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QUESTION NO: 1
Given the statement shown below:
SELECT ROW CHANGE TOKEN FOR dept, RID_BIT (dept)
FROM dept WHERE deptno = ‘A00’ WITH UR
Which two statements are true? (Choose two.)
A. The statement is selecting two columns from DEPT table.
B. The statement will allow the latest ROW CHANGE TOKEN value to be returned.
C. The statement will allow the earliest ROW CHANGE TOKEN value to be returned.
D. The statement will return a TIMESTAMP value.
E. The statement uses optimistic locking.
Answer: B,E Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 2
Which CREATE PROCEDURE statement option should be used if you plan on issuing a DECLARE GLOBAL TEMPORARY TABLE statement from within the SQL procedure body?
A. CONTAINS SQL
B. READS SQL DATA
C. MODIFIES SQL DATA
D. LANGUAGE SQL
Answer: C Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 3
Click the Exhibit button.
CREATE PROCEDURE testproc( IN i1 INT, INOUT i3 INT) SPECIFIC testproc BEGIN SET i3 = i1; END CREATE PROCEDURE testproc( IN i1 INT, INOUT i2 INT, INOUT i3 INT) SPECIFIC testp BEGIN SET i3 = i1 * i2; END
Given that the statements in the exhibits have executed successfully, which solution contains the complete set of commands that could be used to drop both procedures in the order presented?
A. DROP PROCEDURE testp; DROP PROCEDURE testp;
B. DROP PROCEDURE testp; DROP PROCEDURE testproc;
C. DROP SPECIFIC PROCEDURE testproc; DROP PROCEDURE testproc;
D. DROP PROCEDURE testproc(INT);
Answer: C Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 4
Click the Exhibit button.
CREATE FUNCTION sum(a INT, b INT)
RETURNS INTEGER
SPECIFIC sum_of_2
RETURN a + b;

CREATE FUNCTION sum(a INT, b INT, c INT)
RETURNS INTEGER
SPECIFIC sum_of_3
RETURN a + b + c;
Given the two functions in the exhibit, what is the correct command to invoke the function which calculates the sum of two numbers from an SQL procedure?
A. SELECT sum_of_2 FROM table1;
B. SELECT sum(2,4,?);
C. SET res_sum = sum(2,6);
D. CALL sum(?,?,?);
Answer: C Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 5
Given the statements shown below:
DECLARE c_dept CURSOR WITH HOLD FOR
SELECT * FROM dept;
OPEN c_dept;
Which two conditions are true? (Choose two.)
A. C_DEPT will remain open after a ROLLBACK.
B. C_DEPT will remain open after a COMMIT.
C. C_DEPT will be returned to the caller of the routine.
D. C_DEPT will be positioned before the next logical row.
E. All locks held by C_DEPT will be released after a COMMIT.
Answer: B,D Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 6
Given the SQL statement shown below:
DECLARE test CURSOR FOR SELECT hiredate FROM employee FOR UPDATE;
Which statement correctly describes the cursor that is created?
A. The cursor will be considered a read-only cursor.
B. The cursor can only be used to perform positioned updates.
C. The cursor can only be used to perform positioned deletes.
D. The cursor can be used to perform positioned updates and deletes.
Answer: D Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 7
Which statement can be used to define an array of 30 names that have a maximum size of 25 characters each?
A. CREATE TYPE names AS VARCHAR(25) ARRAY[30];
B. CREATE ARRAY names[30] VARCHAR(25);
C. CREATE TYPE names[30] VARCHAR(25);
D. CREATE ARRAY names AS VARCHAR(25);
Answer: A Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 8
What will be the initial value of V_MAX in the declaration statement shown below? DECLARE v_max DECIMAL(9,2);
A. 0.0

B. 2
C. 9
D. NULL
Answer: D Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 9
Which statement should be used to declare an array with at most 10 elements of type INTEGER?
A. DECLARE sub_total INTEGER[10];
B. DECLARE sub_total[10] INTEGER;
C. CREATE TYPE sub_total AS INTEGER[10];
D. CREATE TYPE sub_total[10] AS INTEGER;
Answer: C Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 10
What are two valid DECLARE statements in an SQL procedure? (Choose two.)
A. DECLARE var1 INTEGER;
B. DECLARE var1 DECIMAL [9];
C. DECLARE var1 XML;
D. DECLARE var1 CURRENT DATE;
E. DECLARE var1[10] INTEGER;
Answer: A,C Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 11
Which steps must be followed to return a result set from an SQL procedure?
A. 1. Create the procedure using the DYNAMIC RESULT SETS clause.
2.
Declare the cursor.

3.
Open the cursor in the SQL procedure.

4.
Close the cursor.

5.
Return to the application.
B. 1. Create the procedure using the DYNAMIC RESULT SETS clause.
2.
Declare the cursor using the WITH RETURN clause.

3.
Open the cursor in the SQL procedure.

4.
Return to the application.
C. 1. Create the procedure using the WITH RETURN clause.
2.
Declare the cursor using the DYNAMIC RESULT SETS clause.

3.
Open the cursor in the SQL procedure.

4.
Return to the application.
D. 1. Create the procedure using the WITH RETURN clause.
2.
Declare the cursor using the DYNAMIC RESULT SETS clause.

3.
Open the cursor in the SQL procedure.

4.
Close the cursor.
Answer: B Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 12
Which statement can be used to declare a variable inside an SQL procedure that can be used to represent a monetary value?
A. DECLARE v_money MONEY;
B. DECLARE v_money DOUBLE;
C. DECLARE v_money DECIMAL(9,2);
D. DECLARE v_money CURRENCY;
Answer: C Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 13
What are two valid special registers? (Choose two.)
A. CURRENT_CLIENT_ACCT
B. CURRENT_SCHEMA
C. CURRENT_PATH
D. CURRENT_DATETIME
E. CURRENT_PARTITION
Answer: B,C Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 14
Which statement will successfully create an SQL procedure that returns the name of the current month?
A. CREATE PROCEDURE proc.current_month(OUT month VARCHAR(20))
BEGIN
DECLARE today DATE;
SET (today = CURRENT_DATE);
SET month = MONTHNAME(today);
END

B. CREATE PROCEDURE proc.current_month(OUT month VARCHAR(20))
BEGIN
DECLARE today DATE;
SELECT (CURRENT_DATE) INTO today;
SET month = MONTHNAME(today);
END

C. CREATE PROCEDURE proc.current_month(OUT month VARCHAR(20))
BEGIN
DECLARE today DATE;
VALUES (CURRENT_DATE) INTO today;
SET month = MONTHNAME(today);
END

D. CREATE PROCEDURE proc.current_month(OUT month VARCHAR(20))
BEGIN
SET month = MONTHNAME(SELECT (CURRENT_DATE))
END

Answer: C Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 15
Which statement will assign the schema names “SYSIBM”, “SYSFUN”, “SYSPROC”, and “SYSIBMADM” to the CURRENT_PATH special register?
A. SET PATH = SYSTEM PATH
B. SET CURRENT_PATH = DEFAULT
C. SET PATH = SYSTEM DEFAULT
D. RESET CURRENT PATH
Answer: A Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 16
Given the variable declaration shown below:
DECLARE v_mydate DATE;
Which statement will assign a value to the variable V_MYDATE?

