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Looking to enhance your skills in the SQL Server 2012 database system?
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Pass4itsure Latest and Most Accurate Microsoft 70-464 Dumps Exam Q&As(1-12)

QUESTION 1
You use SQL Azure to store data used by an e-commerce application. You develop a stored procedure named sp1. Sp1 is used to read and change the price of all the products sold on the e-commerce site. You need to ensure that other transactions are blocked from updating product data while sp1 is executing. Which transaction isolation level should you use in sp1?
A. Repeatable read
B. Read committed
C. Serializable
D. Snapshot
070-464 exam Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 2
You review a query that runs slowly. The query accesses data in a table named Schema1.Table1.
The following is the relevant portion of the execution plan for the query:
070-464 dumps
You need to create the missing index. Which code segment should you execute?
A. CREATE NONCLUSTERED INDEX IX1 on Schema1.Table1 (Column1) INCLUDE (Column4) WHERE Column2 <> Column3
B. CREATE NONCLUSTERED INDEX IX1 on Schema1.Table1 (Column1)
C. CREATE NONCLUSTERED INDEX IX1 on Schema1.Table1 (Column1, Column2, Column3) INCLUDE (Column4)
D. CREATE NONCLUSTERED INDEX IX1 on schema1.Table1 (Column1) INCLUDE (Column4)
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 3
You use SQL Server 2012 to maintain the data used by the applications at your company. You plan to create a table named Table1 by using the following statement. (Line numbers are included for reference only.)
070-464 dumps
You need to ensure that Table1 contains a column named UserName. The UserName column will: Store string values in any language. Accept a maximum of 200 characters. Be case-insensitive and accent-insensitive. Which code segment should you add at line 03?
A. UserName nvarchar(200) COLLATE Latin1_General_CS_AS NOT NULL,
B. UserName varchar(200) COLLATE Latin1_General_CI_AI NOT NULL,
C. UserName varchar(200) COLLATE Latin 1_General_CS_AS NOT NULL,
D. UserName nvarchar(200) COLLATE Latin1_General_CI_AI NOT NULL,
070-464 dumps Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 4
You execute the following code:
070-464 dumps
You need to select the task that has an IsFinished value of true from the Project that has an Id value of 1. Which code segment should you use?
070-464 dumps
070-464 dumps
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 5
You are creating a table to support an application that will cache data outside of SQL Server. The application will detect whether cached values were changed before it updates the values. You need to create the table, and then verify that you can insert a row into the table. Which code segment should you use?
070-464 dumps
A.
B.
C.
D.
070-464 pdf Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 6
Your company has a SQL Azure subscription. You implement a database named Database1. Database1 has two tables named Table1 and Table2. You create a stored procedure named sp1. Sp1 reads data from Table1 and inserts data into Table2. A user named User1 informs you that he is unable to run sp1. You verify that User1 has the SELECT permission on Table1 and Table2. You need to ensure that User1 can run sp1. The solution must minimize the number of permissions assigned to User1.
What should you do?
A. Change sp1 to run as the saUser.
B. Grant User1 the EXECUTE permission on sp1.
C. Add User1 to the db_datawriter role.
D. Grant User1 the INSERT permission on Table2.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 7
You execute the following code:
070-464 dumps
You create a nonclustered index named IX_CustomerName on the CustomerName column. You execute the following query:

You need to reduce the amount of time it takes to execute the query. What should you do?
A. Partition the table and use the CustomerName column for the partition scheme.
B. Replace IX_CustomerName with a clustered index.
C. Replace LEFT(CustomerName ,1) = ‘a’ with CustomerName LIKE ‘a%’.
D. Replace LEFT(CustomerName ,1) = ‘a’ with SUBSTRING(CustomerName ,1,1) – ‘a’.
070-464 vce Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 8
You have a table named Rooms that contains three columns. You execute the following query:
070-464 dumps
You discover the execution plan shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.)
070-464 dumps

You need to recommend a solution to reduce the amount of time it takes to execute the query. What should you do? More than one answer choice may achieve the goal. Select the BEST answer.
A. Include the RoomName column and the Position column in the Room_IX index.
B. Create a nonclustered index for RoomName, Id, and Position.
C. Create a clustered index for Id.
D. Use the WITH (INDEX(Room_IX),NOLOCK) query hint.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 9
You have a database named database1. Database developers report that there are many deadlocks. You need to implement a solution to monitor the deadlocks. The solution must meet the following requirements:
Support real-time monitoring.
Be enabled and disabled easily.
Support querying of the monitored data.
What should you implement? More than one answer choice may achieve the goal. Select the BEST answer.
A. Log errors by using trace flag 1222
B. Log errors by using trace flag 1204
C. A SQL Server Profiler template
D. An Extended Events session
070-464 exam Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 10
You execute the following code:
070-464 dumps
The execution plan for the query is shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.)
070-464 dumps
You need to prevent the key lookup. What should you modify? More than one answer choice may achieve the goal. Select the BEST answer.
070-464 dumps
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 11
You have a database for a mission-critical web application. The database is stored on a SQL Server 2012 instance and is the only database on the instance. The application generates all T-SQL statements dynamically and does not use stored procedures. You need to maximize the amount of memory available for data caching. Which advanced server option should you modify?
A. Optimize for Ad hoc Workloads
B. Enable Contained Databases
C. Allow Triggers to Fire Others
D. Scan for Startup Procs
70-464 dumps Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 12
You have an application that uses a view to access data from multiple tables. You need to ensure that you can insert rows into the underlying tables by using the view. What should you do?
A. Create an INSTEAD OF trigger on the view.
B. Define the view by using the SCHEMABINDING option.
C. Define the view by using the CHECK option.
D. Materialize the view.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

Q: Why should companies train their IT professionals in this technology?
SQL Server is the most popular database platform for Windows-based environments. SQL Server 2014 adds powerful new features for all kinds of workloads and infrastructures, from in-memory technology to cloud integration, and it’s empowering database professionals to build faster, more flexible solutions.

Q: From a student perspective, what did you keep in mind when creating this course?
I tried to give learners a different perspective for learning by providing a mix of concept and demonstration, also by providing our own simplified database and T-SQL examples to work with.

Q: Any outside-of-the-box tips to help students get the most out of your course?
Lab it up! Use our Virtual NuggetLab or your own environment to see how things work. A mix of concept, demonstration, and lab can go a long way toward reinforcing concepts and getting that crucial hands-on experience.

Q: What’s one real-world application someone can expect to use, thanks to this course?
You’ll improve your T-SQL skills and see first hand how to utilize the many programmable objects in SQL Server. You’ll also be ready to rock many of the new development features SQL Server 2014 offers.

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Exam Code: 70-413
Exam Name: Designing and Implementing a Server Infrastructure
Updated: Aug 03, 2017
Q&As: 206

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Pass4itusre Latest and Most Accurate Microsoft 70-413 Dumps Exam Q&As:

Question No : 32  The power draw from a three-phase UPS is measured using a true RMS voltmeter. The
meter reads 10 kW as well as 10 kVA.
Why are the watts and volt-amps the same?
A. The RMS voltage is 208 VAC.
B. The three-phases are balanced.
C. The power factor is equal to one.
D. Each of the three-phases are synchronized.
070-413 exam 
Answer: C

Question No : 33  In three-phase power, by how many degrees are the three basic power waveforms offset?
A. 60
B. 90
C. 120
D. 180
Answer: C

Question No : 34  What is the function of a circuit breaker?
A. To distribute power from the UPS to critical loads
B. To filter harmonics caused by non-power factor corrected computer loads
C. To protect electrical equipment from damage caused by overload or short circuit
D. To balance the loads in the data center to prevent stray currents on the ground wire
070-413 dumps Answer: C
Question No : 35  Which UPS topology switches to batteries and turns on the inverter when the utility fails?
A. Rotary
B. Standby
C. Delta conversion
D. Double conversion
Answer: B

Question No : 36  Which two UPS topologies are used for UPS systems that supply at least 50 kW? (Choose
two.)
A. Standby
B. Standby – ferro
C. Delta conversion online
D. Double conversion online
070-413 pdf 
Answer: C,D

Question No : 37  What are two advantages of the line interactive UPS? (Choose two.)
A. High reliability
B. High efficiency
C. High frequency control
D. Optimized for 10 kW and above
Answer: A,B

Question No : 38  Which UPS topology uses a transfer switch between the primary power source and the
inverter?
A. Standby
B. High speed relay
C. Delta conversion online
D. Double conversion online
070-413 vce 
Answer: A

Question No : 39  Which UPS topology is most commonly used to protect small business and departmental
servers where voltage regulation is required?
A. Standby
B. Line interactive
C. High-speed relay
D. Delta conversion online
Answer: B

Question No : 40  What is the primary purpose of a UPS?
A. To remove transients from the power path
B. To detect and report power factor problems
C. To provide battery backup power should the utility fail
D. To convert from three-phase power to Single-phase power
070-413 exam 
Answer: C

Question No : 41  What is the main function of a UPS?
A. To provide battery back-up power to IT equipment
B. To regulate the voltage of power going to the racks
C. To distribute power from the transformer to the racks
D. To supply diesel-generated power when the utility is out
Answer: A

Question No : 42  What is a function of a transformer in a line interactive UPS?
A. To increase the power factor as the load increases
B. To increase harmonics by stepping down the output
C. To regulate output voltage as the input voltage varies
D. To provide low impedance for switched mode power supplies
070-413 dumps 
Answer: C

Question No : 43  Which component of a line interactive UPS increases its battery life?
A. Dual mains input
B. Voltage regulating transformer
C. Low impedance DC disconnect
D. High impedance battery charge circuit
Answer: B

Question No : 44  How long is the transfer to battery time for a double conversion online UPS?
A. 0 ms (0 cycles)
B. 8 ms (0.5 cycles)
C. 16 ms (1 cycle)
D. 500 ms (30 cycles)
070-413 pdf 
Answer: A

Question No : 45  What are two key characteristics of a UPS? (Choose two.)
A. It tests voltages on IT equipment.
B. It safeguards data in the event of a power loss.
C. It measures energy consumption of IT equipment.
D. It transfers IT equipment from utility to battery power.
Answer: B,D

Question No : 46  Which two characteristics do all static UPS topologies share? (Choose two.)
A. A battery
B. An inverter
C. A transfer switch
D. A single-phase input
070-413 vce 
Answer: A,B

Question No : 47
What is the primary difference between double conversion and delta conversion UPS
systems?
A. Double conversion UPSs require a 1.3X generator oversizing. Delta conversion UPSs
require a 3X generator oversizing.
B. Double conversion UPSs are practical in size ranges from 0 – 20 kW. Delta conversion
UPSs are practical in size ranges of 20 kW to 1 MW.
C. In a double conversion UPS, 100% of the power is converted from AC to DC and then
again from DC to AC. In a delta conversion UPS, only the difference between input and
output power is converted.
D. In a double conversion UPS, the transformer has a special ferro-resonant capability,
which provides limited voltage regulation and output waveform shaping. In a delta
conversion UPS, a standard transformer is used.
Answer: C

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Vendor: Microsoft
Exam Code: 70-741
Exam Name: Networking with Windows Server 2016
Certification Provider: Microsoft
Total Questions: 48 Q&A
Updated on: Jul 05, 2017

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Pass4itsure Latest and Most Accurate Microsoft 70-741 PDF Dumps Exam Q&As:

