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What is the SOLR database for?
A. Used for full-text search and enables powerful matching capabilities
B. Writes data to the database and full-text search
C. Serves GUI responsible to transfer request to the DLE server
D. Enables powerful matching capabilities and writes data to the database
Correct Answer: A

fwssd is a child process of which of the following Check Point daemons?
A. fwd
B. cpwd
C. fwm
D. cpd
Correct Answer: A

From SecureXL perspective, what are the tree paths of traffic flow:
A. Initial Path; Medium Path; Accelerated Path
B. Layer Path; Blade Path; Rule Path
C. Firewall Path; Accept Path; Drop Path
D. Firewall Path; Accelerated Path; Medium Path
Correct Answer: D

When Dynamic Dispatcher is enabled, connections are assigned dynamically with the exception of:
A. Threat Emulation
Correct Answer: D

Which of the SecureXL templates are enabled by default on Security Gateway?
A. Accept
B. Drop
D. None
Correct Answer: D

SandBlast offers businesses flexibility in implementation based on their individual business needs. What is an option for
deployment of Check Point SandBlast Zero-Day Protection?
A. Smart Cloud Service
B. Any Cloud Service
C. Threat Agent Service
D. Public Cloud Service
Correct Answer: A

What state is the Management HA when both members have different policies/databases?
A. Synchronized
B. Never been synchronized
C. Lagging
D. Collision
Correct Answer: D
Reference: click here 

Fill in the blank: Identity Awareness AD-Query is using the Microsoft _______________ API to learn users from AD.
B. Eventvwr
D. Services.msc
Correct Answer: A
Reference: click here 

Which command would you use to set the network interfaces\\’ affinity in Manual mode?
A. sim affinity -m
B. sim affinity -l
C. sim affinity -a
D. sim affinity -s
Correct Answer: D

Fill in the blanks. There are ________ types of software containers: ___________.
A. Three; security management, Security Gateway, and endpoint security
B. Three; Security Gateway, endpoint security, and gateway management
C. Two; security management and endpoint security
D. Two; endpoint security and Security Gateway
Correct Answer: A
Reference: click here

What will SmartEvent automatically define as events?
A. Firewall
Correct Answer: C
Reference: click here 

What are the available options for downloading Check Point hotfixes in Gaia WebUI (CPUSE)?
A. Manually, Scheduled, Automatic
B. Manually, Automatic, Disabled
C. Manually, Scheduled, Disabled
D. Manually, Scheduled, Enabled
Correct Answer: A
Reference: click here 

Vanessa is a firewall administrator in her company. Her company is using Check Point firewall on a central and several
remote locations which are managed centrally by R77.30 Security Management Server. On central location is installed
R77.30 Gateway on Open server. Remote locations are using Check Point UTM-1570 series appliances with R75.30
and some of them are using a UTM-1-Edge-X or Edge-W with the latest available firmware. She is in process of migrating to
What can cause Vanessa unnecessary problems, if she didn\\’t checks all requirements for migration to R80?
A. Missing an installed R77.20 Add-on on Security Management Server
B. Unsupported firmware on UTM-1 Edge-W appliance
C. Unsupported version on UTM-1 570 series appliance
D. Unsupported appliances on remote locations
Correct Answer: A