A. VALUES CURRENT TIME INTO v_mydate;
B. VALUES CURRENT TIMESTAMP INTO v_mydate;
C. SELECT CURRENT TIMESTAMP INTO v_mydate FROMSYSIBM.SYSDUMMY1;

D. SELECT CURRENT DATE INTO v_mydate FROM SYSIBM.SYSDUMMY1;
Answer: D Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 17
Given the variable declaration shown below:
DECLARE v_mytime TIME;
Which statement will assign a value to the variable named V_MYTIME?

A. SET v_mytime = TIME;
B. VALUES CURRENT TIME INTO v_mytime;

C. VALUES CURRENT TIMESTAMP INTO v_mytime;
D. SET v_mytime = DATE;
Answer: B Explanation: QUESTION NO: 18
Which statement will change the value of a special register?
A. UPDATE SPECIAL REGISTER TIME = 12:30:00
B. UPDATE SPECIAL REGISTER SCHEMA = ‘DB2ADMIN’
C. SET CURRENT TIME = 12:30:00
D. SET CURRENT SCHEMA = ‘DB2ADMIN’
Answer: D Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 19
What demonstrates the correct syntax for assigning three rows to the EMPNO, FIRSTNAME, and LASTNAME columns of a table named EMPLOYEE?
A. INSERT INTO employee (empno, firstname, lastname)
VALUES (100, 200, 300, ‘John’, ‘Jane’, ‘Paul’, ‘Doe’, ‘Smith’, ‘Jones’)

B. INSERT INTO employee (empno, firstname, lastname)
VALUES (100, ‘John’, ‘Doe’), (200, ‘Jane’, ‘Smith’), (300, ‘Paul’, ‘Jones’)

C. SET (empno, firstname, lastname)
VALUES (100, 200, 300, ‘John’, ‘Jane’, ‘Paul’, ‘Doe’, ‘Smith’, ‘Jones’)
FOR employee

D. SET (empno, firstname, lastname)
VALUES (100, ‘John’, ‘Doe’), (200, ‘Jane’, ‘Smith’), (300, ‘Paul’, ‘Jones’)
FOR employee

Answer: B Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 20
Click the Exhibit button.
Given the following SQL procedure:
CREATE PROCEDURE test1 (IN someid CHAR(3), OUT status INT)
BEGIN

DECLARE SQLCODE INTEGER DEFAULT 0;
DECLARE count INTEGER DEFAULT 0;
SET status = 0;
IF (LENGTH(someid) < 3) THEN
RETURN -3;
GOTO exit;
ELSE
SELECT COUNT(deptno) INTO count FROM dept WHERE admrdept=someid;
IF(SQLCODE<>0) THEN
RETURN -1;
ELSE
SET status = COUNT;
RETURN 0;
END IF;
END IF;
exit:
RETURN -2;
END
Where the DEPT table consists of:
DEPTNO DEPTNAME
MGRNO ADMRDEPT

A00 SPIFFY COMPUTER SERVICE DIV. 000010 A00 B01 PLANNING 000020 A00 C01 INFORMATION CENTER 000030 A00 D01 DEVELOPMENT CENTER – A00

D11 MANUFACTURING SYSTEMS 000060 D01

D21 ADMINISTRATION SYSTEMS 000070 D01
If the procedure TEST1 shown in the exhibit is called with the value ‘A00’ specified for the SOMEID parameter, what is the expected return code?
A. 0
B. -1
C. -2
D. -3
Answer: A Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 21
Click the Exhibit button.
CREATE TABLE ar.sales (customer_id INTEGER, sales_amt DECIMAL(5,2),
rct TIMESTAMP NOT NULL IMPLICITLY HIDDEN GENERATED ALWAYS FOR EACH ROW ON UPDATE AS ROW CHANGE TIMESTAMP); INSERT INTO ar.sales (customer_id, sales_amt) VALUES(1, 20.5); SELECT * FROM ar.sales WHERE ROW CHANGE TIMESTAMP FOR ar.sales <= CURRENT TIMESTAMP; A DB2 Command Line Processor (CLP) file contains the set of statements shown in the exhibit.
What does this sequence of statements illustrate?
A. work identity
B. row sequencing
C. row change tokenizing
D. optimistic locking
Answer: D Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 22
Click the Exhibit button.
CREATE PROCEDURE proc.test(IN month VARCHAR(12), OUT l_name
VARCHAR(25))
LANGUAGE SQL
BEGIN
DECLARE b_month CHAR(12);
DECLARE at_end INTEGER DEFAULT 0;
DECLARE not_found CONDITION FOR SQLSTATE ‘02000’;
DECLARE c1 CURSOR FOR SELECT lastname, MONTHNAME(birthdate)
FROM employee ORDER BY birthdate, lastname;
DECLARE CONTINUE HANDLER FOR not_found SET at_end = 1;
OPEN c1;
this_loop: LOOP
FETCH c1 INTO l_name, b_month;
IF at_end = 1 THEN
LEAVE this_loop;
ELSEIF UCASE(b_month) != UCASE(month) THEN
ITERATE this_loop;

END IF;

END LOOP; CLOSE c1; END
A developer attempted to create a procedure to determine the oldest employee celebrating a birthday in a particular month by executing the SQL statement shown in the exhibit.
Tests show the procedure does not work as planned.What are two ways to make the procedure work as intended? (Choose two.)
A. Add the statement ELSE RETURN; before the statement END IF;.
B. Change the statement ELSEIFUCASE(b_month) != UCASE(month) THEN to ELSEIF UCASE(b_month) =UCASE(month) THEN.
C. Add the statement ELSE BREAK; before the statement END IF;.
D. Change the statement ELSEIFUCASE(b_month) != UCASE(month) THEN ITERATE this_loop; to ELSEIFUCASE(b_month) = UCASE(month) THEN LEAVE this_loop;.
E. Add the statement ELSE CONTINUE; before the statement END IF;.
Answer: A,D Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 23
Click the Exhibit button.
CASE rating WHEN 1 THEN UPDATE employee SET salary = salary * 1.10 WHERE
empno = v_employee_number;
WHEN 2 THEN UPDATE employee SET salary = salary * 1.05 WHERE empno =
v_employee_number;
ELSE UPDATE employee SET salary = salary * 1.03 WHERE empno =
v_employee_number;
END CASE;