1.Mark works as a Network Administrator for Company Inc. The company has a Windows-based network.
The California branch of Company has been divided into two buildings in the same campus. The company
wants to interconnect these two buildings for proper communication among all the departments.
Which of the following network types should Mark use to accomplish the task?
A. MAN
B. WAN
C. LAN
D. CAN
Answer: D
70-741 pdf Explanation:
A campus area network (CAN) is a computer network that interconnects local area networks throughout a
limited geographical area, such as a university campus, a corporate campus, or a military base. It could
be considered a metropolitan area network that is specific to a campus setting. A campus area network is,
therefore, larger than a local area network but smaller than a wide area network. The term is sometimes
used to refer to university campuses, while the term corporate area network is used to refer to corporate
campuses instead. Although not considered a wide area network, a CAN extends the reach of each local
area network within the campus area of an organization. In a CAN, the buildings of a university or
corporate campus are interconnected using the same types of hardware and networking technologies that
one would use in a LAN. In addition, all of the components, including switches, routers, and cabling, as
well as wireless connection points, are owned and maintained by the organization.
Answer option C is incorrect. Local Area Network (LAN) represents a network that covers a very close
geographic area, such as a floor of a building, a building itself, or a campus environment. LAN is a
high-speed network that connects computers, printers, and other network devices together. The media
types used in LANs include Ethernet, Fast Ethernet (FE), Gigabit Ethernet (GE), Token Ring, and FDDI. A
LAN may include servers, workstations, hubs, bridges, switches, routers, gateways, firewalls, etc.
Answer option A is incorrect. A Metropolitan Area Network (MAN) is a network that interconnects users
with computer resources in a geographic area or region larger than that covered by even a large Local
Area Network (LAN) but smaller than the area covered by a Wide Area Network (WAN). The term is
applied to the interconnection of networks in a city into a single larger network (which may then also offer
efficient connection to a wide area network). It is also used to mean the interconnection of several local
area networks by bridging them with backbone lines. The latter usage is also sometimes referred to as a
campus network. A MAN usually interconnects a number of local area networks (LANs) using a
high-capacity backbone technology, such as fiber-optical links, and provides up-link services to wide area
networks and the Internet. Examples of metropolitan area networks of various sizes can be found in the
metropolitan areas of London, England; Lodz, Poland; and Geneva, Switzerland. Large universities also
sometimes use the term to describe their networks. A recent trend is the installation of wireless MANs.
Answer option B is incorrect. A wide area network (WAN) is a geographically dispersed
telecommunications network. The term distinguishes a broader telecommunication structure from a local
area network (LAN). A wide area network may be privately owned or rented, but the term usually
connotes the inclusion of public (shared user) networks. An intermediate form of network in terms of
geography is a metropolitan area network (MAN). A wide area network is also defined as a network of
networks, as it interconnects LANs over a wide geographical area.


2.Which of the following organizations offers technical assistance to the developing countries in the field

of telecommunications and regulates international radio and telecommunications?
A. ISO
B. ANSI
C. ITU-T
D. IEEE
E. W3C
Answer: C
70-741 exam Explanation:
The International Telecommunication Union (ITU) is an organization established to standardize and
regulate international radio and telecommunications. Its main tasks include standardization, allocation of
the radio spectrum, and organizing interconnection arrangements between different countries to allow
international phone calls. ITU sets standards for global telecom networks. The ITU’s telecommunications
division (ITU-T) produces more than 200 standard recommendations each year in the converging areas of
telecommunications, information technology, consumer electronics, broadcasting and multimedia
communications.
ITU was streamlined into the following three sectors:
ITU-D (Telecommunication Development)
ITU-R (Radio communication)
ITU-T (Telecommunication Standardization)
Answer option B is incorrect. ANSI (American National Standards Institute) is the primary organization for
fostering the development of technology standards in the United States. ANSI works with industry groups
and is the U.S. member of the International Organization for Standardization (ISO) and the International
Electro-technical Commission (IEC). Long-established computer standards from ANSI include the
American Standard Code for Information Interchange (ASCII) and the Small Computer System Interface
(SCSI).
Answer option D is incorrect. The Institute of Electrical and Electronic Engineers (IEEE) is a society of
technical professionals. It promotes the development and application of electro-technology and allied
sciences. IEEE develops communications and network standards, among other activities. The
organization publishes number of journals, has many local chapters, and societies in specialized areas.
Answer option A is incorrect. The International Organization for Standardization, widely known as ISO, is
an international-standard-setting body composed of representatives from various national standards
organizations. Founded on 23 February 1947, the organization promulgates worldwide proprietary
industrial and commercial standards. It has its headquarters in Geneva, Switzerland. While ISO defines
itself as a non-governmental organization, its ability to set standards that often become law, either through
treaties or national standards, makes it more powerful than most non-governmental organizations. In
practice, ISO acts as a consortium with strong links to governments.
Answer option E is incorrect. The World Wide Web Consortium (W3C) is an international industry
consortium that develops common standards for the World Wide Web to promote its evolution and
interoperability. It was founded in October 1994 by Tim Berners-Lee, the inventor of the Web, at the
Massachusetts Institute of Technology, Laboratory for Computer Science [MIT/LCS] in collaboration with
CERN, where the Web had originated, with support from DARPA and the European Commission.


3 .Which of the following is used to publish frequently updated works such as blog entries, news
headlines, audio, and video on the Web sites?

A. Podcast
B. ActiveX
C. RSS
D. Digital certificate
Answer: C
70-741 pdf Explanation:
RSS (most commonly translated as “Really Simple Syndication” but sometimes “Rich Site Summary”) is a
family of Web feed formats used to publish frequently updated works such as blog entries, news headlines,
audio, and video in a standardized format. An RSS document (which is called a “feed”, “Web feed”, or
“channel”) includes full or summarized text, plus metadata such as publishing dates and authorship. Web
feeds benefit publishers by letting them syndicate content automatically. They benefit readers who want to
subscribe to timely updates from favored Web sites or to aggregate feeds from many sites into one place.
RSS feeds can be read using software called an “RSS reader”, “feed reader”, or “aggregator”, which can
be Web-based, desktop-based, or mobile-device-based. A standardized XML
file format allows the information to be published once and viewed by many different programs. The user
subscribes to a feed by entering into the reader the feed’s URI – often referred to informally as a “URL”
(Uniform Resource Locator), although technically the two terms are not exactly synonymous – or by
clicking an RSS icon in a browser that initiates the subscription process. The RSS reader checks the
user’s subscribed feeds regularly for new work, downloads any updates that it finds, and provides a user
interface to monitor and read the feeds.
Answer option A is incorrect. A podcast (or netcast) is a series of digital media files (either audio or video)
that are released episodically and often downloaded through web syndication. The mode of delivery
differentiates podcasting from other means of accessing media files over the Internet, such as direct
download, or streamed webcasting.
Answer option B is incorrect. ActiveX is a framework for defining reusable software components that
perform a particular function or a set of functions in Microsoft Windows in a way that is independent of the
programming language used to implement them. A software application can then be composed from one
or more of these components in order to provide its functionality. Many Microsoft Windows applications –
including many of those from Microsoft itself, such as Internet Explorer, Microsoft Office, Microsoft Visual
Studio, and Windows Media Player use ActiveX controls to build their feature-set and also encapsulate
their own functionality as ActiveX controls which can then be embedded into other applications. Internet
Explorer also allows embedding ActiveX controls onto web pages.
Answer option D is incorrect. A digital certificate is an electronic ‘credit card’ that establishes an
individual’s credentials when doing business or other transactions on the Web. It is issued by a
certification authority (CA). It contains the name, a serial number, expiration dates, a copy of the
certificate holder’s public key (used for encrypting messages and digital signatures), and the digital
signature of the certificate-issuing authority so that a recipient can verify that the certificate is real. Some
digital certificates conform to a standard, X.509. Digital certificates can be kept in registries so that
authenticating users can look up other users’ public keys.


4.You work as a Security Administrator for Net Perfect Inc. The company has a Windows-based network.
The employees use Internet Explorer for Internet surfing. You want to block access to the vulnerable sites
from the internal network of the company. To accomplish the task, you need to configure some security

settings for Internet Explorer.
Which of the following features of Internet Explorer do you need to configure?
A. Pop-up blocker
B. InPrivate Browsing
C. Content Advisor
D. Internet Explorer Compatibility Evaluator
Answer: C
70-741 dumps Explanation:
Content Advisor is a feature of Internet Explorer that allows an administrator to control the Internet
contents that can be viewed on a single computer. Before configuring the Content Advisor, it needs to be
enabled. When it is enabled, Internet Explorer first checks whether the website meets the specified
criteria or not. A user can adjust the content rating settings to reflect the appropriate level of content in the
areas of language, sex, nudity, and violence. He can also create a list of websites that are always
viewable or never viewable regardless of the contents.
Answer option D is incorrect. The Internet Explorer Compatibility Evaluator (IECE) allows a user to
determine whether a Web site or Web application will run properly in a new version of Internet Explorer
such as Windows Internet Explorer 7. IECE works by enabling compatibility logging in Internet Explorer,
parsing logged issues, and creating a log file for uploading to the ACT Log Processing Service. A user can
view the compatibility issues located by IECE as a report with the help of the Application Compatibility
Manager.
Answer option B is incorrect. InPrivate Browsing is a feature of Internet Explorer 8. When this feature is
active, Internet Explorer does not store history, cookies, temporary Internet files, or other data, thus
protecting privacy of the user while using Internet Explorer 8. InPrivate Browsing can be activated by
pressing Ctrl+Shift+P. This feature is quite helpful when a user does not want to leave any trace of his
Web browsing activity such as, e-mailing at an Internet cafe or shopping for a gift.
Answer option A is incorrect. Pop-up blocker is a feature of Internet Explorer (IE) 7+. It enables users to
block most pop-ups while they are surfing the Internet on their computers. Users can choose the level of
blocking. They can either block all pop-up windows or allow pop-ups they want to see. By default, the
pop-up blocker is enabled in IE 7+. While the pop-up blocker is enabled, a user can see the blocked
pop-ups by clicking the IE 7+ information bar.

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FLYDUMPS give you complete info about Microsoft 70-412 vce is based on 55 questions which aim to target the practical abilities of candidates. These questions must be answered in the allotted time of 90 minutes. No additional time is allotted to the candidates and they are not allowed to consult any helping material during exam time. This certification is only held in English. https://www.pass4itsure.com/70-412.html

  70-412 VCE
QUESTION 1 
Your company recently deployed a new Active Directory forest named contoso.com. The first domain controller in the forest runs Windows Server 2012 R2. 
You need to identify the time-to-live (TTL) value for domain referrals to the NETLOGON and SYSVOL shared folders. 
Which tool should you use? 
A. Ultrasound 
B. Replmon 
C. Dfsdiag 
D. Frsutil 
Correct Answer: C Explanation 

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: 
What does DFSDiag do? 
dfsdiag /testreferral: 
Perform specific tests, depending on the type of referral being used. 

* For Sysvol and Netlogon referrals perform the validation for Domain referrals and that it's TTL has the 
default value (900s). 
Etc. 


