QUESTION NO: 1
In Rational Developer for System z File Manager, which template is constructed without the use of any source code to help derive the record layout?
A. Copybook template
B. Segmented copybook template
C. Dynamic template
D. Segmented template
Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 2
Which mechanism or feature can be used to integrate custom build processes involving multiple preprocessors for use in Rational Developer for System z?
A. Menu Manager
B. CARMA
C. Property Group
D. the extensible error feedback mechanism
Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 3
When creating a “DB2 for z/OS” database connection via the Data perspective, which type of driver does the database manager use to enable interaction with the host database?
A. ODBC driver
B. JDBC driver
C. C++ driver
D. MySQL driver
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 4
IBM 000-051: Practice Exam
When using the IBM?SCLM Developer Toolkits, you can use the SCLM view to work directly with host artifacts such as COBOL or PL/I programs. Which modes does the SCLM view provide?
A. SCLM Developer mode and SCLM Explorer mode
B. SCLM Projects mode and SCLM Explorer mode
C. SCLM Developer mode and SCLM Projects mode
D. SCLM Projects mode and SCLM Group mode
Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 5
You can set varying tracing levels in the Preferences of Rational Developer for System z. What does this Trace level setting allow you to do?
A. set the amount of trace detail generated for each plug-in
B. set the number of trace files stored for each plug-in
C. set the file size of the trace file generated
D. set the frequency of trace
Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 6
To debug a program inside a local project on the z/OS Projects view, the program must be built with the “/DEBUG” link option and which other option?
A. the “ADATA” compiler option
B. the “LIST” compiler option C. the “/TEST” compiler option D. the “/OUT” link option
Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 7
To see the SQL statements (not the generated COBOL source) in the listing while interactively debugging with Debug Tool, what must be used to compile the source program?
A. IBM COBOL compiler on Windows
B. Enterprise COBOL compiler V4.2 or above
IBM 000-051: Practice Exam
C. the DB2 stand-aloneprecompiler
D. the integrated DB2 coprocessor
Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 8
What information does the Remote System Explorer (RSE) user log file “rsecomm.log” contain?
A. Datastore action logging
B. RSE’s reading and writing of PDS member or a sequential data set, and the time stamp of each read and write
C. the RSE server’s handling of commands from the client, and the communication logging of all services relying on RSE
D. standard output (stdout) and standard error output (stderr)
Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 9
When debugging a program on the Debug perspective, users can select one or more variables on the Variables view for inspection. When selected by the users, the selected variables will be added to which view?
A. Debug console
B. Monitors view
C. Modules view
D. Debug view
Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 10
When using single service projects, which method(s) allow(s) users to include comments from the COBOL source code in the generated XSD and WSDL files?
A. top-down method only
B. bottom-up method only
C. command-line batch processor only
D. either the bottom-up method or the command-line batch processor
IBM 000-051: Practice Exam
Answer: D

QUESTION 1
A company has recently incurred financial loss, due to a crashed server that resulted in the loss of critical
data.
Which two vSphere 6.x features should this company implement to protect against losing critical data due
to physical server failure? (Choose two.)

A. Virtual Volumes
B. Enhanced vMotion Capability
C. High Availability
D. Fault Tolerance

Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 2
A company has recently reported a financial loss and has identified that a major part of their expenses is
the maintaining and managing of their virtualized network in the data center.
The company needs a solution that would help cut down on their operating expenditures.
What should the company do to solve this issue?

A. Virtualize the physical servers.
B. Implement a management platform for IT services on vSphere and other hypervisors.
C. Remove all physical servers which are not in use.
D. Increase the number of physical servers.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 3
After configuring Fault Tolerance for critical servers, an administrate notices that protected virtual
machines run slower than usual.
What is the reason for performance reduction of these virtual machines?

A. Hosts have lower bandwidth for Fault Tolerance logging.
B. Virtual machines are usually slow after Fault Tolerance logging.
C. The storage space on the host is low.
D. Virtual machines are running memory intensive applications.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 4
What are two advantages of Network I/O Control? (Choose two.)
A. Monitors the virtual machine storage.
B. Performs load-based teaming.
C. Enforces network bandwidth limit on the virtual distributed switch.
D. Enforces traffic isolation.

Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 5
Which three vSphere 6.x features require a shared storage infrastructure to work properly? (Choose three.)
A. Storage Policy Based Management
B. vSphere Distributed Switch
C. Fault Tolerance
D. Distributed Power Management
E. Dynamic Resource Scheduler

Correct Answer: ABD QUESTION 6
An administrator has finished configuring vSphere HA in their IT environment. Which component does the administrator remove from the infrastructure to save cost?
A. Storage clusters
B. Network stack
C. Dedicated standby hardware
D. Standard switches

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 7
Which statement about standard switches is true?
A. Performs Port Mirroring simultaneously for virtual machines in all port groups
B. Performs Port Mirroring for virtual machines in the same port group.
C. Bridges traffic between virtual machines in other port groups.
D. Bridges traffic internally between virtual machines in the same port group.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 8
Which vSphere 6.x feature would you choose for offsite disaster recovery?
A. Distributed Power Management
B. vSphere HA
C. vSphere Data Protection
D. Dynamic Resource Scheduler

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 9
An IT administrator working in a space agency has just in installed some applications that are critical for a
satellite launch mission.
The administrator wants the applications to work irrespective of any operating system failure.
Which vSphere 6.x feature should the administrator use?

