Category: Microsoft

[New Updated May] Latest Updated Microsoft 070-464 Dumps PDF Microsoft Data Platform Exam Youtube Preparation Material Free Download Online Q1-Q12

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Are you an IT professional, database administrator, support specialist, or database developer? These concepts are key for these kind of professions.

Pass4itsure Latest and Most Accurate Microsoft 070-464 Dumps Exam Q&As(1-12)

QUESTION 1
You use SQL Azure to store data used by an e-commerce application. You develop a stored procedure named sp1. Sp1 is used to read and change the price of all the products sold on the e-commerce site. You need to ensure that other transactions are blocked from updating product data while sp1 is executing. Which transaction isolation level should you use in sp1?
A. Repeatable read
B. Read committed
C. Serializable
D. Snapshot
070-464 exam Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 2
You review a query that runs slowly. The query accesses data in a table named Schema1.Table1.
The following is the relevant portion of the execution plan for the query:
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You need to create the missing index. Which code segment should you execute?
A. CREATE NONCLUSTERED INDEX IX1 on Schema1.Table1 (Column1) INCLUDE (Column4) WHERE Column2 <> Column3
B. CREATE NONCLUSTERED INDEX IX1 on Schema1.Table1 (Column1)
C. CREATE NONCLUSTERED INDEX IX1 on Schema1.Table1 (Column1, Column2, Column3) INCLUDE (Column4)
D. CREATE NONCLUSTERED INDEX IX1 on schema1.Table1 (Column1) INCLUDE (Column4)
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 3
You use SQL Server 2012 to maintain the data used by the applications at your company. You plan to create a table named Table1 by using the following statement. (Line numbers are included for reference only.)
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You need to ensure that Table1 contains a column named UserName. The UserName column will: Store string values in any language. Accept a maximum of 200 characters. Be case-insensitive and accent-insensitive. Which code segment should you add at line 03?
A. UserName nvarchar(200) COLLATE Latin1_General_CS_AS NOT NULL,
B. UserName varchar(200) COLLATE Latin1_General_CI_AI NOT NULL,
C. UserName varchar(200) COLLATE Latin 1_General_CS_AS NOT NULL,
D. UserName nvarchar(200) COLLATE Latin1_General_CI_AI NOT NULL,
070-464 dumps Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 4
You execute the following code:
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You need to select the task that has an IsFinished value of true from the Project that has an Id value of 1. Which code segment should you use?
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Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 5
You are creating a table to support an application that will cache data outside of SQL Server. The application will detect whether cached values were changed before it updates the values. You need to create the table, and then verify that you can insert a row into the table. Which code segment should you use?
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A.
B.
C.
D.
070-464 pdf Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 6
Your company has a SQL Azure subscription. You implement a database named Database1. Database1 has two tables named Table1 and Table2. You create a stored procedure named sp1. Sp1 reads data from Table1 and inserts data into Table2. A user named User1 informs you that he is unable to run sp1. You verify that User1 has the SELECT permission on Table1 and Table2. You need to ensure that User1 can run sp1. The solution must minimize the number of permissions assigned to User1.
What should you do?
A. Change sp1 to run as the saUser.
B. Grant User1 the EXECUTE permission on sp1.
C. Add User1 to the db_datawriter role.
D. Grant User1 the INSERT permission on Table2.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 7
You execute the following code:
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You create a nonclustered index named IX_CustomerName on the CustomerName column. You execute the following query:

You need to reduce the amount of time it takes to execute the query. What should you do?
A. Partition the table and use the CustomerName column for the partition scheme.
B. Replace IX_CustomerName with a clustered index.
C. Replace LEFT(CustomerName ,1) = ‘a’ with CustomerName LIKE ‘a%’.
D. Replace LEFT(CustomerName ,1) = ‘a’ with SUBSTRING(CustomerName ,1,1) – ‘a’.
070-464 vce Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 8
You have a table named Rooms that contains three columns. You execute the following query:
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You discover the execution plan shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.)
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You need to recommend a solution to reduce the amount of time it takes to execute the query. What should you do? More than one answer choice may achieve the goal. Select the BEST answer.
A. Include the RoomName column and the Position column in the Room_IX index.
B. Create a nonclustered index for RoomName, Id, and Position.
C. Create a clustered index for Id.
D. Use the WITH (INDEX(Room_IX),NOLOCK) query hint.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 9
You have a database named database1. Database developers report that there are many deadlocks. You need to implement a solution to monitor the deadlocks. The solution must meet the following requirements:
Support real-time monitoring.
Be enabled and disabled easily.
Support querying of the monitored data.
What should you implement? More than one answer choice may achieve the goal. Select the BEST answer.
A. Log errors by using trace flag 1222
B. Log errors by using trace flag 1204
C. A SQL Server Profiler template
D. An Extended Events session
070-464 exam Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 10
You execute the following code:
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The execution plan for the query is shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.)
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You need to prevent the key lookup. What should you modify? More than one answer choice may achieve the goal. Select the BEST answer.
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Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 11
You have a database for a mission-critical web application. The database is stored on a SQL Server 2012 instance and is the only database on the instance. The application generates all T-SQL statements dynamically and does not use stored procedures. You need to maximize the amount of memory available for data caching. Which advanced server option should you modify?
A. Optimize for Ad hoc Workloads
B. Enable Contained Databases
C. Allow Triggers to Fire Others
D. Scan for Startup Procs
070-464 dumps Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 12
You have an application that uses a view to access data from multiple tables. You need to ensure that you can insert rows into the underlying tables by using the view. What should you do?
A. Create an INSTEAD OF trigger on the view.
B. Define the view by using the SCHEMABINDING option.
C. Define the view by using the CHECK option.
D. Materialize the view.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

Q: Why should companies train their IT professionals in this technology?
SQL Server is the most popular database platform for Windows-based environments. SQL Server 2014 adds powerful new features for all kinds of workloads and infrastructures, from in-memory technology to cloud integration, and it’s empowering database professionals to build faster, more flexible solutions.

Q: From a student-perspective, what did you keep in mind when creating this course?
I tried to give learners a different perspective for learning by providing a mix of concept and demonstration, also by providing our own simplified database and T-SQL examples to work with.

Q: Any outside-of-the-box tips to help students get the most out of your course?
Lab it up! Use our Virtual NuggetLab or your own environment to see how things work. A mix of concept, demonstration, and lab can go a long way toward reinforcing concepts and getting that crucial hands-on experience.

Q: What’s one real-world application someone can expect to use, thanks to this course?
You’ll improve your T-SQL skills and see first hand how to utilize the many programmable objects in SQL Server. You’ll also be ready to rock many of the new development features SQL Server 2014 offers.

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The 70-346 dumps Office 365 “Managing Office 365 Identities and Requirements” is a 211 questions and is associated with the Microsoft MCP, MCSA certification. Candidates can prepare for this exam by taking the course, “Managing Office 365 Identities and Requirements – Microsoft Office 365”. This exam tests a candidate’s understanding of cisco’s basic principles, foundational knowledge, and core skills needed to grasp the more advanced associate-level materials in the second required exam. The exam is closed book and no outside reference materials are allowed. Passing Microsoft Office 365 70-346 dumps help you driving your career growth as it is associated with the achievement of Managing Office 365 Identities and Requirements.