QUESTION 2 
Your network contains two Active Directory forests named contoso.com and adatum.com. Contoso.com contains one domain. Adatum.com contains a child domain named child.adatum.- com. 
Contoso.com has a one-way forest trust to adatum.com. Selective authentication is enabled on the forest trust. 
Several user accounts are migrated from child.adatum.com to adatum.com. Users report that after the migration, they fail to access resources in contoso.com. The users suc- cessfully accessed the resources in contoso.com before the accounts were migrated. 
You need to ensure that the migrated users can access the resources in contoso.com. 
What should you do? 
A. Replace the existing forest trust with an external trust. 
B. Run netdom and specify the /quarantine attribute. 
C. Disable SID filtering on the existing forest trust. 
D. Disable selective authentication on the existing forest trust. 
Correct Answer: C Explanation 

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: Security Considerations for Trusts Need to gain access to the resources in contoso.com 
Disabling SID Filter Quarantining on External Trusts Although it reduces the security of your forest (and is therefore not recommended), you can dis- able SID filter quarantining for an external trust by using the Netdom.exe tool. You should con- sider disabling SID filter quarantining only in the following situations: 
* Users have been migrated to the trusted domain with their SID histories preserved, and you want to grant 
them access to resources in the trusting domain based on the SID history attribute. 
Etc. 

Incorrect: not B. Enables administrators to manage Active Directory domains and trust relationships from the command prompt, /quarantine Sets or clears the domain quarantine not D. Selective authentication over a forest trust restricts access to only those users in a trusted forest who have been explicitly given authentication permissions to computer objects (resource computers) that reside in the trusting forest 
 

QUESTION 3 
Your network contains an Active Directory forest named adatum.com. The forest contains a sin- gle domain. The domain contains four servers. The servers are configured as shown in the fol- lowing table. 

You need to update the schema to support a domain controller that will run Windows Server 2012 R2. On which server should you run adprep.exe? 
A. Server1 
B. DC3 
C. DC2 

D. DC1 Correct Answer: B 
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: 
Upgrade Domain Controllers to Windows Server 2012 R2 and Windows Server 2012 

You can use adprep.exe on domain controllers that run 64-bit versions of Windows Server 2008 or 
Windows Server 2008 R2 to upgrade to Windows Server 2012. You cannot upgrade domain controllers 
that run Windows Server 2003 or 32-bit versions of Windows Server 2008. To re- place them, install 
domain controllers that run a later version of Windows Server in the domain, and then remove the domain 
controllers that Windows Server 2003. 

  70-412 VCE

QUESTION 4 
Your network contains an Active Directory forest named contoso.com. The forest contains three domains. All domain controllers run Windows Server 2012 R2. 
The forest has a two-way realm trust to a Kerberos realm named adatum.com. 
You discover that users in adatum.com can only access resources in the root domain of contoso.- com. 
You need to ensure that the adatum.com users can access the resources in all of the domains in the forest. 
What should you do in the forest? 
A. Delete the realm trust and create a forest trust. 
B. Delete the realm trust and create three external trusts. 
C. Modify the incoming realm trust. 
D. Modify the outgoing realm trust. 
Correct Answer: D Explanation 

Explanation/Reference:
* 
A one-way, outgoing realm trust allows resources in your Windows Server domain (the do- main that you are logged on to at the time that you run the New Trust Wizard) to be accessed by users in the Kerberos realm. 

* 
You can establish a realm trust between any non-Windows Kerberos version 5 (V5) realm and an Active Directory domain. This trust relationship allows cross-platform interoperability with security services that are based on other versions of the Kerberos V5 protocol, for example, UNIX and MIT implementations. Realm trusts can switch from nontransitive to transitive and back. Realm trusts can also be either one-way or two-way. 


Reference: Create a One-Way, Outgoing, Realm Trust 
QUESTION 5 
Your network contains an Active Directory forest named contoso.com. The forest contains two domains named contoso.com and childl.contoso.com. The domains contain three domain con- trollers. 
The domain controllers are configured as shown in the following table. 

You need to ensure that the KDC support for claims, compound authentication, and kerberos ar- moring setting is enforced in the child1.contoso.com domain. 
Which two actions should you perform? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.) 
A. Upgrade DC1 to Windows Server 2012 R2. 
B. Upgrade DC11 to Windows Server 2012 R2. 
C. Raise the domain functional level of childl.contoso.com. 
D. Raise the domain functional level of contoso.com. 
E. Raise the forest functional level of contoso.com. 
Correct Answer: AE Explanation 

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: 
The root domain in the forest must be at Windows Server 2012 level. First upgrade DC1 to this level (A), 
then raise the contoso.com domain functional level to Windows Server 2012 (E). 

* (A) To support resources that use claims-based access control, the principal's domains will need to be running one of the following: / All Windows Server 2012 domain controllers / Sufficient Windows Server 2012 domain controllers to handle all the Windows 8 device au- thentication requests / Sufficient Windows Server 2012 domain controllers to handle all the Windows Server 2012 re- source protocol transition requests to support non-Windows 8 devices 
Reference: What's New in Kerberos Authentication http://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/hh831747.aspx. 
QUESTION 6 
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. All domain controllers run Windows Server 2012 R2. The domain contains two domain controllers. 
The domain controllers are configured as shown in the following table. 

You configure a user named User1 as a delegated administrator of DC10. 
You need to ensure that User1 can log on to DC10 if the network link between the Main site and the Branch site fails. 
What should you do? 
A. Add User1 to the Domain Admins group. 
B. On DC10, modify the User Rights Assignment in Local Policies. 
C. Run repadmin and specify the /prp parameter. 
D. On DC10, run ntdsutil and configure the settings in the Roles context. 
Correct Answer: C Explanation 

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: 
repadmin /prp will allow the password caching of the local administrator to the RODC. This command lists 
and modifies the Password Replication Policy (PRP) for read-only domain controllers (RODCs). 

QUESTION 7 
Your company has offices in Montreal, New York, and Amsterdam. The network contains an Active Directory forest named contoso.com. An Active Directory site exists for each office. All of the sites connect to each other by using the DEFAULTIPSITELINK site link. 
You need to ensure that only between 20:00 and 08:00, the domain controllers in the Montreal office replicate the Active Directory changes to the domain controllers in the Amsterdam office. 
The solution must ensure that the domain controllers in the Montreal and the New York offices can replicate the Active Directory changes any time of day. 
What should you do? 
A. Create a new site link that contains Montreal and Amsterdam. Remove Amsterdam from DE-FAULTIPSITE1INK. Modify the schedule of DEFAULTIPSITE1INK. 
B. Create a new site link that contains Montreal and Amsterdam. Create a new site link bridge. Modify the schedule of DEFAU LTIPSITE1INK. 
C. Create a new site link that contains Montreal and Amsterdam. Remove Amsterdam from DE-FAULTIPSITELINK. Modify the schedule of the new site link. 
D. Create a new site link that contains Montreal and Amsterdam. Create a new site link bridge. Modify the schedule of the new site link. 
Correct Answer: C Explanation 

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: 
Very Smartly reworded with same 3 offices. In the exam correct answer is "Create a new site link that 
contains Newyork to Montreal. Remove Montreal from DEFAULTIPSITE1INK.Mod- ify the schedule of the 
new site link". 

Reference: How Active Directory Replication Topology Works http://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ 
cc755994(v=ws.10).aspx 

QUESTION 8 
Your network contains two Web servers named Server1 and Server2. Both servers run Windows Server 
2012 R2. 

Server1 and Server2 are nodes in a Network Load Balancing (NLB) cluster. The NLB cluster contains an 
application named App1 that is accessed by using the URL http://app1.contoso.com. 
You plan to perform maintenance on Server1. 

You need to ensure that all new connections to App1 are directed to Server2. The solution must not 
disconnect the existing connections to Server1. 
What should you run? 

A. The Set-NlbCluster cmdlet 
B. The Set-NlbClusterNode cmdlet 
C. The Stop-NlbCluster cmdlet 
D. The Stop-NlbClusterNode cmdlet 
Correct Answer: D Explanation 

Explanation/Reference:
The Stop-NlbClusterNode cmdlet stops a node in an NLB cluster. When you use the stop the nodes in the 
cluster, client connections that are already in progress are interrupted. To avoid in- terrupting active 
connections, consider using the -drain parameter, which allows the node to con- tinue servicing active 
connections but disables all new traffic to that node. 

-Drain <SwitchParameter> 
Drains existing traffic before stopping the cluster node. If this parameter is omitted, existing traf- fic will be 
dropped. 

QUESTION 9 
Your network contains two servers named HV1 and HV2. Both servers run Windows Server 2012 R2 and have the Hyper-V server role installed. 
HV1 hosts 25 virtual machines. The virtual machine configuration files and the virtual hard disks are stored in D:\VM. 
You shut down all of the virtual machines on HV1. 
You copy D:\VM to D:\VM on HV2. 
You need to start all of the virtual machines on HV2. You want to achieve this goal by using the minimum amount of administrative effort. 
What should you do? 
A. Run the Import-VMInitialReplication cmdlet. 
B. From HV1, export all virtual machines to D:\VM. Copy D:\VM to D:\VM on HV2 and over- write the existing files. On HV2, run the Import Virtual Machine wizard. 
C. From HV1, export all virtual machines to D:\VM. Copy D:\VM to D:\VM on HV2 and over- write the existing files. On HV2, run the New Virtual Machine wizard. 
D. Run the Import-VM cmdlet. 
Correct Answer: D Explanation 

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: 
Import-VM 
Imports a virtual machine from a file. 
Example 
Imports the virtual machine from its configuration file. The virtual machine is registered in- place, so its files 
are not copied. 

Windows PowerShell 
PS C:\> Import-VM Path 'D:\Test\VirtualMachines\5AE40946-3A98-428E-8C83-081A3C6B- D18C.XML' 

Reference: Import-VM 

QUESTION 10 
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains two member servers named Server1 and Server2. All servers run Windows Server 2012 R2. 
Server1 and Server2 have the Failover Clustering feature installed. The servers are configured as nodes in a failover cluster named Cluster1. Cluster1 contains a cluster disk resource. 
A developer creates an application named App1. App1 is NOT a cluster-aware application. App1 runs as a service. App1 stores date on the cluster disk resource. 
You need to ensure that App1 runs in Cluster1. The solution must minimize development effort. 
Which cmdlet should you run? 
A. Add-ClusterGenericServiceRole 
B. Add-ClusterGenericApplicationRole 
C. Add-ClusterScaleOutFileServerRole 
D. Add-ClusterServerRole 
Correct Answer: B Explanation 

Explanation/Reference:
Add-ClusterGenericApplicationRole Configure high availability for an application that was not originally designed to run in a failover cluster. If you run an application as a Generic Application, the cluster software will start the application, then 
periodically query the operating system to see whether the application appears to be run- ning. If so, it is 
presumed to be online, and will not be restarted or failed over. 

EXAMPLE 1 -Command Prompt: C:\PS> 

Add-ClusterGenericApplicationRole -CommandLine NewApplication.exe 

Name OwnerNode State 

cluster1GenApp node2 Online Description 
This command configures NewApplication.exe as a generic clustered application. A default name will be used for client access and this application requires no storage. 
Ref: Add-ClusterGenericApplicationRole http://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ee460976.aspx 
QUESTION 11 
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. The system properties of Server1 are shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.) 

You need to configure Server1 as an enterprise subordinate certification authority (CA). What should you do first? 
A. Add RAM to the server. 
B. Set the Startup Type of the Certificate Propagation service to Automatic. 
C. Install the Certification Authority Web Enrollment role service. 
D. Join Server1 to the contoso.com domain. 
Correct Answer: D Explanation 

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: Enterprise CAs must be domain members. From the exhibit we see that it is only a 
Workgroup member. 

