Category: IBM Certified System Administrator

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QUESTION 21
Which special authorities are required to allow a user to change user profiles on a system with QSECURITY set to 40?
A. *ALLOBJ*OBJMGT
B. *SECADM*ALLOBJ
C. *SECADM*OBJMGT
D. *SECADM*SER VICE

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 22
An application vendor has shipped a save file with the source member for a new program. The administrator restored the new source member into the existing source file, but when checking the source file after the restore discovered that all of the previous source members were missing.
Which parameter of the Restore Object (RSTOBJ) command would have allowed the administrator to restore the new member without losing the existing members?
A. MBROPT *NEW
B. FRCOBJCVN *NO
C. ALWOBJDIE *FILEVL
D. FILEMBR (*NAME *NEW)
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 23
Which command will help an administrator to find the IBM i Navigator jobs?
A. WRKJOB TYPE(*PJ)
B. WRKJOB JOB(QZRCSRVS)
C. WPKACTJOB JOB(*REMOTE)
D. WRKUSRJOB USER(*CENTRAL)
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 24
After an abnormal IPL, jobs that are accessing some files for the first time are spending an extended amount of time in a status of “IDX” and are taking longer to complete.
Which command should be used to enable all pending access path rebuilds to be analyzed, prioritized, and immediately executed rather than waiting for first access?
A. WRKEFD
B. EDTRBDAP
C. WRKAPSTS
D. WRKJOBAP

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 25
Consider the following graphic. Where in System i Navigator Management Central are the message monitors configured?
A. Message
B. Commands
C. Extreme Support
D. Collection Services

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 26
After installing IBM i 7.1 on a brand new system, only the QSECOFR user profile can login on the system console. The administrator copied the QSECOFR profile into a new user profile. When attempting to login with the new user profile, the following error is displayed:
“CPF1110 not authorized to work station.”
What is causing the error?
A. The DST Console type was not set during installation of the Os.
B. The QLMT5ECOFR system value is set to require explicit device access.
C. The limit device session parameter (LMTDEV55N) on the new user profile is set to tYE5.
D. The system does not allow automatic workstation device creation for users with *ALLOBJ authority.

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 27
An administrator issues the WRKSYSACT command on a system partition using dedicated processors and the following result displays:
Current processing capacity 2
What does the current processing capacity value indicate?
A. The percentage of CPU currently available for system jobs.
B. The share of the physical processors in the pool it is running.
C. The number of processing units currently assigned to the partition.
D. The number of virtual processors that are currently active in the partition.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 28
An administrator needs to upgrade their Flexible Service Processor’s (FSP) firmware for an HMC managed Power 720. They are currently running AL730_085. The latest corrective service on Fix Central is AL730_1 12_092.
Which statement is correct regarding the installation of this corrective service package?
A. Since this is an HMC managed FSP, the installation of the corrective service will be concurrent.
B. Since the FSP will remain at the same 730 code stream level the installation of the corrective service will be concurrent.
C. Since the 092 is greater than the currently running 085 fix pack level, the installation of the corrective service will be disruptive.
D. Since the 112 is greater than the currently running 085 fix pack level, the installation of the corrective service will be disruptive.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 29
On an HMC-managed system with several partitions, the QSECOFR password for DST/SST has been disabled for one partition. No other profiles for DST/SST are known. What procedure will reset the password to the shipped value?
A. Sign on to the partition as QSECOFR, issue the CHGDSTPWD PASSWORD(*DEFAULT) command.
B. Use the function in the HMC for “Users and Groups” to modify the partition’s DST password.
C. Use the control panel function 21 from the HMC user interface to reset the SST/DST password.
D. Connect to ASMI, use the “admin” profile to reset the DST password of the affected partition.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 30
Which command will save the access paths for Iwo physical files (PFLE1, PFILE2) when both the physical and dependent logical file (LFILE) reside in the same library?
A. SAV OBJ(LFILE) PATH(*YES)
B. SAVOBJ OBJ(LFILE) ACCPTH(*YES)
C. SAVOBJ OBJ(PFILE1 PFILE2) ACCPTH(*YES)
D. SAVACCPATH FILE(PFILE1 PFILE2) ACCPATH(*YES)

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 31
An administrator needs to upgrade users’ IBM i Access for Windows emulators to use Secure Sockets Layer (SSL) protocol. The administrator used the Microsoft Windows administrator account to complete a successful upgrade and subsequent test. After re-booting the Windows PC, users log in using their ID. When users launch the IBM i Access emulator and log into the IBM i server, the emulator session is not SSL secured, even after the successful installation.
What is most likely cause of the problem?
A. The Windows client IP address is being blocked by the exit point QIBM_SSL_DEVINIT.
B. The IBM i Access for Windows emulator shortcut for users’ desktops were not configured for SSL.
C. The IBM i Access for Windows emulator supports SSL only when run from a Windows administrator account.
D. The Windows client has been assigned a new IP address from the DHCP server which is not registered with the System i SSL server.

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 32
An administrator needs to identify which jobs are creating short CPU and disk arm usage spikes. The administrator also needs to determine what the job(s) are doing as soon as possible during or after a spike occurs.
Which tool is most appropriate to use to assist with this activity?
A. IBM i Performance Explorer (PEX)
B. IBM i Performance Management Agent
C. IBM System Director Navigator for i
D. System i Navigator Management Central monitors

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 33
A system administrator is restoring a saved library LIBA on the same system where it was saved several months ago, using the RSTLIB command with the Allow Object Differences (ALWOBJDIE) parameter set to *ALL.
The original library LIBA has changed since it was last saved. Several original files now have different authorization lists, and many new objects have been added. After the restore, the administrator observed that some restored files have two versions, FILEx and FILEx0001.
Which setting of the ALWOBJDIF parameter will avoid this problem?
A. *MATCH
B. *MBRLVL
C. *FILELVL
D. *COMPATIBLE

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 34
An administrator has prepared an update package containing the prescribed groups and HIPER PTF5. When testing the package, a message is received stating some of the PTEs cannot be applied because others are missing.
What is the most efficient approach to accomplish a successful test?
A. Apply the latest technology refresh.
B. Apply the latest cumulative fix package.
C. Inspect the job log for the missing PTFs.
D. Read the PSP for cumulative updates for missing PTFs.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 35
An administrator with an HMC managed POWER7 system needs to perform a concurrent update to server firmware. Which co-requisites and/or prerequisites should the administrator consider as part of the planning process?
A. Available flash storage on the system FSP
B. IBM i, Licensed Internal Code PTE5, and HMC code level
C. Ability’ of the HMC to attach to the Internet and the IBM Support ETP site for the download
D. Service window to place the system partitions into restricted state and perform a platform IPL

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 36
A customer needs to upgrade from IBM i 5.4 to 7.1 . The current system is used extensively for Web serving. Extensive database activity is performed in SQL.
Which factor will affect the time to perform the upgrade of the operating system?
A. The ES Type must convert during the IBM i upgrade.
B. The DB2 referential constraints must be manually reestablished.
C. Some database joins must be reformatted to be compliant with new SQL standards.
D. The logical file access paths must be rebuilt into Encoded Vector Indexes (EVI).

