Category: 11g

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QUESTION 1
Which two statements are true about java EE shared libraries?
A. A shared library cannot be deployed to a cluster.
B. An application that is targeted to server1 can use a shared library that is targeted to server 2.
C. Multiple versions of the same shared library can be deployed and be active at the same time
D. A shared library is referenced through an application’s deployment descriptor.

Correct Answer: CD Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
C: If more than one copy of myLibrary is registered, WebLogic Server selects the library with the highest specification version. If multiple copies of the library use the selected specification version, WebLogic Server selects the copy having the highest implementation version.
D: A Java EE application can reference a registered shared Java EE library using entries in the application’s weblogic-application.xml deployment descriptor.
Reference: Referencing Shared Java EE Libraries in an Enterprise Application http://docs.oracle.com/cd/E12840_01/wls/docs103/programming/libraries.html

QUESTION 2
Refer to the Exhibit.

You use the Start button in the administration console to start managed2 successfully. Which two statements must be true?
A. Managad2 is part of a cluster.
B. The Administration Server is running.
C. Managed2 has applications deployed to it.
D. The Node Manager for machine2 is configured and running.
E. The Node Manager for the Administration Server machine is configured and running.

Correct Answer: BD Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
B: The administration server must be running.
Note: A WebLogic Server administration domain is a logically related group of WebLogic Server resources. Domains include a special WebLogic Server instance
called the Administration Server, which is the central point from which you configure and manage all resources in the domain.

D:
Node Manager is a WebLogic Server utility that enables you to start, shut down, and restart Administration Server and Managed Server instances from a remote
location. Although Node Manager is optional, it is recommended if your WebLogic Server environment hosts applications with high availability requirements.
A Node Manager process is not associated with a specific WebLogic domain but with a machine. You can use the same Node Manager process to control server
instances in any WebLogic Server domain, as long as the server instances reside on the same machine as the Node Manager process. Node Manager must run
on each computer that hosts WebLogic Server instances — whether Administration Server or Managed Server — that you want to control with Node Manager.
Incorrect answers:

A: We could not know if Managed2 is in a cluster or not.

C: We could not know if Managed2 has deployed applications.
QUESTION 3
Within your data center, the Administration and Managed Servers utilize a shared, central storage device, which server’s access via NFS.
In this scenario, your application files no longer need to be copied to servers across the network. Which server attribute allows you to override this behavior?
A. Startup Mode
B. Staging Mode
C. Root Directory
D. Listen Address

Correct Answer: B Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
The server staging mode specifies the default deployment mode for a server if none is specified at deployment time. For example, the server staging mode is used
if you deploy an application or module using weblogic.Deployer and you do not specify a staging mode.
Reference:
http://docs.oracle.com/cd/E12840_01/wls/docs103/ConsoleHelp/taskhelp/deployment/SetAServe rStagingMode.html
QUESTION 4
An EJB application is targeted to a cluster. Remote EJB clients can therefore take advantage of WebLogic Server’s load balancing and failover capabilities.
However, a proxy server exists between the clients and the cluster, which performs IP address translation. Which cluster attribute should you modify to ensure that load balancing and failover work correctly?
A. Multicast Address
B. Persistent Store
C. Cluster Address
D. Migration Basis
E. Replication Channel

Correct Answer: C Explanation Explanation/Reference:
Note:
Updating Proxy Service Configurations for an Expanded Cluster

If your AquaLogic Service Bus configuration includes one or more proxy services that use JMS endpoints with cluster addresses, then you must also perform the
following procedure using the AquaLogic Service Bus Console after adding the new managed server to the cluster:

1.
In the Change Center, click Create to create a session.

2.
Using the Project Explorer, locate and select a proxy service that uses JMS endpoints with cluster addresses.

3.
At the bottom of the View Details page, click Edit.

4.
If there is a cluster address in the endpoint URI, add the new server to the cluster address.

5.
On the Edit a Proxy Service – Summary page, click Save.

6.
Repeat step 2. through step 5. for each remaining proxy service that uses JMS endpoints with cluster addresses.

7.
In the Change Center, click Activate.
The proxy services are now configured for operation in the extended domain.
Reference: eDocs Home > BEA AquaLogic Service Bus 2.0 Documentation > Deployment Guide > Configuring a Clustered Deployment
QUESTION 5
You run the default startmanageWeblogic (.cmd in Windows) script as shown here: startmanageWeblogic.sh server1 http://192.168.1.102:8001.
What does this do?
A. It starts the administration server named server1, which is running at 192.168.1.102.8001.
B. It starts the managed server named server1, which is running at 192.168.1.102.8001.
C. It starts the managed server named server1 whose Node Manager is running at 192.168.1.102.8001.
D. It starts the Managed Server named server1 whose Administration Server is running at 192.168.1.102:8001. Correct Answer: D