Which statement is true about the CASE statement shown in the exhibit?
A. An employee with a rating of 1 receives a 10% salary increase.
B. An employee with a rating of 3 receives no salary increase.
C. An employee with a rating of 2 receives a 3% salary increase.
D. All employees will receive at least a 5% salary increase.
Answer: A Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 24
Click the Exhibit button.
BEGIN ATOMIC DECLARE fullname CHAR(40);
FOR vl AS SELECT firstnme, midinit, lastname FROM employee DO SET fullname =
lastname CONCAT ‘,’ CONCAT firstnme CONCAT ‘ ‘ CONCAT midinit;
INSERT INTO tnames VALUES (fullname);
END FOR END
Which statement correctly describes the result of the FOR loop shown in the exhibit?
A. FULLNAME is set to the last name of the employee, followed by a comma, the firstname, a blank space, and the middle initial. Only the last value for FULLNAME isinserted into table TNAMES.
B. FULLNAME is set to the last name of the employee, followed by a comma, the firstname, a blank space, and the middle initial. Only the first value for FULLNAME isinserted into table TNAMES.
C. FULLNAME is set to the last name of the employee, followed by a comma, the firstname, a blank space, and the middle initial for each row. Each value for FULLNAME isinserted into table TNAMES in alphabetical order.
D. FULLNAME is set to the last name of the employee, followed by a comma, the firstname, a blank space, and the middle initial for each row. Each value for FULLNAME isinserted into table TNAMES.
Answer: D Explanation: QUESTION NO: 25
How is the FOR statement distinct from other conditional statements?
A. FOR statements are evaluated at the completion of each iteration of the loop.
B. FOR statements are evaluated before each iteration of the loop.
C. FOR statements have a terminating condition clause.
D. FOR statements are used to iterate over rows in a defined read-only result set.
Answer: D Explanation:

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QUESTION 1
How does QualityStage output the correct ISO code for a record?
A. ISO code functionality is not available.
B. ISO code supplied by the Country rule set.
C. ISO code supplied by the USPREP rule set.
D. ISO code supplied by the US Address rule set.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 2
You need to create a batch delta match process for transaction records against a very large master file of existing clients.
Which QualityStage match option should be used?
A. Transitive One-source match
B. Two-source many-to-one match
C. Deterministic One-source match
D. Two-source many-to-many match

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 3
How can Word Investigation reports be used to modify a rule set?
A. Corrects spelling errors in the data field.
B. Adds tokens to allow identification of additional duplicates.
C. Identifies new tokens to allow additional words to be classified.
D. Identifies matched words to be used in match designer frequency distribution.

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 4
Which statement about the jobs used by the Match Specification Setup Wizard is true?
A. The jobs must be created.
B. The jobs must be imported.
C. The jobs exist for only One-source individual match.
D. The jobs are created in the repository at installation time.

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 5
When would you use the survive technique ‘Most Frequent’?
A. When more than one target field is required.
B. When the most frequent occurrence is required.
C. When the most frequently populated value is required.
D. When the most frequently populated value is required with two or more occurrences.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 6
You are designing a reference match that will be run on a daily basis. Where should the reference data frequencies typically be generated?
A. In a Server job in the same Job Sequence.
B. In a shared container in the same job as the match.
C. In a different job stream and part of the daily process.
D. In a different job stream and not part of the daily process.

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 7
Which statement is true about creating a Match Statistics report from a One-source match?
A. You must use the Match Statistics stage.
B. The One-source Match Statistics link target must be ODBC.
C. The One-source Match Statistics link target must be a sequential file.
D. The One-source Match Statistics link target can be any QualityStage supported target.

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 8
Which two steps in the QualityStage Data Quality Methodology facilitates effective matching?
A. Parsing
B. Surviving
C. Tokenization
D. Data Mapping
E. Standardization

Correct Answer: BE QUESTION 9
You re-ran a job to update the standardized data. This standardized data file is used in your test environment configuration on Match Designer.
What action would you take to insure the most current standardized data file is used?
A. No action is required.
B. You need to open Test Environment and click [Update].
C. You need to open Data Table Definition and click [Update].
D. You need to click [Test All Passes] to apply changes in the standardized data.

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 10
If a token had the value 13D and the “D” had to be isolated in a variable named Temp, what Pattern Action code would be used?
A. COPY [1] Temp
B. COPY [1](c) Temp
C. COPY [1](-n) Temp
D. COPY [1](-c) Temp

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 11
A match pass is running a very long time. What is the most common first thing you should review?
A. The Frequency file.

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QUESTION 1
You are trying to identify a multi-column primary key in a table of 50 million records. What steps can you take to minimize performance impact?
A. None, you must always assess full volume of data.
B. Use a data sample; apply regression analysis to identify statistically likely candidates; apply duplicate check.
C. Use a data sample; limit the test to specific columns at one time; incrementally increase the number of possible column combinations.
D. Use a data sample; apply functional dependency analysis to remove dependent columns; incrementally increase the number of possible column combinations.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 2
You submitted a column analysis job with the “Retain Scripts” set to no. The column analysis job finished with an “error encountered” final message. You have access to the DataStage Director client. Which option would allow you to find the source of the error?
A. Create a log view in Information Analyzer and rerun the job. Examine the log to determine the error.
B. Rerun the job with the “Retain Scripts” turned on. The error message will be returned to the Information Analyzer status window.
C. Submit the job from Information Analyzer. After it finishes log onto DataStage Director and examine the job log to determine the source of the error.
D. Submit the job from Information Analyzer and place it on hold. Log onto DataStage Director, release the job and examine the job log to determine the source of the error.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 3
While reviewing the results of a data rule test you find a logic error. Which option will allow you to troubleshoot this error?
A. Set the debug option when submitting the test job, then review the log.
B. Open a command window on the client, submit the job and view the log.
C. Set Retain Scripts to on and use DataStage Director to review the job log.
D. Create a log view to capture the CAS log. Rerun the rule and review the log.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 4
Which statement is true about analysis settings?
A. Default Analysis settings can be created for individual users.
B. Default Analysis settings cannot be configured for all projects.
C. Default Analysis settings can be configured at the project level.
D. Default Analysis settings are controlled by the DataStage Analysis project.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 5
In a large enterprise, the human resource business unit wants to ensure the restriction of the analysis and analysis results to a set of HR managers. Which configuration will support this requirement?
A. Use operating system IDs and database IDs to restrict access.
B. Use Information Server roles and security to restrict access to analysis and results.
C. Install an Information Analyzer environment (analysis server, analysis engine, analysis database) for the HR business unit.
D. Install an analysis engine for each business unit and one analysis database using Information server security to restrict access.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 6
Which of the following is true about ODBC DSN’s (data source names)?
A. No ODBC DSN’s are required.
B. You must manually create the Information Analyzer database DSN.
C. You must create a DSN for the data sources on both the client and server.
D. The Information Analyzer database DSN is automatically created at installation time.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 7
You are installing Information Analyzer and plan to use Oracle as the Information Analyzer analysis database. Which statement is true?
A. The metadata database must also be Oracle.
B. The metadata database does not have to be Oracle.
C. Only Oracle RAC (Real Application Clusters) is supported.
D. The Information Analyzer analysis database can not be Oracle.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 8
When analyzing large volumes of source data in column analysis, which two statements identify ways you can improve processing performance? (Choose two.)
A. Use data sampling in Information Analyzer.
B. Add more space to the Metadata repository.
C. Modify the project Analysis settings to increase the buffer pools.
D. Modify the DataStage apt config file to use multiple nodes and parallel process the data.
E. Modify the Information Analyzer Analysis database config file to parallel process the data.

Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 9
When analyzing large number of columns in Information Analyzer, which two components may require capacity planning review? (Choose two.)
A. Disk space on the Engine layer.
B. Disk space on the Application Server.
C. Buffer pools on the Application Server.
D. Information Server Metadata repository.
E. Information Analyzer Analysis database.
Correct Answer: AE
QUESTION 10
When creating a Scheduling View, which two of the following options can be configured? (Choose two.)
A. Status > Schedule > Pending
B. Status > Task Run > Abnormally Ended
C. Status > Task Run > Successfully Ended
D. Origins > Information Analyzer > IA Export Project
E. Origins > Information Analyzer > IA Report Execution

Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 11
You are managing a business analyst who is annotating column profile details with issues and resolutions. You wish to see how many annotations remain open for resolution. Which report should you create and review?
A. Metric Summary Project Status report
B. Metadata Summary-Column Profile Status report
C. Project Status- Project Summary by Notes Status report
D. Domain Quality Summary- Column Quality by Status report

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 12
When working with Information Analyzer reports, which two functions require use of the reporting functionality in the Information Server Web Console? (Choose two.)
A. Add the report to Favorites.
B. Create the report as a PDF.
C. Grant Access to report result.
D. Create a Log Messages report.
E. Choose Expiration Policy for Report.

Correct Answer: CE
QUESTION 13
You are working with a subject matter expert who does not have the Information Server console installed, but needs to receive a detailed value frequency distribution as a comma-delimited (csv) file. Which two of the following options can you use to deliver the required file? (Choose two.)
A. Go to the Investigate>Table Management functions, select the frequency distribution file; export as a Delimited file; and send the file.
B. Go to the Investigate>Publish Analysis Result functions, select the frequency distribution file; export as a Delimited file; and send the file.
C. Go to the Reports menu, select the Data Rule Frequency Distribution report; choose the TXT output option and generate the report; and provide the URL to the report output.
D. Use the IAAdmin command line interface (CLI); select the -getColumnOutputTable option providing the correct project and column names and the -csv format parameter; run the command and send the file.
E. Use the IAAdmin command line interface (CLI); select the -getFrequencyDistribution option providing the correct project and column names and the -xsl format parameter to a csv-formatting stylesheet ; run the command and send the file.

Correct Answer: AE
QUESTION 14
Which of the following is the correct HTTP API request format for creating a data rule definition in an existing project?
A. http://<ServerName>:9080/InformationAnalyzer/create?ruleDefinition
B. http://<ServerName>:9080/InformationAnalyzer/create?projectContent
C. http://< ServerName>:9080/InformationAnalyzer/project?projectName=<YourProjectName>
D. http://<ServerName>:9080/InformationAnalyzer/ruleDefinition?projectName=<YourProjectName> &ruleName=<YourRuleName>

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 15
You are setting up an automated process to run a set of data rules on a weekly basis. You want to evaluate the execution status via the Information Analyzer command line interface (CLI) before running subsequent reports. Which of the following do you need to evaluate?
A. Select the -runTasks option specifying the -getExecutionStatus parameter and evaluate the status attribute of the <RuleExecutionResult> element.
B. Select the -getExecutionHistory option specifying the -ruleName parameter and evaluate the status attribute of the <RuleExecutionResult> element.
C. Select the -getExecutableRule option specifying the -getExecutionHistory and -ruleName parameters and evaluate the status attribute of the <DataRuleResult> element.
D. Select the -getExecutableRule/ExecutionHistory option specifying the -ruleName parameter and evaluate the status attribute of the <DataRuleExecutionHistory> element.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 16
Which two options are supported for creating Information Analyzer reports in XLS format? (Choose two.)
A. Password protected.
B. Include shapes in export.
C. Keep existing word wrap.
D. Use default full compression.
E. Delimit fields as comma separated.

Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 17
Which output format supports encryption and password protection of the report?
A. XML
B. PDF
C. XSLT
D. HTML

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 18
When creating a data rule definition through the HTTP API, which two of the following can be included as a child element of the <DataRuleDefinition> element? (Choose two.)
A. <Term>
B. <Name>
C. <Tasks>
D. <Description>
E. <ExecutableRules>

Correct Answer: DE
QUESTION 19
You are reviewing the analysis of a colleague who identified 2 invalid values out of a set of 25,000 distinct values. What steps can you take to review the original source records for these 2 values?
A. Open Domain & Completeness tab; Click Show Quintiles; Select Invalid Quintile; Select Drill down.
B. Open Domain & Completeness tab; Select Invalid Values radio button; Highlight rows; Select Drill down.
C. Open Domain & Completeness tab; Select All Values radio button; Sort on Status column; Highlight Invalid rows; Select Drill down.
D. Open Domain & Completeness tab; Select and Expand Validity Summary; Select the Distincts Invalid Count; Select Drill down.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 20
During profiling, you did not find any single column candidate primary keys for one table. You would like to see Information Analyzer find a single column candidate primary key. Which two of the following actions would you take, to identify a primary key candidate, for this one table? (Choose two)
A. Create a virtual table for the one table and run column analysis against it.
B. Open Key Analysis for the table and lower the value in the ‘Flag Percentages Above’ field and click apply.
C. Run a multi-column primary key analysis but select only the one column and change composite max to
1.
D. Go to Overview, Project Properties and choose the Analysis Settings tab. Change the Primary Key Threshold at the project level.
E. Go to Overview, Project Properties and choose the Analysis Settings tab. Change the Primary Key Threshold at the Data Source/Table level.