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 37
When a user opens up Database Navigator for IBM i 7.1, only the QGPL database is initially available. The user needs the list of schemas to be available each time Database Navigator is opened.
What action can the administrator take to support the requirement?
A. Add the user to the authorization list QSM1 AUTL and restart the host servers.
B. In Application Administration for System i Navigator, enter a schema name and press the ADD button.
C. Create a supplemental group profile that has the needed list of libraries assigned and make the user a member of that supplemental group.
D. Create a job description with the appropriate list of libraries on it and assign the job description to the user. Have the user sign off and sign on again.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 38
An administrator needs to install third party software into an iASP environment. The installation is failing when the program provided by the software company attempts to create and restore library objects.
What is the most efficient way for the administrator to install the software while maintaining the command integrity of the system?
A. Copy the software libraries into the system ASPThen create duplicate objects into the iASPRemove the new commands when the installation completes
B. Create a copy of the CRTLIB and RSTLIB commands, which include the iASP name, into a library that is placed first in the system portion of the library listRemove the new commands when the installation completes
C. Create a copy of the CRTLIB and RSTLIB commands, which include the ASP name, into a different library Then add that library to the user portion of the library listRemove the new commands when the installation completes
D. Create a copy of the CRTLIB and RSTLIB commands, which include the ASP name, in a different library Then add that library to the install portion of the library listRemove the new commands when the installation completes
Correct Answer: B

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QUESTION 1
Which of the following is the lowest cost DB2 product that can be legally installed on a Windows server that has 2 CPUs?
A. DB2 Everyplace
B. DB2 Express Edition
C. DB2 Workgroup Server Edition
D. DB2Enterprise Server Edition
Correct Answer: B Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 2
Which of the following products is allowed to access other DB2 servers, but cannot accept requests from other remote clients?
A. DB2 Personal Edition
B. DB2 Workgroup Server Edition
C. DB2Enterprise Server Edition
D. DB2 Data Warehouse Edition
Correct Answer: A Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 3
A client application on z/OS must access a DB2 database on a Solaris Server. At a minimum, which of the following products must be installed on the Solaris workstation?
A. DB2 ConnectEnterprise Edition
B. DB2 Workgroup Server Edition
C. DB2 Workgroup Server Edition and DB2 ConnectEnterprise Edition
D. DB2Enterprise Server Edition and DB2 Connect Enterprise Edition
Correct Answer: D Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 4
Which of the following is the lowest cost DB2 product that can be legally installed on an HP-UX server?
A. DB2 Express-C
B. DB2 Express
C. DB2 Personal Edition
D. DB2Enterprise Server Edition
Correct Answer: D Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 5
Which of the following products must be installed on an AIX server in order to build an application for AIX that will access a DB2 for z/OS database?
A. DB2Enterprise Server Edition
B. DB2 Personal Developer’s Edition
C. DB2 Universal Developer’s Edition
D. DB2 Universal DatabaseEnterprise Edition and DB2 Connect Enterprise Edition
Correct Answer: C Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 6
Which of the following DB2 products can only be installed on a System i server?
A. DB2 for z/OS
B. DB2 for i5/OS
C. DB2 Data Warehouse Edition
D. DB2Enterprise Server Edition
Correct Answer: B Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 7
What is the purpose of the Design Advisor?
A. To analyze workloads and make recommendations for indexes and MQTs
B. To present a graphical representation of a data access plan and recommend design changes that will improve performance
C. To replicate data between a DB2 database and another relational database
D. To configure clients so they can access databases stored on remote servers
Correct Answer: A Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 8
Which of the following tools can be used to catalog a database?
A. Visual Explain
B. Alert Center
C. Journal
D. Configuration Assistant
Correct Answer: A Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 9
Which of the following is used to create and debug user-defined functions?
A. SQL Assist
B. Control Center
C. Command Editor
D. Developer Workbench
Correct Answer: D Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 10
Which of the following DB2 tools allows a user to set DB2 registry parameters?
A. Task Center
B. Visual Explain
C. Configuration Assistant
D. Satellite Administration Center
Correct Answer: C Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 11
What is the SQL Performance Monitor used for?
A. To examine the health of a DB2 Database Manager instance
B. To visually construct complex DML statements and examine the results of their execution
C. To schedule tasks, run tasks, and send notifications about completed tasks to other users
D. To analyze database operations performed against a DB2 for i5/OS database
Correct Answer: D Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 12
Which two of the following allow you to perform administrative tasks against database objects?
A. Control Center
B. Journal
C. Command Line Processor
D. Task Center
E. Health Center
Correct Answer: AC Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 13
Which of the following tasks can NOT be performed using the Developer Workbench?
A. Develop and debug an SQL stored procedure
B. Develop and debug a user-defined data type
C. Develop and debug a user-defined function
D. Develop and run XML queries
Correct Answer: B Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 14
Which of the following tools can be used to automate table reorganization operations?
A. Control Center
B. Command Center
C. Command Line Processor
D. Task Center
Correct Answer: D Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 15
Which of the following can be viewed with the Journal?
A. Historical information about tasks, database changes, messages, and notifications
B. Information about licenses associated with each DB2 9 product installed on a particular system
C. Graphical representations of data access plans chosen for SQL statements
D. Warning and alarm thresholds for database indicators
Correct Answer: A Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 16
Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of a data warehouse?
A. Summarized queries that perform aggregations and joins
B. Heterogeneous data sources
C. Voluminous historical data
D. Sub-second response time
Correct Answer: D Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 17
Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of an OLTP database?
A. Granular transactions
B. Current data
C. Optimized for queries
D. Frequent updates
Correct Answer: C Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 18
Which of the following is true about XML columns?
A. XML columns are used to store XML documents as a hierarchical set of entities
B. OnlyXQuery can be used to retrieve an XML document from an XML column
C. XML columns must be altered to accommodate additional parent/child relationships if they are used in referential constraints
D. In order to access any portion of an XML document stored in an XML column, the entire document must be retrieved
Correct Answer: A Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 19
Which of the following products is used to shred extensible markup language documents?
A. DB2 AVI Extender
B. DB2 Text Extender
C. DB2 XML Extender
D. DB2 Spatial Extender
Correct Answer: C Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 20
Which of the following best describes the difference between the DB2 Spatial Extender and the DB2 Geodetic Extender?
A. The DB2 Spatial Extender uses a latitude-longitude coordinate system; the DB2 Geodetic Extender uses a planar, x- and y-coordinate system
B. The DB2 Geodetic Extender is used to describe points, lines, and polygons; the DB2 Spatial Extender is used to find area, endpoints, and intersects
C. The DB2 Spatial Extender treats the world as a flat map; the DB2 Geodetic Extender treats the world as a round globe
D. The DB2 Geodetic Extender can be used to manage information like the locations of office buildings or the size of a flood zone; the DB2 Spatial Extender can be used for calculations and visualizations in disciplines like military command/control and asset management, meteorology and oceanography
Correct Answer: C Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 21
Which of the following is the major difference between relational data and XML data?
A. Relational data is self-describing; XML data is not
B. Relational data has inherent ordering; XML data does not
C. Relational data must be tabular; XML data does not have to be tabular
D. Relational data is comprised of entities; XML data is comprised of numbers, characters, and dates
Correct Answer: C Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 22
Which product must be installed on z/OS to allow a COBOL program running on that machine to access data on a remote DB2 for z/OS server?
A. DB2 for z/OS
B. DB2 Run-Time Client for z/OS
C. DB2 Connect Enterprise Edition for z/OS
D. z/OS Application Connectivity to DB2 for z/OS and OS/390
Correct Answer: A Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 23
Which of the following tools can make recommendations for indexes and/or MQTs to improve the performance of DB2 applications?
A. Design Advisor
B. Visual Explain
C. Performance Advisor
D. Configuration Assistant
Correct Answer: A Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 24
Which of the following tools can be used to schedule a backup operation that is to be run every Sunday evening?
A. Journal
B. Task Center
C. Activity Monitor
D. Command Line Processor
Correct Answer: B Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 25
Which of the following is the lowest cost DB2 product that can be legally installed on a Linux server that has 6 CPUs?
A. DB2 Express Edition
B. DB2 Personal Edition
C. DB2 Workgroup Server Edition
D. DB2Enterprise Server Edition
Correct Answer: D Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 26
Which of the following is the main feature of an OLTP application?
A. Summarized queries
B. Granular transactions
C. Voluminous historical data
D. Heterogeneous data sources
Correct Answer: B Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 27
For which of the following is a data warehouse optimized?
A. Backup and recovery
B. Transactions
C. Security
D. Queries
Correct Answer: D Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 28
Which of the following describes how DB2 9 stores an XML document if the XML Extender is not used?
A. CLOB
B. BLOB
C. Hierarchically
D. Rows and columns
Correct Answer: C Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 29
Which of the following is NOT true about XML columns?
A. Data can be retrieved by SQL.
B. Data can be retrieved byXQuery.
C. XML columns must be altered to accommodate additional parent and child relationships.
D. Access to any portion of an XML document can be direct, without reading the whole document.
Correct Answer: C Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 30
Which tool must be used to analyze all of the database operations performed by an application against a DB2 for i5/OS database?
A. Visual Explain
B. Activity Monitor
C. SQL Performance Monitor
D. DB2 Performance Monitor
Correct Answer: C Explanation
Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 31
Which of the following DB2 tools allows a user to execute an SQL statement and view a graphical representation of the access plan?
A. Task Center
B. Command Editor
C. Developer Workbench
D. Command Line Processor
Correct Answer: B Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 32
Which of the following DB2 products are required on an iSeries or System I server to enable an application running on that server to retrieve data from a DB2 database on a Linux server?
A. DB2 for i5/OS
B. DB2 Runtime Client
C. DB2 ConnectEnterprise Edition
D. DB2 for i5/OS SQL Development Kit
Correct Answer: A Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 33
Which of the following is the lowest cost DB2 product that can be legally installed on an AIX server?
A. DB2 Express Edition
B. DB2 Personal Edition
C. DB2 Workgroup Server Edition
D. DB2Enterprise Server Edition
Correct Answer: C Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