A. vSphere HA
B. vSphere Fault Tolerance
C. vSphere Replication
D. vSphere Data Protection

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 10
Which vSphere 6.x storage service provides array-based operations at the virtual disk level?
A. Local storage
B. Virtual Volumes
C. Virtual SAN

D. Datastores Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 1
Consider the following statement:
$buffer = a string;
Also consider that a file named test.txt contains the following line of text: One line of test text.What is the
output of the following lines of code? $file = “test.txt”;
open (OUT, “<$file”) || (die “cannot open $file: $!”); read(OUT, $buffer, 15, 4);
print $buffer;

A. a strOne line of test
B. a stOne line of tes
C. a strOne line of tes
D. a stOne line of test

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 2
Consider the following lines of code:
@array1 = (“apples”, “oranges”, “pears”, “plums”); foreach (@array1) {print “$_\n”};
What is the result of these lines of code?

A. apples oranges pears plums
B. apples oranges pears plums
C. apples
D. apples oranges pears plums

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 3
Consider the following program code:
%hash = (small => 8oz, medium => 16oz,large => 32oz); @keys = sort(keys(%hash));
for ($i = 0; $i < 3; $i++) { print($hash{$keys[$i]}\n);

}
What is the result of executing this program code?

A. The code will fail at line 1 because a hash cannot contain both numeric and string data.
B. The code will execute without error but will output nothing.
C. The code will output the following: 32oz 16oz 8oz
D. The code will output the following: large medium small
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 4
Which statement will print the capital attribute of the $kansas object?
A. print (“capital”=>$kansas);
B. print {$kansas}=>(capital);
C. print (capital)<={$kansas};
D. print $kansas->{“capital”};

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 5
Consider the following program code:
@array = (10, Masami, 10..13, Niklas);
for ($i = 1; $i < $#array; $i++)
{
print($array[$i] );
}
What is the result of executing this program code?

A. The code will output the following: Masami 10 11 12 13
B. The code will output the following: 10 Masami 10 11 12 13
C. The code will output the following: 10 Masami 11 12 13 Niklas
D. The code will output the following: Masami 10 11 12 13 Niklas

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 6
Consider the following program code:

$x = 10;
LOOP: while ($x < 15)
{
print ($x );
if ($x >= 14 && $x <= 20)
{
$x += 2;
redo LOOP;
}
else
{
$x++;
}
What is the result of executing this program code?

A. The code will output the following: 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19
B. The code will output the following: 10 11 12 13 14 16 18 20 22
C. The code will output the following: 10 11 12 13 14 16 18 20
D. The code will output the following: 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 7
Assuming $a = 2, which of the following evaluates as false?
A. “False”
B. $a
C. $a < 0
D. 1
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 8
Consider the following program code:
$y = 1;
$x = 2;
$z = 3;
do
{
print ($y );

} while ($y eq 2);
do
{
print ($x );
}
until ($x eq 2);
print ($z );
What is the result of executing this program code?

A. The code will output the following: 1 2 3
B. The code will output the following: 3
C. The code will output the following: 2 3
D. The code will output the following: 3 2 1

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 9
Which line of code represents the correct syntax to establish a reference to a database handle?
A. $dbh = DBI::connect(“dbi:mysql:myPhoneBook”);
B. $dbh = DBD:->connect(“dbi::mysql::myPhoneBook”);
C. $dbh = DBD::connect(“mysql:dbi:myPhoneBook”);
D. $dbh = DBI->connect(“dbi:mysql:myPhoneBook”);

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 10
Consider the following program code:
$val = 5;
if ($val++ == 6)
{
print(“True “);
}
else
{
print(“False “);
}
if ($val++ == 6)
{
print(“True “);
}
else

{
print(“False “);
}
What is the output of this code?

A. False False
B. False True
C. True False
D. True True

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 1

Which statement is true about importing data from Microsoft Word?
A. Tables are stripped off.
B. OLE objects are stripped off.
C. Bulleted lists are stripped off.
D. Auto-numbered section numbers are stripped off.
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 2

Which two user types can create a Change Proposal System? (Choose two.)
A. Administrator
B. Project Manager

