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QUESTION 1 For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
QUESTION 2 Match the types of data to the appropriate Azure data services.To answer, drag the appropriate data types from the column on the left to its service on the right. Each data type may be used once, more than once, or not at all. NOTE: Each correct match is worth one point.
QUESTION 3 You have an application that runs on Windows and requires across to a mapped drive. Which Azure service should you use? A. Azure Cosmos DB B. Azure Table storage C. Azure Files D. Azure Blob Storage Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 4 To complete the sentence, select the appropriate option in the answer area.
QUESTION 5 Which storage solution supports role-based access control (RBAC) at the file and folder level? A. Azure Disk Storage B. Azure Data Lake Storage C. Azure Blob storage D. Azure Queue storage Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 6 Match the Azure data factory components to the appropriate descriptions. To answer, drag the appropriate component from the column on the left to its description on the right. Each component may be used once, more than once, or not at all. NOTE: Each correct match is worth one point. Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 7 Which statement is an example of Data Definition Language (DDL)? A. SELECT B. JOIN C. MERGE D. CREATE Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 8 To complete the sentence, select the appropriate option in the answer area. Hot Area:
QUESTION 9 You are reviewing the data model shown in the following exhibit.
Use the drop-down menus to select the answer choice that completes each statement based on the information presented in the graphic. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point Hot Area:
QUESTION 10 What should you use to build a Microsoft Power BI paginated report? A. Power BI report Builder B. Power BI Desktop C. Charticulator D. the Power BI service Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 11 To complete the sentence select the appropriate option in the answer area.
QUESTION 12 For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Hot Area:
QUESTION 13 Match the Azure Data Lake Storage terms to the appropriate levels in the hierarchy. To answer, drag the appropriate term from the column on the left to its level on the right. Each term may be used once, more than once, or not at all. NOTE: Each correct match is worth one point. Select and Place:
Reason for selection:
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QUESTION 1 Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. Some user accounts in the domain have the P.O. Box attribute set. You plan to remove the value of the P.O. Box attribute for all of the users by using Ldifde. You have a user named User1 who is located in the Users container. How should you configure the LDIF file to remove the value of the P.O. Box attribute for User1? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area. Hot Area:
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 2 Note: This question is part of a series of questions that use the same scenario. For you convenience, the scenario is repeated in each question. Each question presents a different goal and answer choices, but the text of the scenario is exactly the same in each question in this series. Start of repeated scenario. You work for a company named Contoso, Ltd. The network contains an Active Directory forest named contoso.com. A forest trust exists between contoso.com and an Active Directory forest named adatum.com. The contoso.com forest contains the objects configured as shown in the following table.
Group1 and Group2 contain only user accounts. Contoso hires a new remote user named User3. User3 will work from home and will use a computer named Computer3 that runs Windows 10. Computer3 is currently in a workgroup. An administrator named Admin1 is a member of the Domain Admins group in the contoso.com domain. From Active Directory Users and Computers, you create an organizational unit (OU) named OU1 in the contoso.com domain, and then you create a contact named Contact1 in OU1. An administrator of the adatum.com domain runs the Set-ADUser cmdlet to configure a user named User1 to have a user logon name of [email protected] End of repeated scenario. You need to ensure that User2 can add Group4 as a member of Group5. What should you modify? A. the group scope of Group5 B. the Managed By settings of Group4 C. the group scope of Group4 D. the Managed By settings of Group5 Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 3 Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution. After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen. Your network contains an Active Directory forest named contoso.com. You need to identify which server is the schema master. Solution: From Windows PowerShell, you run Get-ADDomainController –Discover –Service 2. Does this meet the goal? A. Yes B. No Correct Answer: B This command gets a global catalog in the current forest using Discovery. References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/powershell/module/addsadministration/getaddomaincontroller?view=win10-ps
QUESTION 4 You have an Active Directory Rights Management Services (AD RMS) server named RMS1. Multiple documents are protected by using RMS1. RMS1 fails and cannot be recovered. You install the AD RMS server role on a new server named RMS2. You restore the AD RMS database from RMS1 to RMS2. Users report that they fail to open the protected documents and to protect new documents. You need to ensure that the users can access the protected content. What should you do? A. From Active Directory Rights Management, update the Service Connection Point (SCP) for RMS1. B. From DNS, create an alias (CNAME) record for RMS2. C. From DNS, modify the service location (SRV) record for RMS1. D. From RMS2, register a service principal name (SPN) in Active Directory. Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 5 Your network contains an Active Directory forest named contoso.com Your company plans to hire 500 temporary employees for a project that will last 90 days. You create a new user account for each employee. An organizational unit (OU) named Temp contains the user accounts for the employees. You need to prevent the new users from accessing any of the resources in the domain after 90 days. What should you do? A. Run the Get-ADUser cmdlet and pipe the output to the Set-ADUser cmdlet. B. Create a group that contains all of the users in the Temp OU. Create a Password Setting object (PSO) for the new group. C. Create a Group Policy object (GPO) and link the GPO to the Temp OU. Modify the Password Policy settings of the GPO. D. Run the GET-ADOrganizationalUnit cmdlet and pipe the output to the Set-Date cmdlet. Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 6 You have an enterprise certification authority (CA) named ContosoCA. Recovery agents are configured for ContosoCA. You duplicate the User certificate template and name it Cont_User. You plan to issue the certificates based on Cont_User to provide users with the ability to encrypt email messages and files. You need to ensure that the recovery agents can access any user-encrypted files and email messages if the users lose their certificate. What should you do? A. Modify the Recovery Agents settings for ContosoCA. B. Issue a certificate based on a key recovery agent certificate. C. Modify the Request Handling settings for Cont_User. D. On ContosoCA, configure the Key Recovery Agent template as a certificate template to issue. Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 7 Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a member server named Server1 and a domain controller named DC1. Both servers run Windows Server 2016. Server1 is used to perform administrative tasks, including managing Group Polices. After maintenance is performed on DC1, you open a Group Policy object (GPO) from Server1 as shown in the exhibit.
You need to be able to view all of the Administrative Templates settings in GPO1. What should you do? A. From File Explorer, copy the administrative templates from \\contoso.com\SYSVOL\contoso.com\Policies to the PolicyDefinitions folder on Server1. B. From File Explorer, delete \\contoso.com\SYSVOL\contoso.com\Policies\PolicyDefinitions. C. From File Explorer, delete the PolicyDefinitions folder from Server1. D. From Group Policy Management, configure WMI Filtering for GPO1. Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 8 Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains three servers named Server1, Server2, and Server3 that run Windows Server 2016. Server1 has IP Address Management (IPAM) installed. Server2 and Server3 have the DHCP Server role installed and have several DHCP scopes configured. The IPAM server retrieves data from Server2 and Server3. A domain user named User1 is a member of the groups shown in the following table.
On Server1, you create a security policy for User1. The policy grants the IPAM DHCP Scope Administrator Role with the \Global access scope to the user. Which actions can User1 perform? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area. Hot Area:
Correct Answer:
User1 is using Server Manager, not IPAM to perform the administration. Therefore, only the “DHCP Administrators” permission on Server2 and the “DHCP Users” permissions on Server3 are applied. The permissions granted through membership of the “IPAM DHCP Scope Administrator Role” are not applied when the user is not using the IPAM console.
QUESTION 9 HOTSPOT Your network contains an Active Directory forest named contoso.com. They connect to the forest by using ldp.exe and receive the output as shown in the following exhibit.
Use drop-down menus to select the answer choice that completes each statement based on the information presented in the graphic. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Hot Area:
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 10 Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. All the accounts of the users in the sales department are in an organizational unit (OU) named SalesOU. An application named App1 is deployed to the user accounts in SalesOU by using a Group Policy object (GPO) named Sales GPO. You need to set the registry value of \HKEY_CURRENT_USER\Software\App1\Collaboration to 0. Solution: You add a computer preference that has a Create action. Does this meet the goal? A. Yes B. No Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 11 Your network contains an enterprise root certification authority (CA) named CA1. Multiple computers on the network successfully enroll for certificates that will expire in one year. The certificates are based on a template named Secure_Computer. The template uses schema version 2. You need to ensure that new certificates based on Secure_Computer are valid for three years. What should you do? A. Modify the Validity period for the certificate template. B. Instruct users to request certificates by running the certreq.exe command. C. Instruct users to request certificates by using the Certificates console. D. Modify the Validity period for the root CA certificate. Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 12 Note: This question is part of a series of questions that use the same or similar answer choices. An answer choice may be correct for more than one question in the series. Each question is independent of the other questions in this series. Information and details provided in a question apply only to that question. Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a domain controller named DC1 that runs Windows Server 2016. You need to create a snapshot of the Active Directory database on DC1. Which tool should you use? A. Dsadd quota B. Dsmod C. Active Directory Administrative Center D. Dsacls E. Dsmain F. Active Directory Users and Computers G. Ntdsutil H. Group Policy Management Console Correct Answer: G
QUESTION 13 Your network contains two network domains sales.fabrikam.com, and contoso.com, You recently added a site named Europe. The forest contains four users who are members of the groups shown in the following table.
