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Microsoft AI-100 exam with answers

AI-100: Designing and Implementing an Azure AI Solution

  • Analyze solution requirements (25-30%)
  • Design AI solutions (40-45%)
  • Implement and monitor AI solutions (25-30%)

https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/learn/certifications/exams/ai-100

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QUESTION 1
You have an intelligent edge solution that processes data and outputs the data to an Azure Cosmos DB account that
uses the SQL API.
You need to ensure that you can perform full text searches of the data.
Which three actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions
to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
Select and Place:

Pass4itsure Microsoft AI-100 exam questions q1

Correct Answer:

Pass4itsure Microsoft AI-100 exam questions q1-2

QUESTION 2
You are designing a solution that will ingest temperature data from IoT devices, calculate the average temperature, and
then take action based on the aggregated data. The solution must meet the following requirements:
Minimize the amount of uploaded data.
Take action based on the aggregated data as quickly as possible.
What should you include in the solution? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

Pass4itsure Microsoft AI-100 exam questions q2

Correct Answer:

Pass4itsure Microsoft AI-100 exam questions q2-2

Box 1: Azure Functions
Azure Function is a (serverless) service to host functions (little piece of code) that can be used for e. g. event driven
applications.
General rule is always difficult since everything depends on your requirement but if you have to analyze a data stream,
you should take a look at Azure Stream Analytics and if you want to implement something like a serverless event driven
or
timer-based application, you should check Azure Function or Logic Apps.
Note: Azure IoT Edge allows you to deploy complex event processing, machine learning, image recognition, and other
high value AI without writing it in-house. Azure services like Azure Functions, Azure Stream Analytics, and Azure
Machine
Learning can all be run on-premises via Azure IoT Edge.
Box 2: An Azure IoT Edge device
Azure IoT Edge moves cloud analytics and custom business logic to devices so that your organization can focus on
business insights instead of data management.
References:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/iot-edge/about-iot-edge

QUESTION 3
Your company recently deployed several hardware devices that contain sensors. The sensors generate new data on an
hourly basis. The data generated is stored on-premises and retained for several years.
During the past two months, the sensors generated 300 GB of data. You plan to move the data to Azure and then
perform advanced analytics on the data. You need to recommend an Azure storage solution for the data.
Which storage solution should you recommend?
A. Azure Queue storage
B. Azure Cosmos DB
C. Azure Blob storage
D. Azure SQL Database
Correct Answer: C
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/architecture/data-guide/technology-choices/data-storage

QUESTION 4
Your company has an Azure subscription that contains an Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) tenant.
Azure AD contains 500 user accounts for your company\\’s employees. Some temporary employees do NOT have user accounts in Azure AD You are designing a storage solution for video files and metadata files.
You plan to deploy an application to perform analysis of the metadata files. You need to recommend an authentication
solution to provide links to the video files. The solution must provide access to each file for only five minutes.
What should you include in the in the recommendation?
A. Secondary Storage Key
B. Primary Storage Key
C. Shared Access Signature
D. Azure Active Directory
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
Your company plans to deploy an AI solution that processes IoT data in real-time. You need to recommend a solution
for the planned deployment that meets the following requirements:
Sustain up to 50 Mbps of events without throttling.
Retain data for 60 days.
What should you recommend?
A. Apache Kafka
B. Microsoft Azure IoT Hub
C. Microsoft Azure Data Factory
D. Microsoft Azure Machine Learning
Correct Answer: A
Apache Kafka is an open-source distributed streaming platform that can be used to build real-time streaming data
pipelines and applications.
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/hdinsight/kafka/apache-kafka-introduction

QUESTION 6
You deploy an infrastructure for a big data workload. You need to run Azure HDInsight and Microsoft Machine Learning
Server. You plan to set the RevoScaleR compute contexts to run rx function calls in parallel.
What are three compute contexts that you can use for Machine Learning Server? Each correct answer presents a
complete solution. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. SQL
B. Spark
C. local parallel
D. HBase
E. local sequential
Correct Answer: ABC
Remote computing is available for specific data sources on selected platforms. The following tables document the
supported combinations.
RxInSqlServer, sqlserver: Remote compute context. Target server is a single database node (SQL Server 2016 R
Services or SQL Server 2017 Machine Learning Services). Computation is parallel, but not distributed.
RxSpark, spark: Remote compute context. Target is a Spark cluster on Hadoop. RxLocalParallel, localpar: Compute
context is often used to enable controlled, distributed computations relying on instructions you provide rather than a builtin
scheduler on Hadoop. You can use compute context for manual distributed computing.
References:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/machine-learning-server/r/concept-what-is-compute-context

QUESTION 7
You are designing an AI solution that will be used to find buildings in aerial pictures.
Users will upload the pictures to an Azure Storage account. A separate JSON document will contain for the pictures.
The solution must meet the following requirements:
Store metadata for the pictures in a data store.
Run a custom vision Azure Machine Learning module to identify the buildings in a picture and the position of the
buildings
Correct Answer:

Pass4itsure Microsoft AI-100 exam questions q7

Box 1: Azure Blob Storage
Containers and blobs support custom metadata, represented as HTTP headers.
Box 2: NV
The NV-series enables powerful remote visualisation workloads and other graphics-intensive applications backed by the
NVIDIA Tesla M60 GPU.
Note: The N-series is a family of Azure Virtual Machines with GPU capabilities. GPUs are ideal for compute and
graphics-intensive workloads, helping customers to fuel innovation through scenarios like high-end remote visualisation,
deep
learning and predictive analytics.
Box 3: F
F-series VMs feature a higher CPU-to-memory ratio. Example use cases include batch processing, web servers,
analytics and gaming.
Incorrect:
A-series VMs have CPU performance and memory configurations best suited for entry level workloads like development
and test.
References:
https://azure.microsoft.com/en-in/pricing/details/virtual-machines/series/

QUESTION 8
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while
others might not have a correct solution. After you answer a question, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result,
these questions will not appear in the review screen.
You have Azure IoT Edge devices that generate streaming data. On the devices, you need to detect anomalies in the
data by using Azure Machine Learning models.
Once an anomaly is detected, the devices must add information about the anomaly to the Azure IoT Hub stream.
Solution: You deploy Azure Functions as an IoT Edge module.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B
Instead use Azure Stream Analytics and REST API.
Note. Available in both the cloud and Azure IoT Edge, Azure Stream Analytics offers built-in machine learning based
anomaly detection capabilities that can be used to monitor the two most commonly occurring anomalies:
temporary and persistent.
Stream Analytics supports user-defined functions, via REST API, that call out to Azure Machine Learning endpoints.
References:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/stream-analytics/stream-analytics-machine-learning- anomaly- detection

QUESTION 9
You are designing a solution that uses drones to monitor remote locations for anomalies. The drones have Azure IoT
Edge devices. The solution must meet the following requirements:
Email a user the picture and location of an anomaly when an anomaly is detected.
Use a video stream to detect anomalies at the location.
Send the pictures and location information to Azure.
Use the latest amount of code possible.
You develop a custom vision Azure Machine Learning module to detect the anomalies.
Which service should you use for each requirement? To answer, drag the appropriate services to the correct
requirements. Each service may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar
between panes or scroll to view content.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Select and Place:

Pass4itsure Microsoft AI-100 exam questions q9

Correct Answer:

Pass4itsure Microsoft AI-100 exam questions q9-2

Explanation/Reference:
Box 1: Azure IOT Edge Example:

Pass4itsure Microsoft AI-100 exam questions q9-3

You configure the Remote Monitoring solution to respond to anomalies detected by an IoT Edge device. IoT Edge
devices let you process telemetry at the edge to reduce the volume of telemetry sent to the solution and to enable faster
responses to events on devices. Box 2: Azure Functions Box 3: Azure Logic Apps
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/iot-accelerators/iot-accelerators-remote-monitoring-edge

QUESTION 10
You design an AI solution that uses an Azure Stream Analytics job to process data from an Azure IoT hub.
The IoT hub receives time series data from thousands of IoT devices at a factory. The job outputs millions of messages
per second. Different applications consume the messages as they are available. The messages must be purged.
You need to choose an output type for the job.
What is the best output type to achieve the goal? More than one answer choice may achieve the goal.
A. Azure Event Hubs
B. Azure SQL Database
C. Azure Blob storage
D. Azure Cosmos DB
Correct Answer: D
Stream Analytics can target Azure Cosmos DB for JSON output, enabling data archiving and low- latency queries on
unstructured JSON data.
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/stream-analytics/stream-analytics-documentdb-output

QUESTION 11
Your company develops an AI application that is orchestrated by using Kubernetes. You need to deploy the application.
Which three actions should you perform? Each correct answer presents part of the solution. NOTE: Each correct
selection is worth one point.
A. Create a Kubernetes cluster.
B. Create an Azure Container Registry instance.
C. Create a container image file.
D. Create a Web App for Containers.
E. Create an Azure container instance.
Correct Answer: CDE

QUESTION 12
You have a solution that runs on a five-node Azure Kubernetes Service (AKS) cluster. The cluster uses an Nseries
virtual machine.
An Azure Batch AI process runs once a day and rarely on demand. You need to recommend a solution to maintain the
cluster configuration when the cluster is not in use.
The solution must not incur any compute costs.
What should you include in the recommendation?
A. Downscale the cluster to one node
B. Downscale the cluster to zero nodes
C. Delete the cluster
Correct Answer: A
An AKS cluster has one or more nodes.
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/aks/concepts-clusters-workloads

QUESTION 13
You have a database that contains sales data.
You plan to process the sales data by using two data streams named Stream1 and Stream2. Stream1 will be used for
purchase order data. Stream2 will be used for reference data.
The reference data is stored in CSV files.
You need to recommend an ingestion solution for each data stream.
What two solutions should you recommend? Each correct answer is a complete solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. an Azure event hub for Stream1 and Azure Blob storage for Stream2
B. Azure Blob storage for Stream1 and Stream2
C. an Azure event hub for Stream1 and Stream2
D. Azure Blob storage for Stream1 and Azure Cosmos DB for Stream2
E. Azure Cosmos DB for Stream1 and an Azure event hub for Stream2
Correct Answer: AB
Stream1 – Azure Event Stream2 – Blob Storage Azure Event Hubs is a highly scalable data streaming platform and
event ingestion service, capable of receiving and processing millions of events per second. Event Hubs can process
and store events, data, or telemetry produced by distributed software and devices. Data sent to an event hub can be
transformed and stored using any real-time analytics provider or batching/storage adapters. Event Hubs provides
publishsubscribe capabilities with low latency at massive scale, which makes it appropriate for big data scenarios.
Stream1, Stream2 – Blob Storage Stream Analytics has first-class integration with Azure data streams as inputs from
three kinds of resources: Azure Event Hubs Azure IoT Hub Azure Blob storage These input resources can live in the
same Azure subscription as your Stream Analytics job or a different subscription.
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/architecture/data-guide/technology-choices/real-time- ingestion

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Where can I get Implementing a Hybrid and Secure Messaging Platform exam dumps? How hard is it? The method is easy to pass! You need to do two things:1.Exam Practice Test.2.Pass4itsure Microsoft expert.Hurry up Click: https://www.pass4itsure.com/ms-201.html Study hard to pass the exam easily!Share some free MS-201 practice test questions for your reference.

New changes: Implementing a Hybrid and Secure Messaging Platform

New changes ms-201

The content of this exam was updated on November 25, 2019.

