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QUESTION 21
Service Oriented Integration (SOI) exposes capabilities from existing source systems. Which statement best describes the Impact SOI has on existing source systems?
A. Because SOI exposes only existing capabilities, any new required functionality will be implemented by modifying the existing source systems.
B. No modifications to existing source systems are allowed because SOA Services expose all the necessary capabilities from the source systems.
C. Modifications to existing source systems should be avoided, but may be necessary to support SOA Service creation.
D. To support SOA Service connectivity, modifications will be required for the existing source systems incorporated into the SOI architecture.
Correct Answer: C Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Some minor modifications may be required to support connectivity, but requiring extensive modifications
defeats a major reason for integration.
It must be noted that creating a SOA Service from existing assets generally requires a good deal more
than just adding a standards-based interface, i.e. simply service enabling existing assets is insufficient.
The SOA Service needs to expose process, functionality, and data that is usable in a broader context than
the source of the capability was designed to meet. Therefore, creating a SOA Service usually entails some
amount of aggregation, transformation, or expansion of existing capabilities provided by the source
systems. This requires a SOA Services layer between the existing assets and the consumers as illustrated
in the figure.
Note: The primary goal of service-oriented integration is to better leverage existing systems within the IT environment by applying service-oriented principles. Ultimately, the goal is to enable the assembly of composite applications, with little or no custom coding, that include capabilities sourced from existing systems. Composite applications are applications that pull together data, functionality, and process from multiple existing sources to solve a business problem or create new business value. Service-oriented integration is the mechanism to expose existing sources of data, functionality, and process so that those sources can be readily consumed by a composite application. Service construction includes creating entirely new SOA Services and also exposing existing assets as SOA Services. References:
QUESTION 22
IT Strategies from Oracle (ITSO) Includes multiple Enterprise Technology Strategies. Why are there multiple Enterprise Technology Strategies within ITSO?
A. Each enterprise Technology Strategy documents the architecture for a particular Oracle product.
B. Each Enterprise Technology Strategy provides Oracle product details that are important to the technology strategy.
C. An Enterprise Technology Strategy provides detailed guidance on deploying the oracle products that are important to the technology strategy.
D. Each Enterprise technology Strategy provides a reference architecture and practical guidance to achieve success with specific new technology.
E. Each Enterprise Technology Strategy provides industry-vertical reference architecture and practical guidance.
Correct Answer: D Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: IT Strategies from Oracle (ITSO) is a series of documentation and supporting material designed to enable organizations to develop an architecture-centric approach to enterprise-class IT initiatives. ITSO presents successful technology strategies and solution designs by defining universally adopted architecture concepts, principles, guidelines, standards, and patterns.
ITSO is made up of three primary elements Oracle Reference Architecture (ORA), Enterprise Technology Strategies (ETS) and Enterprise Solution Designs (ESD).
Enterprise Technology Strategies (ETS) offer valuable guidance on the adoption of horizontal technologies for the enterprise. They explain how to successfully execute on a strategy by addressing concerns pertaining to architecture, technology, engineering, strategy, and governance. An organization can use this material to measure their maturity, develop their strategy, and achieve greater levels of adoption and success. In addition, each ETS extends the Oracle Reference Architecture by adding the unique capabilities and components provided by that particular technology. It offers a horizontal technology-based perspective of ORA.
References:
QUESTION 23
The Mediation Layer in the Logical View of the Service-Oriented Integration architecture provides several capabilities. Which of the following are capabilities provided by the Mediation Layer?
A. enrichment – adding data elements to a data entity to give the entity increased Information
B. routing – sending the client request to the appropriate provider (s) based on some criteria
C. message transformation – converting the request message format to a different message form, appropriate for the provider
D. choreography – defining the messages that flow back and forth between systems that are participating in a business process
E. protocol mediation – converting a client request from one protocol to a different protocol used by provider
Correct Answer: BCE Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The Mediation Layer provides loose coupling for the entire architecture. It decouples the layers of the
architecture as well as decoupling external users of the layers from the specific layers in the architecture.
The key capabilities in this layer include:
*
Routing – Routing provides the ability to send the client request to the appropriate provider based on
some criteria. The routing may even include sending the client request to multiple providers. This capability
facilitates location transparency, versioning, scalability, partitioning, request pipelining, SLA management,
etc.