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This exam provides the knowledge and understanding for some of these important job functions:
1. Provision Office 365

  • Provision tenants
  • Add and configure custom domains
  • Plan a pilot

2. Plan and implement networking and security in Office 365

  • Configure DNS records for services
  • Enable client connectivity to Office 365
  • Administer rights management (RM)
  • Manage administrator roles in Office 365

3. Manage cloud identities

  • Configure password management
  • Manage user and security groups
  • Manage cloud identities with Windows PowerShell

4. Implement and manage identities by using DirSync

  • Prepare on-premises Active Directory for DirSync
  • Set up DirSync [WAAD sync tool]
  • Manage Active Directory users and groups with DirSync in place

5. Implement and manage federated identities (single sign-on [SSO])

  • Plan requirements for Active Directory Federation Services (AD FS)
  • Install and manage AD FS servers
  • Install and manage AD FS proxy servers

6. Monitor and troubleshoot Office 365 availability and usage

  • Analyze reports
  • Monitor service health
  • Isolate service interruption

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Pass4itsure Latest and Most Accurate Microsoft 70-346 Dumps Exam Q&As(1-14)

QUESTION 1
Contoso, Ltd. plans to use Office 365 for email services and Skype for Business Online. Contoso has four unique domain names. You need to migrate domain names to Office 365. Which two domain names should you exclude from the migration? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. contoso.us
B. contoso
C. contoso.local
D. contoso.co
70-346 exam Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 2
You administer the Office 365 environment for a company that has offices around the world. All of the offices use the same Office 365 tenant. You need to ensure that all users can access the services that are available in their regions. Which setting or service should you update?
A. User location settings
B. User licenses
C. Service usage address
D. Rights management
70-346 dumps Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
Your company has an Office 365 subscription. You create a new retention policy that contains several retention tags. A user named Test5 has a client computer that runs Microsoft Office Outlook 2007. You install Microsoft Outlook 2010 on the client computer of Test5. Test5 reports that the new retention tags are unavailable from Outlook 2010. You verify that other users can use the new retention tags. You need to ensure that the new retention tags are available to Test5 from Outlook 2010. What should you do?
A. Instruct Test5 to repair the Outlook profile.
B. Modify the retention policy tags.
C. Run the Set-Mailbox cmdlet.
D. Force directory synchronization.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
You deploy Skype for Business Online for a company that has offices in San Francisco and New York. The two offices both connect to the Internet. There is no private network link between the offices. Users in the New York office report that they cannot transfer files to the users in the San Francisco office by using Skype for Business Online. You need to ensure that users in both offices can transfer files by using Skype for Business Online. What should you do?
A. Configure the firewall to open Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) ports 50060-50079.
B. Configure the firewall to open Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) ports 50040-50059.
C. Create a private network connection to share files.
D. Upgrade all of the Skype for Business Online clients to use Skype for Business client application.
70-346 pdf Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
An organization plans to migrate to Office 365. You need to estimate the post-migration network traffic. Which tool should you use?
A. Microsoft Online Services Diagnostics and Logging (MOSDAL) Support Kit
B. Microsoft Network Monitor
C. Skype for Business Bandwidth Calculator
D. Microsoft Remote Connectivity Analyzer
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6
Your company has a subscription to Office 365 for midsize business and enterprises. The company uses Microsoft Skype for Business Online. You need to open ports on the network firewall to enable all of the features of Skype for Business Online. Which port or ports should you open? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
Choose all that apply.)
A. inbound TCP443
B. outbound TCP 5061
C. outbound UDP 3478
D. outbound TCP 443
E. outbound UDP 50000 to outbound UDP 59999
F. inbound TCP 8080
70-346 vce Correct Answer: ACDE

QUESTION 7
You have an Office 365 environment. Synchronization between the on-premises Active Directory and Office 365 is enabled.
You need to deactivate directory synchronization. Which Windows PowerShell cmdlet should you run?
A. Update-MsolFederatedDomain
B. Remove-MsolDomain
C. Remove-MsolFederatedDomain
D. Set-MsolDirSyncEnabled
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8
You plan to deploy an Office 365 tenant to multiple offices around the country. You need to modify the users and groups who are authorized to administer the Rights Management service. Which Windows PowerShell cmdlet should you run?
A. Add-MsolGroupMember
B. Get-Add rm Role Based Administrator
C. Remove-AadrmRoleBasedAdministrator
D. Enable AadrmSuperUserFeature
70-346 exam Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 9
A company migrates to Office 365. 2,000 active users have valid Office 365 licenses assigned. An additional 5,000 user accounts were created during the migration and testing processes. These users do not have any licenses assigned. You need to remove the Office 365 user accounts that do not have any licenses assigned by using the least amount of administrative effort. Which Windows PowerShell command should you run?
A. Get-MsolUser -All-EnabledFilter “DisabledOnly” | Remove-MsolUser -Force
B. Get-MsolUser-EnabledFilter “DisabledOnly” | Remove-MsolUser -Force
C. Get-MsolUser -All -UnlicensedUsersOnly | Remove-MsolUser -Force
D. Get-MsolUser -UnlicensedUsersOnly | Remove-MsolUser璅orce
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10
Your company subscribes to an Office 365 Plan E3. A user named User1 installs Office Professional Plus for Office 365 on a client computer. From the Microsoft Online Services portal, you assign User1 an Office Professional Plus license. One month after installing Office, User1 can no longer save and edit Office documents on the client computer. User1 can open and view Office documents. You need to ensure that User1 can save and edit documents on the client computer by using office. What should you do?
A. Install the Office Customization Tool.
B. Reinstall Office Professional Plus.
C. Install the Microsoft Online Services Sign-in Assistant.
D. Upgrade the subscription to Plan E4.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 11
An organization plans to migrate to Office 365. You use the Windows Azure Active Directory (AD) Sync tool. Several users will not migrate to Office 365. You must exclude these users from synchronization. All users must continue to authenticate against the on-premises Active Directory. You need to synchronize the remaining users. Which three actions should you perform? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. Populate an attribute for each user account.
B. Disable the user accounts in Active Directory.
C. Perform a full synchronization.
D. Configure the connection filter.
E. Run the Windows PowerShell command Set-MsolDirSyncEnabled -EnableDirSync $false.
70-346 dumps Correct Answer: ACD

QUESTION 12
Your company has a hybrid deployment of Office 365. All mailboxes are hosted on Office 365. All users access their Office 365 mailbox by using a user account that is hosted on- premises. You need to delete a user account and its associated mailbox. Which tool should you use?
A. The Remove-MSOLUser cmdlet
B. The Remove-Mailbox cmdlet
C. The Office 365 portal
D. Active Directory Users and Computers
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 13
An organization implements single sign-on (SSO) for use with Office 365 services. You install an Active Directory Federation Services (AD FS) proxy server. Users report that they are unable to authenticate. You launch the Event Viewer and view the event information shown in the following screen shot:
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You need to ensure that users can authenticate to Office 365. What should you do?
A. Re-enter the credentials used to establish the trust.
B. Verify the federation server proxy is trusted by the federation service.
C. Re-install the Secure Sockets Layer (SSL) certificate for the federation service.
D. Verify network connectivity between the Federation Service Proxy and federation server.
70-346 pdf Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 14
A company named Fabrikam, Inc. is deploying an Office 365 tenant. You install Active Directory Federation Services (AD FS) on a server that runs Windows Server 2012. The company’s environment is described in the following table:
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You must obtain a certificate from a certification authority and install it on the federation servers. You need to specify the subject name for the certificate. Which name should you specify?
A. fs.fabnkam.com
B. server1.fabrikam.com
C. fabrikam.com
D. server2.fabrikam.com
Correct Answer: A

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Q: Why should companies train their IT professionals in Microsoft Office 365? What value does it bring?

Office 365 offers so much more than just Office products in the cloud. It’s a full identity management solution with Exchange Server, Sharepoint, and Skype for Business integration. Office 365 represents a way to move your business off of bare metal servers in a closet in order to support a geographically dispersed and mobile workforce.

Q: From a learner perspective, what did you keep in mind when creating this course?

That Microsoft focuses its certifications on PowerShell and feature exploration but users want to know how to get the basics done. In this course, I focus on explaining how to get common tasks done in Office 365 while keeping in line with the certification objectives.

Q: Any out-of-the-box tips for learners on how to get the most out of your Microsoft Office 365: Identities and Requirements 70-346 course?