  • Plan and implement a hybrid configuration and migration (35-40%)
  • Secure the messaging environment (40-45%)
  • Manage organizational settings (15-20%)

See details: https://query.prod.cms.rt.microsoft.com/cms/api/am/binary/RE3VUk9

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QUESTION 1
Case Study : Litware,Inc.
Case Study
Overview
Litware, Inc. is food service supplier in Europe.
PhysicalLocations
Litware has a main office in Paris and branch offices in Munich, London, Brussels, Vienna, and Rome.
Each branch office has its own compliance officer.
ExistingEnvironment
The network contains one Active Directory forest named litware.com. The forest contains a single Active Directory
domain. Each office is configured as an Active Directory site. Each branch office is represented organizational unit (OU)
in an
OU named Offices in Active Directory.
Each branch office has a special Administrators group that contains the delegated administrators for that office. Each
Administrators group is named based on its location in a format of RegionalAdmins_Brussels,
RegionalAdmins_Munich,
RegionalAdmins_London, RegionalAdmins_Vienna and RegionalAdmins_Rome.
NetworkInfrastructure
Each office contains two domain controllers from the litware.com domain. All the domain controllers are configured as
DNS servers. All client computers connect only to the DNS servers in their respective office.
All offices have a high-speed connection to the Internet. Each office connects to the Internet by using a VPN appliance.
Each office has the following servers and client computers:
One reverse proxy appliance
One Microsoft Exchange Server 2019 server
One Windows Server Update Services (WSUS) server
Computers that run Windows 10 and have Microsoft Office 2019 installed. The office in Brussels contains an Exchange
Server 2016 server that has the Unified Messaging role installed and hosted voicemail configured.
Mailboxes are hosted on all the Exchange servers. Public folders are hosted only on an Exchange server in the main
office. Litware uses a disjoint namespace to access the servers. Each user has an archive mailbox. Archiving is
configured
to use the default settings. Exchange services are published to the internet by using a reverse proxy in each office. A full
backup of Exchange is performed nightly. Incremental backups occur every six hours. All the users in the transport department connect to network resources by using a connection in the main office.
Requirements
Planned Changes
Litware plans to implement the following changes:
Implement calendar sharing to partner companies.
Implement a solution that prevents malware from being delivered to end users. Use personal archives to eliminate the
need for PST files. Ensure the Brussels office and move all the users in the Brussels office to the main office. All the
mailboxes in the Brussels office will be moved to a server in the main office. Implement a compliance solution to ensure
that items deleted from public folders are retained. If an item in a public folder is modified, the original version of the
item
must be available.
TechnicalRequirements
Litware identifies the following technical requirements:
Minimize administrative effort.
Use the principle of least privilege.
Ensure that junk email is deleted automatically after 14 days. Ensure that sent items and deleted items are deleted
automatically after 30 days. Ensure that users in the customer service department can open multiple mailboxes. Ensure
that
all the former Brussels office users always maintain access to hosted voicemail. Ensure that the staff in the IT
department can manage the email environment without and-user involvement.
Ensure that users cannot recover email messages that are deleted from the Junk Email folder and the Deleted Items.
Ensure that if an email message has a spam confidence level (SCL) of 3 or higher, the message automatically moves to
the Junk Email folder.
Problemstatements
The transport department users report that accessing a public folder named TransportPF is sometimes very slow.
Users in the customer service department report that Microsoft Outlook sometimes hangs when many mailboxes are
open.
You need to configure the required objects for the branch office administrators.
What should you create for each administrator?
A. a management role assignment policy and a management role group
B. a management role scope and a management role assignment
C. a management role scope and a management role group
D. a management role and a management role assignment policy
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2
You have a Microsoft Exchange Server 2019 organization.
Users access their email by using Microsoft Outlook 2019.
The users report that when a mailbox is provisioned for a new user, there is a delay of many hours before the new user
appears in the global address list (GAL). From Outlook on the web, the users can see the new user in the GAL
immediately.
You need to reduce the amount of time it takes for new users to appear in the GAL in Outlook 2019.
What should you do?
A. Modify the default email address policy.
B. Create as address book policy (ABP).
C. Create a scheduled task that runs the Update-GlobalAddressList cmdlet.
D. Modify the offline address (OAB) schedule.
Correct Answer: D
References: https://www.howto-outlook.com/howto/oabupdate.htm#syncschedules

QUESTION 3
You have a Microsoft Exchange Server 2019 organization.
You run the following commands.
New-Management-Scope –Name “VIP Mailboxes” –RecipientRoot “Contoso.com/Executives”
–RecipientRestrictionFilter (RecepientType –eq “UserMailbox”)
New-ManagementRoleAssignment –SecurityGroup “VIP Admins” –Role “Mail Recipients” –CustomRecipientWriteScope
“VIP Mailboxes”
You have a user named Admin1.
You need to ensure that Admin1 can manage the mailboxes of users in the Executives organizational unit (OU) only.
What should you do?
A. Modify the membership of VIP Admins.
B. Create a custom role group
C. Add Admin1 to the Recipient Management role group.
D. Move Admin1 to the Executives OU.
Correct Answer: C
References: https://social.technet.microsoft.com/Forums/exchange/en-US/b316a841-c39d-483a-ac8e-64d5904c42e6/how-to-limit-recipient-management-rights-to-users-in-a-ou-in-exchange-2010-sp1?forum=exchangesvradminlegacy

QUESTION 4
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while
others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this scenario, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear in the review screen.
You have a Microsoft Exchange Server 2019 organization.
You discover that users rarely delete items from their Sent Items folder and their Deleted Items folder.
You need to recommend a solution to automatically reduce the size on the primary mailbox of each user.
Solution: You recommend creating an archive mailbox for each user and configuring a retention policy that moves items
to the archive mailbox.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
DRAG DROP
Your company has 5,000 Microsoft Exchange Server 2019 mailboxes. The company is implementing a new application
named HR1 that integrates with Exchange. HR1 runs on a server named HRSERVER.
You create a new mailbox named HRService for the service account of HR1. You need to ensure that HR1 can sync
contacts from all the mailboxes in the Exchange organization concurrently by using an Exchange ActiveSync
connection.
How should you complete the PowerShell script? To answer, drag the appropriate values to the correct targets. Each
value may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to
view
content.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Select and Place:

Pass4itsure MS-201 exam questions-q5

Correct Answer:

Pass4itsure MS-201 exam questions-q5-2

References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/powershell/module/exchange/server-health-andperformance/newthrottlingpolicy?view=exchange-ps https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/powershell/module/exchange/server-healthandperformance/setthrottlingpolicyassociation?view=exchange-ps

QUESTION 6
Case Study : Litware,Inc.
Case Study
Overview
Litware, Inc. is food service supplier in Europe.
PhysicalLocations
Litware has a main office in Paris and branch offices in Munich, London, Brussels, Vienna, and Rome.
Each branch office has its own compliance officer.
ExistingEnvironment
The network contains one Active Directory forest named litware.com. The forest contains a single Active Directory
domain. Each office is configured as an Active Directory site. Each branch office is represented organizational unit (OU)
in an
OU named Offices in Active Directory.
Each branch office has a special Administrators group that contains the delegated administrators for that office. Each
Administrators group is named based on its location in a format of RegionalAdmins_Brussels,
RegionalAdmins_Munich,
RegionalAdmins_London, RegionalAdmins_Vienna and RegionalAdmins_Rome.
NetworkInfrastructure
Each office contains two domain controllers from the litware.com domain. All the domain controllers are configured as
DNS servers. All client computers connect only to the DNS servers in their respective office.
All offices have a high-speed connection to the Internet. Each office connects to the Internet by using a VPN appliance.
Each office has the following servers and client computers:
One reverse proxy appliance
One Microsoft Exchange Server 2019 server
One Windows Server Update Services (WSUS) server
Computers that run Windows 10 and have Microsoft Office 2019 installed. The office in Brussels contains an Exchange
Server 2016 server that has the Unified Messaging role installed and hosted voicemail configured.
Mailboxes are hosted on all the Exchange servers. Public folders are hosted only on an Exchange server in the main
office. Litware uses a disjoint namespace to access the servers. Each user has an archive mailbox. Archiving is
configured
to use the default settings. Exchange services are published to the internet by using a reverse proxy in each office. A full
backup of Exchange is performed nightly. Incremental backups occur every six hours. All the users in the transport
department connect to network resources by using a connection in the main office.
Requirements
Planned Changes
Litware plans to implement the following changes:
Implement calendar sharing to partner companies.
Implement a solution that prevents malware from being delivered to end users. Use personal archives to eliminate the
need for PST files. Ensure the Brussels office and move all the users in the Brussels office to the main office. All the
mailboxes in the Brussels office will be moved to a server in the main office. Implement a compliance solution to ensure
that items deleted from public folders are retained. If an item in a public folder is modified, the original version of the
item
must be available.
TechnicalRequirements
Litware identifies the following technical requirements:
Minimize administrative effort.
Use the principle of least privilege.
Ensure that junk email is deleted automatically after 14 days. Ensure that sent items and deleted items are deleted
automatically after 30 days. Ensure that users in the customer service department can open multiple mailboxes. Ensure
that
all the former Brussels office users always maintain access to hosted voicemail. Ensure that the staff in the IT
department can manage the email environment without and-user involvement.
Ensure that users cannot recover email messages that are deleted from the Junk Email folder and the Deleted Items.
Ensure that if an email message has a spam confidence level (SCL) of 3 or higher, the message automatically moves to
the Junk Email folder.
Problemstatements
The transport department users report that accessing a public folder named TransportPF is sometimes very slow.
Users in the customer service department report that Microsoft Outlook sometimes hangs when many mailboxes are
open.
You need to resolve the issue for the customer service department users.
What should you modify?
A. a transport rule
B. the Send connector to the Internet
C. the tarpit interval
D. the global throttling policy
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7
You have a Microsoft Exchange Server 2019 organization.
You need to ensure that a user named User1 can prevent mailbox content from being deleted if the content contains the
words Fabrikam and Confidential.
What should you do?
A. Add User1 to the Organization Management management role group.
B. Add User1 to the Records Management management role group.
C. Assign the mailbox Search and Mailbox Import Export
D. Assign the Mailbox Search and Legal Hold management roles to User1.
Correct Answer: D
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/exchange/policy-and-compliance/holds/holds?view=exchserver-2019

QUESTION 8
Your company has a Microsoft Exchange Server 2019 server. The company has five departments. The server contains
one mailbox database for each department. Each mailbox database contains all the users in its respective department.
The databases contain 1,000 users.
You create an address book policy (ABP) for each department.
You need to assign the ABPs to the users.
Which cmdlet should you run?
A. Set-Mailbox
B. Set-AddressBookPolicy
C. Set-AddressList
D. Set-MailboxDatabase
Correct Answer: A
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/exchange/address-books/address-book-policies/assign-an-address-bookpolicy-to-mail-users