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What data migration tool(s) should be used to load data from a non-Informix data source?
A. dbimport
B. onload and dbload
C. dbload and High Performance Loader
D. onload and High Performance Loader
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 22
Role separation provides checks and balances to improve the security of your event-auditing procedures. Which two roles must be associated with group IDs to enable role separation? (Choose two.)
A. DBSEC: DB Security Officer
B. AAO: Auditing Analysis Officer
C. DBASO: DB Audit and Security Officer
D. DBAMO: DB Audit Management Officer
E. DBSSO: Database System Security Officer
Answer: B,E
QUESTION NO: 23
During the database server initialization process, a number of environment variables are required. What is the order of precedence if the -file option is used?
A. User local shell, system global
B. System global, user local shell
C. System global, user local shell, onconfig file
D. Onconfig file, user local shell, system global

QUESTION NO: 24
Which is NOT a component of the IBM Mobile Database offering?

A. IBM DB2
B. IBM Informix
C. IBM solidDB
D. IBM InfoSphere Warehouse
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 25
Which threshold setting applies when configuring automatic memory management?

A. SHMTOTAL
B. BUFFERPOOL
C. SHMVIRTSIZE
D. DS_TOTAL_MEMORY
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 26
When configuring Informix server for DRDA connection, which statement is true?
A. The connection protocol must be drsoctcp.
B. The database server name for DRDA connection must correspond to the DBSERVERNAME onconfig parameter.
C. The database server name for DRDA connection must correspond to the DBSERVERALIASES onconfig parameter.
D. The database server name should correspond to either the DBSERVERNAME or the DBSERVERALIASES onconfig parameter.

QUESTION NO: 27
Which two statements are true? (Choose two.)
A. Logical log files must always reside in rootdbs.
B. Having too little log space does not affect performance.
C. Having too much log space does not affect performance.
D. Simple large objects in blobspaces are not logged and they are included in the log backup in which the object was created.
E. Simple large objects in blobspaces are not logged and they are not included in the log backup in which the object was created.
Answer: C,D
QUESTION NO: 28
Several operating-system kernel configuration parameters can affect the use of shared memory by the database server. Which two kernel parameters may need to be configured? (Choose two.)
A. Memory page size.
B. Total number of available semaphores.
C. Lower-boundary address for shared memory.
D. Total memory presented to the operating system.
E. Maximum operating-system shared-memory segment size.
Answer: C,E

QUESTION NO: 29
Which two logging modes are compatible between two databases participating in a distributed query? (Choose two.)
A. ANSI and non-ANSI
B. Buffered and Unbuffered
C. Buffered and Non-logging
D. Non-logging and Unbuffered
E. Non-logging and Non-logging
Answer: B,E
QUESTION NO: 30
After executing the following commands: onmode -j -U karin,dave onmode -j -U karin,sarah onmode -j -U sarah which user(s) have access to the instance?
A. sarah
B. karin and dave
C. karin and sarah
D. karin, dave and sarah
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 31
Which approach is always valid when migrating data across differing hardware and operating system architectures?
A. dbexport source system then dbimport into target.
B. ontape backup from source then restore backup onto target.
C. onunload the source to tape and onload the tape to the target.
D. Set up HDR primary and secondary between source and target.
Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 32
Which command would you use to export and import backup object metadata from one database server to another in conjunction with Primary Storage Manager?
A. onbar -E
B. dbexport
C. onsmsync
D. ontape -exp
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 33
Which type of device does Primary Storage Manager support?
A. File
B. Tape
C. Directory
D. Named pipe
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 34
Which action can be taken if an instance is down?
A. A point-in-time mixed restore.
B. Warm restore of non-critical storage spaces.
C. Cold restore by onbar using storage space backups taken by ontape on tape devices.
D. A mixed restore using onbar whole system backup and incremental dbspace level backups.
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 35
Which is NOT a feature of onbar backups?
A. The ability to parallelize backups.
B. The ability to do a point-in-time restore.
C. The ability to backup without a storage manager.
D. The ability to do an external backup using a Storage Area Network. Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 36
Which statement is true about restartable restore?
A. ontape can perform restartable restores if a backup is taken to disk.
B. Restartable restore is the ability to restart a failed restore using onbar.
C. Restartable restore is the ability to restart a failed restore using ontape.
D. Restartable restore is the ability to restart an instance using a restore from some other computer.
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 37
Which two actions can you perform with ontape? (Choose two.)
A. Backup to cloud
B. Restartable restore
C. Backup specific storage spaces
D. Restore specific storage spaces
E. Parallel backup of storage spaces
Answer: A,D

QUESTION NO: 38
What kinds of Table Level Restores can be done by the archecker utility?
A. Only logical restore.
B. Only physical restore.
C. Only point in time restore.
D. Physical, logical, and point in time restores. Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 39
Which one keyword in this query makes the AVG an OLAP window expression instead of the regular aggregate operator? SELECT AVG(SUM(dollars)) OVER() FROM sales;

A. SUM
B. OVER
C. FROM
D. AVG(SUM(dollars))
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 40
For a query to be processed by the accelerator, the query or query block should meet the certain criteria. Which statement is FALSE?
A. The query or query block must include at least 2 fact tables.
B. The query or query block must refer to a subset of the tables in the AQT.
C. The scalar and aggregate functions in the query or query block must be supported by the Informix Warehouse Accelerator.
D. The table references or joins specified in the query or query block must be the same as the references in the data mart definition.
Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 41
Given these statements are executed:

which statement is true?
A. The entire query will be accelerated to Informix Warehouse Accelerator (IWA) including the OLAP operators.
B. The entire query will be executed on Informix database server, and no portion of it will be accelerated by Informix Warehouse Accelerator(IWA).
C. The underlying SELECT, JOIN, GROUP BY, and PROJECT operation of the query is accelerated to Informix Warehouse Accelerator (IWA), and OLAP expressions are evaluated by Informix database server.
D. The underlying SELECT, JOIN, GROUP BY, and PROJECT operation of the query will be executed by Informix database server, and the OLAPexpressions are evaluated by Informix Warehouse Accelerator (IWA).
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 42
Which statement accurately describes the selective row-level auditing feature in Informix?
A. Auditing can be configured so that row-level events of only selected views are recorded in the audit trail.
B. Auditing can be configured so that row-level events of only selected tables are recorded in the audit trail.
C. Auditing can be configured so that events of only selected rows within a table are recorded in the audit trail.
D. Auditing can be configured so that row-level events of only selected partitions are recorded in the audit trail.
Answer: B
Which statement describes the behavior of an Informix instance when the IFX_EXTEND_ROLE configuration parameter is set to ON.
A. All users with the EXTEND role can grant it to other users.
B. All users with the default role can register external routines.
C. All users can create external routines in the database server.
D. All users with the EXTEND role can register external routines.
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 44
What security role is required for you to create trusted-context objects?