Don’t be afraid to try everything we cover in the course, up to and including the integration with on-premise Active Directory. There are myriad ways to test out the features and functions outside of your organization’s production environment and with minimal resources required.

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Pass4itusre Latest and Most Accurate Microsoft 70-331 Dumps Exam Q&As:
QUESTION 24
You have a SharePoint Server 2013 server farm that contains a web application named WebApp1. WebApp1 contains 10 site collections. All of the users who use the farm belong to the same Active Directory domain. You plan to assign the Deny All permission policy for WebApp1 to the Domain Users group. For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise select No.
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QUESTION 25
You have a SharePoint Server 2013 server farm. The farm has four front-end Web servers. You have a master page named Contoso.master. The master page contains an image file that is 50 KB. You need to recommend a solution to cache content.
The solution must meet the following requirements: The image must be stored physically on each front-end Web server.
Authentication information must be cached and replicated on all of the font-end Web servers. The pages generated by using Contoso.master and all of the page layouts must be stored in the memory of each front-end Web server. Which caching mechanism should you recommend for each requirement? (To answer, drag the appropriate caching mechanisms to the correct requirements. Each caching mechanism may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.) Select and Place:
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70-331 exam Correct Answer:
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QUESTION 26
A company has two SharePoint 2007 site collections that each store 200,000 unique documents. The average size of each document is 250 KB. There are two non-current versions for each document. There are approximately 600,000 list items in addition to the documents. The company plans to upgrade the farm to SharePoint 2013. The new farm will use two SQL Server instances that are configured as an AlwaysOn availability group. You use the following formula to estimate the size of the content database: Database Size = ((D x V) x S) + (10 KB x (L + (V x D))) You need to configure the storage for the content databases. What is the minimum amount of storage space that you must allocate?
A. 101GB
B. 110 GB
C. 220 GB
D. 405 GB
E. 440 GB
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 27.
The stored members in the Dense dimension Scenario are Actual and Budget. Database A has Actual and Budget data loaded for all products in all markets. Database B has only the Budget data loaded for all products in all markets. Which statement about database B is true?
A. The index is half as large as database A.
B. It has half the number of blocks that exist in database A. C.
Block density is reduced by fifty percent from database A.
D. Fifty percent fewer blocks fit in the Data Cache as in database A.
70-331 dumps Answer: C
QUESTION 28.
In an aggregate storage database, which two statements are true about database aggregations? (Choose two.)
A. Creating aggregate views is optional.
B. You can specify which upper level views to materialize. C.
Aggregation scripts can be saved and run at a later time.
D. Incrementally loading data requires a new database aggregation to be run.
Answer: AC
QUESTION 29.
Which statement is true about conversion of a block storage database to an aggregate storage database?
A. A conversion log is created in the Arborpath directory.
B. The conversion wizard converts, outlines, load rules and security filters.
C. An outline can be converted from both the file system and an active database.
D. Block storage member formula syntax is commented out and converted to MDX.
70-331 pdf Answer: C
QUESTION 30.
When should you select Shared Member functionality, as opposed to Attribute dimension functionality?(Choose two.)
A. when providing crosstab reports
B. when applying a member formula
C. when providing an alternate hierarchy for reporting
D. when creating alternate hierarchies in a Dense dimension
Answer: CD
QUESTION31.
When should you select User-Defined Attribute (UDA) functionality, as opposed to Attribute dimension functionality? (Choose two.)
A. when providing crosstab reports
B. when providing filtering on Dense dimensions
C. when utilizing Attribute Calculations dimensions
D. when applying attributes to multiple dimensions
70-331 vce Answer: BD
QUESTION 32.
What does the Data Cache contain?
A. compressed data blocks
B. uncompressed data blocks
C. the addresses of data blocks on the disk
D. a record of recently accessed data blocks
Answer: B
QUESTION 33.
The Essbase.cfg setting DATAFILECACHESIZE can be used to .
A. alter Data File Cache size for existing databases
B. optimize calculation performance on large, flat dimensions
C. define the initial Data File Cache size for all newly created databases
D. manage Data File Cache sizes for specific applications and databases
70-331 exam Answer: C
QUESTION 34.
Which three statements about Substitution Variables are true? (Choose three.)
A. They are stored in the database page file.
B. They can be set as global server settings.
C. They are available for queries in a spreadsheet.
D. They can be set specifically for each application or database.
Answer: BCD
QUESTION 35.
When selecting the most optimal dimension in an aggregate storage database to tag as Accounts, you
should choose a .
A. sparsely populated dimension with formulas
B. densely populated dimension with deep hierarchies
C. sparsely populated dimension with deep hierarchies D. flat dimension (a dimension that does not have many levels)
70-331 dumps Answer: D
QUESTION 36.
When working with an aggregate storage database, what is the default dimension calculation order?
A. Accounts, Time, Dense, Sparse, Two-Pass
B. Stored hierarchies (variable order), Dynamic hierarchies
C. Dynamic hierarchies, Stored hierarchies (variable order)
D. Sparse, Accounts (if dense), Time(if dense), other Dense
Answer: B

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Exam Name: Developing Microsoft Azure Solutions
Q&As: 188

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QUESTION 5
You need to choose an Azure storage service solution.
Which solution should you choose?
A. Queue storage
B. Blob storage
C. File storage
D. Table storage
70-532 exam Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 6
You need to deploy the FileProcessor.exe program.
How should you update the project configuration file for the program? To answer, select the appropriate
option or options in the answer area.
Hot Area:
70-532 dumps

Correct Answer:
70-532 dumps

QUESTION 7
You need to configure role instances.
Which size should you specify for the VM?
A. Use Small for Off-Peak mode.
B. Use Large for On-Peak mode.
C. Use Extra Large for On-Peak mode.
D. Use Extra Small for Off-Peak mode.
70-532 dumps Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 8
You need to insert markup at line SD22 to install the software that generates PDF documents.
How should you complete the relevant markup? To answer, drag the appropriate code segments to the
correct locations. Each code segment may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to
drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.
Select and Place:
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70-532 dumps

QUESTION: 9
Scenario: AGEX Inc.
Please read this scenario prior to answering the question AGEX is a large, global commodities trading company which has been growing rapidly through a series of acquisitions. Each new business is performing well in its markets. However, the lack of
integration between headquarters and the business units has increasingly caused problems in the handling of customer and financial information. The inability to share information across businesses has resulted in lost opportunities to “leverage the synergies” that had been intended when the businesses were acquired. At present, each business unit maintains its own applications. Despite an earlier initiative to install a common application to manage customer, products, supplier, and inventory information, each business unit has different ways of defining each of these core elements and has customized the common application to the point where the ability to exchange information is difficult, costly, and error-prone. As a result, AGEX has begun implementing a single Enterprise Resource Planning (ERP) system to consolidate information from several applications that exist across the lines of business.The Corporate Board is concerned that the new ERP system must be able to manage and safeguard customer information in a manner that meets or exceeds the legal requirements of the countries in which the company operates. This will be an increasingly important capability as the company expands its online services offered to clients and trading partners. The CIO has formed an Enterprise Architecture department, and one of the primary goals in its charter is to coordinate efforts between the ERP implementation team and the business unit personnel who will be involved in the migration process. The CIO has also formed a cross- functional Architecture Review Board to oversee and govern the
architecture. After reviewing the available alternatives, and based on recommendations from the ERP vendor, AGEX has selected TOGAF 9 as the basis for its Enterprise 70-532 pdf Architecture program. The CIO has endorsed this choice with the full support of top management. Refer to the AGEX Inc. Scenario You are serving as the Chief Architect.
As part of the process for establishing the Enterprise Architecture department, you have decided to create a set of principles to guide the activities. You have been asked to recommend the best approach for this work. Based on TOGAF 9, which of the following is the best answer?
A. You define a set of principles that support the preferred best practices embodied in the Enterprise Architecture department charter. You publish the principles on the corporate intranet to ensure widespread acceptance and compliance. You then schedule regular periodic Compliance Assessments with individual business units to check that they have made satisfactory progress toward meeting the objectives and conditions embodied in the principles.
B. You gather information from credible industry sources in the commodities business. Based on that, you assess current trends and apply that to defining a set of principles that embody best practices. You select architecture principles that do not conflict with each other and that should be stable. You ensure that all the principles are realistic and avoid including principles that are obvious.
C. You examine the mission statements for AGEX and each of its businesses, together with the corporate value statements. Based on that, you define a set of principles and review with the CIO. When developing the principles you ensure that they actively promote the alignment of IT with the business strategies and initiatives of AGEX. You then seek the endorsement of the CIO and senior management.
D. You examine the mission statements for AGEX and each of its businesses, together with the corporate value statements. Based on that, you work with the Architecture Review Board to define the principles. When developing the principles you ensure that they actively promote the alignment of IT with the AGEX business strategies. You then run a series of reviews with all the relevant stakeholders, including senior management,ensuring their support.
Answer: D