You need to create a Group Policy object (GPO) named GP01 and to link GPO1 to the Europe site. Which users can perform each task? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point Hot Area:
Correct Answer:
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Exam Code: 70-489
Exam Name: Developing Microsoft SharePoint Server 2013 Advanced Solutions
Updated: Jul 23, 2017
Q&As: 97
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QUESTION 10 You need to implement the social maintenance tool.
How should you complete the relevant code? (To answer, select the appropriate option from each
dropdown list in the answer area.)
QUESTION 11 You need to notify Windows phone users about the new Windows phone app.
Which three actions should you perform in sequence? (To answer, move the appropriate actions
from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order. Select and Place:
Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Note:
* A device channel panel is a container that can be used on a master page or page layout when
you want specific content to render based on the alias of a given device channel, or set of
channels. For example, you may have a web part or control that you want revealed only on the
desktop view of the site, and not on any mobile device. The device channel panel can enable you
to encapsulate this web part in code, and enable you to render it only through a designated device
channel.
* From scenario:
You create a Windows Phone app. When users access the site by using a Windows phone, a
message must appear on every page of the mobile site. The message must notify users that they
can download the Windows Phone app to their phone. The HTML that contains the message
must render only to the Windows phones.
Correct Answer:
Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Testlet 1 Topic 3, Contoso Ltd Background Contoso Ltd. is a global real estate company. You are hired to replace the company’s existing
ASP.NET website at http://www.contoso.com with a new SharePoint 2013 public-facing
website. The site will display data about the company and information about residential
properties that the individual agents in the company are selling. You have SharePoint Server
environments for development, staging, and production. Search The website has the following requirements:
Site visitors must be able to search for documents that are located
anywhere on the site.
When site visitors search for real estate properties, they must see
information about a property.
When a visitor searches for the word Guidelines, a PDF document named
Real Estate Guidelines must appear at the top of the search results. Search Engine Optimization The company wants to ensure that the website displays prominently in Internet search results
when people search for real estate.
The website has the following requirements:
Internet search engines must properly rank pages so that the more popular
pages on the site appear first in the Internet search engine results.
SharePoint must generate the sitemap.xml and robots.txt files that are used
by Internet search engines.
When an Internet search engine crawls the site, the search engine must recognize that the
following URLs display information about different agents:
http://www.contoso.com/FindAnAgent?agentName=JohnDoe&officeId =
Sacramento
http://www.contoso.com/FindAnAgent?agentName=JohnDoe&officeId =
Houston
The search engine must recognize that the following URLs display the same information about
the same agent:
http://www.contoso.com/FindAnAgent?
agentName=JohnDoe&officeId=Sacramento
http://www.contoso.com/FindAnAgent?agentName=JohnDoe&officeId =
Sacramento8icerts=true Managed Metadata Service (MMS) The MMS must include three term sets named Offices, Cities, and Features. Offices Term Set The Offices term set has the following requirements:
The Offices term set must be a child of the group named Navigation.
The Offices term set must be configured to use friendly URLs in the
Offices sub-site.
The name for each new office must be added to the Offices term set
programmatically.
The left navigation pane for the Offices page on the website must use the
terms in the Offices term set.
When the company opens a new office, a link for each new office must
display in the left navigation pane. Cities Term Set The Cities term set has the following requirements:
The Cities term set must contain a list that contains the names of major
metropolitan areas.
Many of the cities that are included in the Offices term set may also
appear in the Cities term set, but the term sets may not be identical.
If a city is required in both term sets, it must first be added to the Offices
term set before it can be added to the Cities term set.
If a term is changed in the Offices term set, it must automatically change
in the Cities term set.
The term Dallas must have a term ID of {b6ell481-3445-413c-9da0-
bl5ae5d5cbd4}. Features Term Set You have an Excel file that contains a list of possible features for each property. The Features
term set has the following requirements:
The Features term set must contain the terms that describe details about
each property, such as whether the building is a single family house or a
condominium.
The list of possible features must be programmatically imported from the
Excel file into the term store in each server environment. Web Application The Internet Information Services (IIS) website contains a folder named _ConfigurationFiles.
The web application has the following requirements:
Anonymous access must be enabled on the web application.
Internet search engines must index the site.
Internet search engines must not index the files in the _ConfigurationFiles
folder. Site Collections and Content The web application includes the following three site collections. Board Member Site Collection The Board Member site collection is only accessible to the board members so that they can view private company information.
The Board Member site collection has the following requirements:
Only board members can log in to the site collection.
A page within the site collection must display a list of all the board
members.
The website must be located at http://www.contoso.com/sites/board. Internet Site Collection Anonymous access is enabled on the Internet site collection. The Internet site collection has the
following requirements:
The site collection must include a sub-site named Offices.
The URL of the Offices sub-site is http://www.contoso.com/Offices.
Each office must have its own page on the site.
The pages for each office must have the same style and structure.
Each office page must contain a Content Search Web Part that displays a
listing of all the properties that are being sold by agents in the office.
The Content Search Web Part must use a custom display template named
Real Estate Property to render search results when site visitors search for a
property.
The target page for terms in the Office term set must point to a page
named Office.aspx that is in the Pages library of the Offices sub-site.
The site must contain an About Us section that contains a Content Search
Web Part that lists the members of the board of directors for the company.
Each member of the board must have a page that contains biographical
information about that board member.
The list of board members must be available in the Board Member site
collection.
Site visitors must be able to view information about individual agents,
including their contact information, certifications, and picture.
When agents visit the Internet site collection, the agents may add
information about each of the real estate properties that they are selling.
The agents must be able to tag real estate properties according to their
features.
Real estate agents must enter real estate property information into a web
form that is used specifically for data collection.
The web form must collect the following information:
The property address.
Up to five pictures of the property.
The selling price.
The number of bedrooms and bathrooms.
The name of the real estate agent.
Tags that will further describe the property. Agent Site Collection The Agent site collection is in the same web application and is accessible only to agents. The
Agent site collection has the following requirements:
The site collection must include a site that contains instructions for real
estate agents that tells them how to add property information to the
website.
The website must be located at http://www.contoso.com/sites/agents.
A Web Part must use the .NET client-side object model (CS0M) to
retrieve all of the terms from only the Features term set. Page Layouts and Web Parts Page Layouts You must create the following page layouts: About Us, Biography With Image, Biography No
Image, and Office.
The page layouts have the following requirements:
The About Us page layout must include a field to which the user may add
Web Parts.
The Biography With Image and Biography No Image page layouts must
display biographical information about the board of directors.
You must create a content type named Biography. Biography With Image
and Biography No Image page layouts must use the Biography content
type.
The Office page layout must display information for each office and must
use the fields that that are defined in the Elements.xml file. Web Parts The Agent Web Part has the following requirements:
The Web Part must display information about an individual agent.
The Web Part must display information that is based on query string
parameters.
The URL of the page that hosts the Web Part must be
http://www.contoso.com/FindAnAgent.
The following table lists the query string parameters and the way that each parameter must be
used by the Web Part.
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Exam Code:070-461
Exam Name: Querying Microsoft SQL Server 2012
Q&As: 164
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Question No : 10You create a stored procedure that will update multiple tables within a transaction.
You need to ensure that if the stored procedure raises a run-time error, the entire
transaction is terminated and rolled back.
Which Transact-SQL statement should you include at the beginning of the stored
procedure? A. SET XACT_ABORT ON B. SET ARITHABORT ON C. TRY D. BEGIN E. SET ARITHABORT OFF F. SET XACT_ABORT OFF
070-461 exam Answer: A Question No : 11Your database contains two tables named DomesticSalesOrders and
InternationalSalesOrders. Both tables contain more than 100 million rows. Each table has a
Primary Key column named SalesOrderId. The data in the two tables is distinct from one
another.
Business users want a report that includes aggregate information about the total number of
global sales and total sales amounts.
You need to ensure that your query executes in the minimum possible time.