Correct Answer: BE
QUESTION 21
What two types of Domain and Completeness validations methods can Information Analyzer perform? (Choose two.)
A. Value
B. Format
C. Mapping
D. Phonetic
E. Reference Table

Correct Answer: AE
QUESTION 22
Which four analysis types does the Column Analysis process include?
A. domain analysis, constraint analysis, format analysis, data properties analysis
B. domain analysis, data classification analysis, key analysis, data properties analysis
C. domain analysis, data classification analysis, format analysis, data properties analysis
D. domain analysis, data classification analysis, format analysis, standardization analysis

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 23
You are profiling a large table with 50 columns and over five million rows, which does not have a single column primary key. A subject matter expert states that there are four columns that define the key. How would you validate ONLY the specific four columns together as a multi-column candidate primary key without additional permutations?
A. Re-run column analysis for just the four columns
B. Create a virtual column with all four columns and run a column analysis on it to check for uniqueness
C. Run a multi-column primary key analysis selecting four candidate columns and set composite max equal to four
D. Create a data sample and run a multi-column primary key analysis against all columns and set

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Exam A QUESTION 1
If rule changes are required to a QualityStage Standardization rule set, which two of the following are the correct steps to implement in your environment? (Choose two)
A. Changes are rarely required in development of an application
B. Rule sets can not be changed in the QualityStage environment
C. Copy the rule set, rename it then edit the newly created rule set
D. Edit the default rule set delivered with the product then save changes
E. Use the pattern override section to make changes

Correct Answer: CE QUESTION 2
Which of the following rule sets are NOT delivered with QualityStage?
A. Date processing
B. Country processing
C. Address processing
D. Credit card processing

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 3
When creating a copy of an existing rule set what components are copied?
A. Pattern action, classification, dictionary
B. Pattern action, classification, dictionary, lookup tables
C. Pattern action, classification, dictionary, override tables
D. Pattern action, classification, dictionary, override tables, lookup tables

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 4
What 4 files are part of the QualityStage rule set?
A. IPO, ITO, UCL, UTO
B. IPO, PTO, UPD, UTD
C. PRS, PTO, ITO, OVR
D. PRC, TBL, PTO, OVR

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 5
What do you do if you need to only back-up a rule set?
A. Highlight the rule set ET?and exportHighlight the rule set ?ET?and export
B. Highlight the rule set ET?and provision allHighlight the rule set ?ET?and provision all
C. Highlight all rule set components and export
D. Export the job with a standardization stage that includes the rule set and choose the nclude dependent items?Export the job with a standardization stage that includes the rule set and choose the ?nclude dependent items

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 6
If an address starting with the word ‘Ignore’ is being stored in a variable named temp and you want to place this value in a field called AdditionalAddress. Which Pattern Action code would accomplish this?
A. COPY temp (0:5) {AdditionalAddress}
B. COPY temp (1:6) {AdditionalAddress}
C. COPY temp (IGNORE) {AdditionalAddress}
D. COPY temp [-IGNORE] {AdditionalAddress}

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 7
How many operands are present in the following Pattern Action language pattern? ^ | D | ? | T
A. 0
B. 3
C. 4
D. 7
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 8
What pattern action operand denotes the Universal class ?
A. &
B. @
C. ?
D. **
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 9
If your input data contains only the value “DO NOT USE” consistently in the Name field, which type of domain-specific object would best be used to override this condition?
A. USNAME.IPO
B. USNAME.ITO
C. USPREP.UTO
D. USPREP.UFO

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 10
Investigation shows that city name, state abbreviation, and postal code fields all contain null values. The client is concerned that they might have a data quality issue. Which two investigation types would you use to determine the magnitude of the problem?(Choose two)
A. Character Discrete with all three fields.
B. Word Investigation using USAREA rule set.
C. Character Concatenate with all three fields.
D. Word Investigation using USADDR rule set.
E. Character Concatenate with all three fields and X mask.

Correct Answer: BC QUESTION 11
What does the qs_Inv_Pattern field represent in the Pattern Report when using Word Investigation with one of the provided domain address rule sets?
A. A value example of address data that match the pattern
B. An individual word value that is found inside the address input columns
C. A generated pattern that describes the address input columns
D. The classification of the token that is based on the address domain rule set

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 12
You are required to analyze source system data with an Investigate stage. Which two functions can this stage perform? (Choose two)
A. Classifying tokens
B. Identifying duplicates
C. Changing invalid data
D. Creating reference tables
E. Creating pattern distributions

Correct Answer: AE
QUESTION 13
What two graphical reports are produced by an Investigate stage? (Choose two)
A. Word Pattern Report
B. Column Pattern Report
C. Frequency Word Report
D. Frequency Pattern Report
E. Invalid Token Frequency Report

Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 14
When using word investigation with one of the provided name domain rule sets, what does the qsInvCount field represent on the Token Report for the name columns being analyzed?
A. A frequency count of the number of names in a record
B. A frequency count indicating how many times a pattern was encountered
C. A total count that indicates how many name columns have tokens
D. A frequency count that indicates how many times the word tokens are encountered

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 15
After standardization, which investigation stage would best help determine the amount of work required to improve the standardize process of client name data?
A. Word investigation of primary name field
B. Character Discrete investigation of source client name fields
C. Character Concatenate investigations of Input Pattern and source client name fields
D. Character Concatenate investigations of the Unhandled Pattern and source name fields
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 16
What two types of data issues generally occur within enterprise data stores? (Choose two)
A. Data myopia
B. Referential Integrity
C. Information standards applied
D. Consistency across all tables
E. Data surprises in individual fields

Correct Answer: AE
QUESTION 17
Which of the following is NOT a goal for re-engineering data?
A. Enrich data
B. Prevent source data quality issues
C. Create multiple views of business entities
D. Identify hidden attributes from free-form fields

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 18
Which two statements describe the importance of standardizing data? (Choose two)
A. Apply a consistent length.
B. Prepare data for matching
C. Apply a consistent data type.
D. Make data a consistent language.
E. Apply a consistent representation.