*
Protocol Mediation – Protocol mediation is the ability to handle a client request using one protocol (e.g.
WS*, JMS, REST) with a provider using a different protocol. This provides protocol decoupling between the
provider and the consumer.
Message Transformation – Message transformation allows a client request using one message format to
be handled by a provider that expects a different message format. This provides message format
decoupling between the provider and the consumer.
*
Discovery – Discovery is the mechanism by which a client finds a provider of a particular SOA Service.
Discovery can occur at design time or runtime.
*
Monitoring – Monitoring captures runtime information about the messages flowing through the mediation
layer. Since the mediation layer is an intermediary for message traffic, it provides a centralized monitoring
capability.
*
Policy Enforcement – Policy enforcement provides consistent application of policies (e.g. WS-
SecurityPolicy) across all messages flowing through the mediation layer. Since the mediation layer is an
intermediary for message traffic, it provides a centralized policy enforcement capability.
References:
QUESTION 24
Which one of the following types of access control should be used when access to a resource is dependent upon specific qualities of the user, for example, membership status, frequency of purchases, or level of certification?
A. role-based access control
B. rule-based access control
C. discretionary access control
D. content-dependent access control
E. attribute-based access control
Correct Answer: C Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Content dependent access control involves restricting access to content, such as documents and emails,
based on embedded keywords or certain assigned metadata. It works by inspecting the content and
applying rules to determine if access is permitted. This approach is taken by many Data Loss Prevention
solutions. It is possible to combine content dependent access control with role-based access control in
order to restrict access to content by established roles.
References:
QUESTION 25
BPM and SOA are frequently combined to provide greater business value than either technology provides independently. Which statements are true with regard to combining the BPM Technology Perspective and SOA Technology Perspective?
A. A Business Process may invoke a SOA Services to perform specific tasks within the process flow.
B. A Business Process may be exposed as a SOA Service.
C. When combining SOA and BPM, all the tasks within a Business Process are accomplished via Services.
D. A Business Process may invoke an SOA Service, but an SOA Service cannot invoke a Business Process.
E. Every business Process is exposed as a SOA Service.
Correct Answer: ABD Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Note E: BPM processes and sub-processes can (but are not required) themselves be exposed as SOA Services. This enables processes to be composed of SOA Services that are implemented as processes. It can be beneficial in two ways. First, it improves reuse of lower level system-centric processes (i.e. service orchestrations), and second, it offers a standard interface mechanism with which to invoke all types of business processes.
Note: BPM and SOA are often used together, as they both support a closer alignment between business and IT, and they both promote agility. BPM targets alignment and agility at the process level, while SOA applies more at the activity level. Hence, business processes and SOA Services can represent business constructs, providing a mapping between the things business does and the way IT helps get it done. The convergence of BPM and SOA generally happens via process decomposition. That is when business processes are modeled as, (i.e. decomposed into), activities. All automated activities must be backed by some form of executable code or function call. These functions, if they are deemed worthy, can be engineered as SOA Services following service-oriented design principles. Agility at the process level is attained by changing the process model. Agility at the service level is achieved by deploying services that are loosely coupled and independently managed.
QUESTION 26
Which of the following interactions does not occur as part of a web-based single sign-on scenario?
A. A gateway, deployed In the Web Server, intercepts requests destined for protected resource
B. The user is prompted for login credentials when a protected resource is accessed and the user has not (recently) logged In.
C. Credentials are passed to the application for validation.
D. Authorization checks are optionally performed before the user is permitted access to the application.
E. A cookie is returned, which is used to permit access to other protected resources in that domain
Correct Answer: C Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The application does not handle the validation.
QUESTION 27
Which are the major categories of ORA Engineering capabilities?
A. Integrated Development
B. Asset Management
C. Event Processing
D. Service Engineering
Correct Answer: AB Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The broad categories that define ORA Engineering are:
*
Integrated development
This covers a wide range of engineering capabilities required to model, design and build solutions. These
capabilities go beyond simple editing and include advanced capabilities to support round-trip engineering,
integrated testing, deployment, and asset management.
*
Asset Management
Asset Management deals with the visibility, management and governance of assets and asset metadata. It
covers the capabilities required to effectively manage enterprise assets.