A. AAO
B. DBSA
C. DBSSO
D. DBSECADM
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 45
Which two technologies use the ENCRYPT_MAC configuration parameter to control the level of message authentication code (MAC) generation? (Choose two.)
A. On-disk encryption
B. Enterprise Replication
C. Column level encryption
D. High-Availability Data Replication
E. Server-to-server distributed query communication
Answer: B,D
Which is a valid Pluggable Authentication Module (PAM) mode in Unix?
A. Login mode
B. Client mode
C. Server mode
D. Password mode
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 47
Which statement accurately describes the mapped user functionality in Informix?
A. The DBSA can control the access to the database at the table level by creating different security labels for each user.
B. The DBSA can create different roles for each user in order to verify whether the user who is attempting an operation has the necessaryprivileges.
C. The DBSA can configure the server to allow database access by external users who do not have operating system accounts on the hostcomputer.
D. The DBSA can grant access to the database server to users of the host computer operating system by implementing different authenticationmechanisms for each user.
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 48
store1, store2, store3 and store4 are defined as four servers participating in a GRID.

Which statement is true?
A. The SELECT query is not a GRID query.
B. The SELECT query will return results from all grid servers.
C. The SELECT query will return results from store1 and store2.
D. The SELECT query will return results from store3 and store4.
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 49
Which value of DRINTERVAL should be used for HDR_TXN_SCOPE configuration parameter to take effect?
A. -1
B. 0
C. 1
D. 30
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 50
Which statement is true for starting Connection Manager?

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QUESTION 21
In preparation for disaster recovery, which technique will establish a system wide point of consistency?
A. An -ARCHIVE LOG SCOPE(GROUP) command.
B. A QUIESCE of the DB2 system catalog and directory.
C. A coordinated shut down all members of a data sharing group.
D. A -SET LOG SUSPEND command on all members of a data sharing group.
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 22
A -STOP DB2 MODE (FORCE) command was used to terminate a DB2 subsystem with inflight remote units-of-work. What happens to the inflight DB2 work?
A. Runs to normal completion and DB2 will shutdown.
B. Runs to the next application checkpoint and DB2 will shutdown.
C. Runs to the next DB2 system checkpoint and DB2 will shutdown.
D. Possibly creates in-doubt units of recovery for threads that are between commit processing phases.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 23
Upon system restart, DB2 encounters a Critical Log Read (CLR) error during the backout of an inflight UR and the restart fails. Table space DB1.TS1 and a few catalog page sets are affected by this UR. What can you do to enable DB2 to restart WITHOUT a conditional restart?
A. Set DSNZPARM BACKODUR to 0 and LBACKOUT to YES.
B. Issue the -START DB2 command with the LIGHT(YES) option.
C. DEFER the restart for this table space using keyword DEFER=ALL in the DSNZPARM module used for this restart.
D. There is no way to restart without a conditional restart if you run into a Critical Log Read error and catalog or directory objects are involved.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 24
Which statement is true regarding the RESTORE SYSTEM utility?
A. INSTALL SYSADM authority is required to run RESTORE SYSTEM.
B. The usage of RESTORE SYSTEM requires a conditional restart control record.
C. Once RESTORE SYSTEM completes successfully all objects are immediately ready for use.
D. If the backup was created using the FULL option, logs are also restored as part of RESTORE SYSTEM operation.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 25
When performing a group restart in a data sharing environment and all members are at the same DB2 version, in which order should this occur?
A. Order is not important and the group restart can be done in parallel.
B. Order is not important but restart should be performed one member at a time.
C. Restart the member with the lowest LRSN and continue restarting other members in ascending LRSN order.
D. Restart the member with the highest LRSN and continue restarting other members in descending LRSN order.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 26
For normal DB2 restart processing, what is the first phase of the restart process?
A. Log initialization.
B. Forward log recovery.
C. Current status rebuild.
D. Backward log recovery.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 27
When restoring a subsystem during disaster recovery, and the ICF user catalog for the DB2 page sets has been imported from a backup and user data sets have not been restored, what step should be executed before recovery of the DB2 page sets can begin?
A. Run installation job DSNTIJIN to define the DB2 system datasets.
B. Use IDCAMS CATALOG command to properly catalog all the data sets.
C. Nothing, DB2 requires the user page set ICF catalog definitions during execution of the RECOVER utility.
D. Use IDCAMS DELETE NOSCRATCH to remove the ICF catalog entries for the DB2 page sets that do not exist on DASD.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 28
A stand-alone DB2 subsystem (not a member of a data sharing group) is suffering from high page latch wait times. Which area(s) do you need to investigate?
A. Page latches are managed by buffer manager so you should analyze the buffer pools.
B. This problem can only occur in a data sharing environment, so it does not apply here as this is a stand-alone DB2 system.
C. Page latches are typically just a symptom of an underlying problem. You must determine what other things are delayed that can also lead to page latch wait problems.
D. You need to identify which latch class is involved, by either looking at DB2 statistics information, or by starting more detailed performance traces (that include IFCID 51/52 (shared latch wait) and/or IFCID 56/57 (exclusive latch waits)) to determine why this is happening.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 29
The -DISPLAY BUFFERPOOL command has an option that can be used to display statistics accumulated

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QUESTION 1
In complex DB2 recovery scenarios, it is important to understand the scope of which objects require recovery.
Which DB2 utility provides a list of the names of all table spaces in the table space set that is specified and a list of all the tables in those table spaces?
A. CHECK
B. REPORT
C. QUIESCE
D. RECOVER
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 2
The -ALTER UTILITY command changes the values of certain parameters of a utility.
Which two utilities can this command be issued against?
A. COPY
B. REORG
C. MODIFY
D. REBUILD
E. RECOVER
Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 3
You execute the following SQL against the CDB (Communications Database) of your DB2 subsystem:

INSERT INTO SYSIBM.IPNAMES

(UNKNAME.SECURITY_OUT.USERNAMES,IBMREQD.IPADDR) VALUES (‘REMOTEDB’. ‘P\ ‘O’. ‘N’,
*123.34.45.56′);
INSERT INTO SYSIBM.IPLIST (LINKNAMEJPADDRJBMREQD) VALUES (‘REMOTEDB’, ‘123.34.45.56’,
*N’);
INSERT INTO SYSIBM.IPLIST (LINKNAMEJPADDRJBMREQD) VALUES C REMOTEDB’, ‘123.34.45.57’,
‘N’);
INSERT INTO SYSIBM.USERNAMES
(TYPE,AUTHID.LINKNAME,NEWAUTHID.PASSWORD,IBMREQD) VALUES (T, ‘USER1’.
‘USER2\ “, ,PWD2,1 *N’);
INSERT INTO SYSIBM.USERNAMES
(TYPE,AUTHID.LINKNAME,NEWAUTHID.PASSWORDJBMREQD) VALUES (‘O’, ‘USER1’. ‘USER3′, *’,
‘PWD3’, ‘N’);
There is no trusted connection to REMOTEDB. USER1 issues a query addressing remote data source
REMOTEDB on your DB2 subsystem.