Which query should you use? A. SELECT COUNT(*) AS NumberOfSales, SUM(SalesAmount) AS TotalSalesAmount
FROM (
SELECT SalesOrderId, SalesAmount
FROM DomesticSalesOrders
UNION ALL
SELECT SalesOrderId, SalesAmount
FROM InternationalSalesOrders
) AS p B. SELECT COUNT(*) AS NumberOfSales, SUM(SalesAmount) AS TotalSalesAmount
FROM (
SELECT SalesOrderId, SalesAmount
FROM DomesticSalesOrders
UNION
SELECT SalesOrderId, SalesAmount
FROM InternationalSalesOrders
) AS p C. SELECT COUNT(*) AS NumberOfSales, SUM(SalesAmount) AS TotalSalesAmount
FROM DomesticSalesOrders
UNION
SELECT COUNT(*) AS NumberOfSales, SUM(SalesAmount) AS TotalSalesAmount
FROM InternationalSalesOrders D. SELECT COUNT(*) AS NumberOfSales, SUM(SalesAmount) AS TotalSalesAmount
FROM DomesticSalesOrders
UNION ALL
SELECT COUNT(*) AS NumberOfSales, SUM(SalesAmount) AS TotalSalesAmount
FROM InternationalSalesOrders Answer: A Question No : 12You are a database developer at an independent software vendor. You create stored
procedures that contain proprietary code.
You need to protect the code from being viewed by your customers.
Which stored procedure option should you use? A. ENCRYPTBYKEY B. ENCRYPTION C. ENCRYPTBYPASSPHRASE D. ENCRYPTBYCERT 70-461 dumps Answer: B Question No : 13You use a Microsoft SQL Server 2012 database. You want to create a table to store Microsoft Word documents. You need to ensure that the documents must only be accessible via Transact-SQL queries.
Which Transact-SQL statement should you use? A. CREATE TABLE DocumentStore
(
[Id] INT NOT NULL PRIMARY KEY,
[Document] VARBINARY(MAX) NULL
)
GO B. CREATE TABLE DocumentStore
(
[Id] hierarchyid,
[Document] NVARCHAR NOT NULL
)
GO C. CREATE TABLE DocumentStore AS FileTable D. CREATE TABLE DocumentStore
(
[Id] [uniqueidentifier] ROWGUIDCOL NOT NULL UNIQUE,
[Document] VARBINARY(MAX) FILESTREAM NULL
)
GO Answer: A QUESTION NO: 14 The BEST description of the purpose of Service Operation is? A. To design and build processes that will meet business needs B. To deliver and support IT Services at agreed levels to business users and customers C. To decide how IT will engage with suppliers during the Service Management Lifecycle D. To proactively prevent all outages to IT Services
070-461 pdf Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 15 Which of the following is NOT an aim of the Change Management process? A. Overall business risk is optimized B. Standardized methods and procedures are used for efficient and prompt handling of all
Changes C. All budgets and expenditures are accounted for D. All changes to Service Assets and Configuration Items (CIs) are recorded in the Configuration
Management system Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 16 How does Problem Management work with Change Management? A. By installing changes to fix problems B. By negotiating with Incident Management for changes in IT for Problem resolution C. By issuing RFCs for permanent solutions D. By working with users to change their IT configurations
070-461 vce Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 17 Which of the following statements is CORRECT? A. The CMS is part of the Configuration Management Data Base (CMDB) B. The Configuration Management System (CMS) is part of the Known Error Data Base (KEDB) C. The Service Knowledge Management System (SKMS) is part of the CMS D. The KEDB and the CMS form part of the larger SKMS Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 18 Understanding customer usage of services and how this varies over the Business Lifecycle is part
of which process? A. Service Portfolio Management B. Service Level Management C. Component Capacity Management D. Demand Management
070-461 exam Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 19 Which is NOT a purpose of Service Transition? A. Ensure that a service can be managed, operated and supported. B. Provide quality knowledge of Change, Release and Deployment Mgmt. C. Plan and manage the capacity and resource requirements to manage a release. D. Provide training and certification in project management. Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 20 Which of the following is the BEST definition of an Incident? A. Loss of ability to operate to specification, or to deliver the required output B. A change of state which has significance for the management of a Configuration Item or IT
Service C. A warning that a threshold has been reached, something has changed, or a failure has
occurred D. An unplanned interruption to an IT service or reduction in the quality of an IT service 70-461 dumps Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 21 The BEST description of the guidance provided by Service Design is? A. The design and development of new services B. The design and development of service improvements C. The design and development of services and service management processes D. The day-to-day operation and support of services Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 22 How many times should each stage of the Plan, Do, Check, Act (PDCA) cycle be visited? A. Each stage should be carried out once in the order Plan-Do-Check-Act B. There should be a single Plan and Do,then Check and Act should be carried out multiple times to implement Continual Improvement C. The entire cycle should be repeated multiple times to implement Continual Improvement D. There should be a single Plan,then the Do-Check-Act cycle should be repeated multiple times
to implement Continual Improvement
070-461 pdf Answer: C
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If you’re considering achieving the MCSA Windows Server 2012 certification, you’ll need to pass 3 exams 70-410, 70-411 and 70-412. Having launched our blog today we focus on exam 70-411: Administering Windows Server 2012. This exam proves your knowledge and skills in implementation and management of Microsoft Windows Server 2012’s components like Active Directory domain services, Group Policy, Remote Access and Update Management.
The 70-411 pdf builds upon the fundamental skills demonstrated in the 70-410 exam and proves you can manage the majority of Windows Server 2012’s functions. Remember, you are required to pass all three exams before you are MCSA: Windows Server 2012 certified.
We’ve researched and compiled 10 tips that will help you get you the skills and knowledge to pass the second Microsoft MCSA: Windows Server 2012 certification exam, 70-411.
1. Use the Microsoft Virtual Academy
Microsoft’s Virtual Academy is one of the most useful resources Microsoft provides. Watch videos from Microsoft experts, giving you in-depth training and guidance on core Microsoft technologies. There are also online courses aligned to Microsoft exams.
You can find resources for the MCSA: 70-411 pdf here. This takes you through two substantial videos with all the insight into the details of the overview of the exam aims and contents. These videos also point you to, and talk you through the 70-411 exam page on the Microsoft Learning website.
I’d recommend using the Microsoft Virtual Academy to prepare you for your studies. Once you know more about what you’ll be facing, you’ll be better placed to begin your studying and exam preparation.
2. Use a revision guide
A revision guide is a must-have for any exam. It’ll guide you through your studies, highlighting which topics require more focus than others. Study guides often define terms you may not understand and explain theory with a high level of detail.Don’t mess around searching for study guides, here’s our top recommendations. Like the 70-410 exam before it, Microsoft have a really useful official 70-411 exam revision guide called, “Exam Ref 70-411 Administering Windows Server 2012 R2 (MCSA)”. If you used Microsoft’s guide for the 70-410, this will continue nicely where the last left off, using a similar style. It is well structured to help you focus on each exam objective and also presents real-world scenarios to put your knowledge into context. And finally, published from Microsoft, you can trust that it contains all the information you need for the exam.
An alternative 70-411 pdf is William Panek’s MCSA Windows Server 2012 R2 Complete Study Guide: Exams 70-410, 70-411, 70-412. It comes with weight as it’s written by one of Microsoft’s MVPs and covers all the topics in all three of the MCSA: Windows Server 2012 certification exams. This goes into extensive detail to improve your knowledge and prepare you for the 70-411 exam. Other features include hands-on exercises, practice exam questions, electronic flashcards and over two hours of video content. All of this creates a revision guide package that is perfect at improving your Windows Server 2012 knowledge in all the areas in the three exams.
3. Join a forum
Sharing your Microsoft 70-411 exam queries and experiences can help you gain ideas and learn from others in the same position as yourself. Doing this in an online forum is easy, can be a well-earned break from revision and may surprise you in the amount of questions it answers. Take each answer with a pinch of salt – not everyone is an expert.One of the best for Microsoft exams is TechNet’s forums. You can search for specific exam related questions, or look up general technology related queries. You could pose a direct question yourself, or use an existing thread with many responses and answers already available. There are many ways in which an online forum could be helpful to your 70-411 exam studies.
FLYDUMPS give you complete info about Microsoft 70-412 vce is based on 55 questions which aim to target the practical abilities of candidates. These questions must be answered in the allotted time of 90 minutes. No additional time is allotted to the candidates and they are not allowed to consult any helping material during exam time. This certification is only held in English. https://www.pass4itsure.com/70-412.html
QUESTION 1
Your company recently deployed a new Active Directory forest named contoso.com. The first domain controller in the forest runs Windows Server 2012 R2.
You need to identify the time-to-live (TTL) value for domain referrals to the NETLOGON and SYSVOL shared folders.
Which tool should you use?
A. Ultrasound
B. Replmon
C. Dfsdiag
D. Frsutil
Correct Answer: C Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
What does DFSDiag do?
dfsdiag /testreferral:
Perform specific tests, depending on the type of referral being used.
* For Sysvol and Netlogon referrals perform the validation for Domain referrals and that it's TTL has the
default value (900s).
Etc.