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Exam Code: 70-414
Exam Name: Implementing an Advanced Server Infrastructure
Q&As: 243

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QUESTION NO: 38
You need to recommend a solution that manages the security events. The solution must meet the technical requirements.
Which configuration should you include in the recommendation?
A. Object access auditing by using a Group Policy object (GPO)
B. Event rules by using System Center 2012 Operations Manager
C. Event forwarding by using Event Viewer
D. Audit Collection Services (ACS) by using System Center 2012
70-414 exam Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 39.You are planning the delegation for the virtualization environment. The delegation must meet the
visualization requirements.
Which user role profile should you select for Group2?
A. Administrators
B. Read-Only Administrator
C. Self-Service User
D. Delegated Administrator
Answer: A
Explanation:
70-414 dumps

QUESTION NO: 40
You need to recommend a solution that resolves the current file server issue. The solution must meet the business requirements.
What should you include in the recommendation?
A. BranchCache in hosted cache mode
B. BranchCache in distributed cache mode
C. A storage pool
D. Distributed File System (DFS)
70-414 dumps Answer: D
Explanation:
Course 20414a-ENG-Trainer handbook.
Scenarios for Using DFS
By using from DFS-N and DFS Replication, your organization can benefit from several implementation
scenarios including:
– Sharing files across branch offices
– Data collection
– Data distribution
Sharing Files Across Branch Offices
Organizations with multiple physical offices tend to share files or collaborate between offices.
You can use DFS Replication to replicate files between these offices, or from branch offices to a hub site.
This form of replication helps reduce wide area network (WAN) traffic, and provides high availability
should a WAN link or a server fail.
DFS Replication ensures that when changes are made to a file, the changes are replicated to all other
sites by using delta replication.
QUESTION NO: 41.
You need to recommend a solution for managing updates.The solution must meet the technical requirements.
What should you include in the recommendation?
A. A System Center 2012 Configuration Manager management point in the main office and a WSUS
downstream server in each office
B. A System Center 2012 Configuration Manager software update point in the main office and a System
Center 2012 Configuration Manager distribution point in each office
C. A System Center 2012 Configuration Manager management point in the main office and a System
Center 2012 Configuration Manager distribution point in each office
D. A WSUS upstream server in the main office and a WSUS downstream server in each office
Answer: B
Explanation:
70-414 dumps

QUESTION NO: 42.You are planning the deployment of System Center 2012 Virtual Machine Manager (VMM). You need to
identify which additional System Center 2012 product is required to meet the virtualization requirements.
What should you include in the recommendation?
A. App Controller
B. Operations Manager
C. Configuration Manager
D. Service Manager
70-414 pdf Answer: B
Explanation:
70-414 dumps

QUESTION NO: 43
You work as a system engineer for BlueWell Inc. Which of the following documents will help you to
describe the detailed plans, procedures, and schedules to guide the transition process
A. Configuration management plan
B. Transition plan
C. Systems engineering management plan (SEMP)
D. Acquisition plan
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 44
Which of the following policies describes the national policy on the secure electronic messaging
service
A. NSTISSP No. 11
B. NSTISSP No. 7
C. NSTISSP No. 6
D. NSTISSP No. 101
70-414 vce Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 45
Which of the following is a subset discipline of Corporate Governance focused on information
security systems and their performance and risk management
A. Computer Misuse Act
B. Clinger-Cohen Act
C. ISG
D. Lanham Act
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 46
Which of the following principles are defined by the IATF model Each correct answer represents a
complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. The degree to which the security of the system, as it is defined, designed, and implemented,
meets the security needs.
 B. The problem space is defined by the customer’s mission or business needs.
C. The systems engineer and information systems security engineer define the solution space,
which is driven by the problem space.
D. Always keep the problem and solution spaces separate.
70-414 exam Answer: B,C,D
QUESTION NO: 47
Which of the following cooperative programs carried out by NIST conducts research to advance
the nation’s technology infrastructure
A. Manufacturing Extension Partnership
B. NIST Laboratories
C. Baldrige National Quality Program
D. Advanced Technology Program
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 48
Which of the following persons in an organization is responsible for rejecting or accepting the
residual risk for a system
A. System Owner
B. Information Systems Security Officer (ISSO)
C. Designated Approving Authority (DAA)
D. Chief Information Security Officer (CISO)
70-414 dumps Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 49
Which of the following assessment methodologies defines a six-step technical security evaluation
A. FITSAF
B. OCTAVE
C. FIPS 102
 D. DITSCAP
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 50
What are the subordinate tasks of the Implement and Validate Assigned IA Control phase in the
DIACAP process Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Conduct activities related to the disposition of the system data and objects.
B. Combine validation results in DIACAP scorecard.
C. Conduct validation activities.
D. Execute and update IA implementation plan.
70-414 pdf Answer: B,C,D
QUESTION NO: 51
Which of the following memorandums reminds the Federal agencies that it is required by law and
policy to establish clear privacy policies for Web activities and to comply with those policies
A. OMB M-01-08
B. OMB M-03-19
C. OMB M-00-07
D. OMB M-00-13
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 52
Lisa is the project manager of the SQL project for her company. She has completed the risk
response planning with her project team and is now ready to update the risk register to reflect the
risk response. Which of the following statements best describes the level of detail Lisa should
include with the risk responses she has created
A. The level of detail must define exactly the risk response for each identified risk.
B. The level of detail is set of project risk governance.
C. The level of detail is set by historical information.
 D. The level of detail should correspond with the priority ranking.
70-414 vce Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 53
You work as a security manager for BlueWell Inc. You are going through the NIST SP 800-37 C&A
methodology, which is based on four well defined phases. In which of the following phases of
NIST SP 800-37 C&A methodology does the security categorization occur
A. Continuous Monitoring
B. Initiation
C. Security Certification
D. Security Accreditation
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 54
You work as a systems engineer for BlueWell Inc. You are working on translating system
requirements into detailed function criteria. Which of the following diagrams will help you to show
all of the function requirements and their groupings in one diagram
A. Activity diagram
B. Functional flow block diagram (FFBD)
C. Functional hierarchy diagram
D. Timeline analysis diagram
70-414 exam Answer: C

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Exam Name: Querying Microsoft SQL Server 2012
Q&As: 164