Which authorization id will be used on the remote data source REMOTEDB?

A. USER1
B. USER2
C. USER3
D. USER4
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 4
Which combination of subsystem parameter values will enable connection pooling for idle distributed database access threads?
A. Specify subsystem parameter CMTSTAT = ACTIVE and set CONDBAT = MAXDBAT.
B. Specify subsystem parameter CMTSTAT = INACTIVE and set CONDBAT < MAXDBAT.
C. Specify subsystem parameter CMTSTAT = ACTIVE and set CONDBAT > MAXDBAT.
D. Specify subsystem parameter CMTSTAT = INACTIVE and set CONDBAT >MAXDBAT.
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 5
You wish to set the threshold at which data in the class castout queue is cast out to disk for group buffer pool GBP10. You want the threshold to be 1000 pages.
Which parameter setting in the command -ALTER GBPOOL(GBP10) will accomplish this?
A. GBPOOLT(10)
B. CLASST(0.1000)
C. CLASST(10.1000)

D. GBPCHKPT(1000)
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 6
Which action should you take to improve the performance of authorization checking for stored procedures or user-defined functions?
A. Set subsystem parameter EXTSEC to YES.
B. Increase the value of subsystem parameter SECQTY.
C. Increase the value of subsystem parameter AUTHCACH.
D. Increase the value of subsystem parameter CACHERAC.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 7
You want to temporarily switch-off one of your trusted contexts. How can this be accomplished?
A. DROP TRUSTED CONTEXT…
B. -STOP DB(DSNDB06) TS(SYSCONTX)
C. ALTER TRUSTED CONTEXT … DISABLE
D. -STOP TRACE(AUDIT) AUDTPLCY(TRUSTED_CONTEXT)
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 8
Your database administrators plan to start using XML and they plan to have the XML documents being
validated using type modifiers.
You must make sure that they are able to make XSR schemas available for this.
Which stored procedure(s), if any, must at least be created and functioning for that?

A. XSR_REGISTER
B. XSR_REGISTER, XSR_COMPLETE
C. No stored procedures need to be created.

D. XSR REGISTER. XSR COMPLETE. XSR ADDSCHEMADOC
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 9
A column mask is defined on TB_A. Which statement runs successfully?
A. SELECT ‘ FROM TB_A UNION ALL SELECT ‘ FROM TB_B
B. SELECT ‘ FROM TB_A INTERSECT SELECT * FROM TB_B
C. SELECT ‘ FROM TB_A EXCEPT ALL SELECT ‘ FROM TB_B

D. SELECT’FROM TB A INTERSECT ALL SELECT * FROM TB B
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 10
Which subsystem parameter setting allows connection queuing?
A. IDTHTOIN>0
B. CONDBAT>0
C. POOLINAC>0

D. MAXCONGN > 0
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 11
In a data-sharing environment, what is the first step to prepare for a DB2 RESTORE SYSTEM to a point in time?
A. Stop all DB2 members.
B. Stop one DB2 member.
C. Do not stop any DB2 members.
D. Stop only the member where RESTORE SYSTEM will run.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 12
Which subsystem parameter is used to enable the RECOVER utility to use system-level backups as a recovery base?
A. RESTORE_TAPEUNITS
B. SYSTEM_LEVEL_BACKUPS
C. UTILS_DUMP_CLASS_NAME
D. RESTORE _ RECOVER_ FROMDUMP
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 13
You wish to enable automatic clean-up of committed pseudo-deleted index entries for all indexes in the DB2 subsystem. You have verified that system table SYSIBM.SYSINDEXCLEANUP has no rows.
Without taking any other action, which action will accomplish this?
A. Set subsystem parameter INDEX_CLEANUP_THREADS to 10.
B. Set subsystem parameter INDEX_CLEANUP_THREADS to YES.
C. Issue an ALTER INDEX statement against all indexes with ERASE YES.
D. Issue an ALTER INDEX statement against all indexes with FREEPAGE 0.
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 14

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QUESTION 1
Renovations Inc. has two IBM Sametime Community Servers configured in a clustered environment.
Why are the users being re-directed to the primary Sametime Community Server only?
A. The secondary node is running with a lower fixpack level than the primary node.
B. The Sametime administrator has stopped the secondary node to apply a recommended fixpack.
C. The LTPA key on the secondary node that is being shared between the Sametime Community servers is corrupt.
D. The Sametime administrator has given users the load balancer IP address instead of the secondary node IP address.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 2
What is the maximum number of IBM Sametime Community Servers that can be clustered?
A. 2
B. 3
C. 6
D. The Sametime Community Server has no limits regarding the number of servers that can be clustered.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 3
Which two IBM Sametime 9.0 Media Server components can be installed on the same server?
A. Video MCU
B. Video Manager
C. SIP Edge Server
D. SIP Proxy/Registrar
E. Conference Manager

Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 4
What is the relationship between an IBM Sametime Gateway and external Sametime Communities?
A. A Sametime Gateway can connect to only one Sametime Community.
B. A Sametime Community can connect to multiple Sametime Gateways.
C. A Sametime Gateway can connect to multiple Sametime Communities.
D. A Sametime Community can optionally connect directly to other external Sametime Communities without using a Sametime Gateway.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 5
John is configuring the IPv6 on the IBM Sametime Community Server hosted on his Windows 2008 operating system. All prerequisites are complete.
Which file needs to be updated?
A. notes.ini
B. ststart.sh
C. sametime.ini
D. wimconfig.xml

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 6
What is the requirement when configuring single sign-on for IBM Sametime 9.0 under the Global Security -Single Sign-on (SSO) section?
A. Under Interoperability Mode – LTPA V1 Cookie name must be added as LtpaToken.
B. Under Global Security > Single Sign-On (SSO), “Requires SSL” should be selected.
C. Under Global Security > Single Sign-On (SSO) – LTPA V2 Cookie Name is not needed.
D. Under Global Security > Single Sign-On (SSO). select “Set Security cookies to HTTPOnly to help prevent cross-site script attacks”.

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 7
What IBM Sametime Media Manager component can be clustered?
A. Video MCU
B. TURN Server
C. SIP Proxy/Registrar
D. IBM WebSphere Proxy Server

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 8
Why would an IBM Sametime administrator run a standalone IBM WebSphere Proxy Server on a different machine than the Sametime Meeting Servers?
A. to share the same file system
B. to off-load the performance impact on the Sametime Meeting Server, avoid port conflicts, and for load-balancing benefits
C. to comply with the Sametime 9.0 requirement that a standalone IBM WebSphere Proxy Server run on a different machine than the Sametime Meeting Servers
D. to run a supported configuration as Sametime Meeting Servers and WebSphere Proxy Servers running on the same machine are not supported in a virtualized environment

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 9
What is a required component for telephony in an IBM Sametime Unified Telephony installation?
A. PBX
B. PSTN
C. TURN Server
D. Sametime Gateway

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 10
Avery must install IBM Sametime Proxy services.
Which statement is true about what the Proxy Server is responsible for?