QUESTION 2
Your network contains two Active Directory forests named contoso.com and adatum.com. Contoso.com contains one domain. Adatum.com contains a child domain named child.adatum.- com.
Contoso.com has a one-way forest trust to adatum.com. Selective authentication is enabled on the forest trust.
Several user accounts are migrated from child.adatum.com to adatum.com. Users report that after the migration, they fail to access resources in contoso.com. The users suc- cessfully accessed the resources in contoso.com before the accounts were migrated.
You need to ensure that the migrated users can access the resources in contoso.com.
What should you do?
A. Replace the existing forest trust with an external trust.
B. Run netdom and specify the /quarantine attribute.
C. Disable SID filtering on the existing forest trust.
D. Disable selective authentication on the existing forest trust.
Correct Answer: C Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: Security Considerations for Trusts Need to gain access to the resources in contoso.com
Disabling SID Filter Quarantining on External Trusts Although it reduces the security of your forest (and is therefore not recommended), you can dis- able SID filter quarantining for an external trust by using the Netdom.exe tool. You should con- sider disabling SID filter quarantining only in the following situations:
* Users have been migrated to the trusted domain with their SID histories preserved, and you want to grant
them access to resources in the trusting domain based on the SID history attribute.
Etc.
Incorrect: not B. Enables administrators to manage Active Directory domains and trust relationships from the command prompt, /quarantine Sets or clears the domain quarantine not D. Selective authentication over a forest trust restricts access to only those users in a trusted forest who have been explicitly given authentication permissions to computer objects (resource computers) that reside in the trusting forest
QUESTION 3
Your network contains an Active Directory forest named adatum.com. The forest contains a sin- gle domain. The domain contains four servers. The servers are configured as shown in the fol- lowing table.
You need to update the schema to support a domain controller that will run Windows Server 2012 R2. On which server should you run adprep.exe?
A. Server1
B. DC3
C. DC2
D. DC1 Correct Answer: B
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Upgrade Domain Controllers to Windows Server 2012 R2 and Windows Server 2012
You can use adprep.exe on domain controllers that run 64-bit versions of Windows Server 2008 or
Windows Server 2008 R2 to upgrade to Windows Server 2012. You cannot upgrade domain controllers
that run Windows Server 2003 or 32-bit versions of Windows Server 2008. To re- place them, install
domain controllers that run a later version of Windows Server in the domain, and then remove the domain
controllers that Windows Server 2003.
QUESTION 4
Your network contains an Active Directory forest named contoso.com. The forest contains three domains. All domain controllers run Windows Server 2012 R2.
The forest has a two-way realm trust to a Kerberos realm named adatum.com.
You discover that users in adatum.com can only access resources in the root domain of contoso.- com.
You need to ensure that the adatum.com users can access the resources in all of the domains in the forest.
What should you do in the forest?
A. Delete the realm trust and create a forest trust.
B. Delete the realm trust and create three external trusts.
C. Modify the incoming realm trust.
D. Modify the outgoing realm trust.
Correct Answer: D Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
*
A one-way, outgoing realm trust allows resources in your Windows Server domain (the do- main that you are logged on to at the time that you run the New Trust Wizard) to be accessed by users in the Kerberos realm.
*
You can establish a realm trust between any non-Windows Kerberos version 5 (V5) realm and an Active Directory domain. This trust relationship allows cross-platform interoperability with security services that are based on other versions of the Kerberos V5 protocol, for example, UNIX and MIT implementations. Realm trusts can switch from nontransitive to transitive and back. Realm trusts can also be either one-way or two-way.
Reference: Create a One-Way, Outgoing, Realm Trust
QUESTION 5
Your network contains an Active Directory forest named contoso.com. The forest contains two domains named contoso.com and childl.contoso.com. The domains contain three domain con- trollers.
The domain controllers are configured as shown in the following table.
You need to ensure that the KDC support for claims, compound authentication, and kerberos ar- moring setting is enforced in the child1.contoso.com domain.
Which two actions should you perform? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)
A. Upgrade DC1 to Windows Server 2012 R2.
B. Upgrade DC11 to Windows Server 2012 R2.
C. Raise the domain functional level of childl.contoso.com.
D. Raise the domain functional level of contoso.com.
E. Raise the forest functional level of contoso.com.
Correct Answer: AE Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The root domain in the forest must be at Windows Server 2012 level. First upgrade DC1 to this level (A),
then raise the contoso.com domain functional level to Windows Server 2012 (E).
* (A) To support resources that use claims-based access control, the principal's domains will need to be running one of the following: / All Windows Server 2012 domain controllers / Sufficient Windows Server 2012 domain controllers to handle all the Windows 8 device au- thentication requests / Sufficient Windows Server 2012 domain controllers to handle all the Windows Server 2012 re- source protocol transition requests to support non-Windows 8 devices
Reference: What's New in Kerberos Authentication http://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/hh831747.aspx.
QUESTION 6
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. All domain controllers run Windows Server 2012 R2. The domain contains two domain controllers.
The domain controllers are configured as shown in the following table.
You configure a user named User1 as a delegated administrator of DC10.
You need to ensure that User1 can log on to DC10 if the network link between the Main site and the Branch site fails.
What should you do?
A. Add User1 to the Domain Admins group.
B. On DC10, modify the User Rights Assignment in Local Policies.
C. Run repadmin and specify the /prp parameter.
D. On DC10, run ntdsutil and configure the settings in the Roles context.
Correct Answer: C Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
repadmin /prp will allow the password caching of the local administrator to the RODC. This command lists
and modifies the Password Replication Policy (PRP) for read-only domain controllers (RODCs).
QUESTION 7
Your company has offices in Montreal, New York, and Amsterdam. The network contains an Active Directory forest named contoso.com. An Active Directory site exists for each office. All of the sites connect to each other by using the DEFAULTIPSITELINK site link.
You need to ensure that only between 20:00 and 08:00, the domain controllers in the Montreal office replicate the Active Directory changes to the domain controllers in the Amsterdam office.
The solution must ensure that the domain controllers in the Montreal and the New York offices can replicate the Active Directory changes any time of day.
What should you do?
A. Create a new site link that contains Montreal and Amsterdam. Remove Amsterdam from DE-FAULTIPSITE1INK. Modify the schedule of DEFAULTIPSITE1INK.
B. Create a new site link that contains Montreal and Amsterdam. Create a new site link bridge. Modify the schedule of DEFAU LTIPSITE1INK.
C. Create a new site link that contains Montreal and Amsterdam. Remove Amsterdam from DE-FAULTIPSITELINK. Modify the schedule of the new site link.
D. Create a new site link that contains Montreal and Amsterdam. Create a new site link bridge. Modify the schedule of the new site link.
Correct Answer: C Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Very Smartly reworded with same 3 offices. In the exam correct answer is "Create a new site link that
contains Newyork to Montreal. Remove Montreal from DEFAULTIPSITE1INK.Mod- ify the schedule of the
new site link".
Reference: How Active Directory Replication Topology Works http://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/
cc755994(v=ws.10).aspx
QUESTION 8
Your network contains two Web servers named Server1 and Server2. Both servers run Windows Server
2012 R2.
Server1 and Server2 are nodes in a Network Load Balancing (NLB) cluster. The NLB cluster contains an
application named App1 that is accessed by using the URL http://app1.contoso.com.
You plan to perform maintenance on Server1.
You need to ensure that all new connections to App1 are directed to Server2. The solution must not
disconnect the existing connections to Server1.
What should you run?
A. The Set-NlbCluster cmdlet
B. The Set-NlbClusterNode cmdlet
C. The Stop-NlbCluster cmdlet
D. The Stop-NlbClusterNode cmdlet
Correct Answer: D Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
The Stop-NlbClusterNode cmdlet stops a node in an NLB cluster. When you use the stop the nodes in the
cluster, client connections that are already in progress are interrupted. To avoid in- terrupting active
connections, consider using the -drain parameter, which allows the node to con- tinue servicing active
connections but disables all new traffic to that node.
-Drain <SwitchParameter>
Drains existing traffic before stopping the cluster node. If this parameter is omitted, existing traf- fic will be
dropped.
QUESTION 9
Your network contains two servers named HV1 and HV2. Both servers run Windows Server 2012 R2 and have the Hyper-V server role installed.
HV1 hosts 25 virtual machines. The virtual machine configuration files and the virtual hard disks are stored in D:\VM.
You shut down all of the virtual machines on HV1.
You copy D:\VM to D:\VM on HV2.
You need to start all of the virtual machines on HV2. You want to achieve this goal by using the minimum amount of administrative effort.
What should you do?
A. Run the Import-VMInitialReplication cmdlet.
B. From HV1, export all virtual machines to D:\VM. Copy D:\VM to D:\VM on HV2 and over- write the existing files. On HV2, run the Import Virtual Machine wizard.