QUESTION 9
Case Study : Litware,Inc.
Case Study
Overview
Litware, Inc. is food service supplier in Europe.
PhysicalLocations
Litware has a main office in Paris and branch offices in Munich, London, Brussels, Vienna, and Rome.
Each branch office has its own compliance officer.
ExistingEnvironment
The network contains one Active Directory forest named litware.com. The forest contains a single Active Directory
domain. Each office is configured as an Active Directory site. Each branch office is represented organizational unit (OU)
in an
OU named Offices in Active Directory.
Each branch office has a special Administrators group that contains the delegated administrators for that office. Each
Administrators group is named based on its location in a format of RegionalAdmins_Brussels,
RegionalAdmins_Munich,
RegionalAdmins_London, RegionalAdmins_Vienna and RegionalAdmins_Rome.
NetworkInfrastructure
Each office contains two domain controllers from the litware.com domain. All the domain controllers are configured as
DNS servers. All client computers connect only to the DNS servers in their respective office.
All offices have a high-speed connection to the Internet. Each office connects to the Internet by using a VPN appliance.
Each office has the following servers and client computers:
One reverse proxy appliance
One Microsoft Exchange Server 2019 server
One Windows Server Update Services (WSUS) server
Computers that run Windows 10 and have Microsoft Office 2019 installed. The office in Brussels contains an Exchange
Server 2016 server that has the Unified Messaging role installed and hosted voicemail configured.
Mailboxes are hosted on all the Exchange servers. Public folders are hosted only on an Exchange server in the main
office. Litware uses a disjoint namespace to access the servers. Each user has an archive mailbox. Archiving is
configured
to use the default settings. Exchange services are published to the internet by using a reverse proxy in each office. A full
backup of Exchange is performed nightly. Incremental backups occur every six hours. All the users in the transport
department connect to network resources by using a connection in the main office.
Requirements
Planned Changes
Litware plans to implement the following changes:
Implement calendar sharing to partner companies.
Implement a solution that prevents malware from being delivered to end users. Use personal archives to eliminate the
need for PST files. Ensure the Brussels office and move all the users in the Brussels office to the main office. All the
mailboxes in the Brussels office will be moved to a server in the main office. Implement a compliance solution to ensure
that items deleted from public folders are retained. If an item in a public folder is modified, the original version of the
item
must be available.
TechnicalRequirements
Litware identifies the following technical requirements:
Minimize administrative effort.
Use the principle of least privilege.
Ensure that junk email is deleted automatically after 14 days. Ensure that sent items and deleted items are deleted
automatically after 30 days. Ensure that users in the customer service department can open multiple mailboxes. Ensure
that
all the former Brussels office users always maintain access to hosted voicemail. Ensure that the staff in the IT
department can manage the email environment without and-user involvement.
Ensure that users cannot recover email messages that are deleted from the Junk Email folder and the Deleted Items.
Ensure that if an email message has a spam confidence level (SCL) of 3 or higher, the message automatically moves to
the Junk Email folder.
Problemstatements
The transport department users report that accessing a public folder named TransportPF is sometimes very slow.
Users in the customer service department report that Microsoft Outlook sometimes hangs when many mailboxes are
open.
You need to recommend a solution to retain the items in the public folders. The solution must support the planned
changes.
What should you recommend?
A. Create an Outlook rule that forwards all the items in each public folder to a compliance mailbox.
B. Place an In-Place Hold on all the mailboxes of the public folders.
C. Increase the frequency of the backups.
D. Modify the public folder permissions.
Correct Answer: B
References:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/exchange/security-and-compliance/in-place-and- litigationholds#placingpublic-folderson-hold

QUESTION 10
HOTSPOT
You have a Microsoft Exchange Server 2019 organization. You have a universal security group named group1 that
contains three users named Admin1, Admin2, and Admin3.
You plan to make Admin1, Admin2, and Admin3 responsible for managing some of the Exchange objects in the
organization.
You run the following commands.

Pass4itsure MS-201 exam questions-q10

For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No. NOTE: Each correct
selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

Pass4itsure MS-201 exam questions-q10-2

Correct Answer:

Pass4itsure MS-201 exam questions-q10-3

References:
https://practical365.com/exchange-server/exchange-server-role-based-access-control-in-action/
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/exchange/built-in-management-roles-exchange-2013-help

QUESTION 11
You use an IMAP-based email system.
You purchase a Microsoft 365 subscription.
In Exchange Online, you create mailboxes for all users.
You need to migrate all the email accounts of all the users to Exchange Online.
Which three components should you create? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. an accepted domain
B. a remote domain
C. a migration endpoint
D. an inbound connector
E. a CSV migration file
Correct Answer: ACE

QUESTION 12
DRAG DROP
You have a Microsoft Exchange Server 2019 organization.
Two Edge Transport servers provide email hygiene.
You configure anti-spam filters to redirect email messages identified as spam to a quarantine mailbox.
You open the quarantine mailbox in Microsoft Outlook 2019 and discover that the from field of all quarantined messages
shows the postmaster address.
You need to ensure that the quarantined messages can be sorted by using the original sender address.
Which three actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions
to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
Select and Place:

Pass4itsure MS-201 exam questions-q12

Correct Answer:

Pass4itsure MS-201 exam questions-q12-2

Pass4itsure MS-201 exam questions-q12-3

References:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/exchange/antispam-and-antimalware/antispam-protection/showquarantinedmessageoriginal-senders?view=exchserver-2019

QUESTION 13
HOTSPOT
You have a Microsoft Exchange Server 2019 organization. You run the commands shown in the following exhibit.

Pass4itsure MS-201 exam questions-q13

Use the drop-down menus to select the answer choice that completes each statement based on the information
presented in the graphic. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

Pass4itsure MS-201 exam questions-q13-2

Correct Answer:

Pass4itsure MS-201 exam questions-q13-3

References:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/powershell/module/exchange/server-health-andperformance/newthrottlingpolicy?view=exchange-ps

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400-101 CCIE Routing and Switching – Cisco: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/training-events/training-certifications/exams/current-list/ccie-routing-switching.html

Cisco CCIE 400-101 Online Exam Practice Questions

QUESTION 1
Which protocol does a host use to request IPv6 multicast traffic?
A. MLD
B. SSM
C. IGMPv3
D. PIM6
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 2
Refer to the exhibit. After you applied this configuration to R1 and R2, they failed to form an IS-IS adjacency.
Which reason for the problem is most likely true?pass4itsure 400-101 exam question q2

A. The network statements are mismatched
B. The IP subnets are mismatched
C. The bandwidth is mismatched
D. The MTUs are mismatched
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 3
Which two statements about enhanced object tracking are true? (Choose two)
A. It supports stateful switchover with HSRP
B. Tracking objects are identified with unique numbers.
C. It can track over 200 objects at once
D. With HSRP, it can track only the line-protocol state
E. It supports stateful switchover with GLBP
Correct Answer: BC

 

QUESTION 4
An employee at a targeted company downloads an IoT software update from a vendors site that has been compromised
with a trojaned software update.
What kind of threat is this considered as?
A. Sophisticated actors threat
B. Social engineering
C. Inside threat
D. Outside threat
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 5
Which two statements about the Cisco Express Forwarding glean adjacency type are true? (Choose two)
A. Packets destined for the interface can be dropped, which provide a form of access filtering.
B. The adjacency database is used to gather specific prefixes when packets are destined to a specific host.
C. The router FIB table maintains a prefix for the subnet instead of individual hosts.
D. Packets destined for the interface are discarded and the prefix is checked.
E. Packets destined for the interface are discarded and the prefix check is skipped
Correct Answer: BC

 

QUESTION 6
Which tool or program is a version control system?
A. Logstash
B. Jenkins
C. SmartC
D. Git
E. Travis CI
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 7
What is the correct order of the VSS initialization process?
Drag and drop the actions on the left to the correct initialization step on the right.
Select and Place:pass4itsure 400-101 exam question q7

 

QUESTION 8
Which configuration command identifies a dynamic IPsec VTI?
A. interface virtual-template number
B. tunnel mode ipsec ipv4
C. crypto isakamp profile profile-name
D. tunnel protection ipsec profile profile-name
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 9
Which two statements about the passive-interface command issued under EIGRP are true? (Choose two)
A. It allows incoming routing updates to be received but disables outgoing routing updates
B. It configures the device to advertise only connected interfaces to neighbours with EIGRP
C. It configures the interface to use unicast messages to establish EIGRP neighbour relationships
D. If it is enabled globally under EIGRP on the device, it can be disabled for individual interfaces to allow those
interfaces to remain active
E. It disables processing of incoming hello messages
Correct Answer: DE

 

QUESTION 10
Which two statements about OSPFv3 are true? (Choose two.)
A. It supports unicast address families for IPv4 and IPv6.
B. It supports unicast address families for IPv6 only.
C. It supports only one address family per instance.
D. It supports the use of a cluster ID for loop prevention.
E. It supports multicast address families for IPv4 and IPv6.
F. It supports multicast address families for IPv6 only.
Correct Answer: AC

 

QUESTION 11
Which two actions can you take to prevent routes from becoming stuck in active? (Choose two)
A. Manually increase the EIGRP metrics on interfaces connected to successors.
B. Use port channeling to aggregate multiple EIGRP interfaces
C. Increase the time a router waits before it declares routes stuck in active
D. Increase the EIGRP K values on low-bandwidth interfaces
E. Increase the Hello timers on all EIGRP interfaces
F. Design the network so that it uses the lowest possible number of queries
Correct Answer: CF

 

QUESTION 12
Refer to the exhibit. Which option describes the purpose of the as-set argument of the aggregate-address command?pass4itsure 400-101 exam question q12

A. It provides an AS path in the aggregate advertisement that contains only the local AS number
B. It provides an AS path in the aggregate advertisement that includes the AS numbers of the component members
C. It provides a predefined AS path in the aggregate advertisement that is used to indicate an aggregate prefix
D. It provides a list of AS numbers to which the aggregate is advertised
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 13
Refer to the exhibit. Which two effects of this configuration are true? (Choose two)pass4itsure 400-101 exam question q13

A. The priority queue is disabled
B. Queue 1 is served twice as fast as queue 2
C. Queue 1 is a priority queue that is allocated 2/3 of the available bandwidth
D. Queue 1 is a priority queue that is allocated 1/3 of the available bandwidth
E. Queue 1 is allocated 4 percent of the available bandwidth and queue 2 is allocated 2 percent of the available
bandwidth
F. Queue 2 is served twice as fast as queue 1
Correct Answer: AB

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Exam 70-743: Upgrading Your Skills to MCSA: Windows Server 2016: https://www.microsoft.com/en-us/learning/exam-70-743.aspx

Candidates for this exam are IT professionals who implement the Windows Server 2016 core infrastructure services.

Candidates have already earned an MCSA: Windows Server 2008 or MCSA: Windows Server 2012 R2 certification. This exam covers key aspects of installation, storage, compute, networking, and identity functionality available in Windows Server 2016.

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This exam measures your ability to accomplish the technical tasks listed below.

  • Install Windows Servers in Host and Compute Environments
  • Implement Storage Solutions
  • Implement Hyper-V
  • Implement Windows Containers
  • Implement High Availability
  • Implement Domain Name System (DNS)
  • Implement Network Connectivity and Remote Access Solutions
  • Implement an Advanced Network Infrastructure
  • Install and Configure Active Directory Domain Services (AD DS)
  • Implement identity federation and access solutions

The latest Microsoft MCSA 70-743 exam practice questions test your strength

QUESTION 1
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains two servers named
Server1 and Server2 that run Windows Server 2016.
Server1 has Microsoft System Center 2016 Virtual Machine Manager (VMM) installed.
Server2 has IP Address Management (IPAM) installed.
You create a domain user named User1.
You need to integrate IPAM and VMM. VMM must use the account of User1 to manage IPAM. The solution must use
the principle of least privilege.
What should you do on each server? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
Hot Area:pass4itsure 70-743 exam question q1

Correct Answer:

pass4itsure 70-743 exam question q1-1

 

QUESTION 2
You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2016.
The disk configuration for Server1 is shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.) You add Server1 to a cluster.
You need to ensure that you can use Disk 1 for Storage Spaces Direct.
What should you do first?
A. Set Disk 1 to offline.
B. Convert Partition (E:) to ReFS.
C. Convert Disk 1 to a dynamic disk.
D. Delete Partition (E:).
Correct Answer: D
The disks used in Storage Spaces Direct cannot contain existing partitions.