Note: 
A new CA can be the root CA of a new PKI or subordinate to another in an existing PKI. 
Enterprise subordinate certification authority 
An enterprise subordinate CA must get a CA certificate from an enterprise root CA but can then issue 
certificates to all users and computers in the enterprise. These types of CAs are often used for load 
balancing of an enterprise root CA. 

Enterprise CAs can be used to issue certificates to support such services as digital signatures, Se- cure 
Multipurpose Internet Mail Extensions (S/MIME) secure mail, Secure Sockets Layer (SSL) or Transport 
Layer Security (TLS) secured web access and smart card authentication. Enterprise CAsare used to 
provide certificate services to internal users who have user accounts in the do- main. 

Requiring Active Directory, an Enterprise subordinate CA obtains its certificate from an already existing 
CA. 

These types of CAs are used to provide smart-card-enabled logons by Windows XP and other Windows 
Server 2003 machines. 

After a root certification authority (CA) has been installed, many organizations will install one or more 
subordinate CAs to implement policy restrictions on the public key infrastructure (PKI) and to issue 
certificates to end clients. Using at least one subordinate CA can help protect the root CA from 
unnecessary exposure. If a subordinate CA will be used to issue certificates to users or computers with 
accounts in an Active Directory domain, installing the subordinate CA as an enterprise CA allows you to 
use the client's existing account data in Active Directory Do- main Services (AD DS) to issue and manage 
certificates and to publish certificates to AD DS. Membership in local Administrators, or equivalent, is the 
minimum required to complete this procedure. If this will be an enterprise CA, membership in Domain 
Admins, or equivalent, is the minimum required to complete this procedure. 

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Read More: 200-105 pdf

Exam 70-412: Configuring Advanced Windows Server 2012 Services

If you’re considering achieving the MCSA Windows Server 2012 certification, you’ll need to pass 3 exams 70-410, 70-411 and 70-412. Having launched our blog today we focus on exam 70-411: Administering Windows Server 2012. This exam proves your knowledge and skills in implementation and management of Microsoft Windows Server 2012’s components like Active Directory domain services, Group Policy, Remote Access and Update Management.

The 70-411 pdf builds upon the fundamental skills demonstrated in the 70-410 exam and proves you can manage the majority of Windows Server 2012’s functions. Remember, you are required to pass all three exams before you are MCSA: Windows Server 2012 certified.

We’ve researched and compiled 10 tips that will help you get you the skills and knowledge to pass the second Microsoft MCSA: Windows Server 2012 certification exam, 70-411.

70-411 PDF

1. Use the Microsoft Virtual Academy

Microsoft’s Virtual Academy is one of the most useful resources Microsoft provides. Watch videos from Microsoft experts, giving you in-depth training and guidance on core Microsoft technologies. There are also online courses aligned to Microsoft exams.

You can find resources for the MCSA: 70-411 pdf here. This takes you through two substantial videos with all the insight into the details of the overview of the exam aims and contents. These videos also point you to, and talk you through the 70-411 exam page on the Microsoft Learning website.

I’d recommend using the Microsoft Virtual Academy to prepare you for your studies. Once you know more about what you’ll be facing, you’ll be better placed to begin your studying and exam preparation.

2. Use a revision guide

A revision guide is a must-have for any exam. It’ll guide you through your studies, highlighting which topics require more focus than others. Study guides often define terms you may not understand and explain theory with a high level of detail.Don’t mess around searching for study guides, here’s our top recommendations. Like the 70-410 exam before it, Microsoft have a really useful official 70-411 exam revision guide called, “Exam Ref 70-411 Administering Windows Server 2012 R2 (MCSA)”. If you used Microsoft’s guide for the 70-410, this will continue nicely where the last left off, using a similar style. It is well structured to help you focus on each exam objective and also presents real-world scenarios to put your knowledge into context. And finally, published from Microsoft, you can trust that it contains all the information you need for the exam.

An alternative 70-411 pdf  is William Panek’s MCSA Windows Server 2012 R2 Complete Study Guide: Exams 70-410, 70-411, 70-412. It comes with weight as it’s written by one of Microsoft’s MVPs and covers all the topics in all three of the MCSA: Windows Server 2012 certification exams. This goes into extensive detail to improve your knowledge and prepare you for the 70-411 exam. Other features include hands-on exercises, practice exam questions, electronic flashcards and over two hours of video content. All of this creates a revision guide package that is perfect at improving your Windows Server 2012 knowledge in all the areas in the three exams.

3. Join a forum

Sharing your Microsoft 70-411 exam queries and experiences can help you gain ideas and learn from others in the same position as yourself. Doing this in an online forum is easy, can be a well-earned break from revision and may surprise you in the amount of questions it answers. Take each answer with a pinch of salt – not everyone is an expert.One of the best for Microsoft exams is TechNet’s forums. You can search for specific exam related questions, or look up general technology related queries. You could pose a direct question yourself, or use an existing thread with many responses and answers already available. There are many ways in which an online forum could be helpful to your 70-411 exam studies.

70-411 PDF

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The New Cisco 200-101 VCE Free CCNA Study Guide

Where do I find a 400-051 PDF or any dump to download? Here you can easily get the latest Cisco CCIE 400-051 exam dumps and 400-051 pdf! We’ve compiled the latest Cisco 400-051 exam questions and answers to help you save most of your time. Cisco 400-051 exam “CCIE Collaboration Written Exam” https://www.pass4itsure.com/400-051.html (Q&As:150). All exam dump! Guaranteed to pass for the first time!

[2020.3]Cisco CCIE Collaboration 400-051 exam question and answer

QUESTION 1
Refer to the exhibit.pass4itsure 400-051 question q1

An engineer is configuring dynamic Call routing and DN learning between two Cisco Unified CM and Two Cisco Unified
CME systems. Which two configuration steps are required for all this feature to work? (Choose two)
A. Configure routers A and to use a different autonomous system number for DN routing
B. Configure routers A and to use EIGRP for IP Routing
C. Configure Cisco Unified CM A+B as service advertisement framework clients
D. Configure router A and to use OSPF for IP Routing
E. Configure Cisco Unified CME A+B as service advertisements forwarders
F. Configure routers A and to use the same autonomous system number for DN Routing
Correct Answer: CF

QUESTION 2
On a Cisco Unified Communications Manager SIP trunk with a single remote device and OPTIONS ping feature
enabled, which response from the SIP remote peer causes the trunk to be marked as “Out of Service”?
A. 401 Unauthorized
B. 505 Version Not Supported C. 406 Not Acceptable
D. 408 Request Timeout
E. 500 Server Internal Error
Correct Answer: D
408 Request Timeout Couldn\\’t find the user in time. The server could not produce a response within a suitable amount
of time, for example, if it could not determine the location of the user in time. The client MAY repeat the request without
modifications at any later time
References: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/List_of_SIP_response_codes

QUESTION 3
Refer to the exhibit. Which description of a User Agent Server that sends this message this message is true?pass4itsure 400-051 question q3

A. The UAS sends this message in response to an earlier ACK received.
B. It is not possible for the UAS to send this message.
C. The UAS sends this message in response to an earlier PRACK received.
D. The UAS sends this single message in response to an earlier INVITE that contains PRACK.
E. The UAS sends this message in response to an earlier INVITE received.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4
Which Cisco Unified Contact Center Express data store contains user scripts, grammars, and documents?
A. configuration data store
B. repository data store
C. agent data store
D. historical data store
E. script data store
Correct Answer: B
Unified CCX applications might use auxiliary files that interact with callers, such as scripts, pre-recorded prompts,
grammars, and custom Java classes. Depending on each implementation, Unified CCX applications use some or all of
the following file types. The Unified CCX Server\\’s local disk prompt, grammar, and document files are synchronized
with the central repository during Unified CCX engine startup and during run-time when the Repository datastore is
modified.

QUESTION 5
Which four presence statuses are supported in Cisco IM and Presence federation with Microsoft Lync server? (Choose
four.)
A. offline
B. on the phone
C. busy
D. idle
E. invisible
F. in a meeting
G. available
H. away
Correct Answer: ABGH

QUESTION 6
Which three issues prevent a customer from seeing the presence status of a new contact in their Jabber contact list?
(Choose three.)
A. incoming calling search space on SIP trunk to IMandP
B. IMandP incoming ACL blocking inbound status
C. subscribe calling search space on SIP trunk to IMandP
D. PC cannot resolve the FQDN of IMandP
E. Owner user ID is not set on device.
F. Primary DN is not set in end user configuration for that user.
G. Subscriber calling search space is not defined on user\\’s phone.
Correct Answer: BCD
References: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/voice-unified-communications/unified-presence/97443-cups-cupc-ts.html

QUESTION 7
Which two Cisco IOS multipoint video conferencing profiles are supported on the Cisco Integrated Router Generation 2
with packet voice and video digital signal processor 3? (Choose two.)
A. homogeneous
B. rendezvous
C. guaranteed-audio
D. scheduled
E. guaranteed-video F. ad-hoc
Correct Answer: AC
Q. What video conferences are supported?
A. Three types of video profiles are supported: homogeneous conferences (video switching), heterogeneous
conferences (video mixing), and guaranteed audio conferences (best-effort video).
References: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/products/collateral/unified-communications/voice-video-conferencing-isr-
routers/qa_c67-649850.html

QUESTION 8
Drag and drop the logical components of a traditional SDN infrastructure into the correct order.
Similar to open system interconnection model (OSI model), working your way up from the network infrastructure layer.
Select and Place:pass4itsure 400-051 question q8

Correct Answer:

pass4itsure 400-051 question q8-1

QUESTION 9
Which Cisco Unified Communications Manager deployment model for clustering over the IP WAN mandates a primary
and a backup subscriber at the same site?
A. multisite with centralized call processing
B. multisite with distributed call processing
C. local failover
D. remote failover
E. remote failover with Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express as SRST
Correct Answer: C
Clustering Over the IP WAN You may deploy a single Unified CM cluster across multiple sites that are connected by an
IP WAN with QoS features enabled. This section provides a brief overview of clustering over the WAN. For further
information, refer to the chapter on Call Processing. Clustering over the WAN can support two types of
deployments:?ocal Failover Deployment Model
Local failover requires that you place the Unified CM subscriber and backup servers at the same site, with no WAN
between them. This type of deployment is ideal for two to four sites with Unified CM.
?emote Failover Deployment Model
Remote failover allows you to deploy primary and backup call processing servers split across the WAN. Using this type
of deployment, you may have up to eight sites with Unified CM subscribers being backed up by Unified CM subscribers
at
another site.
References: http://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/voice_ip_comm/cucm/srnd/4x/42models.html

QUESTION 10
Users report that they are unable to control their Cisco 6941 desk phone from their Jabber client, but the Jabber client
works as a soft phone. Which two configuration changes allow this? (Choose two)
A. Assign group “Standard CTI Allow Control of Phones supporting Connected Xfer and Conf” to the user.
B. Set the End User page to the Primary Extension on the desk phone.
C. Set the Owner User ID on the desk phone.
D. Assign group “Standard CTI Enabled User Group” to the user.
E. Assign group “Standard CTI Allow Control of Phones Supporting Rollover Mode” to the user.
Correct Answer: AE

Cisco CCIE Collaboration Change 2020

CLCOR 350-801 – Cisco: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/training-events/training-certifications/exams/current-list/clcor-350-801.html

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Pass4itsure 300-810 exam tips: Cisco 300-810 exam dumps