*
Quality Management
Quality Management capabilities ensure that the developed solution meets the enterprise standards and
pass the exit criteria. Quality Management covers testing, defect management, and continuous integration.
*
Deployment Management
Deployment Management deals with building, packaging, migration, and deployment of assets.
References:
QUESTION 28
Enterprise Architecture consists of Business Architecture, Application Architecture, Information, Architecture and Technical Architecture (BAIT). Which statement best describes Oracle Reference Architecture (ORA) in the context of BAIT?
A. ORA addresses all four (Business, Application, Information, and Technical) equally.
B. ORA is primarily focused on the Technical Architecture, with some content on the other three aspects-of BAIT.
C. ORA has content applicable to the Technical Architecture only.
D. ORA is primarily focused on the Business Architecture, with some content on the other three aspects of BAIT
E. ORA is primarily focused on the information Architecture, with some limited content on the other three aspects of BAIT.
F. ORA has content applicable to Information Architecture only.
Correct Answer: A Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: Oracle Reference Architecture(ORA) defines a detailed and consistent reference architecture for developing and integrating solutions based on current technologies from Oracle and other vendors. The reference architecture offers architecture views, principles, and guidance based on recommendations from technical experts across Oracle. It covers a broad spectrum of concerns pertaining to technology architecture, including middleware, database, hardware, processes, and services.
QUESTION 29
Which of the following statements are true?
A. (OWCS) provides components for reverse proxy, personalization, customization, social computing, and analytics.
B. Oracle WebCenter (OWC) provides the Resource Tier of the Oracle Reference Architecture User Interaction.
C. Oracle HTTP Server (OHS) provides the standard communication protocols (for example, HTTP) between the Client Tier and the Service Tier as well as the Message Security between the Client Tier and Service Tier.
D. Oracle Meta Data Services (OMDS) stores customization, personalization, and other metadata in a repository
E. Oracle WebLogic Suite (OWLS) is used in Oracle Reference Architecture User Interaction to enable Ontology languages for the Semantic Web
Correct Answer: BD Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
B: Oracle WebCenter (OWC) – provides the foundation for delivering a modern user experience for Oracle Fusion Middleware as well as Oracle Fusion Applications. OWC is composed of four main components as illustrated in the figure:
D: Oracle Meta Data Services (OMDS) – stores customization, personalization, and other metadata in a repository. The repository can either be stored in a database or in file-based storage.
QUESTION 30
The Oracle Reference Architecture (ORA) includes the concept of Technology Perspectives. Which statements are true concerning ORA and Technology Perspectives?
A. Each Technology Perspective focuses on a particular set of products and technology.
B. A Technology Perspectiveincludesboth reference architecture views as well as practical guidance and approaches for successfully implementing the changes required to embrace the products and technology.
C. The Technology Perspectives can be used individually or in combinations, for example, SOA with BI.
D. The Technology Perspectives can be used individually or in combinations. When used in combinations, the SOA Technology Perspective must be included.
E. Each Technology Perspective is part of ORA and is part of an Enterprise Technology Strategy; i.e. a Technology Perspective is the connection between ORA and an Enterprise Technology.
Correct Answer: ACDE Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: Technology perspectives extend the core material by adding the unique capabilities, components, standards, and approaches that a specific technology strategy offers.(A) SOA, BPM, EPM/BI, and EDA are examples of perspectives for ORA. Each technology strategy presents unique requirements to architecture that includes specific capabilities, principles, components, technologies, standards, etc. Rather than create another reference architecture for each strategy, ORA was designed to be extensible to incorporate new computing strategies as they emerge in the industry.
In order to present the reference architecture in the most effective manner, each new technology strategy adds a perspective to ORA. This enables the reference architecture to evolve holistically. New computing strategies extend the core material, providing further insight and detail as needed. A perspective extends the ORA core collateral by providing views, principles, patterns, and guidelines that are significant to that technology domain yet cohesive with the overall ORA. The perspective includes:
*
A foundation document describing the terms, concepts, standards, principles, etc. that are important to the ETS.
*
An infrastructure document that defines a reference architecture built using the technologies pertinent to the ETS.
References:
QUESTION 31
Oracle Web Services Manager uses an agent-based approach to providing Web Services security. Where are these agents deployed?