 

QUESTION 3
You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2016.
Server1 has two network cards. One network card connects to your internal network and the other network card
connects to the Internet.
You plan to use Server1 to provide Internet connectivity for client computers on the internal network.
You need to configure Server1 as a network address translation (NAT) server.
Which server role or role service should you install on Server1 first?
A. Network Controller
B. Web Application Proxy
C. Routing
D. DirectAccess and VPN (RAS)
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 4
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while
others might not have a correct solution.
After your answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear in the review screen.
Your network contains an Active Directory forest named contoso.com.
You need to identify which server is the schema master.
Solution: From Windows PowerShell, you run Get-ADDomainController -Discover -Service 2.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B
References: https://blogs.technet.microsoft.com/mempson/2007/11/08/how-to-find-out-who-has-your-fsmo-roles/

 

QUESTION 5
You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2016 server.
Server1 has the Docker daemon configured and has a container named Container1.
You need to mount the folder C:\Folder1 on Server1 to C:\ContainerFolder in Container1.
Which command should you run? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
Hot Area:pass4itsure 70-743 exam question q5

 

QUESTION 6
You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2016. Server1 has the Web Application Proxy role service
installed.
You need to publish Microsoft Exchange Server 2013 services through the Web Application Proxy. The solution must
use preauthentication whenever possible.
How should you configure the preauthentication method for each service? To answer, select the appropriate options in
the answer area.
Hot Area:pass4itsure 70-743 exam question q6

Correct Answer:

pass4itsure 70-743 exam question q6-1

 

QUESTION 7
You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2016. Server1 is located on the perimeter network, and
only inbound TCP port 443 is allowed to connect Server1 from the Internet.
You install the Remote Access server role on Server1.
You need to configure Server1 to accept VPN connections over port 443.
Which VPN protocol should you use?
A. PPTP
B. L2TP
C. SSTP
D. lKEv2
Correct Answer: C
References: https://www.thomasmaurer.ch/2016/10/how-to-install-vpn-on-windows-server-2016/
https://www.lukasberan.com/2016/12/how-to-configure-sstp-vpn-on-windows-server/

 

QUESTION 8
You have a DHCP server named Server1.
Server1 has an IPv4 scope that contains 100 addresses for a subnet named Subnet! Subnet1 provides guest access to
the Internet. There are never more than 20 client computers on Subnet1 simultaneously; however, the computers that
connect to Subnet 1 are rarely the same computers.
You discover that some client computers are unable to access the network. The computers that have the issue have IP
addresses in the range of 169.254.0.0/16.
You need to ensure that all of the computers can connect successfully to the network to access the Internet.
What should you do?
A. Create a new scope that uses IP addresses in the range of 169.254.0.0/16.
B. Modify the scope options.
C. Modify the lease duration.
D. Configure Network Access Protection (NAP) integration on the existing scope.
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 9
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that use the same or similar answer choices. An answer choice may
be correct for more than one question in the series. Each question is independent of the other questions in this series.
Information and details provided in a question apply only to that question.
You have an Active Directory domain that contains two Hyper-V servers named Server1 and Server2. Server1 has
Windows Server 2016 installed. Server2 has Windows Server 2012 R2 installed.
Each Hyper-V server has three network cards. Each network card is connected to a different subnet. Server1 contains a
dedicated migration network.
Server2 contains a virtual machine named VM5.
You plan to perform a live migration of VM5 to Server1.
You need to ensure that Server1 uses all available networks to perform the live migration of VM5.
What should you run?
A. the Mount-VHD cmdlet
B. the Diskpart command
C. the Set-VHD cmdlet
D. the Set-VM cmdlet
E. the Set-VMHost cmdlet
F. the Set-VMProcessorcmdlet
G. the Install-WindowsFeature cmdlet
H. the Optimize-VHD cmdlet
Correct Answer: E
Set-VMHost -UseAnyNetworkForMigration
Specifies how networks are selected for incoming live migration traffic. If set to $True, any available network on the host
can be used for this traffic. If set to $False, incoming live migration traffic is transmitted only on the networks specified in
the MigrationNetworks property of the host. References: https://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/hh848524.aspx

 

QUESTION 10
Active Directory Recycle Bin is enabled. You discover that a support technician accidentally removed 100 users from an
Active Directory group named Group1 an hour ago. You need to restore the membership of Group1. What should you
do?
A. Perform tombstone reanimation.
B. Export and import data by using Dsamain.
C. Perform a non-authoritative restore.
D. Recover the items by using Active Directory Recycle Bin.
Correct Answer: B
A group has been modified. Nothing has been deleted. Therefore, answers A and D will not work. Answer C would work
if it was an authoritative restore, but not a non-authoritative restore. The solution is to recover an earlier copy of the
group from a backup or active directory snapshot by using DSadmain.

 

QUESTION 11
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a DNS server named
Server1. All client computers run Windows 10. On Server1, you have the following zone configurationpass4itsure 70-743 exam question q11

You need to prevent Server1 from resolving queries from DNS clients located on Subnet4.
Server1 must resolve queries from all other DNS clients.
Solution: From Windows PowerShell on Server1, you run the Export-DnsServerDnsSecPublicKey cmdlet.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 12
You have a Hyper-V host named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2016. Server 1 has a virtual switch Switch1.
Server1 hosts the virtual machines configured as shown in the following table.pass4itsure 70-743 exam question q12

Windows firewall on VM1 and VM2 is configured to allow ICMP traffic. VM1 and VM2 connect to Switch1.
You fail to ping VM1 from VM2.
You need to view the VirtualSubnetid to which VM1 connects.
Which cmdlet should you run on Server1.
Hot Area:

pass4itsure 70-743 exam question q12-1

Correct Answer:

pass4itsure 70-743 exam question q12-2

 

QUESTION 13
You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2016. Server1 is a Hyper-V host that hosts a virtual
machine named VM1.
Server1 has three network adapter cards that are connected to virtual switches named vSwitch1, vSwitch2 and
vSwitch3.
You configure NIC Teaming on VM1 as shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.) You need to ensure that VM1 will
retain access to the network if a physical network adapter card fails on Server1.
What should you do?
A. From the properties of the NIC team on VM1, change the load balancing of the NIC team.
B. From Hyper-V Manager on Server1, modify the settings of VM1.
C. From Windows PowerShell on Server1, run the Set-VmNetworkAdapterFailoverConfigurationcmdlet.
D. From Hyper-V Manager on Server1, modify the properties of vSwitch1.
Correct Answer: B
You can configure NIC teaming in the Guest OS; however, before NIC teaming will work in a virtual machine, you need
to enable NIC teaming in the Advanced Features section of the VM settings.

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Latest effective Cisco 300-550 Exam Practice Tests

QUESTION 1
Which statement about an agentless configuration management system is true?
A. It requires managed hosts to have an interpreter for a high-level language such as Python or Ruby.
B. It uses existing protocols to interface with the managed host.
C. It uses compiled languages as the basis of the domain-specific language to interface with managed
hosts.
D. It requires managed hosts to connect to a centralized host to receive updated configurations.
E. It requires a software package to be installed on the managed host.
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 2
Which two protocols can the Cisco ARC I M use to communicate with supported platforms? (Choose two.)
A. OpFlex
B. SNMPv2c
C. SSH
D. HTTPS
E. RPC
F. OpenFlow
Correct Answer: AB

 

QUESTION 3
You are developing a YANG data model to represent the functionality of a new network application. Which
two YANG statements do you use la organize the model into a hierarchy? (Choose two.)
A. module
B. grouping
C. submodule
D. augment
E. container
Correct Answer: BE

 

QUESTION 4
Which two queries are supported to access objects within the ACI Management Information Tree?
(Choose two.)
A. DN query
B. fabric query
C. RN query
D. class query
E. property query
Correct Answer: AB

 

QUESTION 5
How many Cisco APCs must fail, in order for a customer running an ACI fabric with a cluster of five APICs
to experience data loss?
A. 4
B. 3
C. 1D. 2
E. 5
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 6
Which statement about Cisco ASA REST API calls is true?
A. GET and POST methods are supported, whereas PUT is not supported.
B. Calls block other security management protocols, such as Cisco ASDM.
C. Changes to the configuration are automatically written to the startup configuration.
D. The Cisco ASA REST agent must first be enabled on the CLI.
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 7
Which two security techniques are important to implement a secured management network that is used to
access the management plane of a Cisco ARC cluster? (Choose two.)
A. VRFs
B. NAT
C. ipfilter
D. ACLs
E. route maps
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 8
An organization leverages a multivendor network to sell connectivity services using Layer 3 VPN and
VPLS. Where possible, the organization wants to use common APIs across vendors, in order to automate
the configuration of network services.
Which technology should the organization consider for the southbound interface?
A. BGP-LS
B. OpFlex
C. OpenFlow
D. NETCONF
E. PCEP
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 9
Which two data representation formats are used in RESTCONF? (Choose two.)
A. HTML
B. YAML
C. XML
D. GML
E. ASN.1
F. JSON
Correct Answer: AB

 

QUESTION 10
Which two statements about YANG are true? (Choose two.)
A. YANG was conceptualized by Jerry Yang, former CEO of Yahoo.B. YANG provides security beyond SSL 3.0.
C. YANG can be executed similarly to a Python script.
D. YANG is used by NETCONF to define objects and data in requests and replies.
E. YANG represents configuration, operational, and RPC data.
Correct Answer: DE

 

QUESTION 11
Which concept should you use when trying to improve a frequently repealed and predictable manual
process?
A. scalability
B. lifecycle management
C. deployment
D. orchestration
E. automation
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 12
Which command tests a REST API?
A. nc
B. tcpdump
C. curl
D. telnet
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 13
Which two tools help you to program against Nexus APIs? (Choose two.)
A. Jenkins
B. Cisco Nexus 1000v
C. VIRL
D. DevNet sandboxes
E. Cisco Open SDN Controller
Correct Answer: AC

 

QUESTION 14
Which feature enables service function chaining to steer traffic to virtual network functions?
A. GRE
B. VXLAN
C. EH
D. NSH
E. REST
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 15
You want to implement a new feature in a home-grown network automation tool. Because your
development team uses the Agile development methodology, which documentation must you create for
them, in order to put this feature on the roadmap?
A. ROI analysisB. case study
C. user story
D. SCIPAB breakdown
E. enhancement request
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 16
Which two parts are required for a RESTful API call? (Choose two.)
A. resource
B. parameter
C. method
D. query
E. fragment
Correct Answer: BC

 

QUESTION 17
Which two protocols are examples of southbound APIs? (Choose two.)
A. VXLAN-GPE
B. LLDP
C. NETCONF
D. IPFIX
E. SYSLOG
F. OpFlex
Correct Answer: CF

 

QUESTION 18
Which two northbound protocols are supported by the Cisco NSO Controller? (Choose two)
A. REST
B. SOAP
C. OpenFlow
D. NETCONF
E. PCEP
Correct Answer: AC

 

QUESTION 19
Which statement about shading in ACI is true?
A. Sharding is the technology that is designed to prevent “split-brain” scenarios in ACI.
B. Sharding is the service that presents the API on a Cisco APIC.
C. Sharding is the mechanism for distributing the database and configuration changes on a Cisco APIC
cluster.
D. Sharding is the distributed topology that is used in ACI (also referred to as spine-leaf).
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 20
After completing the OSC setup wizard, the configuration does not get applied. Which two log files should
you check to determine the errors that occurred? (Choose two.)
A. /var/log/node_config_state.logB. /var/log/platform_services.log
C. /var/log/ansible.log
D. /var/log/messages.log
E. /var/log/controller.log
Correct Answer: BE

 

QUESTION 21
YANG modeling supports which two comment styles? (Choose two.)
A. A block comment is enclosed within “<–” and “–>”.
B. A single-line comment starts with “#” and ends at the end of the line.
C. A single-line comment starts with “!” and ends at the end of the line.
D. A block comment is enclosed within “/*” and “*/”.
E. A single-line comment starts with “//” and ends at the end of the line.
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 22
How is a service ticket used when constructing a Cisco APIC-EM API request?
A. to identify the service type
B. to identify a service on the controller
C. to determine the request type
D. as a security token
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 23
Which statement about NX-API REST is true?
A. Configuration and state information is stored in the MIT.
B. NX-API REST requires a commercial license to enable.
C. Partial commits are supported.
D. Fault objects may be queried, but event objects cannot be queried.
Correct Answer: C

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Latest effective Cisco CCNP Wireless 300-365 Exam Practice Tests