C. From HV1, export all virtual machines to D:\VM. Copy D:\VM to D:\VM on HV2 and over- write the existing files. On HV2, run the New Virtual Machine wizard.
D. Run the Import-VM cmdlet.
Correct Answer: D Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Import-VM
Imports a virtual machine from a file.
Example
Imports the virtual machine from its configuration file. The virtual machine is registered in- place, so its files
are not copied.
Windows PowerShell
PS C:\> Import-VM Path 'D:\Test\VirtualMachines\5AE40946-3A98-428E-8C83-081A3C6B- D18C.XML'
Reference: Import-VM
QUESTION 10
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains two member servers named Server1 and Server2. All servers run Windows Server 2012 R2.
Server1 and Server2 have the Failover Clustering feature installed. The servers are configured as nodes in a failover cluster named Cluster1. Cluster1 contains a cluster disk resource.
A developer creates an application named App1. App1 is NOT a cluster-aware application. App1 runs as a service. App1 stores date on the cluster disk resource.
You need to ensure that App1 runs in Cluster1. The solution must minimize development effort.
Which cmdlet should you run?
A. Add-ClusterGenericServiceRole
B. Add-ClusterGenericApplicationRole
C. Add-ClusterScaleOutFileServerRole
D. Add-ClusterServerRole
Correct Answer: B Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Add-ClusterGenericApplicationRole Configure high availability for an application that was not originally designed to run in a failover cluster. If you run an application as a Generic Application, the cluster software will start the application, then
periodically query the operating system to see whether the application appears to be run- ning. If so, it is
presumed to be online, and will not be restarted or failed over.
EXAMPLE 1 -Command Prompt: C:\PS>
Add-ClusterGenericApplicationRole -CommandLine NewApplication.exe
Name OwnerNode State
cluster1GenApp node2 Online Description
This command configures NewApplication.exe as a generic clustered application. A default name will be used for client access and this application requires no storage.
Ref: Add-ClusterGenericApplicationRole http://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ee460976.aspx
QUESTION 11
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. The system properties of Server1 are shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.)
You need to configure Server1 as an enterprise subordinate certification authority (CA). What should you do first?
A. Add RAM to the server.
B. Set the Startup Type of the Certificate Propagation service to Automatic.
C. Install the Certification Authority Web Enrollment role service.
D. Join Server1 to the contoso.com domain.
Correct Answer: D Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: Enterprise CAs must be domain members. From the exhibit we see that it is only a
Workgroup member.
Note:
A new CA can be the root CA of a new PKI or subordinate to another in an existing PKI.
Enterprise subordinate certification authority
An enterprise subordinate CA must get a CA certificate from an enterprise root CA but can then issue
certificates to all users and computers in the enterprise. These types of CAs are often used for load
balancing of an enterprise root CA.
Enterprise CAs can be used to issue certificates to support such services as digital signatures, Se- cure
Multipurpose Internet Mail Extensions (S/MIME) secure mail, Secure Sockets Layer (SSL) or Transport
Layer Security (TLS) secured web access and smart card authentication. Enterprise CAsare used to
provide certificate services to internal users who have user accounts in the do- main.
Requiring Active Directory, an Enterprise subordinate CA obtains its certificate from an already existing
CA.
These types of CAs are used to provide smart-card-enabled logons by Windows XP and other Windows
Server 2003 machines.
After a root certification authority (CA) has been installed, many organizations will install one or more
subordinate CAs to implement policy restrictions on the public key infrastructure (PKI) and to issue
certificates to end clients. Using at least one subordinate CA can help protect the root CA from
unnecessary exposure. If a subordinate CA will be used to issue certificates to users or computers with
accounts in an Active Directory domain, installing the subordinate CA as an enterprise CA allows you to
use the client's existing account data in Active Directory Do- main Services (AD DS) to issue and manage
certificates and to publish certificates to AD DS. Membership in local Administrators, or equivalent, is the
minimum required to complete this procedure. If this will be an enterprise CA, membership in Domain
Admins, or equivalent, is the minimum required to complete this procedure.
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Vendor: Microsoft
Exam Code: 70-741
Exam Name: Networking with Windows Server 2016
Certification Provider: Microsoft
Total Questions: 48 Q&A
Updated on: Jul 05, 2017
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Pass4itsure Latest and Most Accurate Microsoft 70-741 PDF Dumps Exam Q&As:
1.Mark works as a Network Administrator for Company Inc. The company has a Windows-based network.
The California branch of Company has been divided into two buildings in the same campus. The company
wants to interconnect these two buildings for proper communication among all the departments.
Which of the following network types should Mark use to accomplish the task?
A. MAN
B. WAN
C. LAN
D. CAN Answer: D 70-741 pdf Explanation: A campus area network (CAN) is a computer network that interconnects local area networks throughout a
limited geographical area, such as a university campus, a corporate campus, or a military base. It could
be considered a metropolitan area network that is specific to a campus setting. A campus area network is,
therefore, larger than a local area network but smaller than a wide area network. The term is sometimes
used to refer to university campuses, while the term corporate area network is used to refer to corporate
campuses instead. Although not considered a wide area network, a CAN extends the reach of each local
area network within the campus area of an organization. In a CAN, the buildings of a university or
corporate campus are interconnected using the same types of hardware and networking technologies that
one would use in a LAN. In addition, all of the components, including switches, routers, and cabling, as
well as wireless connection points, are owned and maintained by the organization. Answer option C is incorrect. Local Area Network (LAN) represents a network that covers a very close
geographic area, such as a floor of a building, a building itself, or a campus environment. LAN is a
high-speed network that connects computers, printers, and other network devices together. The media
types used in LANs include Ethernet, Fast Ethernet (FE), Gigabit Ethernet (GE), Token Ring, and FDDI. A
LAN may include servers, workstations, hubs, bridges, switches, routers, gateways, firewalls, etc. Answer option A is incorrect. A Metropolitan Area Network (MAN) is a network that interconnects users
with computer resources in a geographic area or region larger than that covered by even a large Local
Area Network (LAN) but smaller than the area covered by a Wide Area Network (WAN). The term is
applied to the interconnection of networks in a city into a single larger network (which may then also offer
efficient connection to a wide area network). It is also used to mean the interconnection of several local
area networks by bridging them with backbone lines. The latter usage is also sometimes referred to as a
campus network. A MAN usually interconnects a number of local area networks (LANs) using a
high-capacity backbone technology, such as fiber-optical links, and provides up-link services to wide area
networks and the Internet. Examples of metropolitan area networks of various sizes can be found in the
metropolitan areas of London, England; Lodz, Poland; and Geneva, Switzerland. Large universities also
sometimes use the term to describe their networks. A recent trend is the installation of wireless MANs. Answer option B is incorrect. A wide area network (WAN) is a geographically dispersed
telecommunications network. The term distinguishes a broader telecommunication structure from a local
area network (LAN). A wide area network may be privately owned or rented, but the term usually
connotes the inclusion of public (shared user) networks. An intermediate form of network in terms of
geography is a metropolitan area network (MAN). A wide area network is also defined as a network of
networks, as it interconnects LANs over a wide geographical area.
2.Which of the following organizations offers technical assistance to the developing countries in the field of telecommunications and regulates international radio and telecommunications?
A. ISO
B. ANSI
C. ITU-T
D. IEEE
E. W3C Answer: C 70-741 exam Explanation: The International Telecommunication Union (ITU) is an organization established to standardize and
regulate international radio and telecommunications. Its main tasks include standardization, allocation of
the radio spectrum, and organizing interconnection arrangements between different countries to allow
international phone calls. ITU sets standards for global telecom networks. The ITU’s telecommunications
division (ITU-T) produces more than 200 standard recommendations each year in the converging areas of
telecommunications, information technology, consumer electronics, broadcasting and multimedia
communications.
ITU was streamlined into the following three sectors:
ITU-D (Telecommunication Development)
ITU-R (Radio communication)
ITU-T (Telecommunication Standardization) Answer option B is incorrect. ANSI (American National Standards Institute) is the primary organization for
fostering the development of technology standards in the United States. ANSI works with industry groups
and is the U.S. member of the International Organization for Standardization (ISO) and the International
Electro-technical Commission (IEC). Long-established computer standards from ANSI include the
American Standard Code for Information Interchange (ASCII) and the Small Computer System Interface
(SCSI). Answer option D is incorrect. The Institute of Electrical and Electronic Engineers (IEEE) is a society of
technical professionals. It promotes the development and application of electro-technology and allied
sciences. IEEE develops communications and network standards, among other activities. The
organization publishes number of journals, has many local chapters, and societies in specialized areas. Answer option A is incorrect. The International Organization for Standardization, widely known as ISO, is
an international-standard-setting body composed of representatives from various national standards
organizations. Founded on 23 February 1947, the organization promulgates worldwide proprietary
industrial and commercial standards. It has its headquarters in Geneva, Switzerland. While ISO defines
itself as a non-governmental organization, its ability to set standards that often become law, either through
treaties or national standards, makes it more powerful than most non-governmental organizations. In
practice, ISO acts as a consortium with strong links to governments. Answer option E is incorrect. The World Wide Web Consortium (W3C) is an international industry
consortium that develops common standards for the World Wide Web to promote its evolution and
interoperability. It was founded in October 1994 by Tim Berners-Lee, the inventor of the Web, at the
Massachusetts Institute of Technology, Laboratory for Computer Science [MIT/LCS] in collaboration with
CERN, where the Web had originated, with support from DARPA and the European Commission.