Correct Answer: BE
QUESTION 19
Which statement represents the survivorship rule execution order?
A. Order of the rules is irrelevant.
B. The last rule takes precedence.
C. The first rule takes precedence.
D. The Survive stage will sort and order the rules.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 20
Which two of the following methods are possible ways for selecting the “best” candidate for surviving a field value? (Choose two)
A. Longest
B. Average match score
C. Reference table lookup
D. Most frequently occurring
E. Least frequently occurring
Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 21
Which statement is true about Survivorship?
A. You use the Survive stage to create groups of matched data.
B. You use the Survive stage after matched records have been identified.
C. You use the Survive stage to mark similar records to identify duplicates.
D. You use the Survive stage to correct unhandled data found in your standardization.
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 22
If you apply the following survive rules to the survive input data below, (1) for each field survive the “Most Frequently Occurring Non-Blank value”, (2) survive the Measure field value from the record where “Color = GREEN”, (3) survive the record with the highest weight. The records are in the same group. Which is the correct result?

A. 100 10.7 GREEN BOX LARGE
B. 100 10.7 GREEN BOX SMALL
C. 100 12.9 GREEN CIRCLE LARGE
D. 100 21.4 <null> CIRCLE SMALL

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 23
Which two statements describes how you can survive data with the Survive stage?(Choose two)
A. You can select an entire group of records to survive
B. You can select an entire record from a group to survive
C. Residual records cannot be survived with the survive stage.
D. You can select different fields from the records in a group to survive
E. You can select different fields from different groups of records to survive

Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 24
When would you use the ‘At Least One’ survive technique?
A. Some records have fields with Null values.
B. You want the last record in a match group to survive.
C. You want the first record in a match group to survive.
D. You want to ensure that a record from each match group survives.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 25
Which of the following is an optional process that enhances the quality of mailing address information?
A. Address Verification
B. Address Standardization
C. Address Matching Module
D. Address Correction Module
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 26
Which two of the following are categories of rule sets for the Standardize stage? (Choose two)
A. Name Pre-processor

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QUESTION NO: 1
You are responsible for deploying objects into your customers production environment. To ensure the stability of the production system the customer does not permit compilers on production machines. They have also protected the project and only development machines have the required compiler. What two options will allow jobs with a parallel transformer to execute in the customers production machines? (Choose two.)
A. Add $APT_COMPILE_OPT=-portable
B. Set $APT_COPY_TRANSFORM_OPERATOR
C. Export the jobs with Information Server Manager with the executables.
D. Create a package with Information Server Manager and select the option to include executables.
Answer: C,D

QUESTION NO: 2
You have been asked to delete a shared container from the project by your customer. Before you do this you want to make sure it will not impact other objects in the project. How will you ensure that deleting the shared container will not cause a failure when jobs are recompiled?
A. Select the shared container, Right-click on the Where used command.
B. Select the shared container, Right-click on the Where used (deep) command.
C. Select the shared container, Right-click on the Dependencies (deep) command.
D. Advanced find, set Dependencies Of field equal to the container name, and Check the Option toInclude nested results for Dependency searches.
Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 3
You are working on a project that contains a large number of jobs contained in many folders. You would like to review the jobs created by the former developer of the project. How can you find these jobs?
A. Filter jobs in Director Client’s Repository window.
B. Sort the jobs by date in the Repository window.
C. Use the Advanced Find feature contained in the Designer interface.
D. While selecting the top folder in the project, choose Find Dependencies.
Answer: C QUESTION NO: 4

When you configure a domain for source code integration a source control workspace is created. What are two reasons for the source control workspace? (Choose two.)
A. default directory foristool exports.
B. directory for deployment package files
C. local transfer area for assets being submitted to the source control system
D. provides a place to store the archive created by IS source code control integration
Answer: C,D

QUESTION NO: 5
You are about to begin major changes to jobs in a project. You want to conveniently identify job changes on an ad hoc basis. What two tasks will allow you to identify changes to your jobs? (Choose two.)
A. Import the original job from a .dsx export.
B. Select the job,then right click Compare within.
C. Select the job,then right click Cross Project Compare.
D. Before making a change to a job make a copy of the job in a different category folder.
Answer: B,D

QUESTION NO: 6
You are responsible for the projects Source Code Repository. When a developer notifies you that changes are ready to deploy you must first check them in. You will use the Information Server Source Code integration features to check in the changed assets. How will you identify the DataStage assets the developer modified in order to send them to the workspace?
A. From the Information Server Manager Select theproject then right-click on Synchronize with source code control system.
B. Use Designer client Advanced Find, specify a modification date and the developer’s username in the Modified by fields.
C. From Information Server Manager use Search with advanced options, specify a date modified and the developer’s user name in the Modified by fields.
D. From the workspace perspective select the project Right-click then Refresh fromrepository,specify a modification date and the developer’s username in the Modified by fields.
Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 7
Where are project level message handlers defined?
A. DSENV
B. Director Client
C. Designer Client
D. Administrator Client
Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 8
Which three of the following options does the dsjob command have? (Choose three.)
A. Stopping a job
B. Setting an alias for a job
C. Specifying an appropriate log file
D. Listing projects, jobs, stages, links, and parameters
Answer: A,B,D

QUESTION NO: 9
You would like to pass values into parameters that will be used in a variety of downstream activity stages within a job sequence. What are three valid ways to do this? (Choose three.)
A. Use local parameters.
B. Use environment variables.
C. Place a parameter set stage on the job sequence.
D. Check the “Propagate Parameters” checkbox in the Sequence Job properties.
E. Use theUserVariablesActivity Stage to populate the local parameters from an outside source such as a file.
Answer: A,B,E
QUESTION NO: 10
Click on the Exhibit button.

Provided you have enough system resources, what is the maximum number of jobs that could be running concurrently in this image?
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 11
You are experiencing performance issues for a given job. You are assigned the task of understanding what is happening at run time for that job. What are the first two steps you should take to understand the job performance issues? (Choose two.)
A. Review the objectives of the job.
B. Run job with $APT_TRACE_RUN set to true.
C. Run job with $APT_DUMP_SCORE set to true.
D. Replace Transformer stages with custom operators.
Answer: A,C

QUESTION NO: 12
Click on the Exhibit button.

Using this report, how many processes and on how many nodes does this score depict?
A. 3 processes on 2 nodes
B. 3 processes on 3 nodes
C. 2 processes on 2 nodes
D. 2 processes on 3 nodes
Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 13
Click the exhibit button.