A. hosts the Sametime embedded client and mobile devices
B. provides the same functionality as the IBM WebSphere Proxy
C. provides live names awareness for Sametime Meetings, Business Cards, and custom applications
D. communicates with the Community Server, but does not provide support for mobile devices with the current release of the product

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 11
David is troubleshooting a clustered IBM Sametime Audio/Video infrastructure. IBM Support has asked David to modify the stavconfig.xml for the Conference Focus Manager.
Where should David modify the stavconfig.xml file?
A. Node agent
B. Application Server
C. Deployment Manager
D. IBM WebSphere Proxy Server

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 12
What is a required protocol for IBM Sametime?
A. Banyan Vines
B. File Transfer Protocol (FTP)
C. AppleTalk address resolution protocol (AARP)
D. Transmission Control Protocol/Internet Protocol (TCP/IP)

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 13
Which operating system supports the IBM Sametime Proxy 9.0 Server?
A. Windows Server 2003
B. Windows Server 2008
C. IBM i 5.4 POWER System
D. RedHat Enterprise Linux Server 5.1

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 14
Charles is unable to use port 80 for his HTTP connection to his IBM Sametime Community Server. Which port should he use instead as the default tunneling port for the IBM Domino HTTP Server?
A. 8062
B. 8080
C. 8088
D. 8092
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 15
What TCP port does an administrator need to ensure is accessible between servers when deploying multiple IBM Sametime Community Servers to allow chat services to work across multiple servers?
A. 80
B. 1516
C. 1533
D. 8038

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 16
Users are reporting that they are unable to log into IBM Sametime Instant Messaging using single sign-on (SSO) from their IBM Notes client. However, they are still able to authenticate if they type in the user name and password. The LDAP administrator has indicated that some attributes were accidentally deleted from the schema and needs to be restored.
Which attribute needs to be restored to re-enable SSO?
A. Uid
B. mail
C. notesdn
D. dominounid

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 17
Which two properties files need to edited before manually registering/unregistering an IBM Sametime 9.0 server component?
A. SSCHost.properties and productConfig.properties
B. console.properties and productConfig.properties
C. productConfig.properties and NodeConfig.properties
D. sametime.properties and productConfiguration.properties

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 18
When creating a deployment plan for an IBM Sametime Meeting Server, which describes the configuration information required?
A. TCP port information for FTP of audio files
B. cell information where the Sametime Meeting Server will be included
C. operating system file system type where capture server files will be stored
D. TCP port information for FTP and document conversion server information

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 19
Which must be done on an IBM Domino server running on Microsoft Windows 2008 or later before installing a standalone IBM Sametime Community 9.0 Server?
A. Enable LDAP.
B. Disable unused TCP global settings.
C. Specify “Instant messaging server” for users in the directory.
D. Set “Is this a Sametime server?” to “Yes” in the Domino Server document.

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 20
IBM WebSphere Application Server requires a hostname specification during installation, profile creation, and for some configuration activities.
What is one of the files that an administrator would edit to make a hostname change?
A. hostname.xml
B. virtualhost.xml
C. serverhost.xml
D. serverindex.xml

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 21
When installing IBM DB2 on Microsoft Windows, which DB2 script is used for creating the IBM Sametime System Console tables?
A. createSCDb.bat
B. populateSSC.bat
C. createSSCTable.bat
D. updateSSCSchema.bat

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 22
Paul, an IBM Sametime architect, has implemented a new Sametime 9.0 infrastructure. As part of this new deployment he needs to switch users to this new default community which points to their new user directory based on LDAP.
What steps does he need to follow to successfully make the change on his clients’ base?
A. Add the new host information to the managed-settings.xml. The clients will need to be restarted for the change to take effect.
B. Paul will need to set the new community name in the managed-settings.xml and configure a desktop policy to reset the users.
C. A “reset” action needs to be configured in the managed-community-configs.xml file referencing the existing community name.
D. A “createNewConfig” action needs to be configured in the managed-community-configs.xml file pointing to the new community name.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 23
What signaling protocol is supported by IBM Sametime for audio/video sessions?
A. SIP
B. PSTN
C. H.239
D. H.323

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 24
Meshack is installing an IBM Sametime Gateway server. He has to create database tables and schema on an IBM DB2 machine called STGW as part of the install tasks.
What must Meshack do before proceeding with additional install tasks?
A. He must create a DB2 database called STgateway before proceeding with creation of tables and schema.
B. He must ensure that the database name and the machine name on which DB2 has been installed are the same, otherwise the install will fail.
C. He must change the name of the database in the database creation script since the default database name, STGW, cannot be the same as the machine name.
D. He must change the machine name on which DB2 is installed to a fully
E. He must change the machine name on which DB2 is installed to a fully qualified name
STGW.renovations.com before proceeding with creation of tables and schema. Correct Answer: A QUESTION 25 Luis is planning to install and configure IBM Sametime 9.0 Meetings using IBM Tivoli Directory Server as the LDAP server for search and authentication.
Which LDAP attribute must Luis make sure is available on each user entry for Sametime to work properly?
A. mail
B. UUID
C. InternetAddress
D. sAMAccountName

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 26
What is the purpose for the TURN server?
A. to provide audio/video connections on a flat network
B. to provide meeting services between internal and external users
C. to provide instant messaging between internal and external users
D. to provide audio/video connections between internal and external users

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 27
Which IBM DB2 version(s) is(are) supported by IBM Sametime 9.0?
A. Any version is supported.
B. IBM DB2 Workgroup Server Edition 9.7 and later are supported.
C. Only the DB2 version provided with the Sametime 9.0 package is supported.
D. IBM DB2 10.1 – Limited Use is the only version supported with Sametime 9.0.

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 28
Which step(s) need(s) to be completed in order for an IBM Sametime Meeting Server to access files stored on an IBM Connections server?
A. Configure separate login properties for Files integration.
B. Set up single sign-on between the Sametime Meeting Server and the Connections server running Files.
C. Import a copy of the Files server’s SSL certificate to the Sametime Community and Sametime Meeting Servers.
D. Configure Files integration on the Sametime Meeting Server and grant operating system read access to the Connections administrator ID.

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 29
What is the purpose of the IBM Sametime Provisioning Application?
A. Registers a company’s Sametime with AOL.
B. Registers a company’s Sametime Gateway in DNS.
C. Registers a company’s Sametime Gateway with Yahoo.
D. Registers a company’s Sametime Gateway with the XMPP Server Directory.

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QUESTION 1
If the following command is executed: CREATE DATABASE test What is the page size (in kilobytes) of the database?
A. 4
B. 8
C. 16
D. 32
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 2
Given the following DDL statement: CREATE TABLE sales (item CHAR(20)); If a DBA wishes to increase the size of the ITEM column, which SQL statement needs to be used?
A. ALTER TABLE sales ADD COLUMN item CHAR(40);
B. ALTER TABLE sales ALTER COLUMN item CHAR(40);
C. ALTER TABLE sales MODIFY COLUMN item CHAR(40);
D. ALTER TABLE sales ALTER COLUMN item SET DATA TYPE CHAR(40);

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 3
Which DB2 object can be used to improve the execution performance of qualified SELECT statements?
A. Trigger
B. SQL Procedure
C. Sequence Object
D. Materialized Query Table

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 4
When is it appropriate to use a sequence?
A. When you want to control the order in which triggers are fired.
B. When you want to control the order in which stored procedures can be invoked.
C. When you want to automatically generate a numeric value that is not tied to any specific column or table.
D. When you want to automatically generate a numeric value for each row that is added to a specific table.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 5
Which clause should be included in a ALTER TABLE statement to update a table definition with a new column?
A. ADD COLUMN
B. ALTER COLUMN
C. APPEND COLUMN
D. RENAME COLUMN
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 6
Which object is a stored procedure defined into?
A. Table
B. Schema
C. Package
D. Database

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 7
Which action needs to be performed in order to complete the definition of an application-period temporal table?
A. A transaction-start-id column must be defined for the table.
B. A history table must be defined and associated with the base table.
C. A BUSINESS_TIME period must be specified in a CREATE or ALTER of the table.
D. A unique index must be created that prevents overlapping of the BUSINESS_TIME period of the table.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 8
What functionality allows users to perform a UNION operation between a DB2 table and an Oracle view?
A. Oracle connect
B. Trusted context
C. Oracle federation
D. Distributed request

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 9
You have a business need to query DB2 10 and DB2 9 databases and you want to write an application that can run on most platforms unchanged. Which interface would you use to achieve your goal?
A. CLI
B. XML
C. JDBC
D. RUBY
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 10
Which DB2 object is used to provide a logical grouping of other database objects?
A. Alias
B. Index
C. Schema
D. Collection
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 11
What are two valid objects that can be created in DB2? (Choose two.)
A. Tree
B. Node
C. Trigger
D. Contexts
E. Sequence
Correct Answer: CE QUESTION 12
Which type of temporal table can be used to store only time-sensitive data?
A. Bitemporal
B. Time-period
C. System-period
D. Application-period

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 13
When an index is created for a table, where is the metadata for that index stored?
A. In the table definition.
B. In the system catalog.
C. In the schema that the index resides in.
D. In the metadata of the table the index was created for.