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Which of the following can function as a Management Server for a VSX Gateway?
A. Check Point Integrity
B. SiteManager-1 NGX: Multi-Domain Server
C. Security Management Portal
D. VPN-1/FireWall-1 Small Office
E. Provider-1 NGX: Multi-Domain Server
Answer: E
You are configuring source-based routing in a VSX Gateway deployment with both External and Internal Virtual Routers. Which of the following functions cannot be configured for the Virtual Systems?
A. Virtual System clustering
B. Anti-spoofing measures
C. Network Address Translation
D. Remote access VPNs
E. Intranet VPNs
Answer: B
During MDS installation, you must configure at least one VSX Administrator. After creating the Administrator, you are prompted to perform which task?
A. Grant VSX-specific privileges to the Administrator
B. Assign the Administrator to manage a specific Virtual System
C. Add the Administrator to a group
D. Assign the Administrator to manage a specific interface on the VSX Gateway
E. Assign the Administrator to manage a specific CMA
Answer: C
In a VSX Gateway cluster, which of the following objects are available by default as installation targets for the Management Virtual System?
A. Individual Management Virtual Systems (MVS) for each cluster member
B. MVS cluster object
C. Individual External Virtual Routers for each cluster member
D. Virtual Switch cluster object
E. Individual Virtual Switch Members
Answer: B
Which of the following MDS types allows you to create and manage a VSX Gateway?
B. MDS Manager station
C. MDS VSX Integrator
E. MDS Manager + Container station
Answer: E
What are the two levels of VSX Gateway clustering?
A. INSPECT and database level
B. Database and VSX Gateway levels
C. Virtual device and database levels
D. INSPECT and configuration levels
E. Virtual device and VSX Gateway levels
Answer: E
When deploying a VSX Gateway managed by a SmartCenter Server, which of the following statements is TRUE?
A. VSX Administrators can configure different domains for each Virtual System.
B. Multiple Administrators can simultaneously connect to the same database, to manage multiple Customers.
C. All Customer objects, rules, and users are shared in a single database.
D. Each Virtual System has its own unique Certificate Authority.
E. VSX superuser Administrators can configure granular permissions for each Customer Administrator.
Answer: C
What is the difference between Single-Context and Multi-Context processes?
A. Single-Context processes are implemented in standard firewall deployments, while only Multi-Context processes are implemented in VSX Gateway deployments.
B. Single-Context processes are shared between VSX Gateways in an HA configuration, while Multi-Context processes are shared between VSX Gateways in a Load Sharing environment.
C. Single-Context processes are ones in which all Virtual Systems share, while Multi-Context processes are unique to each Virtual System.
D. Single-Context processes are implemented in a single VSX Gateway environment, while Multi-Context processes are only implemented in VSX Gateway High Availability (HA).
E. Single-Context processes are unique to each Virtual System on a Gateway, while Multi-Context processes are ones in which all Virtual Systems share.
Answer: E
A Warp Link is a virtual point-to-point connection between a:
A. Virtual Router and Virtual System.
B. Virtual Router and Virtual Switch.
C. Virtual System and the management interface.
D. Virtual Router and a physical interface.
E. Virtual System and another Virtual System.
Answer: A
Which of the following statements is true concerning the default Security Policy of the External Virtual Router?
A. The External Virtual Router automatically performs Hide NAT behind its external interface for all Virtual Systems connected to it.
B. The default Policy of the External Virtual Router denies all traffic going to or coming from it.
C. The default policy of the External Virtual Router cannot be changed.
D. All traffic coming from networks protected by a VSX Gateway is accepted. All other traffic is dropped.
E. The External Virtual Router always enforces the same Policy as the Management Virtual System.
Answer: B
How many Management Virtual System instances does each member of a VSX Gateway cluster run?
A. One for each physical interface on the Gateway
B. One for each cluster member
C. Only one
D. Two, the cluster MVS and the unique Gateway MVS
E. One for each Virtual System configured on the Gateway
Answer: C
Which of the following items is most commonly configured as the default Gateway for a Management Virtual System?
A. Interface leading to the management network
B. Same setting as the default Gateway of the External Virtual Router; typically this is a perimeter router.
C. External Virtual Router
D. Internal Virtual Router
E. Interface leading to the synchronization network
Answer: C

Which of the following is NOT a type of physical interface seen in a VSX Gateway?
A. Warp
B. Internal
C. Dedicated management
D. External
E. Synchronization
Answer: A
A __________ is a virtual security device configured on a VSX Gateway, which operates as a complete routing and security domain, with firewall and VPN capabilities.
A. Virtual Switch
B. Context Identification Module
C. Virtual System Extension
D. Virtual System
E. External Virtual Router
Answer: D
When deploying a VSX Gateway managed by a Provider-1 MDS, how many Administrators can connect in Read/Write mode to the MDS database simultaneously?
A. One for each CMA
B. No more than 250
C. One
D. No more than 25
E. Two; one can connect to the Management Virtual System database, while the other connects to the Virtual System database.
Answer: A
During the initial configuration of a VSX Gateway cluster, the VSX Administrator is prompted to specify each cluster member’s name, as shown below:Which of the following best describes this name?