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Question No : 10 You create a stored procedure that will update multiple tables within a transaction.
You need to ensure that if the stored procedure raises a run-time error, the entire
transaction is terminated and rolled back.
Which Transact-SQL statement should you include at the beginning of the stored
procedure?
A. SET XACT_ABORT ON
B. SET ARITHABORT ON
C. TRY
D. BEGIN
E. SET ARITHABORT OFF
F. SET XACT_ABORT OFF
070-461 exam Answer: A
 Question No : 11 Your database contains two tables named DomesticSalesOrders and
InternationalSalesOrders. Both tables contain more than 100 million rows. Each table has a
Primary Key column named SalesOrderId. The data in the two tables is distinct from one
another.
Business users want a report that includes aggregate information about the total number of
global sales and total sales amounts.
You need to ensure that your query executes in the minimum possible time.
Which query should you use?
A. SELECT COUNT(*) AS NumberOfSales, SUM(SalesAmount) AS TotalSalesAmount
FROM (
SELECT SalesOrderId, SalesAmount
FROM DomesticSalesOrders
UNION ALL
SELECT SalesOrderId, SalesAmount
FROM InternationalSalesOrders
) AS p
B. SELECT COUNT(*) AS NumberOfSales, SUM(SalesAmount) AS TotalSalesAmount
FROM (
SELECT SalesOrderId, SalesAmount
FROM DomesticSalesOrders
UNION
SELECT SalesOrderId, SalesAmount
FROM InternationalSalesOrders
) AS p
C. SELECT COUNT(*) AS NumberOfSales, SUM(SalesAmount) AS TotalSalesAmount
FROM DomesticSalesOrders
UNION
SELECT COUNT(*) AS NumberOfSales, SUM(SalesAmount) AS TotalSalesAmount
FROM InternationalSalesOrders
D. SELECT COUNT(*) AS NumberOfSales, SUM(SalesAmount) AS TotalSalesAmount
FROM DomesticSalesOrders
UNION ALL
SELECT COUNT(*) AS NumberOfSales, SUM(SalesAmount) AS TotalSalesAmount
FROM InternationalSalesOrders
 Answer: A
Question No : 12 You are a database developer at an independent software vendor. You create stored
procedures that contain proprietary code.
You need to protect the code from being viewed by your customers.
Which stored procedure option should you use?
A. ENCRYPTBYKEY
B. ENCRYPTION
C. ENCRYPTBYPASSPHRASE
D. ENCRYPTBYCERT
070-461 dumps Answer: B
 Question No : 13 You use a Microsoft SQL Server 2012 database.
You want to create a table to store Microsoft Word documents.
You need to ensure that the documents must only be accessible via Transact-SQL queries.
Which Transact-SQL statement should you use?
A. CREATE TABLE DocumentStore
(
[Id] INT NOT NULL PRIMARY KEY,
[Document] VARBINARY(MAX) NULL
)
GO
B. CREATE TABLE DocumentStore
(
[Id] hierarchyid,
[Document] NVARCHAR NOT NULL
)
GO
C. CREATE TABLE DocumentStore AS FileTable
D. CREATE TABLE DocumentStore
(
[Id] [uniqueidentifier] ROWGUIDCOL NOT NULL UNIQUE,
[Document] VARBINARY(MAX) FILESTREAM NULL
)
GO
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 14
The BEST description of the purpose of Service Operation is?
A. To design and build processes that will meet business needs
B. To deliver and support IT Services at agreed levels to business users and customers
C. To decide how IT will engage with suppliers during the Service Management Lifecycle
D. To proactively prevent all outages to IT Services
070-461 pdf Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 15
Which of the following is NOT an aim of the Change Management process?
A. Overall business risk is optimized
B. Standardized methods and procedures are used for efficient and prompt handling of all
Changes
C. All budgets and expenditures are accounted for
D. All changes to Service Assets and Configuration Items (CIs) are recorded in the Configuration
Management system
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 16
How does Problem Management work with Change Management?
A. By installing changes to fix problems
B. By negotiating with Incident Management for changes in IT for Problem resolution
C. By issuing RFCs for permanent solutions
D. By working with users to change their IT configurations
070-461 vce Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 17
Which of the following statements is CORRECT?
A. The CMS is part of the Configuration Management Data Base (CMDB)
B. The Configuration Management System (CMS) is part of the Known Error Data Base (KEDB)
C. The Service Knowledge Management System (SKMS) is part of the CMS
D. The KEDB and the CMS form part of the larger SKMS
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 18
Understanding customer usage of services and how this varies over the Business Lifecycle is part
of which process?
A. Service Portfolio Management
B. Service Level Management
C. Component Capacity Management
D. Demand Management
070-461 exam Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 19
Which is NOT a purpose of Service Transition?
A. Ensure that a service can be managed, operated and supported.
B. Provide quality knowledge of Change, Release and Deployment Mgmt.
C. Plan and manage the capacity and resource requirements to manage a release.
D. Provide training and certification in project management.
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 20
Which of the following is the BEST definition of an Incident?
A. Loss of ability to operate to specification, or to deliver the required output
B. A change of state which has significance for the management of a Configuration Item or IT
Service
C. A warning that a threshold has been reached, something has changed, or a failure has
occurred
D. An unplanned interruption to an IT service or reduction in the quality of an IT service
070-461 dumps Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 21
The BEST description of the guidance provided by Service Design is?
A. The design and development of new services
B. The design and development of service improvements
C. The design and development of services and service management processes
D. The day-to-day operation and support of services
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 22
How many times should each stage of the Plan, Do, Check, Act (PDCA) cycle be visited?
A. Each stage should be carried out once in the order Plan-Do-Check-Act
B. There should be a single Plan and Do,then Check and Act should be carried out multiple times
to implement Continual Improvement
C. The entire cycle should be repeated multiple times to implement Continual Improvement
D. There should be a single Plan,then the Do-Check-Act cycle should be repeated multiple times
to implement Continual Improvement
070-461 pdf Answer: C

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Exam Name: Installation, Storage, and Compute with Windows Server 2016
Updated: Aug 27, 2017
Q&As: 162