A. In any IPv4 of Later network firewall
B. In the Oracle WebLogic Server Web Service request Interceptors
C. In the Oracle Service Bus proxy pipeline
D. In the Oracle Access Manager web gate
E. In the Oracle WebLogic Server access gate
Correct Answer: D Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
You use the Web Services Manager Control Console to define Oracle Web Services Manager components
such as server agents. The server agent acts as an enforcement point for security policies.
Point your browser to the Web Services Manager Control Console and log in using your single sign-on
user name and password.
The Web Services Manager Control Console is accessed with a URL of the form:
http://<hostname>:port_number/ccore
QUESTION 32
Your company has decided to create an Enterprise Architecture following. The Open Group Architecture Framework (TOGAF). Which option best describes how the IT Strategies from Oracle (ITSO) library of material relates to this TOGAF-based Initiative?
A. ITSO has minimal applicability because TOGAF is a complete architecture framework.
B. The ITSO material can be used as reference material within the TOGAF approach.
C. The TOGAF approach will need to be modified (customized) to incorporate the ITSO material.
D. The ITSO material will need to be adapted to the TOGAF approach.
E. TOGAF and ITSO are mutually exclusive. One or the other must be chosen as the basis for the company’s Enterprise Architecture.
Correct Answer: A Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: The ITSO, and, being part of it, the Oracle Reference Architecture is not an Architecture Framework. For this, many solutions are already available, of which TOGAF andOracle’s Enterprise Architecture Framework (OEAF) are good examples. The ORA can be perfectly integrated in any of the currently available frameworks.
Note: The IT Strategies from Oracle give you a whole library of whitepapers, not only to develop a Reference Architecture for your own, by adapting the ORA to your needs, but it also focuses on the surrounding Enterprise Technology Strategies and Enterprise Solution Designs. In other words, ITSO covers both the horizontal technology perspectives (SOA, BPM, EDA, etc.), but also the vertical business perspectives (Utilities, Government, etc.).Now, in case you think that this is all about Oracle Technology products, you might be surprised: the whole ITSO / Oracle Reference Architecture is Vendor-Neutral. It is only scoped to Oracle’s product portfolio. Now, one might ask themselves: what technology product area’s doesn’t Oracle have products for, so that shouldn’t be too much of an issue as far as completeness is concerned.ITSO can help you organizing complex product landscapes, by means of a holistic approach to technology adoption. By covering the technology as a whole, you can reduce risk and become more in control of your IT solutions.
QUESTION 33
Which of the following are strategies for alert management with Oracle Enterprise Manager?
A. controlling the volume of alerts
B. removing unwanted alerts
C. centralized filtering of alerts
D. automating fix for common alerts
Correct Answer: BD Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
B: New in Enterprise Manager 10g Release 5 (10.2.0.5)
Alert Management Enhancements: Administrators can better manage their log-based alerts (e.g., alert log
alerts) by setting duration-based notification rules that clear such alerts on a periodic basis, or by using
new EMCLI verbs that support bulk clearing of such alerts.
D: New in Enterprise Manager 10g Release 5 (10.2.0.5)
Alert Management Enhancements: On-demand evaluation of alerts allow administrators to quickly verify
whether the fixes implemented for alerts result in clearing of the alert.
Note: Advanced alert management
QUESTION 34
Which of the following token profiles is not included in the WS-Security standard as a standard type of identity token?
A. XACML token profile
B. SAML token profile
C. username token profile
D. Kerberos token profile
E. X.500 token profile
Correct Answer: A Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
TheWS-Securityspecification allows a variety of signature formats, encryption algorithms and multiple trust domains, and is open to various security token models, such as:
*
X.509 certificates (not E)
*
Kerberos tickets (not D) *UserID/Password credential (not C)
*
SAML Assertions (not B) *custom-defined tokens.
Note: WS-Security (Web Services Security, short WSS) is a flexible and feature-rich extension to SOAP to apply security to web services. It is a member of the WS-* family of web service specifications and was published by OASIS.
QUESTION 35
Which of the following is NOT defined as a primary ORA computing foundation component?
A. Distributed Computing
B. Utility Computing
C. Grid Computing
D. Caching
Correct Answer: D Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: Primary ORA computing foundation components: Distributed Computing On-Demand Computing Utility Computing Grid Computing Cloud Computing Elastic Computing Virtualization
References:
QUESTION 36
Which of the following capabilities are provided by containers?