C. Database Manager
D. a Custom user with the power to create users
Answer: C,D

Version: Demo
1.When can an acknowledgement be created?
A. When others are working on the event.
B. When operations staff makes a request.
C. When an event indicator is visible in the Navigator.
D. When a situation fires and the administrator wants to be first to acknowledge the event. Answer: C
2.Which workspace chart best represents the proportional value of each data point to the whole.?
A. Pie Chart
B. Bar Chart
C. Plot Chart
D. Circular Gauge Chart Answer: A
3.What is the purpose of the connectors in a Common Event Console?
A. The Event Handler is incorporated to pass events.
B. Connect to an event repository for the Common Event Console.
C. Retrieve event data to be displayed in the Common Event Console.
D. Send messages to the Message Log view from the Common Event Console. Answer: C
4.How is it determined if a situation is associated with a Navigator item?
A. Launch the Situation Editor from the toolbar.
B. Right click the Required Navigator Item and select Situations.
C. Select the properties for the Navigator Item and click Situations.
D. Filter the situations for the Navigator item by Associated with Navigator Item. Answer: B
5.Where are attributes to be displayed in a workspace view selected?
A. In the Query tab of each workspace Properties.
B. In the Filters tab of each workspace Properties.
C. In the Query tab of each workspace view’s Properties.
D. In the Filters tab of each workspace view’s Properties. Answer: D
6.When is persistent event monitoring useful in IBM Tivoli Monitoring (ITM)?
A. To count the number of events in ITM.
B. To determine when a situation is needed.
C. To determine whether a condition is consistent or intermittent.
D. To determine when more agents must be deployed across a ITM environment. Answer: C
7.How are new managed systems groups created?
A. They are created when IBM Tivoli Monitoring is installed.
B. They are created in the Manage Tivoli Enterprise Monitoring Services.
C. They are created using the Object Editor under the Managed Systems Group tab.
D. They are created with the Situation Editor within the Tivoli Enterprise Portal client. Answer: C
8.What are the three default user groups provided with Tivoli Enterprise Portal?
A. Administrator, Diagnostic Users, Operator
B. Administrator, Application Users, Operator
C. Application Users, Diagnostic Users, Operator
D. Administrator, Diagnostic Users, Application Users Answer: A
9.What is used to quickly switch from one workspace to another in the Desktop Portal Client?
A. Link
B. Launch
C. Bookmark
D. Graphic Icon Answer: A

Exam Name: IBM Maximo Asset Management V7.1 Implementation
Version: Demo
Question: 1
Where are the majority of Maximo properties defined?
A. logging.properties
B. Logging application
C. mxserver.properties
D. System Properties application

Answer: D
Question: 2
A client has assigned a frequency of every three months and has three jobs to be added to the Job Plan sequence table window. The first Job Plan is for every three months, the second Job Plan is for every six months, and the third Job Plan is for the annual maintenance. What is the sequence to be set for the six month Job Plan?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 6
D. 12

Answer: B
Question: 3
When configuring the inventory reorder options, which statement is correct?
A. Internal requests will only be generated as an approved purchase order.
B. External requests will only be generated as an unapproved purchase order.
C. External or internal requests can be generated as an approved purchase order.
D. External or internal requests will only be generated as an unapproved purchase request.

Answer: C
Question: 4
For which types of records can a purchasing limit be set for a user?
A. PR, PO, receipt, invoice
B. MR, PR, PO, receipt, invoice
C. PR, PO, MR, invoice, contract
D. MR, PR, PO, receipt, invoice, contract
Answer: C
Question: 5
Which statement is correct?
A. The classification of a rotating Asset is determined from the classification belonging to its rotating item. The value of an Asset specification record is always updateable.
B. The classification of a rotating Asset is determined from the classification belonging to its rotating item. The value of an Asset specification record is determined from the
C. The classification of a rotating Asset can be entered by the user and the Asset specification is derived from the classification you enter. The value of an attribute can be entered
D. There is no relationship with the item specification.

E. The classification of a rotating Asset is enterable only if its rotating item has no classification of its own. When the classification has been entered by the user on the Asset, the
F. Otherwise, they are read-only and are determined from the corresponding attribute’s value on the item specification.

Answer: B
Question: 6
At which level is the purchase order (PO) option Require Approval to Convert PR to PO or Contract set?
A. Site
B. Item Set
C. Organization
D. Company Set

Answer: C
Question: 7
What is the most important step in the process of creating Safety Plans?
A. identification of Hazards
B. identification of Precautions
C. associating Safety Plan to Job Plans
D. establishing Lockout/Tagout procedures

Answer: A
Question: 8
When creating a purchase contract, what is the purpose of checking the Change Price on Use field?
A. It specifies that the price in the purchase order (PO) is only an estimated price.
B. It specifies that when a PO is issued against this contract, the price must be changed.
C. It specifies that the price of a given related item can be changed on related POs or purchase requests.
D. It specifies that the price of a given item specified in the Master Contract is reduced or increased, based on market conditions.
Answer: C
Question: 9
Where is Admin mode turned on and off?
A. Organizations
B. Security Groups
C. System Properties
D. Database Configuration
Answer: D
Question: 10
Which two ways can tool costs be recorded? (Choose two.)
A. Tool Report application

B. When a purchase order for tool rental is received
C. As the Work Order is completed and tool costs are calculated
D. As the tools are checked out from a tool room and returned to a tool room
E. As the tools are checked out from a tool room and returned to a tool room, and tool usage is recorded against a Work Order

Answer: B, E