QUESTION 1
Refer to Exhibit.pass4itsure 300-365-1What two items need to be supported on the VoWLAN phones in order to take full advantage of this WLAN configuration? (Choose two.)
A. APSD
B. 802.11a
C. 802.11e
D. WMM
E. 802.11r
F. SIFS
Correct Answer: CD

 

QUESTION 2
A network engineer for a college dormitory notices that student devices are filling up the SP-DB and are not allowing the shared wireless printers to be discovered.
Which feature can be used to reserve space in the SP-DB for the printers?
A. mDNS-AP
B. LSS
C. Priority MAC
D. sso
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 3
Refer to Exhibit.pass4itsure 300-365-3 pass4itsure 300-365-3-1A wireless client is connecting to FlexAPI which is currently working standalone mode. The AAA authentication process is returning the following AVPs:
Tunnel-Private-Group-ld(81): 15 Tunnel-Medium-Type(65):IEEE-802(6) Tunnel-Type(64): VLAN(13) Which three behaviors will the client experience? (Choose
three.)
A. While the AP is in standalone mode the client will be placed in VLAN 15.
B. While the AP is in standalone mode the client will be placed in VLAN 10.
C. When the AP transitions to connected mode the client will be de-authenticated.
D. While the AP is in standalone mode the client will be placed in VLAN 13.
E. When the AP is in connected mode the client will be placed in VLAN 13.
F. When the AP transitions to connected mode the client will remain associated.
G. When the AP is in connected mode the client will be placed in VLAN 15.
H. When the AP is in connected mode the client will be placed in VLAN 10.
Correct Answer: ADE

 

QUESTION 4
Which two options are limitations of using an AP as a workgroup bridge? (Choose two.)
A. Only factory-configured MAPs can support WGB mode.
B. MAPs that are configured in WGB mode do not answer S36 radio measurement requests.
C. A limited subset of Layer 2 security types are supported for wireless clients of a WGB.
D. There is a limit of 20 wired client devices.
E. Multiple VLANs are not supported for wireless clients.
Correct Answer: BD

 

QUESTION 5
On which AP radio or radios is Cisco WGB association supported?
A. 2.4 GHz only
B. 2.4 or 5 GHz only
C. 2.4 5 or 4.9 GHz
D. 5 GHz only
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 6
A customer requires that an SSID is broadcasted to specific access points that use certain interfaces. Which feature can be used to achieve this goal?
A. mobility groups
B. flex-connect roups
C. interface groups
D. APgroups
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 7
Which of the following is not a Cisco RF fingerprinting key advantage over Location Tracking?
A. Uses existing LWAPP-enabled Cisco Unified Networking components.
B. Proprietary client hardware or software is required.
C. Better accuracy and precision.
D. Reduced calibration effort.
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 8
A customer has implemented several WLANs in an auditorium utilizing a newly dedicated WLC and is experiencing excessive channel utilization regardless of
occupancy. Which action reduces channel utilization without removing SSIDs?
A. Disable MCS data rates 0 through 11.
B. Disable MCS data rates used by 40 MHz channels.
C. Disable data rates that use CCK.
D. Disable VHT data rates.
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 9
A corporation has a Cisco Unified Wireless Network that has been deployed for voice coverage. The wireless data rates have been tuned to mandatory rates of 18
Mbps and 36 Mbps. Some wireless clients have been experiencing drops streaming multicast video while moving throughout the building. What is the cause of the
drop in video?
A. Clients are roaming at lower data rates and are not maintaining 36Mbps connectivity.
B. Clients are not roaming due to coverage. This is causing the multicast data to drop due to the client re-associating often.
C. Clients are connected at 18Mbps; however other clients are connecting at 12Mbps and are causing the multicast video to degrade.
D. Clients are maintaining a 12Mbps rate and cannot receive the stream at 18Mbps.
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 10
An engineer used an interface group under the SSID configuration but noticed that a test client is getting an IP assigned in a different VLAN from the DHCP
server. Which two options override the interface group configuration on the SSID? (Choose two.)
A. static VLAN on client
B. ACL
C. APgroup
D. static IP on client
E. MAC filtering
F. RFgroup
G. AAA override
Correct Answer: CG

 

QUESTION 11
A WLAN engineer has been asked to upgrade the software on a MSE 3365 Appliance. The engineer cannot access the system using the root password and the
Grub password as the details had never been documented. How should the engineer perform the password recovery?
A. Use a console cable.
B. Contact Cisco TAC and arrange an RMA of the MSE.
C. Boot the MSE using the software installation DVD.
D. The Password can be reset using Prime Infrastructure.
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 12
The customer has deployed C7960 phones with clients connected to them. What switch feature could be enabled to distinguish IP voice traffic from client data
traffic?
A. VoiceVLAN
B. QoS routing
C. WME
D. WeightedQueuing
E. QBSS
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 13
Which show command will show whether a WLAN is locally or centrally switched on a Cisco Wireless Lan Controller?
A. show ap config general Cisco_AP
B. show wlan wlan_id
C. show fexconnect summary
D. show fexconnect group detail
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 14
A network engineer is experiencing issues enabling LAG on the WLC. Which four characteristics should be validated to ensure LAG configuration? (Choose four.)
A. All ports participate in the LAG by default when LAG is enabled on the controller
B. Dynamic interfaces and management are moved to port 1
C. Primary and secondary ports are needed for each interface.
D. Multiple untagged interfaces to the same port are not allowed.
E. EtherChannel must be configured for mode “on” on the switch.
F. Only one functional physical port is needed to continue to pass traffic.
G. Multiple LAGs are permitted on the controller.
H. The WLC does not need to be rebooted to enable the LAG configuration.
Correct Answer: ADEF

 

QUESTION 15
A network engineer is debugging issues with the mDNS gateway. Which type of reply should be seen in the Wireshark capture when querying for a mDNS servicein the Bonjour Cache?
A. unicast from Prime Infrastructure
B. unicast from controller
C. multicast from devices
D. multicast from controller
E. unicast from devices
F. multicast from Prime Infrastructure
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 16
A customer requires that the remote site be able to utilize local servers when the AP is in WAN-down (standalone mode). Which AP mode must be configured on
the wireless controller?
A. SE-Connect
B. Monitor
C. Local
D. FlexConnect
E. Sniffer
F. Rogue Detector
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 17
What are two functions of the RAP in a mesh network? (Choose two.)
A. It provides a wired connection for the wireless mesh APs.
B. It adds capacity and resilience to a mesh area.
C. It creates a centralized management location for the mesh network.
D. It reduces the hop count to the wireless network that is connected to the edge.
E. It routes traffic from the wireless mesh to the wired network.
Correct Answer: BD

 

QUESTION 18
What address do PIM routers listen to in order to automatically discover the best RP for each multicast group?
A. 224.0.0.13
B. 224.0.1.39
C. 224.0.0.14
D. 224.0.140
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 19
A wireless engineer wants to enable optimized roaming for their 5GHz wireless network with these settings: -72dBm RSSI value 25% coverage exception level
percentage and a minimum of 50 packets received.
Which two commands achieve these settings? (Choose two.)
A. config advanced 802.11a coverage data fail-percentage 25
B. config advanced 802.11b optimized-roaming enable
C. config advanced 802.11b coverage data rssi-threshold -72
D. config advanced 802.11a optimized-roaming enable
E. config advanced 802.11a coverage data rssi-threshold -72
Correct Answer: AD

 

QUESTION 20
An engineer wants to configure WebEx to adjust the precedence and override the QoS profile on the WLAN. Which configuration is needed to complete this task?
A. Change the AVC application WebEx-app-sharing to mark
B. Create an ACL for WebEx.
C. Change the WLAN reserved bandwidth for WebEx.
D. Create an AVC profile for WebEx marked with a lower DSCP value
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 21
Which statement about when you configure FlexConnect APs and you want to set up Cisco Centralized Key Management fast roaming is true?
A. FlexConnect groups are required for Cisco Centralized Key Management fast roaming to work with FlexConnect access points.
B. APs that are in the same FlexConnect group but associated to different WLCs support Cisco Centralized Key Management.
C. Cisco Centralized Key Management fast roaming among FlexConnect and non-FlexConnect access points is supported.
D. The FlexConnect access point must be in standalone mode to support Cisco Centralized Key Management.
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 22
A network engineer observes a spike in controller CPU overhead and overall network utilization after enabling multicast on a controller with 500 APs. What feature
is necessary to correct the issue?
A. controller IGMP snooping
B. unicast AP Multicast ModeC. broadcast forwarding
D. multicast AP Multicast Mode
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 23
When a Vocera badge performs a broadcast call in a properly configured VoWLAN using WLC v7.0 which two choices indicate how the QoS is marked? (Choose
two.)
A. Upstream marked as Best Effort.
B. Upstream marked as ToS CS4.
C. Upstream marked as DSCP EF
D. Downstream marked as DSCP EF
E. Downstream marked as Best Effort.
F. Downstream marked as Silver.
Correct Answer: CE

 

QUESTION 24
An engineer would like to capture NetFlowdata on PI. Which resource is required to allow this?
A. Cisco MSE as NetFlow exporter
B. Prime Infrastructure 1.0 or later
C. Cisco NAC as NetFlow exporter
D. Cisco ISE as NetFlow exporter
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 25
What is the best practice for setting the WLC v7.0 use of WLAN QoS settings to support SIP phones on a VoWLAN?
A. Configure SIP with static CAC only with SIP call snooping.
B. Configure SIP with static CAC only without SIP call snooping.
C. Configure SIP with load-based CAC only with SIP call snooping.
D. Configure SIP with load-based CAC only without SIP call snooping.
E. Configure SIP with load-based CAC and TSPEC only with SIP call snooping.
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 26
A downstream packet containing a DSCP value arrives at the WLC Ethernet interface from the wired source network. The WLC is configured for QoS WLAN
802.1p mapping. How does the WLC treat the CAPWAP QoS marking when leaving the controller interface for the respective AP and final wireless client
destination?
A. No outer CAPWAP or inner QoS tagging is applied.
B. No outer CAPWAP QoS tag is applied but the original DSCP is maintained inside CAPWAP.
C. The outer CAPWAP CoS is marked and capped while the inner DSCP maintains the original marking.
D. The outer CAPWAP DHCP is marked and capped without any inner DSCP value.
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 27
VoWLAN implementation plans for a current mix of existing Cisco Unified Wireless IP Phones 7920G and 7921G to a final migration of Wireless IP Phones 7925G
in a single WLAN. What would be the most appropriate WLC WLAN configuration to end with Wireless IP Phones 7925G?
A. 7920 Client CAC = enabled only; Radio Policy = All; WMM = Disabled
B. 7920 AP CAC = enabled only; Radio Policy = All; WMM = Allowed
C. 7920 Client CAC = enabled only; Radio Policy = 802.11a only; WMM = Disabled
D. 7920 AP CAC = enabled only; Radio Policy = 802.11a only; WMM = Allowed
E. 7920 Client CAC = enabled only; Radio Policy = 802.11b/g only; WMM = Disabled
F. 7920 AP CAC = enabled only; Radio Policy = 802.11b/g only; WMM = Allowed
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 28
You are deploying a combination of Cisco Unified Wireless IP Phones 7921G and 7925G at your branch offices in a centralized call processing environment that
requires high availability at branch locations. Which three components need to be verified before the wireless IP phones can be deployed? (Choose three.)
A. Sufficient SRST license support at each branch location
B. Support for local voice mail
C. Branch gateways support MoH
D. Properly configured QoS over the IP WAN links
E. Support for single number reach
F. Support for E.164 dialing
G. Sufficient IP phone licenses in the Cisco Unified Communications Manager cluster
Correct Answer: ADG

 