Explanation Explanation/Reference:
A Managed Server is a WebLogic Server instance that runs deployed applications. It refers to the Administration Server for all of its configuration and deployment
information. Usually, you use Managed Servers to run applications in a production environment.
See step 4 and 5 below in particular:
To use the WebLogic Server scripts to start Managed Servers:

1.
Refer to Starting Servers: Before You Begin for prerequisite tasks.
2.
If you have not already done so, create one or more Managed Servers.
See Creating WebLogic Domains Using the Configuration Wizard or “Create Managed Servers” in the Administration Console Online Help.
3.
Start the domain’s Administration Server.
4.
In a shell (command prompt) on the computer that hosts the Managed Server, change to the directory that contains the startManagedWebLogicscript:
DOMAIN_NAME\bin\startManagedWebLogic.cmd (Windows)
DOMAIN_NAME/bin/startManagedWebLogic.sh (UNIX)
where DOMAIN_NAME is the directory in which you located the domain. By default, this directory is BEA_HOME\user_projects\domains\DOMAIN_NAME.
5.
Enter one of the following commands:

startManagedWebLogic.cmd managed_server_name
admin_url (Windows)
startManagedWebLogic.sh managed_server_name
admin_url (UNIX)

where managed_server_name specifies the name of the Managed Server and admin_url specifies the listen address (host name or IP address) and port number
of the domain’s Administration Server.

For example, the following command uses startManagedWebLogic.cmd to start a Managed Server named myManagedServer. The listen address for the domain’s
Administration Server is AdminHost:7001:

c:\bea\user_projects\domains\mydomain\bin\startManagedWe bLogic.cmd myManagedServer http://AdminHost:7001
6. For each Managed Server that you want to start, open a separate command shell and follow steps 4 and 5. If you are starting Managed Servers on another machine, log in to that machine (remotely or locally) and then follow steps 4 and 5.
Reference: Starting Managed Servers with a Startup Script
QUESTION 6
An application requires a JDBC data source, which you create in the domain. You name it but the administrator allot another domain name the same data source DatasourceB.
Without modifying either domain, which is the best method to ensure that the application deploys successfully in both?
A. Create a separate application archive to use with each domain.
B. Create a separate deployment plan file to use with each domain.
C. Create and register a custom deployment listener.
D. Modify the application code to determine the current domain. Correct Answer: B

Explanation Explanation/Reference:
A WebLogic Server deployment plan is an optional XML document that you use to configure an application for deployment to a specific WebLogic Server environment, such as a domain.
Reference: Deploying Applications To WebLogic Server, Configuring Applications for Production Deployment
QUESTION 7
Identify three options for Keystores in a server’s configuration.
A. Demo Identity and Demo Trust
B. Demo Identity and Java Standard Trust
C. Java Standard Identity and Custom Trust
D. Custom Identity and Demo Trust
E. Custom Identity and Custom Trust
F. Custom Identity and Command Line Trust

Correct Answer: AEF Explanation Explanation/Reference:
Please refer to the screenshot below:

Incorrect answers:
F: Custom Identity and Command Line Trust are not valid choices.
Reference:
http://docs.oracle.com/cd/E23549_01/apirefs.1111/e13952/pagehelp/Corecoreserverserverconfig keystoretitle.html#attributes
QUESTION 8
When installing Oracle Weblogic Server 11g with the graphical installer, which three statements are true?
A. You must choose either a typical or a custom installation.
B. You install under Microsoft Windows because the graphical installer is available only for Window
C. You may create a new middleware home directory or choose an existing one.
D. You must register for critical security updates.
E. You may install a JDK or choose one that was previously installed.