A. IP address of the individual VSX Gateway in the cluster
B. Any name the VSX Administrator chooses to describe the cluster member
C. Customer for which this VSX Gateway cluster is configured
D. MAC address of the individual VSX Gateway in the cluster
E. Hostname of the individual VSX Gateway in the cluster
Answer: B
When configuring Virtual Systems with overlapping IP addressing, the Virtual Systems must:
A. Be included in a VPN.
B. Be on the same network.
C. Perform Network Address Translation.
D. Perform in Bridge mode.
E. Define VLAN Tags.
Answer: C
When configuring a Provider-1 management solution for your VSX Gateway, what is the fewest number of CMAs that must be licensed, for VSX management functionality?

A. 50
B. 25
C. 5
D. 10
E. 1
Answer: D
If you want your customer’s Virtual Systems to give protected hosts access to and from the Internet, which of the following must be configured as a public IP address?
A. Default Gateway IP address of the Virtual Switch
B. Main IP of the customer’s Virtual System
C. Main IP of the Virtual Switch
D. Default Gateway IP address of the Management Virtual System
E. Main IP of the Management Virtual System
Answer: B
TRUE or FALSE. A Virtual System in Bridge mode can enforce anti-spoofing definitions.
A. True, anti-spoofing must be manually defined in bridge mode.
B. True, as long as the Virtual System has more than two interfaces defined.
C. True, as long as Network Address Translation is performed.
D. True, anti-spoofing measures are defined automatically in Bridge mode.
E. False, anti-spoofing cannot be configured for Virtual Systems in Bridge mode.
Answer: A

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In the following cluster configuration; if you reboot sglondon_1 which device will be active when sglondon_1 is back up and running? Why?
A. sglondon_1 because it the first configured object with the lowest IP.
B. sglondon_2 because sglondon_1 has highest IP.
C. sglondon_1, because it is up again, sglondon_2 took over during reboot.
D. sglondon_2 because it has highest priority.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 2
You find that Gateway fw2 can NOT be added to the cluster object.

What are possible reasons for that?
1) fw2 is a member in a VPN community. 2) ClusterXL software blade is not enabled on fw2. 3) fw2 is a DAIP Gateway.
A. 2 or 3
B. 1 or 2
C. 1 or 3
D. All

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 3
Review the Rule Base displayed.

For which rules will the connection templates be generated in SecureXL?
A. Rules 2 and 5
B. Rules 2 through 5
C. Rule 2 only
D. All rules except Rule 3

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 4
You are trying to configure Directional VPN Rule Match in the Rule Base. But the Match column does not
have the option to see the Directional Match. You see the following window.
What must you enable to see the Directional Match?

A. directional_match(true) in the objects_5_0.C file on Security Management Server
B. VPN Directional Match on the Gateway object’s VPN tab
C. VPN Directional Match on the VPN advanced window, in Global Properties
D. Advanced Routing on each Security Gateway

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 5
MultiCorp is running Smartcenter R71 on an IPSO platform and wants to upgrade to a new Appliance with R77. Which migration tool is recommended?
A. Download Migration Tool R77 for IPSO and Splat/Linux from Check Point website.
B. Use already installed Migration Tool.
C. Use Migration Tool from CD/ISO
D. Fetch Migration Tool R71 for IPSO and Migration Tool R77 for Splat/Linux from CheckPoint website