QUESTION 29
You have a VoWLAN configured for platinum QoS WMM and CAC. IP phones for this VoWLAN include the Nokia and Cisco Unified Wireless IP Phones 7920G
(pre-v2.0 firmware) 7921G and 7925G. The Wireless IP Phones 7921G and 7925G work properly but the Nokia and the Wireless IP Phones 7920G associate with
the WLAN but cannot place calls. What is the issue?
A. The lowest mandatory speed in the WLAN is too high and needs to be reduced.
B. The Cisco Unified Wireless IP Phones 7920G and Nokia IP phones do not support TSPEC C. EDCA needs to be enabled on the WLAN.
D. HCCA needs to be enabled on the WLAN.
E. The reserved roaming bandwidth setting is set too low.
F. The expedited bandwidth setting needs to be enabled.
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 30
DRAG DROP
Drag the QoS values from the lef and drop them in the correct descending order of priority on the right.
Select and Place:

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Free Pass4itsure CA CAT-340 exam questions (1-30)

QUESTION 1
Security Administrator, Zhi Wang, creates the CA Identity Minder roles required to implement delegated administration. Two weeks later, one of these new roles
requires some changes. These changes should be performed by the:
A. Role Owner
B. Role Manager
C. Role Administrator
D. Access Role Membership Approver
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
Which features characterize CA Identity Minder? (Choose three)
A. Assignment of privileges through roles
B. Delegation of the management of users and application access
C. Self-service options that enable users to manage their own accounts
D. User-defined service delivery service catalog that encompasses a menu of services
E. Full automation capabilities for inventory, tracking, maintenance, migration, and security across all enterprise client devices in a single product
Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 3
You are setting up the Bulk Load Client to perform a complete dump of all HR users into CA IdentityMinder. You want to avoid a problem you encountered
previously when a large number of records processed overloaded the server. Which command-line option addresses this issue?
A. imbulkloadclient -T, –transformOnly
B. imbulkloadclient -b, –batchSize <number>
C. imbulkloadclient -i, –inputFile <file, batchsize>
D. imbulkloadclient – e, –endpointlnfoFile <file, number>
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
In CA IdentityMinder, which self-service actions can you perform using public tasks? (Choose two)
A. Self-registration
B. Modifying your profile
C. Changing your password
D. Resetting a forgotten password
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 5
Which statement about CA Identity Minder end points is TRUE?
A. An endpoint type can only contain one instance of an endpoint.
B. They are generally client operating system versions, such as Windows XP and Red Hat Linux.
C. An endpoint type is the lowest unit of organization in the hierarchical structure managed by the provisioning engine.
D. A specific type of endpoint needs to be enabled on the Provisioning Server to enable CA Id entity Minder to communicate to it.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6
During the installation, CA Identity Minder creates several database schemas. Later, to provide scalability, you can create a separate database to replace any one
of these, Use the CreateDatabase script to set up a new:
A. Auditing database instance.
B. Workflow database instance.
C. Object Store database instance.
D. Task persistence database instance.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 7
Which statement about the Provisioning Server is TRUE?
A. It manages accounts on end point systems.
B. It communicates directly with the Snapshot Database.
C. It is a required component only if you intend to implement log management.
D. It is an optional component that enables you to fully implement Password Services and Single Sign- on.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8
Which step do you need to perform to configure email server settings for the JBoss application server?
A. Create a new XML file.
B. Modify the mail-service.xml file.
C. Change a property in the console.
D. Modify the Mail Transport Host field for the mail session.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9
In an email template, what is the purpose of the <% %> tag?
A. Inserts a static text variable
B. Embeds JavaScript into a template
C. Presents event context information
D. Indicates that the template is invalid
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10
Which ETAUTIL control statement is used to set the same attribute values for a set of objects?
A. MASSCHANGE
B. EXPLORE
C. UPDATE
D. DELETE
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
The role model in CA GovernanceMinder can be dynamically updated whenever changes are made in CA Identity Minder using:
A. Smart Provisioning.
B. Role Engineering.
C. Reverse Synchronization.
D. Provisioning Synchronization Management.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12
Which task do you perform using the CA IdentityMinder Management Console?
A. Manage the Provisioning Server.
B. Customize default roles and tasks.
C. Create and manage the Provisioning Directory.
D. Create an agent that CA SiteMinder can communicate with.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 13
You are implementing CA IdentityMinder at Forward Inc., an international logistics company with headquarters in the United Kingdom. At Forward Inc., a single
managed endpoint containing every person does not exist. However all users are contained in a payroll database, which can become the source of the global
users for the provisioning directory. In this context, the payroll database is known as a:
A. corporate store.
B. primary endpoint.
C. secondary endpoint.
D. operational database.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 14
Which two components communicate using a Connector?
A. Provisioning Server and endpoint
B. Policy Server and Report Server
C. User Store and Provisioning directory
D. Report Server and Snapshot Database
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 15
To help ensure role granularity, when you create provisioning roles, which guideline should you follow?
A. Every role should have at least one user.
B. Account templates should be assigned to individual users rather than to roles.
C. Depending on the size of an organization, a role should have between 50 and 200 users.
D. For most organizations, 50 percent of user access is from permanent roles and 50percent is from temporary roles.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 16
When you configure a WorkPoint manual activity, you can specify multiple Participant Resolvers, Using an order of precedence, CA Identity Minder identifies and
applies the first resolver and ignores any subsequent resolvers. To select the resolver, which order of precedence does CA IdentityMinder follow?
1. Role
2. Filter
3. Group
4. Custom
A. 1,3,2,4
B. 2,3,4,1
C. 3,1,2,4
D. 4,1,2,3
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 17
Forward Inc. is an international logistics company with headquarters in the United Kingdom. Forward Inc. has asked you to demonstrate how CA IdentityMinder
supports account provisioning. In the CA IdentityMinder configuration that you will use for your demonstration, which component is optional?
A. Provisioning Server
B. Provisioning Directory
C. IdentityMinder Server
D. SiteMinder Policy Server
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 18
When you build the CA IdentityMinder environment, you can configure support for public tasks. To do this, you specify a:
A. group and a name.
B. URL alias and a user.
C. directory and a task list.
D. role definition file and a default role.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 19
Which statement about installing Connector Xpress is TRUE?
A. It can be installed on a dedicated computer.
B. It must be installed on the Report Server computer.
C. It must be installed on the Provisioning Server computer.
D. It must be installed on the JavaConnector Server (JCS) computer.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 20
You want to configure password synchronization with UNIX systems. Which component enables CA Identity Minder to authenticate passwords against external
security systems?
A. Credential Provider
B. Pluggable Authentication Module (PAM)
C. Graphical Identification and Authorization (GINA)
D. Java Authentication & Authorization Service (JAAS) Agent
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 21
In CA IdentityMinder r12.6, the basic access request feature:
A. is fully integrated with CA GovernanceMinder.
B. includes granular filtering and search capabilities.
C. enables bulk definition ofaccess request services objects.
D. can use workflow approval and email notification functionality.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 22
Which optional component of the CA IdentityMinder architecture provides advanced authentication?
A. Connector Server
B. Provisioning Server
C. Resource Proxy Server
D. SiteMinder Policy Server
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 23
You are using CA SiteMJnder and CA IdentityMinder in an integrated environment. To configure directory mapping in the CA SiteMinder Policy Server, which
steps do you need to perform? (Choose three)
A. Create a Table element for each attribute.
B. Add a response attribute named sm_userdn for the SMJJSERNAME attribute.
C. Add the authentication directory to the CA IdentityMinder environment domain.
D. Use the Reference element for a secondary table to define its relationship to the primary table.
E. In the CA IdentityMinder environment realm, map the authorization directory to the authentication directory.
Correct Answer: BCE

QUESTION 24
CA IdentityMinder must integrate with CA SiteMinder in order to:
A. automatically remove white space in passwords.
B. add multiple regular expressions to a single password policy.
C. prevent passwords that are all numeric using a regular expression.
D. specify the maximum number of repeated characters in a password.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 25
Which statement about using Active Directory password synchronization with CA IdentityMinder is TRUE?
A. The new password is only propagated to the user’s native Windows account.
B. Changes to password restrictions on the endpoint are automatically propagated to the CA IdentityMinder Server.
C. The Password Synchronization Agent must be installed on the system on which password changes areto be intercepted.
D. The system on which you are installing the Password Synchronization Agent must be managed by a CA SiteMinder Policy Server.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 26
You have deployed CA IdentityMinder with a CA SiteMinder Policy Server. During the second day of testing your installation, you receive a “Not Loaded” error
message when you attempt to log in. You check that the User Store is running. Which other action should you take to investigate this issue?
A. Check the application server log.
B. Verify that theWeb Agent is running correctly.
C. Verify that CA SiteMinder can connect to the User Store.
D. Set the Internet browser option “Show friendly error message”to off to view the status page.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 27
For workflow installation, many steps that were previously manual are now performed automatically by the installer. Nonetheless, you still need to use the
Management Console to:
A. create the workflow database.
B. populate the database with sample workflows.
C. enable workflow for your CA IdentityMinder environment.
D. create a JDBC data source and connection file for the application server
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 28
Which tasks does Config Xpress enable you to perform? (Choose three)
A. Map dynamic connectors to endpoints.
B. Move components between environments.
C. Publish a report of thesystem components to a PDF file.
D. Publish the XML configuration fora particular component.
E. Create complex business logic withoutthe need to develop custom code.
Correct Answer: BCD

QUESTION 29
Which statement about Task Execution Web Services (TEWS) is TRUE?
A. Its interface is slower than the native web interface due to XML parsing.
B. It enables a CA SiteMinder Policy Server to support CA Identity Minder.
C. It is used by CA IdentityMinder to export data to CA GovernanceMinder.
D. It translates requests into the internal languages of the provisioning software.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 30
Because of a recent acquisition by Forward Inc., which will add 1800 new users to the system, you decide to use the Bulk Loader to feed the information to CA
IdentityMinder, You will need to prepare a file for the Bulk Loader, containing the relevant details. Which Bulk Loader input file guidelines do you need to follow?
(Choose three)
A. The file should contain no header.
B. A field representing the action is mandatory.
C. Each file must describe a single managed object type.
D. Multivalued attributes must beseparated by a hash (#) symbol.
E. Attribute names should be the physical or well-known names of the managed objects.
Correct Answer: BCE