A. Transaction Support
B. Security Support
C. Thread Management
D. Business Processes
Correct Answer: ABC Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Containers provide several capabilities that include the following:
Transaction Support (A)
Security Support (B)
Scalability and Performance Thread Management (C) Data and Code Integrity Centralized Configuration Connection and Session Management Abstraction
References:
QUESTION 37
Which of the following Oracle products provides a comprehensive Integrated Development Environment (IDE)?
A. Oracle Enterprise Pack for Eclipse
B. Oracle JDeveloper
C. Oracle Service Registry
D. Enterprise Manager
Correct Answer: AB Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
A: Oracle Enterprise Pack for Eclipse is a free set of certified plug-ins, enabling WebLogic developers to support Java EE and Web Service standards. Oracle Enterprise Pack for Eclipse supports development with technologies including Database, Java SE, Java EE, Web Services, XML, Spring Framework and Oracle Fusion Middleware.
B: Oracle JDeveloper is a free integrated development environment that simplifies the development of Java-based SOA applications and user interfaces with support for the full development life cycle.
Incorrect answers
Oracle Service Registry and Enterprise Manager are not development tools.
QUESTION 38
Which of the following statements best describes how the deployment supports closed-loop governance?
A. The Metadata Repository is integrated with the operational systems to link operational metrics to the assets to ensure that the assets perform asintended.
B. The Metadata Repositories deployed in each environment are chained to share asset usage information.
C. A closed-loop governance framework is deployed on a clustered server to monitor the governance activities.
D. Production systems are integrated to the developer desktops to validate the requirements against the implemented code.
Correct Answer: BC Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
SOA Software’s Policy Manager and Service Manager combine to form a comprehensive closed-loop SOA
Governance solution.
Closed loop means:
*
Defining and managing actionable policies in a governance solution at design-time
*
Enforcing these policies via deep integration with a management solution at run-time
*
Auditing that these policies are being enforced
*
Using industry standards (WS-Policy, WS-MEX) where appropriate for information exchange Closed loop infrastructure enables demand and Value Management
*
Collect performance, usage and exception statistics at run-time
*
Track these statistics via the governance solution
*
Use live, audited information to drive value-based decisions about the effectiveness of different services and organizations
*
Provide developers with up to the minute information about a service in runtime to inform their decisions about which services to use
*
Manage supply and demand to ensure maximum efficiency and benefit from SOA
The products share a common registry and metadata repository to ensure seamless integration and offer active governance. Closed-loop governance will:
*
Ensure defined policies are enforced ** When you define a policy for a service you have to KNOW categorically that it is being enforced ** Generate audit trails for run-time and design-time policy compliance
*
Measure the real-world value of SOA ** Not just theoretical value ** How many applications are using each service, and how much are they using it ** NOT how many applications have asked to use a certain capacity of each service
*
Manage, monitor and control relationships between consumers and providers ** Enforced contracts ** Capacity planning Change management
The diagram below shows the relationships between SOA governance, security and management, demonstrating how SOA Policy Management forms a closed loop of policy, metrics, and audit.
http://www.soa.com/images/img_closed_loop.gif
QUESTION 39
Which of the following are common uses of an Attribute Service?
A. to maintain metadata pertaining to audit log entries and attestation reports
B. to acquire data that are necessary to make access-control decisions
C. to securely supply personally identifiable information to applications
D. to determine which security policy is assigned to a Web Service
Correct Answer: BC Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The Attribute Service(AS) retrieves user information from an attribute store. The AS retrieves user
information associated with a user from variety of authoritative identity stores including, but not limited to,
LDAP and database stores.
QUESTION 40
Conventional Management and Monitoring tools focus and produce metrics on which one of the following?
A. holistically across heterogeneous systems
B. metrics that measure individual resources
C. metrics that focus on understanding the relationship and Interactions between component
D. metrics that capture the combined behavior of several components interacting with the shared component
Correct Answer: B Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Conventional tools tend to focus and produce metrics on individual resources which is inadequate for an
agile shared services computing environment.
Note:
A metric is a unit of measurement used to report the health of the system that is captured from the
monitored infrastructure components. Metrics from all monitored infrastructure components are stored and
aggregated in the Management Repository, providing administrators with a rich source of diagnostic
information and trend analysis data.
References:
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