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QUESTION 1
What type of analysis would NOT normally be completed when optimising PS data
services?
A. Evaluating traffic volume thresholds.
B. Evaluating UE transmit power thresholds.
C. Evaluating downlink transmit power thresholds.
D. Evaluating the delay for the CELLFACH to CELLDCH transition.
70-740 exam Answer: B
QUESTION 2
Which RLC mode should be used for NRT traffic?
A. AM.
B. UM.
C. TrM.
D. FM.
Answer: A
QUESTION 3
How is the SHO area optimised?
A. By adding neighbours for Inter-system handovers.
B. By fine-tuning the HC and PC control parameters.
C. By increasing the TX Power and LNA gain.
D. By adjusting cell dominance areas.
70-740 dumps Answer: D
QUESTION 4
What is the CORRECT order of the major phases in the ISHO process?
A. Compressed mode, event or periodical measurement reporting, threshold comparison.
B. Event or periodical measurement reporting, compressed mode, threshold comparison.
C. Initial triggering, compressed mode, event measurement reporting, threshold
comparison.
D. Initial triggering, compressed mode, periodical measurement reporting, threshold
comparison.
Answer: D
QUESTION 5
The Dedicated Traffic Channel (DTCH):
A. is a point to multipoint channel.
B. exists only in uplink.
C. exists only in downlink.
D. is used to transfer user information.
70-740 pdf Answer: D
QUESTION 6
The GSM – WCDMA handover process for voice, from measurements triggering to
complete handover, takes:
A. 7-10 seconds.
B. 0.02-0.04 of a second.
C. 2-5 seconds.
D. 0.2-0.4 of a second.
Answer: C
QUESTION 7
When applying the free space propagation loss formula both for GSM900 and WCDMA,
what APPROXIMATELY is the propagation loss difference between the systems, if the
distance from the BTS is 1500 meters? (Use frequency 2100 MHz for WCDMA.)
A. 5.5 dB.
B. 7.4 dB.
C. 1.3 dB.
D. 13.4 dB.
70-740 vce Answer: B
QUESTION 8
Pilot pollution can be observed from:
A. nodeB TX and RX statistics from OSS.
B. field measurements.
C. nodeB statistics from Iub.
D. RNC handover statistics.
Answer: B
QUESTION 9
What is the CORRECT coding sequence in a DL transmission?
A. First channalisation then scrambling.
B. First scrambling then rate matching.
C. First scrambling then channalisation.
D. First scrambling then convolutional.
70-740 exam Answer: A
QUESTION 10
Which one of the following parameters does NOT have an influence on UL traffic
capacity?
A. RACH process.
B. Power control algorithm.
C. Active set size.
D. S-criteria.
Answer: D
QUESTION 11
What happens in the UE when compressed mode is in operation?
A. Transmission and reception are halted for a short time in order to perform
measurements on the other frequencies.
B. Transmission is halted for a short time in order to perform measurements on the other
frequencies.
C. Transmission and reception continue normally while the UE measures the other
frequencies.
D. Reception is halted for a short time in order to perform measurements on the other
frequencies.
70-740 dumps Answer: A
QUESTION 12
What is “little i”?
A. The interference ratio from neighbouring cells to own cell.
B. The inter-working between 2G and 3G system.
C. The interference margin of own cell.
D. The inter-system handover margin.
Answer: A
QUESTION 13
Which one of the following statements is CORRECT when the CPICH pilot power is too
low in one cell?
A. CPICH pilot power has no effect on Soft handovers.
B. Soft handovers are delayed.
C. Soft handovers are happening earlier.
D. Soft handovers are not working.
70-740 pdf Answer: C
QUESTION 14
For what purpose are the raw counters usually used?
A. To monitor system level performance
B. To monitor end user performance
C. To record the throughput
D. To troubleshoot cell specific issues
Answer: D
QUESTION 15
For the CELLFACH state, which one of the following statements is NOT true?
A. The UE is enabled to transmit uplink control messages and may also be able to
transmit small data packets on the RACH.
B. Listens to the PCH transport channel (via allocated PICH) for the decoding of paging
and notification messages sent by the RAN.
C. A cell update procedure is used to report to the RNC, when the UE executes cell
re-selection.
D. The location of the UE is known on cell level in RNC.
70-740 vce Answer: B
QUESTION 16
The RadioBearerSetup message:
A. is sent in uplink.
B. is sent in downlink.
C. can replace the RRCConnectionSetup to speed up the call set-up.
D. is the downlink answer to the RadioBearerRequest.
Answer: B
QUESTION 17
If the coverage area of the site with 12.2 kbps voice services and 141.9 dB path loss is
17.5 km2, what is the cell radius assuming that the site has 3 sectors (k factor for site area
is 2.2)?
A. 2.2 km.
B. 2.8 km.
C. 3.3 k
D. 1.6 km.
70-740 exam Answer: B
QUESTION 18
For the use of a shared antenna line between GSM and WCDMA, what is needed?
A. Diplexer or triplexer.
B. Same output power both GSM and WCDMA.
C. Coupler or splitter.
D. One shared BTS for GSM and WCDMA.
Answer: A
QUESTION 19
Which one of the following channels does NOT have an influence on DL coverage?
A. PRACH.
B. BCCH.
C. PCH.
D. SCH.
70-740 dumps Answer: A
QUESTION 20
In the call-setup phase, on which transport channel is the RRCConnectionSetup
message sent?
A. BCH.
B. RACH.
C. CCCH.
D. FACH.
Answer: D
QUESTION 21
Which one of the following is the CORRECT range for Routing Area?
A. 0 – 63.
B. 0 – 127.
C. 0 -15.
D.0 – 255.
70-740 pdf Answer: D
QUESTION 22
In a cell reselection, UE neighbour measurements can be seen:
A. always at the same time for all cells.
B. always at different time for all cells.
C. only for three best cells at the same time.
D. depending on parameter settings of measurements of different cell types.
Answer: D
QUESTION 23
Considering 1 site (3 cells) with 1 only one carrier per cell, how many traffic hardware
channels are needed if in the site the active users are: 1.8 voice, 0.7 CS64, 0.7 PS64 and 1
PS384 and knowing that for each connection the following hardware channels apply: 1
for voice, 4 for CS64, 4 for PS64 and 16 for PS384 are needed?
A. 24
B. 4
C. 37
D. 13
70-740 vce Answer: A
QUESTION 24
For proper cell (re)selection UE needs which one of the following parameter settings?
A. Spreading codes.
B. Location area identifications.
C. Scrambling codes.
D. CPICH TX levels.
Answer: C
QUESTION 25
Inter-system handover parameter settings at the 3G-coverage border should be evaluated
at a level of:
A. cell and RNC.
B. site and RNC.
C. cell and site.
D. site and MSC.
70-740 exam Answer: A
QUESTION 26
Which one of the following statements regarding physical channel and power control
pairs is NOT true?
A. S-CCPCH has inner loop power control.
B. PRACH uses open loop power control.
C. FACH and PCH do not have inner loop power control.
D. DCH utilizes fast power control.
Answer: A

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Exam Code: 70-475
Exam Name: Designing and Implementing Big Data Analytics Solutions
Updated: Aug 13, 2017
Q&As: 42