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QUESTION 1
Which one of the following categories from the Document Categorization model consists of the normative parts of
TOGAF which are considered central to its usage?
A. TOGAF Core
B. TOGAF Mandated
C. TOGAF Recommended
D. TOGAF Referenced
E. TOGAF Supporting
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
Which of the following is a true statement about the TOGAF Technical Reference Model?
A. The TOGAF Architecture Development Method mandates the use of the Technical Reference Model for large
complex architecture projects
B. The Technical Reference Model is an integral part of the TOGAF Architecture Development Method
C. The Technical Reference Model should not be modified
D. The Technical Reference Model includes a set of graphical models and a corresponding taxonomy
E. The Technical Reference Model provides a direct mapping to the Zachman Framework
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3
Which one of the following best describes the next step in an Architecture Compliance Review once the scope of the
review has been determined?
A. Interview the project principals to obtain background information
B. Prepare the Architecture Compliance Review report
C. Schedule the Architecture Review meeting
D. Send the assessment report to the Architecture Review co-ordinator
E. Tailor the checklists to address business requirements
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 4
Which of the following statements best describes the Requirements Management process? A. It is used to develop requirements for Transition Architectures that deliver business value
B. It is used to dispose of, address and prioritize architecture requirements
C. It is used to establish requirements for Phase A
D. It is used to manage architecture requirements throughout the ADM cycle
E. It is used to review business requirements
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
Complete the sentence: TOGAF provides a set of reference materials for establishing an architecture function within an
organization known as the_________.
A. Architecture Capability Framework
B. Architecture Content Framework
C. Architecture Landscape
D. Architecture Repository
E. Architecture Roadmap
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
Complete the sentence. According to TOGAF, all of the following are responsibilities of an Architecture Board, except
______________________.
A. Ensuring consistency between sub-architectures
B. Ensuring flexibility of the enterprise architecture to meet business needs
C. Improving the maturity of the organization\’s architecture discipline
D. Monitoring of architecture contracts
E. Preparing architecture review reports
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 7
Which model within TOGAF is closely related to the concept of Boundaryless Information Flow?
A. The ARTS data model
B. The Architecture Governance Framework
C. The Enterprise Continuum
D. The Integrated Information Infrastructure Model E. The TOGAF Technical Reference Model
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8
Which one of the following is NOT an element of an architecture framework?
A. A common vocabulary
B. A list of recommended standards
C. A method for designing an information system in terms of building blocks
D. A set of structuresWhich can be used to develop a broad range of architectures
E. A system development lifecycle method for software engineering
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 9
Which pair of the following responses best completes the sentence? Architecture building blocks ____, where as
Solution Building blocks ____
A. are assembled; are single function components
B. are single function components; are groups of architecture building blocks
C. are reusable; are not reusable
D. define the architecture; provide the existing legacy system
E. define functionality; define the implementation of functionality
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 10
Which one of the following is responsible for the acceptance and sign-off of an Architecture Compliance review?
A. Architecture Board
B. Architecture Review Co-ordinator
C. CIO
D. Lead Enterprise Architect
E. Project Leader
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
According to TOGAF, Which of the following activities is described as part of the approach in the Preliminary Phase of
the ADM? A. Creating the Architecture Vision deliverable
B. Defining a set of Architecture Principles
C. Developing an Architecture Contract
D. Extending the business scenario with business modeling
E. Preparing a consolidated Gap Analysis
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 12
What part of the Architecture Repository holds specifications toWhich architectures must conform?
A. Standards Information Base
B. Enterprise Continuum
C. Governance Log
D. Architecture Landscape
E. Reference Library
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 13
What class of architectural information within the Architecture Repository defines processes that support governance of
the Architecture Repository?
A. Architecture Capability
B. Architecture Landscape
C. Architecture Metamodel
D. Governance Log
E. Reference Library
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 14
Which of the following describes how the Enterprise Continuum is used when developing an enterprise architecture?
A. To coordinate with the other management frameworks in use
B. To describe how an architecture addresses stakeholder concerns
C. To identify and understand business requirements
D. To provide a system for continuous monitoring E. To structure re-usable architecture and solution assets
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 15
Which of the following best describes the purpose of an architecture compliance review?
A. To review the validity of a project\’s Architecture Vision
B. To review a project for compliance to external laws and regulations
C. To review a project against established architecture criteria and business objectives
D. To ensure that stakeholder concerns are being addressed by a project
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 16
Which phase of the TOGAF ADM is the first phase directly concerned with the planning for the implementation of the
target architecture(s)?
A. Phase D
B. Phase E
C. Phase F
D. Phase G
E. Phase H
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 17
Which section of the TOGAF document contains a structured metamodel for architectural artifacts?
A. Part II: Architecture Development Method
B. Part III: ADM Guidelines and Techniques
C. Part IV: Architecture Content Framework
D. Part VI: TOGAF Reference Models
E. Part VII: Architecture Capability Framework
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 18
When determining the requirements for enterprise architecture work in the Preliminary Phase, Which of the following is
not a business imperative that should be considered?
A. Business requirements B. Cultural aspirations
C. Forecast financial requirements
D. Strategic Intent
E. Technical elegance
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 19
According to TOGAF, Which of the following best describes the purpose of an Architecture Definition Document?
A. To act as a deliverable container for artifacts created during a project
B. To ensure that architecture information is communicated to the right stakeholders at the right time
C. To govern the architecture throughout its implementation process
D. To provide a high-level view of the end architecture product
E. To show progression of change from the Baseline Architecture to the Target Architecture
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 20
Which one of the following does TOGAF Part VII recommend in order to implement an Enterprise Architecture
Capability?
A. Develop an Architecture Roadmap
B. Populate the Architecture Repository
C. Populate the Enterprise Continuum
D. Use the Architecture Development Method
E. Use the Implementation Governance Phase
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 21
Which one of the following is an objective of the Preliminary Phase of the ADM?
A. To define the Baseline Architecture for this cycle of the ADM
B. To define the application systems for the Target Architecture
C. To define the framework and methodologies to be used
D. To define the relevant stakeholders and their concerns
E. To define and prioritise work packages
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 22
Complete the sentence. All of the following are parts of the conceptual structure of the TOGAF Architecture Governance
Framework, except ______
A. Content
B. Context
C. Process Flow Control
D. Repository
E. Vision
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 23
According to TOGAF, Which of the following best describes the classification of architectural change in the case where
multiple server systems are being consolidated to a single system?
A. A bottom-up change to enhance operational capability
B. An incremental change handled via change management techniques
C. A re-architecting change that puts the whole architecture through an ADM cycle
D. A revision change of the enterprise architecture
E. A simplification change handled via change management techniques
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 24
Which one of the following best describes a primary use of the Architecture Vision document?
A. A checklist for compliance reviews
B. An evaluation tool to select vendors to conduct a proof of concept demonstration
C. A tool for calculating detailed cost estimates
D. A tool for project planning the implementation activities
E. A tool for selling the benefits of the proposed capability to stakeholders
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 25
Complete the sentence. As the architecture evolves, the assets in the Solutions Continuum progress towards a (n)
_____ A. Common Systems Architecture
B. Industry Specific Architecture
C. Foundation Solution
D. Organization Specific Solution
E. Technology Neutral Implementation
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 26
Which one of the following is a key objective of Phase A of the TOGAF ADM?
A. To create a roadmap that describes the evolution of the architecture over time
B. To prepare a Solution Architecture for the enterprise
C. To define an IT Strategy that maps out the technology infrastructure
D. To allocate the resources needed to implement the architecture project
E. To articulate an Architecture Vision
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 27
Which of the following TOGAF components was created to enable architects to design architectures addressing
Boundaryless Information Flow?
A. The Architecture Repository
B. The Enterprise Continuum
C. The Integrated Information Infrastructure Model
D. The TOGAF Technical Reference Model
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 28
Complete the sentence. In the Preliminary Phase, all of the following are part of preparing the organization to undertake
successful enterprise architecture, except __________.
A. defining architecture principles
B. defining relationships between management frameworks
C. defining the enterprise
D. evaluating the enterprise architecture maturity
E. identifying stakeholders and their concerns
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 29
According to TOGAF, in which sequence should Application Architecture and Data Architecture be developed in Phase
C?
A. Application Architecture should be developed first, then Data Architecture
B. Application Architecture should be developed concurrently with Data Architecture
C. Data Architecture should be developed first, then Application Architecture
D. Application Architecture and Data Architecture may be developed in either sequence
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 30
Which one of the following describes a purpose of an Architecture Compliance review?
A. To define the capabilities of the organization
B. To communicate the technical readiness of the project
C. To evaluate the readiness of the organization to undergo change
D. To produce a new Request for Architecture Work
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 31
Which one of the following lists the main components within the TOGAF Architecture Repository?
A. Organizational Metamodel, Architecture Capability, Architecture Landscape, Best Practices, Reference Library,
Compliance Strategy
B. Architecture Metamodel, Organizational Capability Model, Application Landscape, SIB, Reference Library,
Governance Model
C. Business Metamodel, Architecture Capability, Architecture Landscape, SIB, Reference Library, Governance Log
D. Architecture Metamodel, Architecture Capability, Architecture Landscape, SIB, Reference Library, Governance Log
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 32
Complete the sentence. TOGAF covers the development of four architecture domains, Application, Business, Data
and__________.
A. Capability
B. Segment
C. Technology D. Transition
E. Vision
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 33
Which of the following architectures in the Architecture Continuum contains the most re-usable architecture elements?
A. Common Systems Architectures
B. Foundation Architectures
C. Industry Architectures
D. Organization-Specific Architectures
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 34
Which of the following statements best describes the purpose of the Architecture Requirements Specification?
A. A document that triggers the start of an architecture development cycle
B. A qualitative view of the solution to communicate the intent of the architect
C. A quantitative view of the solution to measure the implementation
D. A record of deviations from the planned architectural approach
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 35
Which of the following describes the TOGAF Technical Reference Model?
A. A Common Systems Architecture
B. A Foundation Architecture
C. An Industry-Specific Architecture
D. An Organization-Specific Architecture
E. A Solution Architecture
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 36
Complete the sentence. The Business Transformation Readiness Assessment technique is primarily focused on ___
A. determining if the organization is ready to accept change
B. planning the migration steps needed to achieve the transformation C. ensuring that there are adequate trained developers and engineers to implement the solution
D. ensuring that there is sufficient financial capacity to execute the desired transformation
E. determining if there is adequate stakeholder support for the implementation process
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 37
Which one of the following statements about TOGAF Building Blocks is true?
A. Building blocks at a functional level are known as Solutions Building Blocks
B. Solutions Building Blocks are selected in Phases A, B, C and D
C. The specification of a building block should be loosely coupled to its implementation
D. The gap analysis technique should be used to identify building blocks for re-use
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 38
According to TOGAF, Which of the following is a characteristic of a Foundation Architecture?
A. It contains only solution building blocks
B. It contains business functions and processes specific to a particular industry sector
C. It contains building blocks and their corresponding standards
D. It includes a model of application components and application services software, including brokering applications
E. It includes models for common high-level business functions, such as supply chain management
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 39
Which of the following best describes the purpose of the Statement of Architecture Work?
A. It contains an assessment of the current architecture requirements
B. It defines the scope and approach to complete an architecture project
C. It is sent from the sponsor and triggers the start of an architecture development cycle
D. It provides a high-level aspirational view of the end architecture project
E. It provides a schedule for implementation of the target architecture
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 40
Which section of the TOGAF template for defining principles should highlight the requirements for carrying out theprinciple?
A. Implications
B. Name
C. Rationale
D. Statement
Correct Answer: A

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QUESTION 1
Which functionality does ILS use to link all hub clusters in an ILS network?
A. Fullmesh
B. Automesh
C. ILS updates
D. multicast
300-075 exam Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
Company X has a primary and a backup Cisco Unified Communications Manager instance. The administrator had to do
maintenance on the primary node and did a shutdown, which resulted in a failover to the backup node. What happens when the primary node comes back online?
A. The primary node becomes the backup node.
B. Endpoints detect that the primary is back and reregisters automatically.
C. The backup node must be shut down first to allow the endpoints to realize that the primary node is online again.
D. Nothing, the endpoints only failover when the node they lose connection to their registered node.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
You need to verify if the Media Gateway Control Protocol gateway is enabled and active. Which command should you use for this purpose?
A. show running-config
B. show fallback-mgcp
C. show gateway
D. show ccm-manager fallback-mgcp
E. show running-config gateway
F. show fallback-mgcp ccm-manager
300-075 dumps Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4
Company X has a Cisco Unified Communications Manager cluster and a Cisco Unity Connection cluster at its head office and implemented SRST for its branch offices. One Monday at 2:00 pm, the WAN connection to a branch office failed and stayed down for 45 minutes. That day the help desk received several calls from the branch saying their voicemail was not working but they were able to make and receive calls. Why did the users not realize the WAN was down and prevented access to their voicemail?
A. All the phones should have started ringing the instant the WAN connection failed to signal the start of SRST mode.
B. All calls should have dropped when the WAN failed so users would be instantly aware.
C. Although the phones were still working, the users should have noticed that the phone displays said andquot;SRST
Fallback Activeandquot;.
D. The voice administrators at the head office did not call the users to notify them.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5
Which two options must be selected in the SIP Trunk Security Profile configuration between Cisco Unified Communications Manager and Expressway? (Choose two)
A. Enable application-level authorization
B. Accept presence subscription
C. Accept out-of-dialog refer
D. Accept unsolicited notification
E. Accept replaces header
F. Transmit security status
G. Allow charging header
300-075 pdf Correct Answer: DE