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 14
Which product is used to customize execution environments for the purpose of controlling system resources so that one department or service class does not overwhelm the system?
A. pureScale
B. Workload manager
C. Data partitioning feature
D. Self-tuning memory manager

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 15
What type of mechanism is a simple token value that is used to refer to a much bigger large object (LOB)?
A. locator
B. pointer
C. address
D. reference

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 16
What type of large object (LOB) is used to store LOB data together with the formatted rows on data pages, instead of in a separate LOB storage object?
A. inline
B. binary
C. internal
D. partitioned Correct Answer: A QUESTION 17
What is the purpose of the Query Tuner?
A. To automatically capture and stop rogue queries.
B. To provide recommendations and analysis for tuning a single query.
C. To provide recommendations and analysis for tuning up to 100 queries.
D. To recommend indexes and to guide DBAs through the process of creating new indexes.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 18
Which tool allows users to connect to a DB2 database using a wizard?
A. Control Center
B. IBM Data Studio
C. Universal Connection Expert
D. DB2 Connection Pool Manager

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 19
Which two activities indicate the need for a data warehouse? (Choose two.)
A. Confirm product inventory.
B. Monitor product availability.
C. Summarize sales by region.
D. Identify patterns for products sold in the last five years.
E. Associate one or more products with a purchase order.

Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 20
What is the primary function of an Online Transaction Processing (OLTP) workload?
A. To combine data from multiple sources.
B. To discover hidden relationships in data.
C. To analyze large amounts of data to find patterns.
D. To make changes to a small number of records within a single transaction.
Correct Answer: D

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QUESTION NO: 1
An administrator is not able to access a database on an IBM Domino server as he/she receives the error “You are not authorized to access that database”. What can the administrator do to access that database?
A. Switch IDs to the server ID then try to access the database.
B. Turn on “Full Access Administration” then try to access the database.
C. Run maintenance (fixup, compact, updall) against the database in question.
D. Try to modify the Access Control List of the database by selecting the database in the Files tab of the administrator client.

Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 2
What is a requirement for implementing the IBM Notes password expiration of Notes users?
A. Notes shared login must be enabled.
B. Users must have their ID in the Notes ID vault.
C. Password checking must be enabled on the IBM Domino server.
D. Password expiration must be configured via a Policy and Person document.
Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 3
What encryption standard has been introduced in IBM Domino 9.0 Social Edition?
A. Secure Hash Algorithm (SHA-2)
B. Wired Equivalent Privacy (WEP)
C. Advanced Encryption Standard (AES)
D. Federal Information Processing Standard (FIPS)
Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 4

Where is an X.509 certificate, which is used to sign and encrypt SMTP mail, stored?
A. in the notes.ini
B. in the IBM Notes ID file
C. in the Personal Names and Address Book of a user
D. in the Person document in the IBM Domino Directory
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 5
What is used to determine the level of access users and servers have to a database?
A. Policy settings
B. Server document
C. Access Control List
D. Execution Control List
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 6
Other than the IBM Domino Directory, what happens to documents in databases when the Administration Process performs a Rename Person or a Delete Person request?
A. Names in all fields are updated.
B. Nothing. Only the Domino Directory is updated.
C. Names in Readers and Authors fields are updated where the Administration server has been defined.
D. Names in Readers and Authors fields are updated where the Administration server has been defined and where the server setting “Modify fields of type Reader or Author” is set.
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 7
Charles is the ID Vault administrator. What role in the ID Vault database would allow Charles to extract ID files and gain access to users’ encrypted data?
A. [Auditor]
B. [User Access]
C. [Password reset]
D. [Vault Administrator]
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 8
When would an administrator typically need to adjust the java.policy file?
A. when an administrator wants to control what JVM version is installed on the client machine
B. when an administrator wants to control updates to the JVM version on an IBM Domino server
C. when an administrator needs to adjust the permissions for a Java applet running within a webpage
D. when an administrator needs to adjust the permissions for a Java agent, process or XPage running Java code
Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 9
Where is username and password information stored following successful session authentication?
A. browser cache
B. browser cookie
C. browser volatile memory
D. nowhere, as this would be a security risk
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 10
What is a limitation of implementing IBM Notes Shared Login (NSL)?
A. NSL cannot be implemented on 64-bit operating systems.
B. When NSL is enabled, Notes ID vault cannot be implemented.
C. NSL cannot be implemented through the use of a security policy.
D. When NSL is enabled, IBM Domino password policies cannot be implemented.
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 11
The idpcat.nsf will contain which document(s) with the SAML configuration?
A. IdP assertion document(s)
B. SAML assertion document(s)
C. IdP configuration document(s)
D. SAML configuration document(s)
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 12
Which minimum access level must a user have in order to view a database ACL?
A. Editor
B. Author
C. Reader
D. Manager
Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 13

What is the minimum level of access that a CA administrator must have to the IBM Domino Directory?
A. Editor
B. Author
C. Manager
D. Designer
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 14
How does the Protected Groups feature work?
A. The defined group(s) will be protected from receiving mail with attachments.
B. The defined group(s) cannot be accidentally deleted from the user’s local directory.
C. The defined group(s) cannot be accidentally deleted from the IBM Domino Directory.
D. The defined group(s) will be protected from mass mailings originating from their home server.
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 15
What two statements are true about the ID recovery process? (Choose two.)
A. Can be used to recover user ID files.
B. Can be used to recover certifier ID files.
C. Can be used to recover internet passwords.
D. It removes the need for IDs to be stored on the local user’s machine.
E. ID recovery administrators do not have to be IBM Domino administrators.
Answer: A,E QUESTION NO: 16

An administrator would like to secure internet passwords in his IBM Domino environment. Which feature can the administrator implement to secure access to internet passwords stored in the Domino Directory?
A. Use the ACL.
B. Configure an internet site.
C. Enforce internet password expiration.
D. Use the more secure internet password format.
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 17
What is a credential store?
A. The credential store is a secure repository where IBM Notes ID files are stored for roaming users.
B. The credential store is a secure repository for encryption keys necessary for IBM Domino to set up SSO with other applications.
C. The credential store is a secure repository for encryption keys necessary for Notes client users to be able to send and receive encrypted mail messages.
D. The credential store is a secure repository for document encryption keys and other tokens necessary for Notes client users to grant access to applications that use the OAuth protocol.
Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 18
How can an administrator allow two IBM Domino organizations to trust one another?
A. Enable key rollover
B. Create a cross-certificate
C. Enable certificate authority
D. Add the organization into the ACL of the Domino Directory
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 19
What is the highest level of bit encryption that IBM Domino can generate SSL certificate requests in?
A. 512
B. 1,024
C. 2,048
D. 4,096
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 20
When replacing a database design, what does the “Hide formulas and LotusScript” option do?
A. Hides the design of all elements from the user.
B. Prevents the user from running agents in debug mode only.
C. Hides the design of formula and LotusScript agents only from the user.
D. Removes the source code of all agents and script libraries from the database.
Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 21
What does an IBM Domino administrator use to configure server key rollover?
A. server’s ID properties dialog
B. Administration tab of the Server document
C. Keys and Certificates tab of the Security Settings document
D. Certify New Key Requests view of the Administration Requests database Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 22
Trisha has created an ID vault on one of the servers that is not the IBM Domino Directory Administration server. Why is she unable to see the Vault document and other vault-related documents in the Domino Directory?
A. She should refresh the view for the documents to show up immediately.
B. Those documents will not be added to the Domino Directory until the AdminP task is run manually.
C. Those documents will not be added to the Domino Directory until they have replicated from the Domino Directory Administration server.
D. Those documents will not be added to the Domino Directory until they have replicated from the hub server, which does not have to be the Domino Directory Administration server.
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 23
Jeff is a developer and would like to sign an XPage to run on an IBM Domino server. What is the lowest level of access privilege he needs in order for the XPage to run?
A. Run restricted LotusScript/Java agents.
B. Sign agents to run on behalf of someone else.
C. Sign XPages to run on behalf of the builder of the XPage.
D. Sign agents or XPages to run on behalf of the invoker of the agent.
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 24

