application Event, Command, Object, Field
B. Command, Object, SQL, Field, Client/Server By Session, Application Event
C. Object, Command, SQL, Field, Client/Server By Session, Application Event
D. Client/Server By Session, Application Event, SQL, Command, Object, Field

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 28
How does the database entitlement information get pulled into the Guardium appliance?
A. DB Entitlement Reports use the LDAP Domain feature to create links between the LDAP data on the selected database with the internal data of the predefined entitlement reports.
B. DB Entitlement Reports use the Custom Domain feature to create links between the external data on the selected database with the internal data of the predefined entitlement reports.
C. DB Entitlement Reports use the Access Domain feature to create links between the accessed data on the selected database with the internal data of the predefined entitlement reports.
D. DB Entitlement Reports use the Security Assessment Domain feature to create links between the user data on the selected database with the internal data of the predefined entitlement reports.

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 29
What does ‘sample size’ parameter of classification process define?
A. How many tables in the database should be evaluated by the process.
B. How many rows in each table of the database should be evaluated by the process.
C. How many columns in each table of the database should be evaluated by the process.
D. What percent of the column in each table of the database should be evaluated by the process.

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 30
A query that is used by a correlation alert, is run at 23:59 for time period between 00:00 and 23:59 of that day, produces these results:

How many alerts were sent during that day, if first time alerter ran the query at 01:00 and anomaly detection is configured with polling interval of 30 minutes?
A. 0
B. 2
C. 3
D. 5
Correct Answer: B

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QUESTION 1
You are trying to identify a multi-column primary key in a table of 50 million records. What steps can you take to minimize performance impact?
A. None, you must always assess full volume of data.
B. Use a data sample; apply regression analysis to identify statistically likely candidates; apply duplicate check.
C. Use a data sample; limit the test to specific columns at one time; incrementally increase the number of possible column combinations.
D. Use a data sample; apply functional dependency analysis to remove dependent columns; incrementally increase the number of possible column combinations.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 2
You submitted a column analysis job with the “Retain Scripts” set to no. The column analysis job finished with an “error encountered” final message. You have access to the DataStage Director client. Which option would allow you to find the source of the error?
A. Create a log view in Information Analyzer and rerun the job. Examine the log to determine the error.
B. Rerun the job with the “Retain Scripts” turned on. The error message will be returned to the Information Analyzer status window.
C. Submit the job from Information Analyzer. After it finishes log onto DataStage Director and examine the job log to determine the source of the error.
D. Submit the job from Information Analyzer and place it on hold. Log onto DataStage Director, release the job and examine the job log to determine the source of the error.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 3
While reviewing the results of a data rule test you find a logic error. Which option will allow you to troubleshoot this error?
A. Set the debug option when submitting the test job, then review the log.
B. Open a command window on the client, submit the job and view the log.
C. Set Retain Scripts to on and use DataStage Director to review the job log.
D. Create a log view to capture the CAS log. Rerun the rule and review the log.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 4
Which statement is true about analysis settings?
A. Default Analysis settings can be created for individual users.
B. Default Analysis settings cannot be configured for all projects.
C. Default Analysis settings can be configured at the project level.
D. Default Analysis settings are controlled by the DataStage Analysis project.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 5
In a large enterprise, the human resource business unit wants to ensure the restriction of the analysis and analysis results to a set of HR managers. Which configuration will support this requirement?
A. Use operating system IDs and database IDs to restrict access.
B. Use Information Server roles and security to restrict access to analysis and results.
C. Install an Information Analyzer environment (analysis server, analysis engine, analysis database) for the HR business unit.
D. Install an analysis engine for each business unit and one analysis database using Information server security to restrict access.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 6
Which of the following is true about ODBC DSN’s (data source names)?
A. No ODBC DSN’s are required.
B. You must manually create the Information Analyzer database DSN.
C. You must create a DSN for the data sources on both the client and server.
D. The Information Analyzer database DSN is automatically created at installation time.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 7
You are installing Information Analyzer and plan to use Oracle as the Information Analyzer analysis database. Which statement is true?
A. The metadata database must also be Oracle.
B. The metadata database does not have to be Oracle.
C. Only Oracle RAC (Real Application Clusters) is supported.
D. The Information Analyzer analysis database can not be Oracle.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 8
When analyzing large volumes of source data in column analysis, which two statements identify ways you can improve processing performance? (Choose two.)
A. Use data sampling in Information Analyzer.
B. Add more space to the Metadata repository.
C. Modify the project Analysis settings to increase the buffer pools.
D. Modify the DataStage apt config file to use multiple nodes and parallel process the data.
E. Modify the Information Analyzer Analysis database config file to parallel process the data.

Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 9
When analyzing large number of columns in Information Analyzer, which two components may require capacity planning review? (Choose two.)
A. Disk space on the Engine layer.
B. Disk space on the Application Server.
C. Buffer pools on the Application Server.
D. Information Server Metadata repository.
E. Information Analyzer Analysis database.
Correct Answer: AE
QUESTION 10
When creating a Scheduling View, which two of the following options can be configured? (Choose two.)
A. Status > Schedule > Pending
B. Status > Task Run > Abnormally Ended
C. Status > Task Run > Successfully Ended
D. Origins > Information Analyzer > IA Export Project
E. Origins > Information Analyzer > IA Report Execution

Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 11
You are managing a business analyst who is annotating column profile details with issues and resolutions. You wish to see how many annotations remain open for resolution. Which report should you create and review?
A. Metric Summary Project Status report
B. Metadata Summary-Column Profile Status report
C. Project Status- Project Summary by Notes Status report
D. Domain Quality Summary- Column Quality by Status report

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 12
When working with Information Analyzer reports, which two functions require use of the reporting functionality in the Information Server Web Console? (Choose two.)
A. Add the report to Favorites.
B. Create the report as a PDF.
C. Grant Access to report result.
D. Create a Log Messages report.
E. Choose Expiration Policy for Report.