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300-820 CLCEI – Cisco: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/training-events/training-certifications/exams/current-list/clcei-300-820.html

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Cisco CCIE 400-051 Exam pdf

[PDF] Free Cisco 400-051 pdf dumps download from Google Drive: https://drive.google.com/open?id=1FY_PqqCSl44jaa-tOWmYwT8OAtM6IVCG

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Cisco exam certification information

400-051 CCIE Collaboration – Cisco: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/training-events/training-certifications/exams/current-list/ccie-collaboration.html

Cisco CCIE 400-051 Online Exam Practice Questions

QUESTION 1
Tom Lee is an active user in a Cisco Unified CM deployment with fully functional LDAP synchronization and
authentication to an Active Directory. Daily resynchronization is set at 11:00 pm. At 8:00 am on March 1st 2014, this
user was deleted from the AD. What is the status of this user in the Unified CM database at 1:00 am on March 2nd
2014?
A. active
B. inactive
C. delete pending
D. awaiting authorization
E. permanently deleted
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
On which web administration page can you verify database replication health in a two-server Cisco Unified CM cluster
running version 9.1?
A. Cisco Unified OS Administration
B. Cisco Unified CM Administration
C. Disaster Recovery System
D. Cisco Unified Reporting
E. Cisco Unified Serviceability.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3
Which route pattern is matched in Cisco Unified Communications Manager version 11.0 when a user dials 2001?
A. 200X configured with urgent priority
B. 20[02-4]1 configured with urgent priority
C. 200[1-4] configured with urgent priority
D. 200[^2-4] configured with urgent priority
E. 200! configured with urgent priority
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4
You are assisting a customer to troubleshoot a SIP early-offer problem with a SIP service provider. You have enabled
Cisco CallManager trace and set the debug trace level to Detailed for SIP Call Processing trace on their standalone
Cisco Unified Communications Manager 9.1 system. Using the RTMT tool, your customer has remote browsed to the
Cisco UCM and asked you which trace file to download.
What is the trace file name syntax in which detailed SIP messages are logged?
A. SDL
B. SDI
C. CCM
D. Call logs
E. Traces
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
What is a major disadvantage of virtual machines versus containers?
A. Operational Management
B. Vendor lock-in
C. Limited management tools
D. Security
E. Boot time
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6
Which enrollment method does a Cisco IOS VPN router trustpoint use to install a Certificate Authority Proxy Function
certificate for LSC validation of a Cisco IP phone client?
A. HTTP proxy server
B. certificate authority server URL
C. terminal
D. self-signed
E. registration authority
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7
Which statement about Cisco EnergyWise domain member neighbor formation is true?
A. Cisco EnergyWise supports static neighbors, but the neighbor relationship is only possible if a noncontiguous domain
member and a contiguous domain member have a static neighbor entry pointing to each other.
B. Cisco EnergyWise static neighbors can be formed even if domain members are not physically contiguous.
C. Static neighbors can be manually defined on Cisco EnergyWise domain members, but TCP protocols must be used.
D. Static neighbors can be manually defined on Cisco EnergyWise domain members, but they have a lower priority
compared to the autodiscovered members.
E. Static neighbors can be manually defined on Cisco EnergyWise domain members and the TCP or UDP protocol can
be used.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8
Refer to the exhibit. Assume that the bottom logical partition policy entry in Cisco Unified Communications Manager was
provisioned last. How is the call treated when an IP phone in the Bangalore GeoLocation places a call to a MGCP
gateway with FXO ports in the San Jose GeoLocation?pass4itsure 400-051 exam question q8

A. The call is denied because the last added logical partition policy takes precedence when multiple matches exist.
B. The call is allowed because the first listed logical partition policy takes precedence when multiple matches exist.
C. The call is denied because the call flow matches neither policy entries.
D. The call is allowed because the call flow matches neither policy entries.
E. The call is allowed because only the top policy entry matches the call flow.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
Which two types of patterns can optionally be marked with urgent priority in Cisco Unified Communications Manager
version 11.0? (Choose two.)
A. Route Pattern
B. SIP Route Pattern
C. Voice mail Pilot Number
D. Intercom Directory Number
E. CTI Route Point Directory Number
F. Meet-Me Number
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 10
Refer to the exhibit. A Unity administrator is assigned to determine why the Corporate System users cannot call certain
Call Handlers. What configuration element should be changed to allow the users to reach this call handler?pass4itsure 400-051 exam question q10

A. The Partition
B. The Search Space
C. The Active Schedule
D. The Phone System
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 11
Which Cisco Unified Contact Center Express data store contains user scripts, grammars, and documents?
A. configuration data store
B. repository data store
C. agent data store
D. historical data store
E. script data store
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 12
Refer to the exhibit.pass4itsure 400-051 exam question q12

Assume the B-ACD configuration on a Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express router is operational. How
much time does a member of the hunt group have to answer a queue call that is ringing on their extension?
A. 5 seconds
B. 10 seconds
C. 20 seconds
D. 30 seconds
E. 40 seconds
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 13
In Cisco IOS routers, which chipset is the PVDM2-32 DSP hardware based on?
A. C5441
B. C549
C. C5510
D. C5421
E. Broadcom 1500
Correct Answer: C

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Microsoft AI-100 exam with answers

AI-100: Designing and Implementing an Azure AI Solution

  • Analyze solution requirements (25-30%)
  • Design AI solutions (40-45%)
  • Implement and monitor AI solutions (25-30%)

https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/learn/certifications/exams/ai-100

Other Microsoft exam dumps you might be interested in!

QUESTION 1
You have an intelligent edge solution that processes data and outputs the data to an Azure Cosmos DB account that
uses the SQL API.
You need to ensure that you can perform full text searches of the data.
Which three actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions
to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
Select and Place:

Pass4itsure Microsoft AI-100 exam questions q1

Correct Answer:

Pass4itsure Microsoft AI-100 exam questions q1-2

QUESTION 2
You are designing a solution that will ingest temperature data from IoT devices, calculate the average temperature, and
then take action based on the aggregated data. The solution must meet the following requirements:
Minimize the amount of uploaded data.
Take action based on the aggregated data as quickly as possible.
What should you include in the solution? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

Pass4itsure Microsoft AI-100 exam questions q2

Correct Answer:

Pass4itsure Microsoft AI-100 exam questions q2-2

Box 1: Azure Functions
Azure Function is a (serverless) service to host functions (little piece of code) that can be used for e. g. event driven
applications.
General rule is always difficult since everything depends on your requirement but if you have to analyze a data stream,
you should take a look at Azure Stream Analytics and if you want to implement something like a serverless event driven
or
timer-based application, you should check Azure Function or Logic Apps.
Note: Azure IoT Edge allows you to deploy complex event processing, machine learning, image recognition, and other
high value AI without writing it in-house. Azure services like Azure Functions, Azure Stream Analytics, and Azure
Machine
Learning can all be run on-premises via Azure IoT Edge.
Box 2: An Azure IoT Edge device
Azure IoT Edge moves cloud analytics and custom business logic to devices so that your organization can focus on
business insights instead of data management.
References:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/iot-edge/about-iot-edge

QUESTION 3
Your company recently deployed several hardware devices that contain sensors. The sensors generate new data on an
hourly basis. The data generated is stored on-premises and retained for several years.
During the past two months, the sensors generated 300 GB of data. You plan to move the data to Azure and then
perform advanced analytics on the data. You need to recommend an Azure storage solution for the data.
Which storage solution should you recommend?
A. Azure Queue storage
B. Azure Cosmos DB
C. Azure Blob storage
D. Azure SQL Database
Correct Answer: C
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/architecture/data-guide/technology-choices/data-storage

QUESTION 4
Your company has an Azure subscription that contains an Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) tenant.
Azure AD contains 500 user accounts for your company\\’s employees. Some temporary employees do NOT have user accounts in Azure AD You are designing a storage solution for video files and metadata files.
You plan to deploy an application to perform analysis of the metadata files. You need to recommend an authentication
solution to provide links to the video files. The solution must provide access to each file for only five minutes.
What should you include in the in the recommendation?
A. Secondary Storage Key
B. Primary Storage Key
C. Shared Access Signature
D. Azure Active Directory
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
Your company plans to deploy an AI solution that processes IoT data in real-time. You need to recommend a solution
for the planned deployment that meets the following requirements:
Sustain up to 50 Mbps of events without throttling.
Retain data for 60 days.
What should you recommend?
A. Apache Kafka
B. Microsoft Azure IoT Hub
C. Microsoft Azure Data Factory
D. Microsoft Azure Machine Learning
Correct Answer: A
Apache Kafka is an open-source distributed streaming platform that can be used to build real-time streaming data
pipelines and applications.
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/hdinsight/kafka/apache-kafka-introduction

QUESTION 6
You deploy an infrastructure for a big data workload. You need to run Azure HDInsight and Microsoft Machine Learning
Server. You plan to set the RevoScaleR compute contexts to run rx function calls in parallel.
What are three compute contexts that you can use for Machine Learning Server? Each correct answer presents a
complete solution. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. SQL
B. Spark
C. local parallel
D. HBase
E. local sequential
Correct Answer: ABC
Remote computing is available for specific data sources on selected platforms. The following tables document the
supported combinations.
RxInSqlServer, sqlserver: Remote compute context. Target server is a single database node (SQL Server 2016 R
Services or SQL Server 2017 Machine Learning Services). Computation is parallel, but not distributed.
RxSpark, spark: Remote compute context. Target is a Spark cluster on Hadoop. RxLocalParallel, localpar: Compute
context is often used to enable controlled, distributed computations relying on instructions you provide rather than a builtin
scheduler on Hadoop. You can use compute context for manual distributed computing.
References:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/machine-learning-server/r/concept-what-is-compute-context

QUESTION 7
You are designing an AI solution that will be used to find buildings in aerial pictures.
Users will upload the pictures to an Azure Storage account. A separate JSON document will contain for the pictures.
The solution must meet the following requirements:
Store metadata for the pictures in a data store.
Run a custom vision Azure Machine Learning module to identify the buildings in a picture and the position of the
buildings
Correct Answer:

Pass4itsure Microsoft AI-100 exam questions q7

Box 1: Azure Blob Storage
Containers and blobs support custom metadata, represented as HTTP headers.
Box 2: NV
The NV-series enables powerful remote visualisation workloads and other graphics-intensive applications backed by the
NVIDIA Tesla M60 GPU.
Note: The N-series is a family of Azure Virtual Machines with GPU capabilities. GPUs are ideal for compute and
graphics-intensive workloads, helping customers to fuel innovation through scenarios like high-end remote visualisation,
deep
learning and predictive analytics.
Box 3: F
F-series VMs feature a higher CPU-to-memory ratio. Example use cases include batch processing, web servers,
analytics and gaming.
Incorrect:
A-series VMs have CPU performance and memory configurations best suited for entry level workloads like development
and test.
References:
https://azure.microsoft.com/en-in/pricing/details/virtual-machines/series/

QUESTION 8
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while
others might not have a correct solution. After you answer a question, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result,
these questions will not appear in the review screen.
You have Azure IoT Edge devices that generate streaming data. On the devices, you need to detect anomalies in the
data by using Azure Machine Learning models.
Once an anomaly is detected, the devices must add information about the anomaly to the Azure IoT Hub stream.
Solution: You deploy Azure Functions as an IoT Edge module.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B
Instead use Azure Stream Analytics and REST API.
Note. Available in both the cloud and Azure IoT Edge, Azure Stream Analytics offers built-in machine learning based
anomaly detection capabilities that can be used to monitor the two most commonly occurring anomalies:
temporary and persistent.
Stream Analytics supports user-defined functions, via REST API, that call out to Azure Machine Learning endpoints.
References:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/stream-analytics/stream-analytics-machine-learning- anomaly- detection