Correct Answer: ACE Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Tasks WebLogic Server Product Installation Procedure Step 1 – Obtain the appropriate installation file for your platform Step 2 – Complete the installation planning requirements Ensure that your system environment meets the requirements for the installation. Also determine your Oracle Middleware home directory, and product installation home directories. (C) When you are installing WebLogic Server, you are prompted to choose an existing Middleware home directory or specify a path to create a new Middleware home directory. If you choose to create a new directory, the installation program automatically creates it for you. Step 3 – Determine the appropriate installation mode for your situation Step 4 – Determine the type of installation
(A) There are two types of installation Typical or Custom. The type of installation depends on the products and sub-components you want to install.
Step 5 – Install the software
Step 6 – Create a WebLogic domain

E: The JDK selection screen.
This screen is displayed only if you selected a Custom installation. It is not displayed if you are running an Upgrade installer.
This screen displays a list of JDKs. This list contains JDKs that are available for (and common across) previous installations of all the selected WebLogic Server
components.

Select the JDK that you want to install with the product.
Incorrect answers:
B: There are different platforms on which Weblogic can be installed. Such as Windows, Linux, and UNIX.

D: To receive updates you must register. However, you do not do that during the graphic installation phase.
Note: You must have an active My Oracle Support account in order to download an Upgrade installer.
You can also install patch releases using the Smart Update tool, which is included with WebLogic Server. Smart Update requires that you have an active My
Oracle Support account.

If a patch release or patch set is available for your current WebLogic Server installation, you can download an Upgrade installer from My Oracle Support. Upgrade installers let you install an available patch release or patch set onto an existing WebLogic Server installation.
Reference: Oracle Fusion Middleware Installation Guide for Oracle WebLogic Server 11g Release 1, Running the Installation Program in Graphical Mode Reference: Oracle Fusion Middleware Installation Guide for Oracle WebLogic Server 11g Release 1, Installation Overview
QUESTION 9
Each domain has a directory called servers that contains subdirectories for each server in the domain. Your domain has a managed server named managed1. When will the managed1 directory be created?
A. When the managed1 server is defined in the configuration Wizard
B. When the domain is created
C. When the administration server comes up for the first time
D. When the managed1 server1 comes for the first time

Correct Answer: D Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
This directory is created when the server is started for the first time.
QUESTION 10
Identify three properties required by the domain Configuration Wizard when creating a new domain.
A. machine name
B. Managed Server name
C. domain startup mode
D. domain name
E. administrator username and password

Correct Answer: CDE Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
C: Choose the Startup Mode Specify the startup mode for your domain. Either Development or Production
D: The Create WebLogic Domain window prompts you to specify the name and pathname for the domain, and initiate its creation.
E: The Configure Administrator Username and Password window prompts you to specify a username and password to be used for starting the Administration Server.
Reference: Creating WebLogic Domains Using The Configuration Wizard http://docs.oracle.com/cd/E13179_01/common/docs92/confgwiz/newdom.html
QUESTION 11
Which two statements are true about adding servers to a cluster?
A. When you create a cluster, you must add at least one server to it.
B. Only managed servers can be in a cluster.
C. The administration server is automatically added to a new cluster.
D. You must explicitly identify which servers belong to the cluster.

Correct Answer: AB Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
A cluster must include at least one server.
A clustered is administered through an administration server, but the cluster consists of managed servers only.

QUESTION 12
Consider a single JMS module that includes a connection factory as well as queue. Based on your system’s requirements, the connection factory needs to be made available to all servers in the domain. The queue, on the other hand, can be targeted to only a single JMS server domain.
What is the best way to achieve the desired JMS setup?
A. Create two subdeployments within the JMS module.
B. Target the JMS server to the JMS module.
C. Target the JMS module to the entire domain.
D. Replace the queue with a topic.

Correct Answer: A Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
A subdeployment is a mechanism by which JMS module resources (such as queues, topics, and connection factories) are grouped and targeted to a server
resource (such as JMS servers, server instances, SAF agents, or a cluster).
For example, you can group a connection factory with stand-alone queues or topics in a subdeployment targeted to a specific JMS server, which guarantees that
all these resources are co-located to avoid extra network traffic. Another advantage of such a configuration would be if the targeted JMS server needs to be
migrated to another WebLogic server instance, then the connection factory and all its connections will also migrate along with the JMS server’s destinations.
However, when stand-alone queues or topics are members of a subdeployment, a connection factory can only be targeted to the same JMS server.