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QUESTION 1
What is a Global User as defined in eTrust Admin?
A. A user login on a specific machine.
B. An individual employee identifier in a company.
C. The user login common to all UNIX machines in a company.
D. A common user login on all machines in a company’s network.
70-475 exam Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 2
Which component of eTrust Access Control keeps track of bypass access permissions?
A. Watchdog
B. Bookkeeper
C. SEOS Agent
D. eTrust Syscall
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 3
What is the primary task of a TCL script in eTrust SSO?
A. Assist with debugging
B. Generate eTrust SSO tickets
C. Provide instructions for logging a user into a specific application
D. Specify options that control the communication between the eTrust SSO server and clients
70-475 dumps Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 4
Which two does the TERMINAL class provide? (Choose two.)
A. The ability to control login events
B. Permissions for remote administration
C. The ability to control root access for the terminal
D. The ability to define hosts used in the TCP class
Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 5
Which two statements are true concerning centralized management of multiple eTrust Access Control
servers using the PMDB architecture? (Choose two.)
A. PMDB is a recommended replacement for NIS.
B. The PMDB architecture provides a hot backup capability.
C. The master and sub-PMDBs can reside on the same physical server.
D. All servers being centrally managed in this architecture must have the same policies.
E. Each eTrust Access Control server can be administered locally if the PMDB server goes down.
70-475 pdf Correct Answer: CE
QUESTION 6
Where are SSO login scripts stored?
A. On the SSO Broker
B. On the SSO Server
C. On the target system
D. On the SSO client PC
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 7
What does a role represent in eTrust Admin?
A. A job function
B. The machines on which a Global User has accounts
C. The department with which an employee is associated
D. The specific rights granted to an eTrust security administrator
70-475 vce Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 8
All items in eTrust Access Control can be broadly classified into which two categories? (Choose two.)
A. File
B. Process
C. Program
D. Accessor
E. Resource
Correct Answer: DE
QUESTION 9
The scope of an eTrust Admin Administrator can be limited to which groups?
A. Any arbitrary group of users
B. Specified Native OS Groups
C. Specified eTrust Admin User Groups
D. Specified eTrust Admin Directory Groups
70-475 exam Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 10
How does the Universal Feed Option submit changes to eTrust Admin?
A. Through the etautil utility
B. Through the workflow engine
C. Through the Delegated Admin interface
D. Through the SPML Provisioning Service Poinit (PSP)
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 11
Which three database types are supported within an eTrust SiteMinder environment? (Choose three.)
A. User Store
B. Token Data
C. Policy Store
D. Resource Store
70-475 dumps E. Accounting Logs
QUESTION 12. The abbreviation “VSWR” stands for .
A. Variable Signal Wave Radio
B. Voltage Strength Wire Ratio
C. Very Strong Wave Radio
D. Voltage Standing Wave Ratio
Answer: D
QUESTION  13. What is the proper resistance of an ESD wrist strap?
A. 1 ohm (O)
B. 1 Mega ohm (MO)
C. 10 O
D. 1 MO
70-475 pdf Answer: B
QUESTION  14. In OMT, what view shows the RUs installed in the GSM cabinet?
A. System View
B. Radio view
C. MO View
D. Cabinet View
Answer: D
QUESTION 15. What could a flashing green LED indicate in an MRU?
A. Fault is localized
B. Wait, activity in progress
C. Battery Power depleted
D. None of the above
70-475 vce Answer: B
QUESTION 16. What common LED indicators are in the CDU, PSU, BFU, and dTRU?
A. RBS Fault
B. Operational
C. Fault
D. B and C
Answer: D
QUESTION 17. How many T1s can one DXU-21 support?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
70-475 exam Answer: D
QUESTION 18. An ESD wrist strap must always be used when handling or installing .
A. a DXU
B. printed circuit boards
C. TRU/dTRU
D. All of the above
Answer: D
QUESTION 19. Bends to RF cables (coaxial) should be a minimum of ten (10) times the cable diameter.
A. RLSTC:CELL=12002B, STATE=HALTED;
B. RLSTC:SITE=12002,STATE=HALTED;
C. RLSTP:CELL=12002B, HALTED;
D. RLSTP:CELL=12002B, STATE=HALTED;
70-475 dumps Answer: A
QUESTION 20. The abbreviation “COD” stands for .
A. Command Document
B. Command Description
C. Command On Demand
D. None of the above
Answer: B
QUESTION 21. In OMT, the System View shows:
A. BSC, PCM link, Alarm Inlets, RBS, OMT, ISP, and ESB
B. BTS, PCM link, Alarm Inlets, RBS, OMT, IDB, and ESI
C. BSC, PCM link, Alarm Inlets, RBS, OMT, IDB, and ETS
D. BSC, PCM link, Alarm Inlets, RBS, OMT, IDB, and ESB
70-475 pdf Answer: D
QUESTION 22. If VSWR supervision is disabled in the IDB, an alarm is sent to the BSC if the level reaches .
A. 1.8
B. 2.2
C. 2.8
D. The alarm is not sent to the BSC
Answer: D
QUESTION 23. What type of RU is a fan?
A. MCRU
B. DDMRU
C. Subordinate
D. Passive
70-475 vce Answer: D
QUESTION 24. The abbreviation “TRU” stands for .
A. Transmitter Unit
B. Transceiver Unit
C. Transmitting Replaceable Unit
D. None of the above
Answer: B
QUESTION 25. Why should you use the ESD wrist strap when handling RUs?
A. to avoid an electrical shock to you
B. To ensure good contact is made
C. To avoid a static charge, which can damage electronic components
D. Both B and C
70-475 exam Answer: C
QUESTION 26. The abbreviation “CF” stands for:
A. Central Frequency
B. Cabinet Function
C. Cellular Frequency
D. Central Function
Answer: D
QUESTION 27. Which of the following will cause a “VSWR” Limits Exceeded?
A. Faulty TRU-CDU TX cable
B. Loose PSU connection
C. Loose G703 cable connection
D. Unplugged optic cable
70-475 dumps Answer: A
QUESTION 28. What is the acceptable DC voltage range of the PSUs at 59 to 87
A. 25.4 to 27.7
B. 26.5 to 27.5
C. 26.9 to 27.7
D. 24.7 to 27.3
Answer: C
QUESTION 29. The abbreviation “ACCU” stands for .
A. Automatic Cable Connection Unit
B. Automatic Cabinet Connection Unit
C. Alternating Current Control Unit
D. Automatic Transceiver Connection Converter Unit
70-475 pdf Answer: C
QUESTION 30. Which of the following statements describes the Component type of workflow?
A. A workflow that drives software and automated processes without human intervention
B. Can be thought of as one of the goals in a business production process.
C. Can automate a labour-intensive business process for the moment but can integrate new automation
processes as they appear.
D. All of the above
Answer: D
QUESTION 31. In the Interstage BPM Client Architecture, which of the following UI components presents a list of
processes, process definitions, and work items?
A. Organizer
B. Overview
C. Process/process definition viewer/editor
D. Activity detail view
70-475 vce Answer: A
QUESTION 32. Which of the following correctly describes the ‘No Reassignment Mode’ of operation for Interstage
BPM ?
A. In this mode anyone who is a current assignee for the activity or a process owner can reassign the
activity to a new set of users
B. In this mode only a process owner can reassign an activity to a different set of user/s
C. In this mode, reassignment is completely disabled
D. In this mode, resassignemt is disabled only for those users who are not process owners
Answer: C

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Exam Code: 070-413
Exam Name: Designing and Implementing a Server Infrastructure
Updated: Aug 03, 2017
Q&As: 206

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Question No : 32  The power draw from a three-phase UPS is measured using a true RMS voltmeter. The
meter reads 10 kW as well as 10 kVA.
Why are the watts and volt-amps the same?
A. The RMS voltage is 208 VAC.
B. The three-phases are balanced.
C. The power factor is equal to one.
D. Each of the three-phases are synchronized.
070-413 exam Answer: C

Question No : 33  In three-phase power, by how many degrees are the three basic power waveforms offset?
A. 60
B. 90
C. 120
D. 180
Answer: C

Question No : 34  What is the function of a circuit breaker?
A. To distribute power from the UPS to critical loads
B. To filter harmonics caused by non-power factor corrected computer loads
C. To protect electrical equipment from damage caused by overload or short circuit
D. To balance the loads in the data center to prevent stray currents on the ground wire
 070-413 dumps Answer: C
Question No : 35  Which UPS topology switches to batteries and turns on the inverter when the utility fails?
A. Rotary
B. Standby
C. Delta conversion
D. Double conversion
Answer: B

Question No : 36  Which two UPS topologies are used for UPS systems that supply at least 50 kW? (Choose
two.)
A. Standby
B. Standby – ferro
C. Delta conversion online
D. Double conversion online
070-413 pdf Answer: C,D

Question No : 37  What are two advantages of the line interactive UPS? (Choose two.)
A. High reliability
B. High efficiency
C. High frequency control
D. Optimized for 10 kW and above
Answer: A,B

Question No : 38  Which UPS topology uses a transfer switch between the primary power source and the
inverter?
A. Standby
B. High speed relay
C. Delta conversion online
D. Double conversion online
070-413 vce Answer: A

Question No : 39  Which UPS topology is most commonly used to protect small business and departmental
servers where voltage regulation is required?
A. Standby
B. Line interactive
C. High-speed relay
D. Delta conversion online
Answer: B

Question No : 40  What is the primary purpose of a UPS?
A. To remove transients from the power path
B. To detect and report power factor problems
C. To provide battery backup power should the utility fail
D. To convert from three-phase power to Single-phase power
070-413 exam Answer: C

Question No : 41  What is the main function of a UPS?
A. To provide battery back-up power to IT equipment
B. To regulate the voltage of power going to the racks
C. To distribute power from the transformer to the racks
D. To supply diesel-generated power when the utility is out
Answer: A

Question No : 42  What is a function of a transformer in a line interactive UPS?
A. To increase the power factor as the load increases
B. To increase harmonics by stepping down the output
C. To regulate output voltage as the input voltage varies
D. To provide low impedance for switched mode power supplies
070-413 dumps Answer: C

Question No : 43  Which component of a line interactive UPS increases its battery life?
A. Dual mains input
B. Voltage regulating transformer
C. Low impedance DC disconnect
D. High impedance battery charge circuit
Answer: B

Question No : 44  How long is the transfer to battery time for a double conversion online UPS?
A. 0 ms (0 cycles)
B. 8 ms (0.5 cycles)
C. 16 ms (1 cycle)
D. 500 ms (30 cycles)
070-413 pdf Answer: A

Question No : 45  What are two key characteristics of a UPS? (Choose two.)
A. It tests voltages on IT equipment.
B. It safeguards data in the event of a power loss.
C. It measures energy consumption of IT equipment.
D. It transfers IT equipment from utility to battery power.
Answer: B,D