QUESTION 9
You are designing a solution that uses drones to monitor remote locations for anomalies. The drones have Azure IoT
Edge devices. The solution must meet the following requirements:
Email a user the picture and location of an anomaly when an anomaly is detected.
Use a video stream to detect anomalies at the location.
Send the pictures and location information to Azure.
Use the latest amount of code possible.
You develop a custom vision Azure Machine Learning module to detect the anomalies.
Which service should you use for each requirement? To answer, drag the appropriate services to the correct
requirements. Each service may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar
between panes or scroll to view content.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Select and Place:

Pass4itsure Microsoft AI-100 exam questions q9

Correct Answer:

Pass4itsure Microsoft AI-100 exam questions q9-2

Explanation/Reference:
Box 1: Azure IOT Edge Example:

Pass4itsure Microsoft AI-100 exam questions q9-3

You configure the Remote Monitoring solution to respond to anomalies detected by an IoT Edge device. IoT Edge
devices let you process telemetry at the edge to reduce the volume of telemetry sent to the solution and to enable faster
responses to events on devices. Box 2: Azure Functions Box 3: Azure Logic Apps
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/iot-accelerators/iot-accelerators-remote-monitoring-edge

QUESTION 10
You design an AI solution that uses an Azure Stream Analytics job to process data from an Azure IoT hub.
The IoT hub receives time series data from thousands of IoT devices at a factory. The job outputs millions of messages
per second. Different applications consume the messages as they are available. The messages must be purged.
You need to choose an output type for the job.
What is the best output type to achieve the goal? More than one answer choice may achieve the goal.
A. Azure Event Hubs
B. Azure SQL Database
C. Azure Blob storage
D. Azure Cosmos DB
Correct Answer: D
Stream Analytics can target Azure Cosmos DB for JSON output, enabling data archiving and low- latency queries on
unstructured JSON data.
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/stream-analytics/stream-analytics-documentdb-output

QUESTION 11
Your company develops an AI application that is orchestrated by using Kubernetes. You need to deploy the application.
Which three actions should you perform? Each correct answer presents part of the solution. NOTE: Each correct
selection is worth one point.
A. Create a Kubernetes cluster.
B. Create an Azure Container Registry instance.
C. Create a container image file.
D. Create a Web App for Containers.
E. Create an Azure container instance.
Correct Answer: CDE

QUESTION 12
You have a solution that runs on a five-node Azure Kubernetes Service (AKS) cluster. The cluster uses an Nseries
virtual machine.
An Azure Batch AI process runs once a day and rarely on demand. You need to recommend a solution to maintain the
cluster configuration when the cluster is not in use.
The solution must not incur any compute costs.
What should you include in the recommendation?
A. Downscale the cluster to one node
B. Downscale the cluster to zero nodes
C. Delete the cluster
Correct Answer: A
An AKS cluster has one or more nodes.
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/aks/concepts-clusters-workloads

QUESTION 13
You have a database that contains sales data.
You plan to process the sales data by using two data streams named Stream1 and Stream2. Stream1 will be used for
purchase order data. Stream2 will be used for reference data.
The reference data is stored in CSV files.
You need to recommend an ingestion solution for each data stream.
What two solutions should you recommend? Each correct answer is a complete solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. an Azure event hub for Stream1 and Azure Blob storage for Stream2
B. Azure Blob storage for Stream1 and Stream2
C. an Azure event hub for Stream1 and Stream2
D. Azure Blob storage for Stream1 and Azure Cosmos DB for Stream2
E. Azure Cosmos DB for Stream1 and an Azure event hub for Stream2
Correct Answer: AB
Stream1 – Azure Event Stream2 – Blob Storage Azure Event Hubs is a highly scalable data streaming platform and
event ingestion service, capable of receiving and processing millions of events per second. Event Hubs can process
and store events, data, or telemetry produced by distributed software and devices. Data sent to an event hub can be
transformed and stored using any real-time analytics provider or batching/storage adapters. Event Hubs provides
publishsubscribe capabilities with low latency at massive scale, which makes it appropriate for big data scenarios.
Stream1, Stream2 – Blob Storage Stream Analytics has first-class integration with Azure data streams as inputs from
three kinds of resources: Azure Event Hubs Azure IoT Hub Azure Blob storage These input resources can live in the
same Azure subscription as your Stream Analytics job or a different subscription.
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/architecture/data-guide/technology-choices/real-time- ingestion

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New changes: Implementing a Hybrid and Secure Messaging Platform

New changes ms-201

The content of this exam was updated on November 25, 2019.

  • Plan and implement a hybrid configuration and migration (35-40%)
  • Secure the messaging environment (40-45%)
  • Manage organizational settings (15-20%)

See details: https://query.prod.cms.rt.microsoft.com/cms/api/am/binary/RE3VUk9

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Test your Microsoft Implementing a Hybrid and Secure Messaging Platform exam level

QUESTION 1
Case Study : Litware,Inc.
Case Study
Overview
Litware, Inc. is food service supplier in Europe.
PhysicalLocations
Litware has a main office in Paris and branch offices in Munich, London, Brussels, Vienna, and Rome.
Each branch office has its own compliance officer.
ExistingEnvironment
The network contains one Active Directory forest named litware.com. The forest contains a single Active Directory
domain. Each office is configured as an Active Directory site. Each branch office is represented organizational unit (OU)
in an
OU named Offices in Active Directory.
Each branch office has a special Administrators group that contains the delegated administrators for that office. Each
Administrators group is named based on its location in a format of RegionalAdmins_Brussels,
RegionalAdmins_Munich,
RegionalAdmins_London, RegionalAdmins_Vienna and RegionalAdmins_Rome.
NetworkInfrastructure
Each office contains two domain controllers from the litware.com domain. All the domain controllers are configured as
DNS servers. All client computers connect only to the DNS servers in their respective office.
All offices have a high-speed connection to the Internet. Each office connects to the Internet by using a VPN appliance.
Each office has the following servers and client computers:
One reverse proxy appliance
One Microsoft Exchange Server 2019 server
One Windows Server Update Services (WSUS) server
Computers that run Windows 10 and have Microsoft Office 2019 installed. The office in Brussels contains an Exchange
Server 2016 server that has the Unified Messaging role installed and hosted voicemail configured.
Mailboxes are hosted on all the Exchange servers. Public folders are hosted only on an Exchange server in the main
office. Litware uses a disjoint namespace to access the servers. Each user has an archive mailbox. Archiving is
configured
to use the default settings. Exchange services are published to the internet by using a reverse proxy in each office. A full
backup of Exchange is performed nightly. Incremental backups occur every six hours. All the users in the transport department connect to network resources by using a connection in the main office.
Requirements
Planned Changes
Litware plans to implement the following changes:
Implement calendar sharing to partner companies.
Implement a solution that prevents malware from being delivered to end users. Use personal archives to eliminate the
need for PST files. Ensure the Brussels office and move all the users in the Brussels office to the main office. All the
mailboxes in the Brussels office will be moved to a server in the main office. Implement a compliance solution to ensure
that items deleted from public folders are retained. If an item in a public folder is modified, the original version of the
item
must be available.
TechnicalRequirements
Litware identifies the following technical requirements:
Minimize administrative effort.
Use the principle of least privilege.
Ensure that junk email is deleted automatically after 14 days. Ensure that sent items and deleted items are deleted
automatically after 30 days. Ensure that users in the customer service department can open multiple mailboxes. Ensure
that
all the former Brussels office users always maintain access to hosted voicemail. Ensure that the staff in the IT
department can manage the email environment without and-user involvement.
Ensure that users cannot recover email messages that are deleted from the Junk Email folder and the Deleted Items.
Ensure that if an email message has a spam confidence level (SCL) of 3 or higher, the message automatically moves to
the Junk Email folder.
Problemstatements
The transport department users report that accessing a public folder named TransportPF is sometimes very slow.
Users in the customer service department report that Microsoft Outlook sometimes hangs when many mailboxes are
open.
You need to configure the required objects for the branch office administrators.
What should you create for each administrator?
A. a management role assignment policy and a management role group
B. a management role scope and a management role assignment
C. a management role scope and a management role group
D. a management role and a management role assignment policy
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2
You have a Microsoft Exchange Server 2019 organization.
Users access their email by using Microsoft Outlook 2019.
The users report that when a mailbox is provisioned for a new user, there is a delay of many hours before the new user
appears in the global address list (GAL). From Outlook on the web, the users can see the new user in the GAL
immediately.
You need to reduce the amount of time it takes for new users to appear in the GAL in Outlook 2019.
What should you do?
A. Modify the default email address policy.
B. Create as address book policy (ABP).
C. Create a scheduled task that runs the Update-GlobalAddressList cmdlet.
D. Modify the offline address (OAB) schedule.
Correct Answer: D
References: https://www.howto-outlook.com/howto/oabupdate.htm#syncschedules

QUESTION 3
You have a Microsoft Exchange Server 2019 organization.
You run the following commands.
New-Management-Scope –Name “VIP Mailboxes” –RecipientRoot “Contoso.com/Executives”
–RecipientRestrictionFilter (RecepientType –eq “UserMailbox”)
New-ManagementRoleAssignment –SecurityGroup “VIP Admins” –Role “Mail Recipients” –CustomRecipientWriteScope
“VIP Mailboxes”
You have a user named Admin1.
You need to ensure that Admin1 can manage the mailboxes of users in the Executives organizational unit (OU) only.
What should you do?
A. Modify the membership of VIP Admins.
B. Create a custom role group
C. Add Admin1 to the Recipient Management role group.
D. Move Admin1 to the Executives OU.
Correct Answer: C
References: https://social.technet.microsoft.com/Forums/exchange/en-US/b316a841-c39d-483a-ac8e-64d5904c42e6/how-to-limit-recipient-management-rights-to-users-in-a-ou-in-exchange-2010-sp1?forum=exchangesvradminlegacy

QUESTION 4
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while
others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this scenario, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear in the review screen.
You have a Microsoft Exchange Server 2019 organization.
You discover that users rarely delete items from their Sent Items folder and their Deleted Items folder.
You need to recommend a solution to automatically reduce the size on the primary mailbox of each user.
Solution: You recommend creating an archive mailbox for each user and configuring a retention policy that moves items
to the archive mailbox.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
DRAG DROP
Your company has 5,000 Microsoft Exchange Server 2019 mailboxes. The company is implementing a new application
named HR1 that integrates with Exchange. HR1 runs on a server named HRSERVER.
You create a new mailbox named HRService for the service account of HR1. You need to ensure that HR1 can sync
contacts from all the mailboxes in the Exchange organization concurrently by using an Exchange ActiveSync
connection.
How should you complete the PowerShell script? To answer, drag the appropriate values to the correct targets. Each
value may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to
view
content.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Select and Place:

Pass4itsure MS-201 exam questions-q5

Correct Answer:

Pass4itsure MS-201 exam questions-q5-2

References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/powershell/module/exchange/server-health-andperformance/newthrottlingpolicy?view=exchange-ps https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/powershell/module/exchange/server-healthandperformance/setthrottlingpolicyassociation?view=exchange-ps