Reference: Oracle Fusion Middleware Oracle WebLogic Server Administration Console Online Help 11g Release 1, Configure subdeployments in JMS system
modules

QUESTION 13
Which three attributes are part of the configuration of an existing Managed Server and can be modified through the” administration console?
A. name of the server
B. the cluster it is in
C. the machine it runs on
D. its replication group
E. whether it is in Development Mode or Production Mode
F. that it should become the Administration Server for the domain

Correct Answer: BCD Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
B: Attribute label: Cluster The cluster to which this server belongs. If set, the server will listen for cluster multicast events. This is a configurable attribute.
C: Attribute label: Machine
The WebLogic Server host computer (machine) on which this server is meant to run.
This is a configurable attribute.

D: Server –> Configuration –> Cluster
A WebLogic Server cluster is a group of servers that work together to provide a more scalable, more reliable application platform than a single server.
Use this page to specify a server’s primary and secondary replication group, cluster weight, and the interface address used to handle multicast traffic.

Attribute label: Replication Group
Description: Defines preferred clustered instances considered for hosting replicas of the primary HTTP session states created on the server.

Incorrect answers:

A: Attribute Label: Name
After you have created a server, you cannot change its name. Instead, clone the server and provide a new name for the clone.
Note:
An alphanumeric name for this server instance. This field will not accept spaces. Each server instance in your WebLogic environment must have a unique name,
regardless of the domain or cluster in which it resides, or whether it is an Administration Server or a Managed Server. Within a domain, each server, machine,
cluster, JDBC connection pool, virtual host, and any other resource type must be named uniquely and must not use the same name as the domain.

F: There is no attribute within a server’s configuration that designates it as an Administration Server or Managed Server. Instead, the first server instance that you
start in a domain always functions as the Administration Server.
Reference: BEA WebLogic Server 8.1 Documentation, Server –> Configuration –> General

QUESTION 14
Which can be associated with multiple domains?
A. Cluster
B. Server Log
C. Node Manager
D. Administration Server

Correct Answer: C Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
A Node Manager process is not associated with a specific WebLogic domain but with a machine. You can use the same Node Manager process to control server
instances in any WebLogic Server domain, as long as the server instances reside on the same machine as the Node Manager process.
Incorrect answers:

A: A cluster is part of a particular WebLogic Server domain.
D: In each domain, one WebLogic Server instance acts as the Administration Server–the server instance which configures, manages, and monitors all other server instances and resources in the domain. Each Administration Server manages one domain only. If a domain contains multiple clusters, each cluster in the domain has the same Administration Server.
Reference: Using Node Manager to Control Servers Reference: Understanding WebLogic Server Clustering http://docs.oracle.com/cd/E11035_01/wls100/cluster/overview.html
QUESTION 15
Identify two supported methods of deploying a JMS module to a domain.
A. Create a module by using the administration console.
B. Load a module into the WebLogic database.
C. Include a module file within a web application archive.
D. Include a module file within an enterprise application archive.
E. Define a module within an existing JDBC module.

Correct Answer: AD Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
A: Main Steps for Creating Packaged JMS Application Modules
Follow these steps to configure a packaged JMS module:
If necessary, create a JMS server to target the JMS module to, as explained in “Configure JMS Servers” in the Administration Console Online Help.
Create a JMS system module and configure the necessary resources, such as queues or topics, as described in “Configure JMS system modules and add JMS
resources” in the Administration Console Online Help.
The system module is saved in config\jms subdirectory of the domain directory, with a “- jms.xml” suffix.
Copy the system module to a new location, and then:
Give the module a unique name within the domain namespace.
Delete the JNDI-Name attribute to make the module application-scoped to only the application. Add references to the JMS resources in the module to all
applicable J2EE application component’s descriptor files, as described in Referencing a Packaged JMS Application Module In Deployment Descriptor Files.
Package all application modules in an EAR, as described in Packaging an Enterprise Application With a JMS Application Module.
Deploy the EAR, as described in Deploying a Packaged JMS Application Module.

D: JMS application modules can be packaged as part of an Enterprise Application Archive (EAR), as a packaged module. Packaged modules are bundled with an
EAR or exploded EAR directory, and are referenced in the weblogic-application.xml descriptor. The packaged JMS module is deployed along with the Enterprise
Application, and the resources defined in this module can optionally be made available only to the enclosing application (i.e., as an application-scoped resource).
Such modules are particularly useful when packaged with EJBs (especially MDBs) or Web Applications that use JMS resources. Using packaged modules
ensures that an application always has required resources and simplifies the process of moving the application into new environments.