QUESTION 6
Which two options should be used to create a secure traversal zone between the Expressway-C and Expressway-E? (Choose two.)
A. Expressway-C and Expressway-E must trust each other\’s server certificate.
B. One Cisco Unified Communications traversal zone for H.323 and SIP connections.
C. A separate pair of traversal zones must be configured if an H.323 connection is required and Interworking is disabled.
D. Enable username and password authentication verification on Expressway-E.
E. Create a set of username and password on each of the Expressway-C and Expressway- E to authenticate the neighboring peer.
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 7
Which three statements about configuring an encrypted trunk between Cisco TelePresence Video Communication Server and Cisco Unified Communications Manager are true? (Choose three.)
A. The root CA of the VCS server certificate must be loaded in Cisco Unified Communications Manager.
B. A SIP trunk security profile must be configured with Incoming Transport Type set to TCP+UDP.
C. The Cisco Unified Communications Manager trunk configuration must have the destination port set to 5061.
D. A SIP trunk security profile must be configured with Device Security Mode set to TLS.
E. A SIP trunk security profile must be configured with the X.509 Subject Name from the VCS certificate.
F. The Cisco Unified Communications Manager zone configured in VCS must have SIP authentication trust mode set to On.
G. The Cisco Unified Communications Manager zone configured in VCS must have TLS verify mode set to Off.
300-075 vce Correct Answer: ACE

QUESTION 8
Which command displays the detailed configuration of all the Cisco Unified IP phones, voice ports, and dial peers of the Cisco Unified SRST router?
A. show call-manager-fallback all
B. show dial-peer voice summary
C. show ephone summary
D. show voice port summary
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
Which two actions ensure that the call load from Cisco TelePresence Video Communication Server to a Cisco Unified Communications Manager cluster is shared across Unified CM nodes? (Choose two.)
A. Create a neighbor zone in VCS with the Unified CM nodes listed as location peer addresses.
B. Create a single traversal client zone in VCS with the Unified CM nodes listed as location peer addresses.
C. Create one neighbor zone in VCS for each Unified CM node.
D. Create a VCS DNS zone and configure one DNS SRV record per Unified CM node.
E. In VCS set Unified Communications mode to Mobile and remote access and configure each Unified CM node.
300-075 exam Correct Answer: AE

QUESTION 10
Which command is needed to utilize local dial peers on an MGCP-controlled ISR during an SRST failover?
A. ccm-manager fallback-mgcp
B. telephony-service
C. dialplan-pattern
D. isdn overlap-receiving
E. voice-translation-rule
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
Where can you change the clusterwide DSCP setting for Cisco Unified Communications Manager?
A. enterprise parameters
B. service parameters
C. enterprise phone configuration
D. Ethernet configuration
300-075 dumps Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 12
Widgets.com\’s Cisco TelePresence Video Communication Server allows SIP and H.323 registrations. Which local zone search rule configuration allows SIP registered endpoints to connect to H.323 endpoints that register with an H.323 E.164 number only?
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A. Configure the publisher node only in the SAF Forwarder configuration page.
B. Append an @ symbol at the end of the client label value in the SAF Forwarder configuration page.
C. Configure the correct node in the EIGRP configuration of the gateway router that is associated with the Cisco Unified
Communications Manager node.
D. Configure the SAF Security Profile Configuration to support only a single node.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 14
Which three commands can be used to verify SRST fallback mode? (Choose three.)
A. show telephony-service all
B. show telephony-service ephone-dn
C. show telephony-service ephone
D. show telephony-service voice-port
E. show telephony-service tftp-bindings
300-075 pdf Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 15
Which two options are requirements for hardware MTP on Cisco IOS routers? (Choose two.)
A. the same audio codec on both legs of the call
B. an FXO card
C. a binding IP address
D. a hardware transcoder
E. DSP resources
F. a T1 card
Correct Answer: DE

QUESTION 16
An engineer is configuring Global Dial Plan Replication and wants to prevent the local cluster from routing the Vice President number 5555555555 to the remote cluster. Which action accomplishes this task?
A. Create a block route pattern.
B. Create a block learned pattern.
C. Create a block transformation pattern.
D. Create a block translation pattern.
300-075 vce Correct Answer: C

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The 220-902 dumps CompTIA A+ Certification Exam” is a 90 minutes with 90 questions questions and is associated with the CompTIA certification in pass4itsure.com. Candidates can prepare for this exam by taking the course, “CompTIA A+ Certification Exam”. Our customers’ time is a precious concern for us. This requires us to provide you the products that can be utilized most efficiently.  This exam tests a candidate’s understanding of CompTIA’s basic principles, foundational knowledge, and core skills needed to grasp the more advanced associate-level materials in the second required exam, “CompTIA A+ Certification Exam“. All CompTIA A+ online tests start some place, and that is the thing that the CompTIA A+ instructional class will accomplish for you: make an establishment to expand on.

This course teaches very detailed information in the five following areas:

  • Windows operating systems
  • Other operating systems and technologies
  • Security
  • Software troubleshooting
  • Operational procedures

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Pass4itsure Latest and Most Accurate CompTIA 220-902 Dumps Exam Q&As(1-19)

QUESTION 1
A customer has recently installed several applications on a Windows 7 workstation and is now experiencing slow system performance and spontaneous restarts. After removing some of the recently installed applications, the issue persists. Which of the following tools could the technician use to troubleshoot the problem while preventing data loss?
A. Factory restore
B. SecureBoot
C. msconfig
D. diskpart
220-902 exam Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2
A user reports that a file they shared out on their computer for another network user is not accessible to the third party. The user insists they specifically gave this third party Allow rights for Read and Write access. Which of the following could explain the problem at hand?
A. The parent folder has explicit Allow rights set for this user.
B. The parent folder has explicit Deny rights set for this user.
C. The user forgot to share the parent folder and only shared the specific file.
D. The parent folder likely has the andquot;archiveandquot; attribute enabled.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
A technician needs to install a clean Windows OS on several laptops in the office. The office is running a 100Base-T network. The owner would like the installations completed as soon as possible. Which of the following installation methods should the technician use?
A. FireWire External Hard Drive
B. PXE-based Network Installation
C. USB 3.0 Flash Drive
D. DVD-ROM
220-902 dumps Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4
In preparation for an operating system upgrade, a technician is tasked with installing additional memory modules in a computer. Which of the following safety steps should be performed FIRST?
A. Use safety goggles
B. Remove jewelry
C. Put on an ESD strap
D. Disconnect power
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
A technician recently removed spyware from a computer and now the user is getting error messages about system files. Which of the following tools would a technician use to verify all system files are intact and in their original versions?
A. Repair Disk
B. SFC
C. FIXMBR
D. ASR
220-902 pdf Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6
A user calls the help desk because a folder containing critical business files is missing from the local drive. The user is adamant that the folder was there the previous day, and cannot understand why it is gone. The technician views the properties of the parent folder and sees a back up listed on the andquot;Prior Versionsandquot; tab. According to the theory of troubleshooting, which of the following is the technician\’s NEXT step?
A. Establish a theory of probable cause
B. Establish a plan of action and implement the solution
C. Document findings, actions and outcomes
D. Verify full system functionality and implement preventive measures
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
A user needs their email set up on their iOS device. The email needs to synchronize all changes made with the server and the PC. Which of the following would the technician use to accomplish this?
A. IMAP
B. SMTP
C. SMNP
D. POP3
220-902 exam Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8
A customer calls an IT consultant to explain an issue they are having with their Windows 7 Professional PC. Windows Update attempts to install patches upon each startup but fails on the same single update. The customer has attempted to re-run Windows Update from Control Panel but the issue remains. Which of the following courses of action would BEST resolve the problem?
A. Running a full DEFRAG on the system
B. Clearing the AppData temp folder entirely
C. Clearing the Windows Update download cache entirely
D. Uninstalling the Windows Update feature in Windows 7 and reinstalling it directly from the Microsoft website
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 9
A user states that when typing in directions on a navigation website, the map is not viewable in a newer web browser. The technician runs updates to Java, but is still unable to view the map. The technician should change which of the following Internet Options?
A. Compatibility view
B. Manage add-ons
C. Clear browser cache
D. Pop-up blocker
220-902 dumps Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
When the computer is turned on it emits a series of beeps and does not POST. This can be caused by a bad:
A. CMOS battery.
B. video card.
C. IDE cable.
D. floppy cable.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11
A computer was recently infected by malware after a flash drive was plugged in. The user, Ann, indicates she never opened any files or folders from the flash drive. A technician needs to prevent this from occurring in the future. Which of
the following would accomplish this?
A. BitLocker To Go
B. Set strong passwords
C. Disable usermin
D. Disable AutoRun
220-902 pdf Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 12
In order to prevent other users from editing files in `C:\ Files\’, which of the following steps should be taken?
A. Set NTFS permissions to read only
B. Set the folder to index files for search
C. Set the local administrator as the owner of the folder
D. Set network share permissions to read only
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 13
A technician has been tasked with limiting the users who can connect to a network printer located centrally within an office environment. Which of the following tools would be the BEST to utilize to achieve this goal?
A. VPN
B. ACL
C. RDP
D. DLP
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 14
Which of the following network hosts would MOST likely provide the services needed to allow client access to Internet web pages?
A. File server
B. Web server
C. WINS server
D. Proxy server
220-902 vce Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 15
Which of the following best practices is used to fix a zero-day vulnerability on Linux?
A. Scheduled backup
B. Scheduled disk maintenance
C. Patch management
D. Antivirus update
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 16
Which of the following features of a mobile device operates the touch screen?
A. Gyroscope
B. Digitizer
C. Accelerometer
D. Geotracking
220-902 exam Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 17
A customer calls the help desk to report an issue. The customer suggests that the problem is hardware related, but the technician knows from the description that this is not the case. Which of the following is the BEST course of action for the technician?
A. Follow the customer\’s prescribed course of action.
B. Convince the customer to take a better course of action to resolve the issue.
C. Explain why the customer\’s prescribed course of action is incorrect.
D. Acknowledge the customer\’s input, but follow another course of action.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 18
A user tries to connect to the Internet using a dial-up modem and receives a andquot;No dial tone detectedandquot; message. Which of the following is the FIRST thing the technician should check to troubleshoot the issue?
A. Check if the cable is connected on the modem\’s phone RJ-45 port.
B. Check if the cable is connected on the modem\’s line RJ-11 port.
C. Check if the cable is connected on the modem\’s line RJ-45 port.
D. Check if the cable is connected on the modem\’s phone RJ-11 port.
220-902 dumps Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 19
Joe, an end-user, reports that the Windows PC he is using automatically locks when he leaves his desk and walks to a printer to retrieve documents. Joe is then required to type in his username and password to unlock the computer. The technician looks at the settings on the PC and notices that the screensaver and screen-lock options are grayed out on the computer and cannot be changed. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of this issue?
A. Domain-level group policies
B. Antivirus domain-level policies
C. Corrupted registry settings
D. Incorrect local-level user policies
Correct Answer: A

Recommended Experience

  • Basic computer and internet usage skills

Recommended Equipment

  • Windows computer system
  • Mac computer system
  • Linux computer system

Related Certifications

  • CompTIA A+

Related Job Functions

  • Technical support specialist
  • Field service technician
  • IT support technician
  • IT support administrator

Study aides are basically a definite CompTIA A+ 220-902 instructional exercise and are incredible acquaintances with new CompTIA A+ instructional classes as you progress. CompTIA A+ 220-902 dumps covers the skills required to install and configure PC operating systems, as well as configuring common features (e.g. network connectivity and email) for mobile operating systems Android and Apple iOS. The substance is constantly applicable, and compound again to make you pass your 220-902 exams on the principal endeavor. What’s more, so as to get employed in the data innovation division, a Pass4Sure 220-902 vce dumps understudies needs to gain a spot by demonstrating his value at the 220-902 exam.

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