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 6
MegaCorp is running Smartcenter R70, some Gateways at R65 and some other Gateways with R60. Management wants to upgrade to the most comprehensive IPv6 support. What should the administrator do first?
A. Upgrade Smartcenter to R77 first.
B. Upgrade R60-Gateways to R65.
C. Upgrade every unit directly to R77.
D. Check the ReleaseNotes to verify that every step is supported.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 7
MicroCorp experienced a security appliance failure. (LEDs of all NICs are off.) The age of the unit required that the RMA-unit be a different model. Will a revert to an existing snapshot bring the new unit up and running?
A. There is no dynamic update at reboot.
B. No. The revert will most probably not match to hard disk.
C. Yes. Everything is dynamically updated at reboot.
D. No. At installation the necessary hardware support is selected. The snapshot saves this state.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 8
Which is the lowest Gateway version manageable by SmartCenter R77?
A. R65
B. S71
C. R55
D. R60A

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 9
Can you implement a complete IPv6 deployment without IPv4 addresses?
A. No. SmartCenter cannot be accessed from everywhere on the Internet.
B. Yes. Only one TCP stack (IPv6 or IPv4) can be used at the same time.
C. Yes, There is no requirement for managing IPv4 addresses.
D. No. IPv4 addresses are required for management.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 10
A ClusterXL configuration is limited to ___ members.
A. There is no limit.
B. 16
C. 6
D. 2

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 11
Select the command set best used to verify proper failover function of a new ClusterXL configuration.
A. reboot
B. cphaprob -d failDevice -s problem -t 0 register / cphaprob -d failDevice unregister
C. clusterXL_admin down / clusterXL_admin up
D. cpstop/cpstart

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 12
You are troubleshooting a HTTP connection problem. You’ve started fw monitor -o http.pcap. When you open http.pcap with Wireshark there is only one line. What is the most likely reason?
A. fw monitor was restricted to the wrong interface.
B. Like SmartView Tracker only the first packet of a connection will be captured by fw monitor.
C. By default only SYN pakets are captured.
D. Acceleration was turned on and therefore fw monitor sees only SYN.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 13
Which two processes are responsible on handling Identity Awareness?
A. pdp and lad
B. pdp and pdp-11
C. pep and lad
D. pdp and pep

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 14
Which three of the following are ClusterXL member requirements? 1) same operating systems 2) same Check Point version 3) same appliance model 4) same policy
A. 1, 3, and 4
B. 1, 2, and 4
C. 2, 3, and 4
D. 1, 2, and 3

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 15
You run cphaprob -a if. When you review the output, you find the word DOWN. What does DOWN mean?
A. The cluster link is down.
B. The physical interface is administratively set to DOWN.
C. The physical interface is down.
D. CCP pakets couldn’t be sent to or didn’t arrive from neighbor member.

Correct Answer: D
Which three of the following components are required to get a SmartEvent up and running? 1) SmartEvent SIC 2) SmartEvent Correlation Unit 3) SmartEvent Server 4) SmartEvent Analyzer 5) SmartEvent Client
A. 2, 3, and 5
B. 1, 2, and 4
C. 1, 2, and 3
D. 3, 4, and 5

Correct Answer: A
MegaCorp is using SmartCenter Server with several gateways. Their requirements result in a heavy log load. Would it be feasible to add the SmartEvent Correlation Unit and SmartEvent Server to their SmartCenter Server?
A. No. SmartCenter SIC will interfere with the function of SmartEvent.
B. No. If SmartCenter is already under stress, the use of a separate server for SmartEvent is recommended.
C. No, SmartEvent and Smartcenter cannot be installed on the same machine at the same time.
D. Yes. SmartEvent must be installed on your SmartCenter Server.