3 .Which of the following is used to publish frequently updated works such as blog entries, news
headlines, audio, and video on the Web sites? A. Podcast
B. ActiveX
C. RSS
D. Digital certificate Answer: C 70-741 pdf Explanation: RSS (most commonly translated as “Really Simple Syndication” but sometimes “Rich Site Summary”) is a
family of Web feed formats used to publish frequently updated works such as blog entries, news headlines,
audio, and video in a standardized format. An RSS document (which is called a “feed”, “Web feed”, or
“channel”) includes full or summarized text, plus metadata such as publishing dates and authorship. Web
feeds benefit publishers by letting them syndicate content automatically. They benefit readers who want to
subscribe to timely updates from favored Web sites or to aggregate feeds from many sites into one place.
RSS feeds can be read using software called an “RSS reader”, “feed reader”, or “aggregator”, which can
be Web-based, desktop-based, or mobile-device-based. A standardized XML
file format allows the information to be published once and viewed by many different programs. The user
subscribes to a feed by entering into the reader the feed’s URI – often referred to informally as a “URL”
(Uniform Resource Locator), although technically the two terms are not exactly synonymous – or by
clicking an RSS icon in a browser that initiates the subscription process. The RSS reader checks the
user’s subscribed feeds regularly for new work, downloads any updates that it finds, and provides a user
interface to monitor and read the feeds. Answer option A is incorrect. A podcast (or netcast) is a series of digital media files (either audio or video)
that are released episodically and often downloaded through web syndication. The mode of delivery
differentiates podcasting from other means of accessing media files over the Internet, such as direct
download, or streamed webcasting. Answer option B is incorrect. ActiveX is a framework for defining reusable software components that
perform a particular function or a set of functions in Microsoft Windows in a way that is independent of the
programming language used to implement them. A software application can then be composed from one
or more of these components in order to provide its functionality. Many Microsoft Windows applications –
including many of those from Microsoft itself, such as Internet Explorer, Microsoft Office, Microsoft Visual
Studio, and Windows Media Player use ActiveX controls to build their feature-set and also encapsulate
their own functionality as ActiveX controls which can then be embedded into other applications. Internet
Explorer also allows embedding ActiveX controls onto web pages. Answer option D is incorrect. A digital certificate is an electronic ‘credit card’ that establishes an
individual’s credentials when doing business or other transactions on the Web. It is issued by a
certification authority (CA). It contains the name, a serial number, expiration dates, a copy of the
certificate holder’s public key (used for encrypting messages and digital signatures), and the digital
signature of the certificate-issuing authority so that a recipient can verify that the certificate is real. Some
digital certificates conform to a standard, X.509. Digital certificates can be kept in registries so that
authenticating users can look up other users’ public keys.
4.You work as a Security Administrator for Net Perfect Inc. The company has a Windows-based network.
The employees use Internet Explorer for Internet surfing. You want to block access to the vulnerable sites
from the internal network of the company. To accomplish the task, you need to configure some security settings for Internet Explorer.
Which of the following features of Internet Explorer do you need to configure?
A. Pop-up blocker
B. InPrivate Browsing
C. Content Advisor
D. Internet Explorer Compatibility Evaluator Answer: C 70-741 dumps Explanation: Content Advisor is a feature of Internet Explorer that allows an administrator to control the Internet
contents that can be viewed on a single computer. Before configuring the Content Advisor, it needs to be
enabled. When it is enabled, Internet Explorer first checks whether the website meets the specified
criteria or not. A user can adjust the content rating settings to reflect the appropriate level of content in the
areas of language, sex, nudity, and violence. He can also create a list of websites that are always
viewable or never viewable regardless of the contents. Answer option D is incorrect. The Internet Explorer Compatibility Evaluator (IECE) allows a user to
determine whether a Web site or Web application will run properly in a new version of Internet Explorer
such as Windows Internet Explorer 7. IECE works by enabling compatibility logging in Internet Explorer,
parsing logged issues, and creating a log file for uploading to the ACT Log Processing Service. A user can
view the compatibility issues located by IECE as a report with the help of the Application Compatibility
Manager. Answer option B is incorrect. InPrivate Browsing is a feature of Internet Explorer 8. When this feature is
active, Internet Explorer does not store history, cookies, temporary Internet files, or other data, thus
protecting privacy of the user while using Internet Explorer 8. InPrivate Browsing can be activated by
pressing Ctrl+Shift+P. This feature is quite helpful when a user does not want to leave any trace of his
Web browsing activity such as, e-mailing at an Internet cafe or shopping for a gift. Answer option A is incorrect. Pop-up blocker is a feature of Internet Explorer (IE) 7+. It enables users to
block most pop-ups while they are surfing the Internet on their computers. Users can choose the level of
blocking. They can either block all pop-up windows or allow pop-ups they want to see. By default, the
pop-up blocker is enabled in IE 7+. While the pop-up blocker is enabled, a user can see the blocked
pop-ups by clicking the IE 7+ information bar.
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Exam Code: 70-413
Exam Name: Designing and Implementing a Server Infrastructure
Updated: Aug 03, 2017
Q&As: 206
Pass4itusre Latest and Most Accurate Microsoft 70-413 Dumps Exam Q&As:
Question No : 32The power draw from a three-phase UPS is measured using a true RMS voltmeter. The
meter reads 10 kW as well as 10 kVA.
Why are the watts and volt-amps the same? A. The RMS voltage is 208 VAC. B. The three-phases are balanced. C. The power factor is equal to one. D. Each of the three-phases are synchronized.
070-413 exam Answer: C
Question No : 33In three-phase power, by how many degrees are the three basic power waveforms offset? A. 60 B. 90 C. 120 D. 180 Answer: C
Question No : 34What is the function of a circuit breaker? A. To distribute power from the UPS to critical loads B. To filter harmonics caused by non-power factor corrected computer loads C. To protect electrical equipment from damage caused by overload or short circuit D. To balance the loads in the data center to prevent stray currents on the ground wire 070-413 dumps Answer: C Question No : 35Which UPS topology switches to batteries and turns on the inverter when the utility fails? A. Rotary B. Standby C. Delta conversion D. Double conversion Answer: B
Question No : 36Which two UPS topologies are used for UPS systems that supply at least 50 kW? (Choose
two.) A. Standby B. Standby – ferro C. Delta conversion online D. Double conversion online
070-413 pdf Answer: C,D
Question No : 37What are two advantages of the line interactive UPS? (Choose two.) A. High reliability B. High efficiency C. High frequency control D. Optimized for 10 kW and above Answer: A,B
Question No : 38Which UPS topology uses a transfer switch between the primary power source and the
inverter? A. Standby B. High speed relay C. Delta conversion online D. Double conversion online
070-413 vce Answer: A
Question No : 39Which UPS topology is most commonly used to protect small business and departmental
servers where voltage regulation is required? A. Standby B. Line interactive C. High-speed relay D. Delta conversion online Answer: B
Question No : 40What is the primary purpose of a UPS? A. To remove transients from the power path B. To detect and report power factor problems C. To provide battery backup power should the utility fail D. To convert from three-phase power to Single-phase power
070-413 exam Answer: C
Question No : 41What is the main function of a UPS? A. To provide battery back-up power to IT equipment B. To regulate the voltage of power going to the racks C. To distribute power from the transformer to the racks D. To supply diesel-generated power when the utility is out Answer: A
Question No : 42What is a function of a transformer in a line interactive UPS? A. To increase the power factor as the load increases B. To increase harmonics by stepping down the output C. To regulate output voltage as the input voltage varies D. To provide low impedance for switched mode power supplies 070-413 dumps Answer: C
Question No : 43Which component of a line interactive UPS increases its battery life? A. Dual mains input B. Voltage regulating transformer C. Low impedance DC disconnect D. High impedance battery charge circuit Answer: B
Question No : 44How long is the transfer to battery time for a double conversion online UPS? A. 0 ms (0 cycles) B. 8 ms (0.5 cycles) C. 16 ms (1 cycle) D. 500 ms (30 cycles)
070-413 pdf Answer: A
Question No : 45What are two key characteristics of a UPS? (Choose two.) A. It tests voltages on IT equipment. B. It safeguards data in the event of a power loss. C. It measures energy consumption of IT equipment. D. It transfers IT equipment from utility to battery power. Answer: B,D
Question No : 46Which two characteristics do all static UPS topologies share? (Choose two.) A. A battery B. An inverter C. A transfer switch D. A single-phase input
070-413 vce Answer: A,B
Question No : 47 What is the primary difference between double conversion and delta conversion UPS
systems? A. Double conversion UPSs require a 1.3X generator oversizing. Delta conversion UPSs
require a 3X generator oversizing. B. Double conversion UPSs are practical in size ranges from 0 – 20 kW. Delta conversion
UPSs are practical in size ranges of 20 kW to 1 MW. C. In a double conversion UPS, 100% of the power is converted from AC to DC and then
again from DC to AC. In a delta conversion UPS, only the difference between input and
output power is converted. D. In a double conversion UPS, the transformer has a special ferro-resonant capability,
which provides limited voltage regulation and output waveform shaping. In a delta
conversion UPS, a standard transformer is used. Answer: C
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Pass4itsure Latest and Most Accurate Microsoft 70-464 Dumps Exam Q&As(1-12)
QUESTION 1
You use SQL Azure to store data used by an e-commerce application. You develop a stored procedure named sp1. Sp1 is used to read and change the price of all the products sold on the e-commerce site. You need to ensure that other transactions are blocked from updating product data while sp1 is executing. Which transaction isolation level should you use in sp1?