You submit a job from DataStage Director and then log onto your DataStage Linux server to issue the command “ps -ef | grep ds” and receive the following screen: Which process is a player?
A. 7117
B. 7215
C. 7216
D. 7217
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 14
What would help debug the run-time environment?
A. $APT_VERBOSE
B. $OSH_PRINT_SCHEMAS
C. Check the message filters for the job.
D. View detailed runtime stats through Job monitor in Director Client.
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 15
To better understand the data flowing through a job, it is desirable to have structural information about the datasets captured in the job log. Which environment variable can provide this information?
A. $OSH_STDOUT_MSG
B. $OSH_PRINT_SCHEMAS
C. $APT_PM_PLAYER_MEMORY
D. $APT_NO_PART_INSERTION
Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 16
DataStageoffers database connectivity through connectors, native parallel and plug-in stage types. Which two statements are correct? (Choose two.)
A. ODBC API is a plug-in stage.
B. Next to the connector stage it is best to use the native parallel database stages.
C. The connector stage offers better functionality and performance and is the best to use.
D. For maximum parallel performance, scalability, and features it is best to use the native parallel database stages.
Answer: B,C

QUESTION NO: 17
Which two property areas must be configured when using the ODBC connector stage as a target in your job design? (Choose two.)
A. Define columns for the output link.
B. Specify the remote server property.
C. Specify properties for the input link.
D. Define the connection properties to an ODBC data source.
Answer: C,D

QUESTION NO: 18
You set environment variable $APT_ORACLE_LOAD_OPTIONS=PTIONS(DIRECT=TRUE, PARALLEL=TRUE)?for loading index organized tables.You set environment variable $APT_ORACLE_LOAD_OPTIONS=?PTIONS(DIRECT=TRUE, PARALLEL=TRUE)?for loading index organized tables. Which statement is accurate regarding the resulting effect of this environment variable setting?
A. Oracle load will fail when executed.
B. Oracle load will run in parallel and bypassDataStage Director.
C. The Oracle load will run in parallel using simple direct path mode.
D. The Oracle database stage will run in parallel using conventional path mode.
Answer: A QUESTION NO: 19

Which two statements are accurate regarding usage of database stages? (Choose two.)
A. Plug-in stages match columns by name.
B. Native database stages match columns by name.
C. DataStage provides native Oracle database stages.
D. Database stages cannot create tables and must be done externally.
Answer: B,C

QUESTION NO: 20
In which two situations is it appropriate to use a Sparse Lookup? (Choose two.)
A. When accessing DB2 data using the DB2 API stage.
B. When the output of the Lookup stage needs to be hashed partitioned.
C. When reference data is significantly larger than the streaming data (100:1).
D. When invoking a stored procedure within a database per row in the streaming link.
Answer: C,D

QUESTION NO: 21
Which of the following is not an ODBC connector property?
A. Username
B. Password
C. Data source
D. Remote server
Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 22
You have a job that reads in Sequential File followed by a Transformer stage. When you run this job, which partitioning method will be used by default?
A. Hash
B. Same
C. Random
D. Round Robin
Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 23
A job reads from a sequential file using a SequentialFile stage with option “number of readers” set to 2. This data goes to a Transformer stage and then is written to a dataset using the DataSet stage. The default configuration file has three nodes. The environment variable $APT_DISABLE_COMBINATION is set to “True” and partitioning is set to “Auto”. How many processes will be created?
A. 5
B. 7
C. 9
D. 12
Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 24
Which two properties can be set to read a fixed width sequential file in parallel? (Choose two.)
A. Set Read Method to “File Pattern”.
B. Set the Execution mode to “Parallel”.
C. Set the “Read from Multiple Nodes” optional property to a value greater than 1.
D. Set the “Number of ReadersPer Node” optional property to a value greater than 1.
Answer: C,D

QUESTION NO: 25
Which two partitioning methods require keys? (Choose two.)
A. Hash
B. Entire
C. Modulus
D. Round Robin
Answer: A,C
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Question No : 1 – (Topic 1)
What functionality does the IBMWorklight Server provide when Worklight and IBM WebSphere Portal are used together?
A. The Worklight Server is not used in the architecture.
B. The Worklight Server provides push notifications for the application.
C. The Worklight Server handles all dataconnections for the application.
D. The Worklight Server must be installed on the same server as WebSphere Portal.

Answer: B
Question No : 2 – (Topic 1)
Which is a true statement regarding Responsive Web Design (RWD) and IBM WebSphere Portal?
A. A web applicationusing RWD can be published to all supported appstores.
B. A hybrid or native application is needed in order to be able to support RWD concepts.
C. RWD itself is a practical solution to the shifting landscape of devices and screen sizes.
D. Accessing nativefeatures of a device is not possible when using RWD with WebSphere Portal.

Answer: C
Question No : 3 – (Topic 1)
Which event listener is used in an IBM WebSphere Portal theme to detect if a page is loaded on a mobile device?
A. isWebView
B. isMobileDevice
C. onDeviceReady
D. onMobileDevice

Answer: C Question No : 4 – (Topic 1)
Which three needs can be met with an IBM Worklight-only application approach? (Choose three.)
A. offline use
B. app store presence
C. authentication management
D. access to mobile native features
E. use of existing IBM WebSphere Portal environment
F. personalization driven by IBM Web Content Manager content

Answer: A,B,D
Question No : 5 – (Topic 1)
IBM WorkLight Studio is supported and can be installed on which operating systems?
A. Windows
B. Windows, Mac OS,Linux
C. Microsoft Windows, Linux
D. Linux, Mac OS, Windows, Android

Answer: B
Question No : 6 – (Topic 1)
Where is the correct place to define a Responsive Web Design breakpoint, for example @media screen, in order to handle the different device sizes on the devices browser?
A. on the default.jsp of the portal theme
B. in the JavaScript of the web container of the mobile device
C. only in hybrid mobile applications can breakpoints be defined
D. in the CSS of the theme for the IBM WebSphere Portal server

Answer: D Question No : 7 – (Topic 1)
Mary plans to develop hybrid or native mobile applications with IBM Worklight, specifically for iOS devices. What will she need to do to accomplish this?
A. She must install IBM Worklight on an iOS device.
B. She must be a part of the iOSdeveloper program, so that the use of Xcode is optional.
C. She must download Xcode, which is an Apple IDE for developing iOS and Mac applications.
D. As long as Xcode is used, iOS applications can be developed on any modern operating system (Windows, Linux, Mac OS).

Answer: C
Question No : 8 – (Topic 1)
Which two statements are true regarding the IBM Worklight API? (Choose two.)
A. The Worklight API does not allow a developer to pass data from native to web or web to native.
B. Worklight provides a native API tocommunicate with the Worklight Server from the native page.
C. The Worklight API only allows a developer to pass data from native to web but not web to native.
D. The Worklight API only allows a developer to pass data from web to native but not native to web.
E. The Worklight API allows navigation to native pages and back, including the passing of data back and forth.