Correct Answer: B
Which Check Point tool allows you to open a debug file and see the VPN packet exchange details.
A. PacketDebug.exe
B. VPNDebugger.exe
C. IkeView.exe
D. IPSECDebug.exe

Correct Answer: C
When a packet is flowing through the security gateway, which one of the following is a valid inspection path?
A. Acceleration Path
B. Small Path
C. Firewall Path
D. Medium Path

Correct Answer: D
To run GAiA in 64bit mode, which of the following is true? 1) Run set edition default 64-bit.
2) Install more than 4 GB RAM. 3) Install more than 4 TB of Hard Disk.
A. 1 and 3
B. 1 and 2
C. 2 and 3
D. 1, 2, and 3

Correct Answer: B

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What is a task of the SmartEvent Server?
A. Assign a severity level to an event.
B. Display the received events.
C. Analyze each IPS log entry as it enters the Log server.
D. Forward what is known as an event to the SmartEvent Server.
Answer: A Explanation:
What is a task of the SmartEvent Client?
A. Add events to the events database.
B. Display the received events.
C. Assign a severity level to an event.
D. Analyze each IPS log entry as it enters the Log server.
Answer: B Explanation:
Which of the following functions CANNOT be performed in ClientInfo on computer information collected?
A. Copy the contents of the selected cells.
Checkpoint 156-315.75 Exam
B. Save the information in the active tab to an .exe file.
C. Enter new credential for accessing the computer information.
D. Run Google.com search using the contents of the selected cell.
Answer: B Explanation:
What is the SmartEvent Analyzer’s function?
A. Analyze log entries, looking for Event Policy patterns.
B. Generate a threat analysis report from the Analyzer database.
C. Display received threats and tune the Events Policy.
D. Assign severity levels to events.
Answer: D Explanation:
How many pre-defined exclusions are included by default in SmartEvent R71 as part of the
product installation?
A. 3
B. 0
C. 10
D. 5
Answer: A Explanation:
What is the purpose of the pre-defined exclusions included with SmartEvent R71?
A. To give samples of how to write your own exclusion.
B. To avoid incorrect event generation by the default IPS event definition; a scenario that may
Checkpoint 156-315.75 Exam
occur in deployments that include Security Gateways of versions prior to R71.
C. To allow SmartEvent R71 to function properly with all other R71 release devices.
D. As a base for starting and building exclusions.
Answer: B Explanation:
You have selected the event Port Scan from Internal Network in SmartEvent, to detect an event when 30 port scans have occurred within 60 seconds. You also want to detect two port scans from a host within 10 seconds of each other. How would you accomplish this?
A. Select the two port-scan detections as a sub-event.
B. Define the two port-scan detections as an exception.
C. You cannot set SmartEvent to detect two port scans from a host within 10 seconds of each other.
D. Select the two port-scan detections as a new event.
Answer: B Explanation:
What is the benefit to running SmartEvent in Learning Mode?
A. To run SmartEvent, with a step-by-step online configuration guide for training/setup purposes
B. There is no SmartEvent Learning Mode
C. To run SmartEvent with preloaded sample data in a test environment
D. To generate a report with system Event Policy modification suggestions
Answer: D Explanation:
To backup all events stored in the SmartEvent Server, you should back up the contents of which folder(s)?
Checkpoint 156-315.75 Exam
A. $FWDIR/distrib_db and $FWDIR/events
B. $FWDIR/events_db
C. $FWDIR/distrib and $FWDIR/events_db
D. $FWDIR/distrib
Answer: C Explanation:
Which of the following generates a SmartEvent Report from its SQL database?
A. Security Management Server
B. SmartEvent Client
C. SmartReporter
D. SmartDashboard Log Consolidator
Answer: C Explanation:
Which of the following statements about the Port Scanning feature of IPS is TRUE?
A. The default scan detection is when more than 500 open inactive ports are open for a period of 120 seconds.
B. The Port Scanning feature actively blocks the scanning, and sends an alert to SmartView Monitor.
C. Port Scanning does not block scanning; it detects port scans with one of three levels of detection sensitivity.
D. When a port scan is detected, only a log is issued, never an alert.
Answer: C

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