Question No : 46  Which two characteristics do all static UPS topologies share? (Choose two.)
A. A battery
B. An inverter
C. A transfer switch
D. A single-phase input
070-413 vce Answer: A,B

Question No : 47
What is the primary difference between double conversion and delta conversion UPS
systems?
A. Double conversion UPSs require a 1.3X generator oversizing. Delta conversion UPSs
require a 3X generator oversizing.
B. Double conversion UPSs are practical in size ranges from 0 – 20 kW. Delta conversion
UPSs are practical in size ranges of 20 kW to 1 MW.
C. In a double conversion UPS, 100% of the power is converted from AC to DC and then
again from DC to AC. In a delta conversion UPS, only the difference between input and
output power is converted.
D. In a double conversion UPS, the transformer has a special ferro-resonant capability,
which provides limited voltage regulation and output waveform shaping. In a delta
conversion UPS, a standard transformer is used.
Answer: C

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Exam Code: 070-489
Exam Name: Developing Microsoft SharePoint Server 2013 Advanced Solutions
Updated: Jul 23, 2017
Q&As: 97

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QUESTION 10
You need to implement the social maintenance tool.
How should you complete the relevant code? (To answer, select the appropriate option from each
dropdown list in the answer area.)
070-489

070-489

QUESTION 11
You need to notify Windows phone users about the new Windows phone app.
Which three actions should you perform in sequence? (To answer, move the appropriate actions
from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
Select and Place:
070-489

070-489

Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Note:
* A device channel panel is a container that can be used on a master page or page layout when
you want specific content to render based on the alias of a given device channel, or set of
channels. For example, you may have a web part or control that you want revealed only on the
desktop view of the site, and not on any mobile device. The device channel panel can enable you
to encapsulate this web part in code, and enable you to render it only through a designated device
channel.
* From scenario:
You create a Windows Phone app. When users access the site by using a Windows phone, a
message must appear on every page of the mobile site. The message must notify users that they
can download the Windows Phone app to their phone. The HTML that contains the message
must render only to the Windows phones.
070-489

070-489

Correct Answer:
070-489

Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Testlet 1
Topic 3, Contoso Ltd
Background
Contoso Ltd. is a global real estate company. You are hired to replace the company’s existing
ASP.NET website at http://www.contoso.com with a new SharePoint 2013 public-facing
website. The site will display data about the company and information about residential
properties that the individual agents in the company are selling. You have SharePoint Server
environments for development, staging, and production.
Search
The website has the following requirements:
Site visitors must be able to search for documents that are located
anywhere on the site.
When site visitors search for real estate properties, they must see
information about a property.
When a visitor searches for the word Guidelines, a PDF document named
Real Estate Guidelines must appear at the top of the search results.
Search Engine Optimization
The company wants to ensure that the website displays prominently in Internet search results
when people search for real estate.
The website has the following requirements:
Internet search engines must properly rank pages so that the more popular
pages on the site appear first in the Internet search engine results.
SharePoint must generate the sitemap.xml and robots.txt files that are used
by Internet search engines.
When an Internet search engine crawls the site, the search engine must recognize that the
following URLs display information about different agents:
http://www.contoso.com/FindAnAgent?agentName=JohnDoe&officeId =
Sacramento
http://www.contoso.com/FindAnAgent?agentName=JohnDoe&officeId =
Houston
The search engine must recognize that the following URLs display the same information about
the same agent:
http://www.contoso.com/FindAnAgent?
agentName=JohnDoe&officeId=Sacramento
http://www.contoso.com/FindAnAgent?agentName=JohnDoe&officeId =
Sacramento8icerts=true
Managed Metadata Service (MMS)
The MMS must include three term sets named Offices, Cities, and Features.
Offices Term Set
The Offices term set has the following requirements:
The Offices term set must be a child of the group named Navigation.
The Offices term set must be configured to use friendly URLs in the
Offices sub-site.
The name for each new office must be added to the Offices term set
programmatically.
The left navigation pane for the Offices page on the website must use the
terms in the Offices term set.
When the company opens a new office, a link for each new office must
display in the left navigation pane.
Cities Term Set
The Cities term set has the following requirements:
The Cities term set must contain a list that contains the names of major
metropolitan areas.
Many of the cities that are included in the Offices term set may also
appear in the Cities term set, but the term sets may not be identical.
If a city is required in both term sets, it must first be added to the Offices
term set before it can be added to the Cities term set.
If a term is changed in the Offices term set, it must automatically change
in the Cities term set.
The term Dallas must have a term ID of {b6ell481-3445-413c-9da0-
bl5ae5d5cbd4}.
Features Term Set
You have an Excel file that contains a list of possible features for each property. The Features
term set has the following requirements:
The Features term set must contain the terms that describe details about
each property, such as whether the building is a single family house or a
condominium.
The list of possible features must be programmatically imported from the
Excel file into the term store in each server environment.
Web Application
The Internet Information Services (IIS) website contains a folder named _ConfigurationFiles.
The web application has the following requirements:
Anonymous access must be enabled on the web application.
Internet search engines must index the site.
Internet search engines must not index the files in the _ConfigurationFiles
folder.
Site Collections and Content
The web application includes the following three site collections.
Board Member Site Collection
The Board Member site collection is only accessible to the board members so that they can view
private company information.
The Board Member site collection has the following requirements:
Only board members can log in to the site collection.
A page within the site collection must display a list of all the board
members.
The website must be located at http://www.contoso.com/sites/board.
Internet Site Collection
Anonymous access is enabled on the Internet site collection. The Internet site collection has the
following requirements:
The site collection must include a sub-site named Offices.
The URL of the Offices sub-site is http://www.contoso.com/Offices.
Each office must have its own page on the site.
The pages for each office must have the same style and structure.
Each office page must contain a Content Search Web Part that displays a
listing of all the properties that are being sold by agents in the office.
The Content Search Web Part must use a custom display template named
Real Estate Property to render search results when site visitors search for a
property.
The target page for terms in the Office term set must point to a page
named Office.aspx that is in the Pages library of the Offices sub-site.
The site must contain an About Us section that contains a Content Search
Web Part that lists the members of the board of directors for the company.
Each member of the board must have a page that contains biographical
information about that board member.
The list of board members must be available in the Board Member site
collection.
Site visitors must be able to view information about individual agents,
including their contact information, certifications, and picture.
When agents visit the Internet site collection, the agents may add
information about each of the real estate properties that they are selling.
The agents must be able to tag real estate properties according to their
features.
Real estate agents must enter real estate property information into a web
form that is used specifically for data collection.
The web form must collect the following information:
The property address.
Up to five pictures of the property.
The selling price.
The number of bedrooms and bathrooms.
The name of the real estate agent.
Tags that will further describe the property.
Agent Site Collection
The Agent site collection is in the same web application and is accessible only to agents. The
Agent site collection has the following requirements:
The site collection must include a site that contains instructions for real
estate agents that tells them how to add property information to the
website.
The website must be located at http://www.contoso.com/sites/agents.
A Web Part must use the .NET client-side object model (CS0M) to
retrieve all of the terms from only the Features term set.
Page Layouts and Web Parts
Page Layouts
You must create the following page layouts: About Us, Biography With Image, Biography No
Image, and Office.
The page layouts have the following requirements:
The About Us page layout must include a field to which the user may add
Web Parts.
The Biography With Image and Biography No Image page layouts must
display biographical information about the board of directors.
You must create a content type named Biography. Biography With Image
and Biography No Image page layouts must use the Biography content
type.
The Office page layout must display information for each office and must
use the fields that that are defined in the Elements.xml file.
Web Parts
The Agent Web Part has the following requirements:
The Web Part must display information about an individual agent.
The Web Part must display information that is based on query string
parameters.
The URL of the page that hosts the Web Part must be
http://www.contoso.com/FindAnAgent.
The following table lists the query string parameters and the way that each parameter must be
used by the Web Part.

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