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QUESTION NO: 1
What type of Web Site rule can be used to provide user-friendly aliases for complex URLs?
A. Rewrite
B. Directory
C. Redirection
D. Substitution

Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 2
Which statement is true for the IBM Notes 9.0 Basic client?
A. The Notes 9.0 Basic client is available for Windows only.
B. The Notes 9.0 Basic client is available for Windows and Mac only.
C. The Notes 9.0 Basic client is available for Windows and Linux only.
D. The Notes 9.0 Basic client is available for Windows, Mac, and Linux.
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 3
Which hidden view in the Domain Catalog can an administrator use to find which databases are included in the domain index?
A. $MultiDbIndex
B. $DbCategories
C. $DocumentContent
D. $DomainRepository
Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 4

Kaitlin has had DAOS running for a few months on her server, but now wishes to change where the files are stored. How can she do this?
A. This is not possible. Once the DAOS service is configured the location of the repository cannot be moved.
B. Update the “DAOS base path” field in the Server document to the new location. Restart the server. The files will automatically be copied to the new location.
C. Update the “DAOS base path” field in the Server document to the new location. Stop the server. Copy the files from the old directory to the new location at the operating-system level. Restart the server.
D. Stop the server. Create a linked folder in the current DAOS repository location pointing at the new destination. Copy the files from the old directory to the new location at the operating-system level. Restart the server.
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 5
When a user tries to access a database on a server that is unavailable, IBM Domino will attempt to redirect the user to a replica of the database on another server in the cluster. Which Domino server task determines the availability on each cluster server?
A. Server Balancer
B. Cluster Manager
C. Failover Manager
D. Workload Balancer
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 6
What template must be used when creating secondary address books for use by Directory Assistance?
A. da.ntf
B. dircat.ntf
C. names.ntf
D. pubnames.ntf Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 7
An administrator wants to install an IBM Domino server on multiple machines with no user intervention. How can this be achieved?
A. Make use of the Domino silent install.
B. Run the Domino server install from a command prompt.
C. Run the Domino installation multiple times from each machine.
D. Install the Domino server on one machine and then copy the files to the remaining machines.
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 8
Once a Directory Assistance database is created and replicated to a server, what must be done before the database can be utilized by the server?
A. The LDAP task must be restarted.
B. The Administration Process must be invoked.
C. The Extended Directory Catalog configuration document must be updated.
D. The Server document must be updated and the IBM Domino server must be restarted.
Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 9
Clive is using an IBM Lotus Notes 7.0 client and needs to access a database that has been saved with the latest ODS revision. Can he do this?
A. Yes, as long as the file is stored locally.
B. No, ODS revisions are not backward compatible.
C. Yes, as long as the file is retrieved via an IBM Domino server and not locally.
D. Yes, ODS revisions are backward compatible regardless of where the file is retrieved from.
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 10
Which file type must be made available via HTTP to deploy a self-signed SSL certificate to IBM Lotus Notes Traveler users?
A. .cer
B. .key
C. .ssl
D. .ver
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 11
What can a user do from the Discover Page?
A. Search her mail file for information she would like to find.
B. Search her entire desktop for information she would like to find.
C. See e-mails, posts, and other data that she may find interesting based on the integrated analytics engine.
D. See information about new features, get helpful hints on using IBM Notes, and quickly access her Notes applications.
Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 12
Katie has set up a Resource Reservations database and would like to allow certain users to create resource documents. How should she do this?
A. No further action is required. All users can create resources by default.
B. List the users’ names in the access control list (ACL) of the Resource Reservations database.
C. List the users’ names in the ACL of the Resource Reservations database and assign them the [ResourceAdmin] role.
D. List the users’ names in the ACL of the Resource Reservations database and assign them the [CreateResource] role.
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 13
Craig administers two IBM Domino servers: DomServerA and DomServerB. He’s recently had to change the hostname of DomServerB, and since then DomServerA is no longer able to connect to it. What is a likely explanation for this?
A. The hostname cache on DomServerA needs to be flushed.
B. DomServerA needs to be restarted in order to see DomServerB’s new hostname.
C. DomServerA needs the hostname of DomServerB changed in its Connection document.
D. DomServerB needs the hostname of DomServerA changed in its Connection document.
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 14
Mitchell wishes to disable transaction logging for a particular database on a server with transaction logging enabled. However, he cannot see the Advanced Database Properties to do so. What is the cause of this?
A. He is not in the “Administrators” field on the server document.
B. He cannot selectively turn off transaction logging for individual databases.
C. Transaction logging can only be disabled per document, not for an entire database.
D. He must add the notes.ini parameter to the server: DisableTransLog=[name of database].
Answer: A QUESTION NO: 15

What is the minimum level of access required for a user to create a full-text index on a single database?
A. Editor
B. Manager
C. Designer
D. Administrator
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 16
Paul has configured Directory Assistance to use the cluster failover method. How did he configure this?
A. He specified a single replica of a directory in the Directory Assistance database.
B. He specified all replicas located in the cluster of a directory in the Directory Assistance database.
C. He specified all replicas located in the domain of a directory in the Directory Assistance database.
D. He specified a numerical search order for all replicas in the domain of a directory in the Directory Assistance database.
Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 17
What type of directory catalog can be used with Directory Assistance?
A. Domain Catalog
B. Personal Address Book
C. Extended Directory Catalog
D. Condensed Directory Catalog
Answer: C QUESTION NO: 18

What changes are required to run IBM Notes applications in a browser using the Notes Browser Plug-in?
A. None, the Notes Browser Plug-in allows Notes applications to run unmodified in a browser.
B. The Notes Browser Plug-in requires that Notes applications be modified to support XPages.
C. The Notes Browser Plug-in requires that Notes applications be converted using the Browser Plug-in Application Tool (BPAT).
D. The Notes Browser Plug-in allows Notes applications to run in a browser if the Plug-in is listed in the ACL.
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 19
What behavior can be expected if servers are placed in the same IBM Notes Names Network?
A. Servers are able to communicate more efficiently.
B. Replication automatically occurs between servers.
C. Mail routing automatically occurs between servers.
D. Servers using different networking protocols can communicate without using Connection documents.
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 20
Julie, the IBM Domino administrator, wishes to simplify the IBM Notes mail connection topology in her organization. She has numerous Connection documents she wishes to consolidate on her hub server. Which would be the best solution?
A. Add a Connection document with a wildcard as the source server and the hub as the destination.
B. Add the hostname of each destination server into the hub server notes.ini and remove all the Connection documents.
C. Change the topology to have each spoke connect to the hub server and have a new Connection document created for each spoke
D. Modify the server configuration documents for each spoke server adding the hub server as a destination domain for all Notes mail routing.
Answer: A

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