A. Repeatable read
B. Read committed
C. Serializable
D. Snapshot
070-464 exam Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 2
You review a query that runs slowly. The query accesses data in a table named Schema1.Table1.
The following is the relevant portion of the execution plan for the query:
You need to create the missing index. Which code segment should you execute?
A. CREATE NONCLUSTERED INDEX IX1 on Schema1.Table1 (Column1) INCLUDE (Column4) WHERE Column2 <> Column3
B. CREATE NONCLUSTERED INDEX IX1 on Schema1.Table1 (Column1)
C. CREATE NONCLUSTERED INDEX IX1 on Schema1.Table1 (Column1, Column2, Column3) INCLUDE (Column4)
D. CREATE NONCLUSTERED INDEX IX1 on schema1.Table1 (Column1) INCLUDE (Column4)
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 3
You use SQL Server 2012 to maintain the data used by the applications at your company. You plan to create a table named Table1 by using the following statement. (Line numbers are included for reference only.)
You need to ensure that Table1 contains a column named UserName. The UserName column will: Store string values in any language. Accept a maximum of 200 characters. Be case-insensitive and accent-insensitive. Which code segment should you add at line 03?
A. UserName nvarchar(200) COLLATE Latin1_General_CS_AS NOT NULL,
B. UserName varchar(200) COLLATE Latin1_General_CI_AI NOT NULL,
C. UserName varchar(200) COLLATE Latin 1_General_CS_AS NOT NULL,
D. UserName nvarchar(200) COLLATE Latin1_General_CI_AI NOT NULL, 070-464 dumps Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 4
You execute the following code:
You need to select the task that has an IsFinished value of true from the Project that has an Id value of 1. Which code segment should you use?
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 5
You are creating a table to support an application that will cache data outside of SQL Server. The application will detect whether cached values were changed before it updates the values. You need to create the table, and then verify that you can insert a row into the table. Which code segment should you use?
A.
B.
C.
D.
070-464 pdf Correct Answer: C
Explanation
QUESTION 6
Your company has a SQL Azure subscription. You implement a database named Database1. Database1 has two tables named Table1 and Table2. You create a stored procedure named sp1. Sp1 reads data from Table1 and inserts data into Table2. A user named User1 informs you that he is unable to run sp1. You verify that User1 has the SELECT permission on Table1 and Table2. You need to ensure that User1 can run sp1. The solution must minimize the number of permissions assigned to User1.
What should you do?
A. Change sp1 to run as the saUser.
B. Grant User1 the EXECUTE permission on sp1.
C. Add User1 to the db_datawriter role.
D. Grant User1 the INSERT permission on Table2.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 7
You execute the following code:
You create a nonclustered index named IX_CustomerName on the CustomerName column. You execute the following query:
You need to reduce the amount of time it takes to execute the query. What should you do?
A. Partition the table and use the CustomerName column for the partition scheme.
B. Replace IX_CustomerName with a clustered index.
C. Replace LEFT(CustomerName ,1) = ‘a’ with CustomerName LIKE ‘a%’.
D. Replace LEFT(CustomerName ,1) = ‘a’ with SUBSTRING(CustomerName ,1,1) – ‘a’.
070-464 vce Correct Answer: C
Explanation
QUESTION 8
You have a table named Rooms that contains three columns. You execute the following query:
You discover the execution plan shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.)
You need to recommend a solution to reduce the amount of time it takes to execute the query. What should you do? More than one answer choice may achieve the goal. Select the BEST answer.
A. Include the RoomName column and the Position column in the Room_IX index.
B. Create a nonclustered index for RoomName, Id, and Position.
C. Create a clustered index for Id.
D. Use the WITH (INDEX(Room_IX),NOLOCK) query hint.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 9
You have a database named database1. Database developers report that there are many deadlocks. You need to implement a solution to monitor the deadlocks. The solution must meet the following requirements:
Support real-time monitoring.
Be enabled and disabled easily.
Support querying of the monitored data.
What should you implement? More than one answer choice may achieve the goal. Select the BEST answer.
A. Log errors by using trace flag 1222
B. Log errors by using trace flag 1204
C. A SQL Server Profiler template
D. An Extended Events session
070-464 exam Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 10
You execute the following code:
The execution plan for the query is shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.)
You need to prevent the key lookup. What should you modify? More than one answer choice may achieve the goal. Select the BEST answer.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 11
You have a database for a mission-critical web application. The database is stored on a SQL Server 2012 instance and is the only database on the instance. The application generates all T-SQL statements dynamically and does not use stored procedures. You need to maximize the amount of memory available for data caching. Which advanced server option should you modify?
A. Optimize for Ad hoc Workloads
B. Enable Contained Databases
C. Allow Triggers to Fire Others
D. Scan for Startup Procs 70-464 dumps Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 12
You have an application that uses a view to access data from multiple tables. You need to ensure that you can insert rows into the underlying tables by using the view. What should you do?
A. Create an INSTEAD OF trigger on the view.
B. Define the view by using the SCHEMABINDING option.
C. Define the view by using the CHECK option.
D. Materialize the view.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Q: Why should companies train their IT professionals in this technology?
SQL Server is the most popular database platform for Windows-based environments. SQL Server 2014 adds powerful new features for all kinds of workloads and infrastructures, from in-memory technology to cloud integration, and it’s empowering database professionals to build faster, more flexible solutions.
Q: From a student perspective, what did you keep in mind when creating this course?
I tried to give learners a different perspective for learning by providing a mix of concept and demonstration, also by providing our own simplified database and T-SQL examples to work with.
Q: Any outside-of-the-box tips to help students get the most out of your course?
Lab it up! Use our Virtual NuggetLab or your own environment to see how things work. A mix of concept, demonstration, and lab can go a long way toward reinforcing concepts and getting that crucial hands-on experience.
Q: What’s one real-world application someone can expect to use, thanks to this course?
You’ll improve your T-SQL skills and see first hand how to utilize the many programmable objects in SQL Server. You’ll also be ready to rock many of the new development features SQL Server 2014 offers.
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AI-100: Designing and Implementing an Azure AI Solution
Other Microsoft exam dumps you might be interested in!