Answer: B,E
Question No : 9 – (Topic 1)
Which API is used to create a REST interface?
A. HTTP
B. JAX-RS
C. JSR 168
D. JSR 286

Answer: B
Question No : 10 – (Topic 1)
Christine has created an IBM Web Experience Factory project and would like to add the Multichannel Feature Pack for Web Experience Factory 8.0 to her project. How can she accomplish this?
A. Install the Web Experience Factory 8.0.0.2 Fix Pack.
B. Modify the override.properties file and set the attribute enableMultiChannel=”true”.
C. Modify the bowstreet.properties file and set the attribute enableMultiChannel=”true”.
D. Right-click on the Web Experience Factory project and select the Import >Web Experience Factory Archive command.

Answer: D
Question No : 11 – (Topic 1)
How can media queries combine multiple conditions?
A. using the symbol “&”
B. by an iteration with ??by an iteration with ?
C. by nesting with brackets
D. using keywords “and”, “or”, “not”

Answer: D
Question No : 12 – (Topic 1)
Which kind of feed does the REST API accept?
A. XML
B. Web
C. RSS
D. Atom

Answer: D
Question No : 13 – (Topic 1)
Which scope should be used if the skin relies specifically on code within the theme or has a specific function that isonly useful in that particular theme?
A. Global
B. Private
C. Static-based
D. Theme-based

Answer: D
Question No : 14 – (Topic 1)
What is WebDAV used for in IBM WebSphere Portal?
A. to deploy static resources
B. to register themes and skins
C. to deploy dynamicresources
D. to start the embedded client application

Answer: A
Question No : 15 – (Topic 1)
Which two themes are included in the Multichannel Feature Pack for IBM Web Experience Factory 8.0? (Choose two.)
A. iOS
B. Tablet
C. Android
D. Portable
E. Smartphone

Answer: B,E
Question No : 16 – (Topic 1)
Which is the default format of the information returned in an IBM WebSphere Portal REST API call?
A. RSS
B. JSON
C. HTML
D. ATOM

Answer: D
Question No : 17 – (Topic 1)
Which profile will cause the IBM WebSphere Portal 8.0 theme to loadwith a minimal set of JavaScript and provide additional JavaScript on-demand?
A. profile_thin
B. profile_deferred
C. profile_lightweight
D. profile_incremental

Answer: B
Question No : 18 – (Topic 1)
Bill is creating a page in IBM WebSphere Portal 8.0 that will provide rich functionality to be used within an IBM Worklight application. By default, the theme applied to the page model has a very lightweight JavaScript footprint. What two ways can Bill ensure the complete set of JavaScript libraries required by the application are provided by the theme on the new page at load time? (Choose two.)
A. Edit the Page Properties, select the “Full” profile from the drop-down in Theme Settings.
B. Using WebDAV specify “profiles/profile_full.json” in the theme’s metadata.properties file.
C. Using WebDAV specify “profiles/profile_full.json” in the <theme_root>/contributions/theme.json file
D. Create a portlet that supplies the needed JavaScript and deploy the portlet into the hidden components area of the page.
E. Using XMLAccess,export the page, apply a new <parameter name=”resourceaggregation.profile” value=<![CDATA[profiles/profile_full.json]]> /> to the XML for the page and re-import.

Answer: A,E
Question No : 19 – (Topic 1)
Media queries, which are part of the CSS specification, extendthe functions of media types and allow for more precise display rules in style sheets. Which is true about a media query?
A. It is part of the CSS version 2 specification.
B. It is just the concept to query for the device type.
C. It is implemented as a new attribute, as in the link-tag.
D. It is an expression that evaluates to either True or False.

Answer: D
Question No : 20 – (Topic 1)
What access do users who want to manage themes and skins or modify metadata and resources need?
A. no additional access controlpermission
B. MANAGER role on the virtual resource, THEME MANAGEMENT in WebSphere Portal Access Control
C. MANAGER role on the scoped resource, THEME MANAGEMENT in WebSphere Portal Access Control
D. MANAGER role on the non-scoped resource, THEME MANAGEMENTin WebSphere Portal Access Control

Answer: B Question No : 21 – (Topic 1)
IBM Worklight JavaScript files are required for an application to function properly. How are these files included in the hybrid shell on a device when hosting the application on IBM WebSpherePortal?
A. The JavaScript files are embedded in the Worklight hybrid shell by default.
B. The JavaScript files are automatically downloaded from the Worklight Server.
C. The JavaScript files are included in the application by the Camera Builder in Web Experience Factory.
D. The JavaScript files must be added to the IBM Web Experience Factory project or in the WebSphere Portal theme.

Answer: D
Question No : 22 – (Topic 1)
Jane needs to add the latest version of the jQuery framework into her application. How can shedo this?
A. Define the jQuery version in the body of the init method.
B. Define the new JavaScript framework in worklight.properties file.
C. The latest jQuery framework is loaded automatically by IBM Worklight.
D. Add the jQuery include tag anywhere in abody or head tag of the HTML page. Comment or remove the jQuery definition for a bundled jQuery library.

Answer: D
Question No : 23 – (Topic 1)
A customer is using the Camera Builder to allow users to upload pictures from their Smartphones. How would they save geolocation data for each image?
A. Use the Geolocation Wizard to setup longitude and latitude coordinates.
B. Add the Geolocation builder to the same model as their Camera Builder.
C. Enable the “Capture Geolocation Data” builder input on the existing builder.
D. Include the Geolocation JavaScript file which ships with IBM WebSphere Portal 8.0.0.1.

Answer: C
Question No : 24 – (Topic 1)
George is using an encrypted cache in his application. He has destroyed the encrypted cache using the following API: WL.EncryptedCache.destroy(onComplete, onError);. George then realizes he wants to restore the cached. How can he accomplish this?
A. He can use the following API: WL.EncryptedCache.restore(onComplete, onError);.
B. He can use the following API: WL.EncryptedCache.reinstate(onComplete, onError);.
C. Once the encrypted cache is destroyed there is no way to return the data that was stored in it.
D. Once the encrypted cache is destroyed he can only restore it if he has configured automatic backups.

Answer: C
Question No : 25 – (Topic 1)
A newly created IBM Worklight application contains the base environment in a common folder. The Worklight application structure is also divided into environment folders (iPhone, Android, BlackBerry, etc). Each environment folder contains the resources (CSS, JS, images, etc) that are relevant for that specific environment. Dave’s common folder contains a JavaScript file and the iPhone folder also contains a JavaScript file. Which JavaScript will the iPhone device use?
A. The JavaScript from common is used unless wlEnvInit() is overwritten.
B. The JavaScript from an environment folder overwrites the file from common.
C. The JavaScript from common is used unless wlCommonInit() is overwritten.
D. The JavaScript from an environment folder is appended to the filefrom common.

Answer: D

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