QUESTION 6
Case Study : Litware,Inc.
Case Study
Overview
Litware, Inc. is food service supplier in Europe.
PhysicalLocations
Litware has a main office in Paris and branch offices in Munich, London, Brussels, Vienna, and Rome.
Each branch office has its own compliance officer.
ExistingEnvironment
The network contains one Active Directory forest named litware.com. The forest contains a single Active Directory
domain. Each office is configured as an Active Directory site. Each branch office is represented organizational unit (OU)
in an
OU named Offices in Active Directory.
Each branch office has a special Administrators group that contains the delegated administrators for that office. Each
Administrators group is named based on its location in a format of RegionalAdmins_Brussels,
RegionalAdmins_Munich,
RegionalAdmins_London, RegionalAdmins_Vienna and RegionalAdmins_Rome.
NetworkInfrastructure
Each office contains two domain controllers from the litware.com domain. All the domain controllers are configured as
DNS servers. All client computers connect only to the DNS servers in their respective office.
All offices have a high-speed connection to the Internet. Each office connects to the Internet by using a VPN appliance.
Each office has the following servers and client computers:
One reverse proxy appliance
One Microsoft Exchange Server 2019 server
One Windows Server Update Services (WSUS) server
Computers that run Windows 10 and have Microsoft Office 2019 installed. The office in Brussels contains an Exchange
Server 2016 server that has the Unified Messaging role installed and hosted voicemail configured.
Mailboxes are hosted on all the Exchange servers. Public folders are hosted only on an Exchange server in the main
office. Litware uses a disjoint namespace to access the servers. Each user has an archive mailbox. Archiving is
configured
to use the default settings. Exchange services are published to the internet by using a reverse proxy in each office. A full
backup of Exchange is performed nightly. Incremental backups occur every six hours. All the users in the transport
department connect to network resources by using a connection in the main office.
Requirements
Planned Changes
Litware plans to implement the following changes:
Implement calendar sharing to partner companies.
Implement a solution that prevents malware from being delivered to end users. Use personal archives to eliminate the
need for PST files. Ensure the Brussels office and move all the users in the Brussels office to the main office. All the
mailboxes in the Brussels office will be moved to a server in the main office. Implement a compliance solution to ensure
that items deleted from public folders are retained. If an item in a public folder is modified, the original version of the
item
must be available.
TechnicalRequirements
Litware identifies the following technical requirements:
Minimize administrative effort.
Use the principle of least privilege.
Ensure that junk email is deleted automatically after 14 days. Ensure that sent items and deleted items are deleted
automatically after 30 days. Ensure that users in the customer service department can open multiple mailboxes. Ensure
that
all the former Brussels office users always maintain access to hosted voicemail. Ensure that the staff in the IT
department can manage the email environment without and-user involvement.
Ensure that users cannot recover email messages that are deleted from the Junk Email folder and the Deleted Items.
Ensure that if an email message has a spam confidence level (SCL) of 3 or higher, the message automatically moves to
the Junk Email folder.
Problemstatements
The transport department users report that accessing a public folder named TransportPF is sometimes very slow.
Users in the customer service department report that Microsoft Outlook sometimes hangs when many mailboxes are
open.
You need to resolve the issue for the customer service department users.
What should you modify?
A. a transport rule
B. the Send connector to the Internet
C. the tarpit interval
D. the global throttling policy
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7
You have a Microsoft Exchange Server 2019 organization.
You need to ensure that a user named User1 can prevent mailbox content from being deleted if the content contains the
words Fabrikam and Confidential.
What should you do?
A. Add User1 to the Organization Management management role group.
B. Add User1 to the Records Management management role group.
C. Assign the mailbox Search and Mailbox Import Export
D. Assign the Mailbox Search and Legal Hold management roles to User1.
Correct Answer: D
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/exchange/policy-and-compliance/holds/holds?view=exchserver-2019

QUESTION 8
Your company has a Microsoft Exchange Server 2019 server. The company has five departments. The server contains
one mailbox database for each department. Each mailbox database contains all the users in its respective department.
The databases contain 1,000 users.
You create an address book policy (ABP) for each department.
You need to assign the ABPs to the users.
Which cmdlet should you run?
A. Set-Mailbox
B. Set-AddressBookPolicy
C. Set-AddressList
D. Set-MailboxDatabase
Correct Answer: A
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/exchange/address-books/address-book-policies/assign-an-address-bookpolicy-to-mail-users

QUESTION 9
Case Study : Litware,Inc.
Case Study
Overview
Litware, Inc. is food service supplier in Europe.
PhysicalLocations
Litware has a main office in Paris and branch offices in Munich, London, Brussels, Vienna, and Rome.
Each branch office has its own compliance officer.
ExistingEnvironment
The network contains one Active Directory forest named litware.com. The forest contains a single Active Directory
domain. Each office is configured as an Active Directory site. Each branch office is represented organizational unit (OU)
in an
OU named Offices in Active Directory.
Each branch office has a special Administrators group that contains the delegated administrators for that office. Each
Administrators group is named based on its location in a format of RegionalAdmins_Brussels,
RegionalAdmins_Munich,
RegionalAdmins_London, RegionalAdmins_Vienna and RegionalAdmins_Rome.
NetworkInfrastructure
Each office contains two domain controllers from the litware.com domain. All the domain controllers are configured as
DNS servers. All client computers connect only to the DNS servers in their respective office.
All offices have a high-speed connection to the Internet. Each office connects to the Internet by using a VPN appliance.
Each office has the following servers and client computers:
One reverse proxy appliance
One Microsoft Exchange Server 2019 server
One Windows Server Update Services (WSUS) server
Computers that run Windows 10 and have Microsoft Office 2019 installed. The office in Brussels contains an Exchange
Server 2016 server that has the Unified Messaging role installed and hosted voicemail configured.
Mailboxes are hosted on all the Exchange servers. Public folders are hosted only on an Exchange server in the main
office. Litware uses a disjoint namespace to access the servers. Each user has an archive mailbox. Archiving is
configured
to use the default settings. Exchange services are published to the internet by using a reverse proxy in each office. A full
backup of Exchange is performed nightly. Incremental backups occur every six hours. All the users in the transport
department connect to network resources by using a connection in the main office.
Requirements
Planned Changes
Litware plans to implement the following changes:
Implement calendar sharing to partner companies.
Implement a solution that prevents malware from being delivered to end users. Use personal archives to eliminate the
need for PST files. Ensure the Brussels office and move all the users in the Brussels office to the main office. All the
mailboxes in the Brussels office will be moved to a server in the main office. Implement a compliance solution to ensure
that items deleted from public folders are retained. If an item in a public folder is modified, the original version of the
item
must be available.
TechnicalRequirements
Litware identifies the following technical requirements:
Minimize administrative effort.
Use the principle of least privilege.
Ensure that junk email is deleted automatically after 14 days. Ensure that sent items and deleted items are deleted
automatically after 30 days. Ensure that users in the customer service department can open multiple mailboxes. Ensure
that
all the former Brussels office users always maintain access to hosted voicemail. Ensure that the staff in the IT
department can manage the email environment without and-user involvement.
Ensure that users cannot recover email messages that are deleted from the Junk Email folder and the Deleted Items.
Ensure that if an email message has a spam confidence level (SCL) of 3 or higher, the message automatically moves to
the Junk Email folder.
Problemstatements
The transport department users report that accessing a public folder named TransportPF is sometimes very slow.
Users in the customer service department report that Microsoft Outlook sometimes hangs when many mailboxes are
open.
You need to recommend a solution to retain the items in the public folders. The solution must support the planned
changes.
What should you recommend?
A. Create an Outlook rule that forwards all the items in each public folder to a compliance mailbox.
B. Place an In-Place Hold on all the mailboxes of the public folders.
C. Increase the frequency of the backups.
D. Modify the public folder permissions.
Correct Answer: B
References:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/exchange/security-and-compliance/in-place-and- litigationholds#placingpublic-folderson-hold

QUESTION 10
HOTSPOT
You have a Microsoft Exchange Server 2019 organization. You have a universal security group named group1 that
contains three users named Admin1, Admin2, and Admin3.
You plan to make Admin1, Admin2, and Admin3 responsible for managing some of the Exchange objects in the
organization.
You run the following commands.

Pass4itsure MS-201 exam questions-q10

For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No. NOTE: Each correct
selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

Pass4itsure MS-201 exam questions-q10-2

Correct Answer:

Pass4itsure MS-201 exam questions-q10-3

References:
https://practical365.com/exchange-server/exchange-server-role-based-access-control-in-action/
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/exchange/built-in-management-roles-exchange-2013-help

QUESTION 11
You use an IMAP-based email system.
You purchase a Microsoft 365 subscription.
In Exchange Online, you create mailboxes for all users.
You need to migrate all the email accounts of all the users to Exchange Online.
Which three components should you create? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. an accepted domain
B. a remote domain
C. a migration endpoint
D. an inbound connector
E. a CSV migration file
Correct Answer: ACE

QUESTION 12
DRAG DROP
You have a Microsoft Exchange Server 2019 organization.
Two Edge Transport servers provide email hygiene.
You configure anti-spam filters to redirect email messages identified as spam to a quarantine mailbox.
You open the quarantine mailbox in Microsoft Outlook 2019 and discover that the from field of all quarantined messages
shows the postmaster address.
You need to ensure that the quarantined messages can be sorted by using the original sender address.
Which three actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions
to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
Select and Place:

Pass4itsure MS-201 exam questions-q12

Correct Answer:

Pass4itsure MS-201 exam questions-q12-2

Pass4itsure MS-201 exam questions-q12-3

References:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/exchange/antispam-and-antimalware/antispam-protection/showquarantinedmessageoriginal-senders?view=exchserver-2019

QUESTION 13
HOTSPOT
You have a Microsoft Exchange Server 2019 organization. You run the commands shown in the following exhibit.