Correct Answer: CE
QUESTION 13
You are working with a subject matter expert who does not have the Information Server console installed, but needs to receive a detailed value frequency distribution as a comma-delimited (csv) file. Which two of the following options can you use to deliver the required file? (Choose two.)
A. Go to the Investigate>Table Management functions, select the frequency distribution file; export as a Delimited file; and send the file.
B. Go to the Investigate>Publish Analysis Result functions, select the frequency distribution file; export as a Delimited file; and send the file.
C. Go to the Reports menu, select the Data Rule Frequency Distribution report; choose the TXT output option and generate the report; and provide the URL to the report output.
D. Use the IAAdmin command line interface (CLI); select the -getColumnOutputTable option providing the correct project and column names and the -csv format parameter; run the command and send the file.
E. Use the IAAdmin command line interface (CLI); select the -getFrequencyDistribution option providing the correct project and column names and the -xsl format parameter to a csv-formatting stylesheet ; run the command and send the file.

Correct Answer: AE
QUESTION 14
Which of the following is the correct HTTP API request format for creating a data rule definition in an existing project?
A. http://<ServerName>:9080/InformationAnalyzer/create?ruleDefinition
B. http://<ServerName>:9080/InformationAnalyzer/create?projectContent
C. http://< ServerName>:9080/InformationAnalyzer/project?projectName=<YourProjectName>
D. http://<ServerName>:9080/InformationAnalyzer/ruleDefinition?projectName=<YourProjectName> &ruleName=<YourRuleName>

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 15
You are setting up an automated process to run a set of data rules on a weekly basis. You want to evaluate the execution status via the Information Analyzer command line interface (CLI) before running subsequent reports. Which of the following do you need to evaluate?
A. Select the -runTasks option specifying the -getExecutionStatus parameter and evaluate the status attribute of the <RuleExecutionResult> element.
B. Select the -getExecutionHistory option specifying the -ruleName parameter and evaluate the status attribute of the <RuleExecutionResult> element.
C. Select the -getExecutableRule option specifying the -getExecutionHistory and -ruleName parameters and evaluate the status attribute of the <DataRuleResult> element.
D. Select the -getExecutableRule/ExecutionHistory option specifying the -ruleName parameter and evaluate the status attribute of the <DataRuleExecutionHistory> element.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 16
Which two options are supported for creating Information Analyzer reports in XLS format? (Choose two.)
A. Password protected.
B. Include shapes in export.
C. Keep existing word wrap.
D. Use default full compression.
E. Delimit fields as comma separated.

Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 17
Which output format supports encryption and password protection of the report?
A. XML
B. PDF
C. XSLT
D. HTML

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 18
When creating a data rule definition through the HTTP API, which two of the following can be included as a child element of the <DataRuleDefinition> element? (Choose two.)
A. <Term>
B. <Name>
C. <Tasks>
D. <Description>
E. <ExecutableRules>

Correct Answer: DE
QUESTION 19
You are reviewing the analysis of a colleague who identified 2 invalid values out of a set of 25,000 distinct values. What steps can you take to review the original source records for these 2 values?
A. Open Domain & Completeness tab; Click Show Quintiles; Select Invalid Quintile; Select Drill down.
B. Open Domain & Completeness tab; Select Invalid Values radio button; Highlight rows; Select Drill down.
C. Open Domain & Completeness tab; Select All Values radio button; Sort on Status column; Highlight Invalid rows; Select Drill down.
D. Open Domain & Completeness tab; Select and Expand Validity Summary; Select the Distincts Invalid Count; Select Drill down.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 20
During profiling, you did not find any single column candidate primary keys for one table. You would like to see Information Analyzer find a single column candidate primary key. Which two of the following actions would you take, to identify a primary key candidate, for this one table? (Choose two)
A. Create a virtual table for the one table and run column analysis against it.
B. Open Key Analysis for the table and lower the value in the ‘Flag Percentages Above’ field and click apply.
C. Run a multi-column primary key analysis but select only the one column and change composite max to
1.
D. Go to Overview, Project Properties and choose the Analysis Settings tab. Change the Primary Key Threshold at the project level.
E. Go to Overview, Project Properties and choose the Analysis Settings tab. Change the Primary Key Threshold at the Data Source/Table level.

Correct Answer: BE
QUESTION 21
What two types of Domain and Completeness validations methods can Information Analyzer perform? (Choose two.)
A. Value
B. Format
C. Mapping
D. Phonetic
E. Reference Table

Correct Answer: AE
QUESTION 22
Which four analysis types does the Column Analysis process include?
A. domain analysis, constraint analysis, format analysis, data properties analysis
B. domain analysis, data classification analysis, key analysis, data properties analysis
C. domain analysis, data classification analysis, format analysis, data properties analysis
D. domain analysis, data classification analysis, format analysis, standardization analysis

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 23
You are profiling a large table with 50 columns and over five million rows, which does not have a single column primary key. A subject matter expert states that there are four columns that define the key. How would you validate ONLY the specific four columns together as a multi-column candidate primary key without additional permutations?
A. Re-run column analysis for just the four columns
B. Create a virtual column with all four columns and run a column analysis on it to check for uniqueness
C. Run a multi-column primary key analysis selecting four candidate columns and set composite max equal to four
D. Create a data sample and run a multi-column primary key analysis against all columns and set

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