QUESTION 1 You have an intelligent edge solution that processes data and outputs the data to an Azure Cosmos DB account that uses the SQL API. You need to ensure that you can perform full text searches of the data. Which three actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order. Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 2 You are designing a solution that will ingest temperature data from IoT devices, calculate the average temperature, and then take action based on the aggregated data. The solution must meet the following requirements: Minimize the amount of uploaded data. Take action based on the aggregated data as quickly as possible. What should you include in the solution? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Hot Area:
Correct Answer:
Box 1: Azure Functions Azure Function is a (serverless) service to host functions (little piece of code) that can be used for e. g. event driven applications. General rule is always difficult since everything depends on your requirement but if you have to analyze a data stream, you should take a look at Azure Stream Analytics and if you want to implement something like a serverless event driven or timer-based application, you should check Azure Function or Logic Apps. Note: Azure IoT Edge allows you to deploy complex event processing, machine learning, image recognition, and other high value AI without writing it in-house. Azure services like Azure Functions, Azure Stream Analytics, and Azure Machine Learning can all be run on-premises via Azure IoT Edge. Box 2: An Azure IoT Edge device Azure IoT Edge moves cloud analytics and custom business logic to devices so that your organization can focus on business insights instead of data management. References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/iot-edge/about-iot-edge
QUESTION 3 Your company recently deployed several hardware devices that contain sensors. The sensors generate new data on an hourly basis. The data generated is stored on-premises and retained for several years. During the past two months, the sensors generated 300 GB of data. You plan to move the data to Azure and then perform advanced analytics on the data. You need to recommend an Azure storage solution for the data. Which storage solution should you recommend? A. Azure Queue storage B. Azure Cosmos DB C. Azure Blob storage D. Azure SQL Database Correct Answer: C References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/architecture/data-guide/technology-choices/data-storage
QUESTION 4 Your company has an Azure subscription that contains an Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) tenant. Azure AD contains 500 user accounts for your company\\’s employees. Some temporary employees do NOT have user accounts in Azure AD You are designing a storage solution for video files and metadata files. You plan to deploy an application to perform analysis of the metadata files. You need to recommend an authentication solution to provide links to the video files. The solution must provide access to each file for only five minutes. What should you include in the in the recommendation? A. Secondary Storage Key B. Primary Storage Key C. Shared Access Signature D. Azure Active Directory Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 5 Your company plans to deploy an AI solution that processes IoT data in real-time. You need to recommend a solution for the planned deployment that meets the following requirements: Sustain up to 50 Mbps of events without throttling. Retain data for 60 days. What should you recommend? A. Apache Kafka B. Microsoft Azure IoT Hub C. Microsoft Azure Data Factory D. Microsoft Azure Machine Learning Correct Answer: A Apache Kafka is an open-source distributed streaming platform that can be used to build real-time streaming data pipelines and applications. References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/hdinsight/kafka/apache-kafka-introduction
QUESTION 6 You deploy an infrastructure for a big data workload. You need to run Azure HDInsight and Microsoft Machine Learning Server. You plan to set the RevoScaleR compute contexts to run rx function calls in parallel. What are three compute contexts that you can use for Machine Learning Server? Each correct answer presents a complete solution. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. A. SQL B. Spark C. local parallel D. HBase E. local sequential Correct Answer: ABC Remote computing is available for specific data sources on selected platforms. The following tables document the supported combinations. RxInSqlServer, sqlserver: Remote compute context. Target server is a single database node (SQL Server 2016 R Services or SQL Server 2017 Machine Learning Services). Computation is parallel, but not distributed. RxSpark, spark: Remote compute context. Target is a Spark cluster on Hadoop. RxLocalParallel, localpar: Compute context is often used to enable controlled, distributed computations relying on instructions you provide rather than a builtin scheduler on Hadoop. You can use compute context for manual distributed computing. References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/machine-learning-server/r/concept-what-is-compute-context
QUESTION 7 You are designing an AI solution that will be used to find buildings in aerial pictures. Users will upload the pictures to an Azure Storage account. A separate JSON document will contain for the pictures. The solution must meet the following requirements: Store metadata for the pictures in a data store. Run a custom vision Azure Machine Learning module to identify the buildings in a picture and the position of the buildings Correct Answer:
Box 1: Azure Blob Storage Containers and blobs support custom metadata, represented as HTTP headers. Box 2: NV The NV-series enables powerful remote visualisation workloads and other graphics-intensive applications backed by the NVIDIA Tesla M60 GPU. Note: The N-series is a family of Azure Virtual Machines with GPU capabilities. GPUs are ideal for compute and graphics-intensive workloads, helping customers to fuel innovation through scenarios like high-end remote visualisation, deep learning and predictive analytics. Box 3: F F-series VMs feature a higher CPU-to-memory ratio. Example use cases include batch processing, web servers, analytics and gaming. Incorrect: A-series VMs have CPU performance and memory configurations best suited for entry level workloads like development and test. References: https://azure.microsoft.com/en-in/pricing/details/virtual-machines/series/
QUESTION 8 Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution. After you answer a question, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen. You have Azure IoT Edge devices that generate streaming data. On the devices, you need to detect anomalies in the data by using Azure Machine Learning models. Once an anomaly is detected, the devices must add information about the anomaly to the Azure IoT Hub stream. Solution: You deploy Azure Functions as an IoT Edge module. Does this meet the goal? A. Yes B. No Correct Answer: B Instead use Azure Stream Analytics and REST API. Note. Available in both the cloud and Azure IoT Edge, Azure Stream Analytics offers built-in machine learning based anomaly detection capabilities that can be used to monitor the two most commonly occurring anomalies: temporary and persistent. Stream Analytics supports user-defined functions, via REST API, that call out to Azure Machine Learning endpoints. References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/stream-analytics/stream-analytics-machine-learning- anomaly- detection
QUESTION 9 You are designing a solution that uses drones to monitor remote locations for anomalies. The drones have Azure IoT Edge devices. The solution must meet the following requirements: Email a user the picture and location of an anomaly when an anomaly is detected. Use a video stream to detect anomalies at the location. Send the pictures and location information to Azure. Use the latest amount of code possible. You develop a custom vision Azure Machine Learning module to detect the anomalies. Which service should you use for each requirement? To answer, drag the appropriate services to the correct requirements. Each service may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Select and Place:
You configure the Remote Monitoring solution to respond to anomalies detected by an IoT Edge device. IoT Edge devices let you process telemetry at the edge to reduce the volume of telemetry sent to the solution and to enable faster responses to events on devices. Box 2: Azure Functions Box 3: Azure Logic Apps References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/iot-accelerators/iot-accelerators-remote-monitoring-edge
QUESTION 10 You design an AI solution that uses an Azure Stream Analytics job to process data from an Azure IoT hub. The IoT hub receives time series data from thousands of IoT devices at a factory. The job outputs millions of messages per second. Different applications consume the messages as they are available. The messages must be purged. You need to choose an output type for the job. What is the best output type to achieve the goal? More than one answer choice may achieve the goal. A. Azure Event Hubs B. Azure SQL Database C. Azure Blob storage D. Azure Cosmos DB Correct Answer: D Stream Analytics can target Azure Cosmos DB for JSON output, enabling data archiving and low- latency queries on unstructured JSON data. References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/stream-analytics/stream-analytics-documentdb-output
QUESTION 11 Your company develops an AI application that is orchestrated by using Kubernetes. You need to deploy the application. Which three actions should you perform? Each correct answer presents part of the solution. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. A. Create a Kubernetes cluster. B. Create an Azure Container Registry instance. C. Create a container image file. D. Create a Web App for Containers. E. Create an Azure container instance. Correct Answer: CDE
QUESTION 12 You have a solution that runs on a five-node Azure Kubernetes Service (AKS) cluster. The cluster uses an Nseries virtual machine. An Azure Batch AI process runs once a day and rarely on demand. You need to recommend a solution to maintain the cluster configuration when the cluster is not in use. The solution must not incur any compute costs. What should you include in the recommendation? A. Downscale the cluster to one node B. Downscale the cluster to zero nodes C. Delete the cluster Correct Answer: A An AKS cluster has one or more nodes. References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/aks/concepts-clusters-workloads
QUESTION 13 You have a database that contains sales data. You plan to process the sales data by using two data streams named Stream1 and Stream2. Stream1 will be used for purchase order data. Stream2 will be used for reference data. The reference data is stored in CSV files. You need to recommend an ingestion solution for each data stream. What two solutions should you recommend? Each correct answer is a complete solution. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. A. an Azure event hub for Stream1 and Azure Blob storage for Stream2 B. Azure Blob storage for Stream1 and Stream2 C. an Azure event hub for Stream1 and Stream2 D. Azure Blob storage for Stream1 and Azure Cosmos DB for Stream2 E. Azure Cosmos DB for Stream1 and an Azure event hub for Stream2 Correct Answer: AB Stream1 – Azure Event Stream2 – Blob Storage Azure Event Hubs is a highly scalable data streaming platform and event ingestion service, capable of receiving and processing millions of events per second. Event Hubs can process and store events, data, or telemetry produced by distributed software and devices. Data sent to an event hub can be transformed and stored using any real-time analytics provider or batching/storage adapters. Event Hubs provides publishsubscribe capabilities with low latency at massive scale, which makes it appropriate for big data scenarios. Stream1, Stream2 – Blob Storage Stream Analytics has first-class integration with Azure data streams as inputs from three kinds of resources: Azure Event Hubs Azure IoT Hub Azure Blob storage These input resources can live in the same Azure subscription as your Stream Analytics job or a different subscription. References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/architecture/data-guide/technology-choices/real-time- ingestion
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