Pass4itsure MS-201 exam questions-q13

Use the drop-down menus to select the answer choice that completes each statement based on the information
presented in the graphic. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

Pass4itsure MS-201 exam questions-q13-2

Correct Answer:

Pass4itsure MS-201 exam questions-q13-3

References:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/powershell/module/exchange/server-health-andperformance/newthrottlingpolicy?view=exchange-ps

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Cisco CCIE 400-101 Online Exam Practice Questions

QUESTION 1
Which protocol does a host use to request IPv6 multicast traffic?
A. MLD
B. SSM
C. IGMPv3
D. PIM6
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 2
Refer to the exhibit. After you applied this configuration to R1 and R2, they failed to form an IS-IS adjacency.
Which reason for the problem is most likely true?pass4itsure 400-101 exam question q2

A. The network statements are mismatched
B. The IP subnets are mismatched
C. The bandwidth is mismatched
D. The MTUs are mismatched
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 3
Which two statements about enhanced object tracking are true? (Choose two)
A. It supports stateful switchover with HSRP
B. Tracking objects are identified with unique numbers.
C. It can track over 200 objects at once
D. With HSRP, it can track only the line-protocol state
E. It supports stateful switchover with GLBP
Correct Answer: BC

 

QUESTION 4
An employee at a targeted company downloads an IoT software update from a vendors site that has been compromised
with a trojaned software update.
What kind of threat is this considered as?
A. Sophisticated actors threat
B. Social engineering
C. Inside threat
D. Outside threat
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 5
Which two statements about the Cisco Express Forwarding glean adjacency type are true? (Choose two)
A. Packets destined for the interface can be dropped, which provide a form of access filtering.
B. The adjacency database is used to gather specific prefixes when packets are destined to a specific host.
C. The router FIB table maintains a prefix for the subnet instead of individual hosts.
D. Packets destined for the interface are discarded and the prefix is checked.
E. Packets destined for the interface are discarded and the prefix check is skipped
Correct Answer: BC

 

QUESTION 6
Which tool or program is a version control system?
A. Logstash
B. Jenkins
C. SmartC
D. Git
E. Travis CI
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 7
What is the correct order of the VSS initialization process?
Drag and drop the actions on the left to the correct initialization step on the right.
Select and Place:pass4itsure 400-101 exam question q7

 

QUESTION 8
Which configuration command identifies a dynamic IPsec VTI?
A. interface virtual-template number
B. tunnel mode ipsec ipv4
C. crypto isakamp profile profile-name
D. tunnel protection ipsec profile profile-name
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 9
Which two statements about the passive-interface command issued under EIGRP are true? (Choose two)
A. It allows incoming routing updates to be received but disables outgoing routing updates
B. It configures the device to advertise only connected interfaces to neighbours with EIGRP
C. It configures the interface to use unicast messages to establish EIGRP neighbour relationships
D. If it is enabled globally under EIGRP on the device, it can be disabled for individual interfaces to allow those
interfaces to remain active
E. It disables processing of incoming hello messages
Correct Answer: DE

 

QUESTION 10
Which two statements about OSPFv3 are true? (Choose two.)
A. It supports unicast address families for IPv4 and IPv6.
B. It supports unicast address families for IPv6 only.
C. It supports only one address family per instance.
D. It supports the use of a cluster ID for loop prevention.
E. It supports multicast address families for IPv4 and IPv6.
F. It supports multicast address families for IPv6 only.
Correct Answer: AC

 

QUESTION 11
Which two actions can you take to prevent routes from becoming stuck in active? (Choose two)
A. Manually increase the EIGRP metrics on interfaces connected to successors.
B. Use port channeling to aggregate multiple EIGRP interfaces
C. Increase the time a router waits before it declares routes stuck in active
D. Increase the EIGRP K values on low-bandwidth interfaces
E. Increase the Hello timers on all EIGRP interfaces
F. Design the network so that it uses the lowest possible number of queries
Correct Answer: CF

 

QUESTION 12
Refer to the exhibit. Which option describes the purpose of the as-set argument of the aggregate-address command?pass4itsure 400-101 exam question q12

A. It provides an AS path in the aggregate advertisement that contains only the local AS number
B. It provides an AS path in the aggregate advertisement that includes the AS numbers of the component members
C. It provides a predefined AS path in the aggregate advertisement that is used to indicate an aggregate prefix
D. It provides a list of AS numbers to which the aggregate is advertised
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 13
Refer to the exhibit. Which two effects of this configuration are true? (Choose two)pass4itsure 400-101 exam question q13

A. The priority queue is disabled
B. Queue 1 is served twice as fast as queue 2
C. Queue 1 is a priority queue that is allocated 2/3 of the available bandwidth
D. Queue 1 is a priority queue that is allocated 1/3 of the available bandwidth
E. Queue 1 is allocated 4 percent of the available bandwidth and queue 2 is allocated 2 percent of the available
bandwidth
F. Queue 2 is served twice as fast as queue 1
Correct Answer: AB

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Candidates for this exam are IT professionals who implement the Windows Server 2016 core infrastructure services.

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  • Implement Storage Solutions
  • Implement Hyper-V
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  • Implement High Availability
  • Implement Domain Name System (DNS)
  • Implement Network Connectivity and Remote Access Solutions
  • Implement an Advanced Network Infrastructure
  • Install and Configure Active Directory Domain Services (AD DS)
  • Implement identity federation and access solutions

The latest Microsoft MCSA 70-743 exam practice questions test your strength

QUESTION 1
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains two servers named
Server1 and Server2 that run Windows Server 2016.
Server1 has Microsoft System Center 2016 Virtual Machine Manager (VMM) installed.
Server2 has IP Address Management (IPAM) installed.
You create a domain user named User1.
You need to integrate IPAM and VMM. VMM must use the account of User1 to manage IPAM. The solution must use
the principle of least privilege.
What should you do on each server? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
Hot Area:pass4itsure 70-743 exam question q1

Correct Answer:

pass4itsure 70-743 exam question q1-1

 

QUESTION 2
You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2016.
The disk configuration for Server1 is shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.) You add Server1 to a cluster.
You need to ensure that you can use Disk 1 for Storage Spaces Direct.
What should you do first?
A. Set Disk 1 to offline.
B. Convert Partition (E:) to ReFS.
C. Convert Disk 1 to a dynamic disk.
D. Delete Partition (E:).
Correct Answer: D
The disks used in Storage Spaces Direct cannot contain existing partitions.

 

QUESTION 3
You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2016.
Server1 has two network cards. One network card connects to your internal network and the other network card
connects to the Internet.
You plan to use Server1 to provide Internet connectivity for client computers on the internal network.
You need to configure Server1 as a network address translation (NAT) server.
Which server role or role service should you install on Server1 first?
A. Network Controller
B. Web Application Proxy
C. Routing
D. DirectAccess and VPN (RAS)
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 4
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while
others might not have a correct solution.
After your answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear in the review screen.
Your network contains an Active Directory forest named contoso.com.
You need to identify which server is the schema master.
Solution: From Windows PowerShell, you run Get-ADDomainController -Discover -Service 2.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B
References: https://blogs.technet.microsoft.com/mempson/2007/11/08/how-to-find-out-who-has-your-fsmo-roles/

 

QUESTION 5
You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2016 server.
Server1 has the Docker daemon configured and has a container named Container1.
You need to mount the folder C:\Folder1 on Server1 to C:\ContainerFolder in Container1.
Which command should you run? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
Hot Area:pass4itsure 70-743 exam question q5

 

QUESTION 6
You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2016. Server1 has the Web Application Proxy role service
installed.
You need to publish Microsoft Exchange Server 2013 services through the Web Application Proxy. The solution must
use preauthentication whenever possible.
How should you configure the preauthentication method for each service? To answer, select the appropriate options in
the answer area.
Hot Area:pass4itsure 70-743 exam question q6

Correct Answer:

pass4itsure 70-743 exam question q6-1

 

QUESTION 7
You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2016. Server1 is located on the perimeter network, and
only inbound TCP port 443 is allowed to connect Server1 from the Internet.
You install the Remote Access server role on Server1.
You need to configure Server1 to accept VPN connections over port 443.
Which VPN protocol should you use?
A. PPTP
B. L2TP
C. SSTP
D. lKEv2
Correct Answer: C
References: https://www.thomasmaurer.ch/2016/10/how-to-install-vpn-on-windows-server-2016/
https://www.lukasberan.com/2016/12/how-to-configure-sstp-vpn-on-windows-server/

 

QUESTION 8
You have a DHCP server named Server1.
Server1 has an IPv4 scope that contains 100 addresses for a subnet named Subnet! Subnet1 provides guest access to
the Internet. There are never more than 20 client computers on Subnet1 simultaneously; however, the computers that
connect to Subnet 1 are rarely the same computers.
You discover that some client computers are unable to access the network. The computers that have the issue have IP
addresses in the range of 169.254.0.0/16.
You need to ensure that all of the computers can connect successfully to the network to access the Internet.
What should you do?
A. Create a new scope that uses IP addresses in the range of 169.254.0.0/16.
B. Modify the scope options.
C. Modify the lease duration.
D. Configure Network Access Protection (NAP) integration on the existing scope.
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 9
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that use the same or similar answer choices. An answer choice may
be correct for more than one question in the series. Each question is independent of the other questions in this series.
Information and details provided in a question apply only to that question.
You have an Active Directory domain that contains two Hyper-V servers named Server1 and Server2. Server1 has
Windows Server 2016 installed. Server2 has Windows Server 2012 R2 installed.
Each Hyper-V server has three network cards. Each network card is connected to a different subnet. Server1 contains a
dedicated migration network.
Server2 contains a virtual machine named VM5.
You plan to perform a live migration of VM5 to Server1.
You need to ensure that Server1 uses all available networks to perform the live migration of VM5.
What should you run?
A. the Mount-VHD cmdlet
B. the Diskpart command
C. the Set-VHD cmdlet
D. the Set-VM cmdlet
E. the Set-VMHost cmdlet
F. the Set-VMProcessorcmdlet
G. the Install-WindowsFeature cmdlet
H. the Optimize-VHD cmdlet
Correct Answer: E
Set-VMHost -UseAnyNetworkForMigration
Specifies how networks are selected for incoming live migration traffic. If set to $True, any available network on the host
can be used for this traffic. If set to $False, incoming live migration traffic is transmitted only on the networks specified in
the MigrationNetworks property of the host. References: https://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/hh848524.aspx

 

QUESTION 10
Active Directory Recycle Bin is enabled. You discover that a support technician accidentally removed 100 users from an
Active Directory group named Group1 an hour ago. You need to restore the membership of Group1. What should you
do?
A. Perform tombstone reanimation.
B. Export and import data by using Dsamain.
C. Perform a non-authoritative restore.
D. Recover the items by using Active Directory Recycle Bin.
Correct Answer: B
A group has been modified. Nothing has been deleted. Therefore, answers A and D will not work. Answer C would work
if it was an authoritative restore, but not a non-authoritative restore. The solution is to recover an earlier copy of the
group from a backup or active directory snapshot by using DSadmain.

 

QUESTION 11
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a DNS server named
Server1. All client computers run Windows 10. On Server1, you have the following zone configurationpass4itsure 70-743 exam question q11

You need to prevent Server1 from resolving queries from DNS clients located on Subnet4.
Server1 must resolve queries from all other DNS clients.
Solution: From Windows PowerShell on Server1, you run the Export-DnsServerDnsSecPublicKey cmdlet.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 12
You have a Hyper-V host named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2016. Server 1 has a virtual switch Switch1.
Server1 hosts the virtual machines configured as shown in the following table.pass4itsure 70-743 exam question q12

Windows firewall on VM1 and VM2 is configured to allow ICMP traffic. VM1 and VM2 connect to Switch1.
You fail to ping VM1 from VM2.
You need to view the VirtualSubnetid to which VM1 connects.
Which cmdlet should you run on Server1.
Hot Area:

pass4itsure 70-743 exam question q12-1

Correct Answer:

pass4itsure 70-743 exam question q12-2

 

QUESTION 13
You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2016. Server1 is a Hyper-V host that hosts a virtual
machine named VM1.
Server1 has three network adapter cards that are connected to virtual switches named vSwitch1, vSwitch2 and
vSwitch3.
You configure NIC Teaming on VM1 as shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.) You need to ensure that VM1 will
retain access to the network if a physical network adapter card fails on Server1.
What should you do?
A. From the properties of the NIC team on VM1, change the load balancing of the NIC team.
B. From Hyper-V Manager on Server1, modify the settings of VM1.
C. From Windows PowerShell on Server1, run the Set-VmNetworkAdapterFailoverConfigurationcmdlet.
D. From Hyper-V Manager on Server1, modify the properties of vSwitch1.
Correct Answer: B
You can configure NIC teaming in the Guest OS; however, before NIC teaming will work in a virtual machine, you need
to enable NIC teaming in the Advanced Features section of the VM settings.

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