Reference: Packaging JMS Application Modules In an Enterprise Application
QUESTION 16
Which statement is true about the java Node Manager?
A. It runs on Windows not on Linux
B. In its secure form, it uses one-way SSL.
C. It does not use the nodemanager.domains file, whereas the script-based Node Manager.
D. Unlike the script based Node Manager, it should not be run as an operating system service
Correct Answer: B Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Node Manager security relies on a one-way SSL connection between the client and server.
Reference: Oracle Fusion Middleware Oracle WebLogic Server Administration Console Online Help 11g Release 1, Configuring Java-based Node Manager Security http://docs.oracle.com/cd/E21764_01/web.1111/e13740/java_nodemgr.htm#i1068397
QUESTION 17
Which two statements are true about a WebLogic domain?
A. It is the basic administrative unit of WebLogic Server.
B. It is an optional administrative construct to organize groups of WebLogic
C. Administration Servers are defined within a domain, but Managed Servers
D. You must first have a domain to define a WebLogic Server cluster.
E. Every domain has one Administration Server and at least one managed server

Correct Answer: AD Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
A: A domain is the basic administration unit for WebLogic Server instances.
D: To define a WebLogic Server cluster there must be a domain:
Note: Before you start the Managed Servers in a domain, start the Administration Server. When you start a standalone or clustered Managed Server, it contacts the Administration Server for its configuration information. In this way, the Administration Server operates as the central control entity for the configuration of the entire domain.
Reference: Configuring and Managing WebLogic Server http://docs.oracle.com/cd/E13222_01/wls/docs81/adminguide/overview_domain.html
QUESTION 18
Which two statements are true about multicast communication within a cluster?
A. Multicast can be used for cluster heartbeat messages.
B. Multicast is used to replicate session state between servers.
C. Multiple clusters can share the same multicast address and port.
D. You may disable multicast on individual cluster members.
E. Multicast traffic is often limited to a single subnet.

Correct Answer: AE Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
A: WebLogic Server instances in a cluster communicate with one another using two basic network technologies:
*
IP sockets, which are the conduits for peer-to-peer communication between clustered server instances.

*
IP unicast or multicast, which server instances use to broadcast availability of services and heartbeats that indicate continued availability.
E: In many deployments, clustered server instances reside within a single subnet, ensuring multicast messages are reliably transmitted. However, you may want to distribute a WebLogic Server cluster across multiple subnets in a Wide Area Network (WAN) to increase redundancy, or to distribute clustered server instances over a larger geographical area.
Reference: Using WebLogic Server Clusters, Communications In a Cluster http://docs.oracle.com/cd/E11035_01/wls100/cluster/features.html
QUESTION 19
Identify two true statements about an Oracle WebLogic Server JMS Connection Factory.
A. A default JMS Connection Factory exists and is named weblogic.jms.connections
B. A Connection Factory can be targeted to only one WebLogic Server.
C. A JMS Connection Factory’s Default Priority and Default Time-to-Live attribute cannot be modified after the Connection Factory is created.
D. A JMS Connection factory can be created as a system module resource within the administration console.

Correct Answer: BD Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Incorrect answers:
A: WebLogic JMS defines two default connection factories, which you can look up using the following JNDI names:
weblogic.jms.ConnectionFactory
weblogic.jms.XAConnectionFactory

C: Both Default Priority and Default Time-to-live can be changed:
Default Priority: This attribute is dynamic. It can be changed at any time. However, changing the value does not affect existing connections. It only affects new
connections made with this connection factory.

Default Time-to-Live:
This attribute is dynamic. It can be changed at any time. However, changing the value does not affect existing connections. It only affects new connections made
with this connection factory.

Reference: Programming WebLogic JMS, Understanding WebLogic JMS

QUESTION 20
In WLST, you enter the shutdown () command with no arguments. Which statement is true in this case?
A. The server you are connected to will shut down.
B. The command does a “Force” shutdown.
C. The command blocks user interaction.
D. The command has timeout of 30,000 milliseconds.
Correct Answer: A Explanation Explanation/Reference:

The WLST life cycle shutdown command gracefully shuts down a running server instance or cluster.
Reference: WebLogic Scripting Tool ,Life Cycle Commands

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QUESTION 1
You executed the following command to drop a user:
DROP USER scott CASCADE;
Which two statements regarding the above command are correct? (Choose two.)

A. All the objects of scott are moved to the Recycle Bin
B. Any objects in the Recycle Bin belonging to scott are purged
C. All the objects owned by scott are permanently dropped from the database
D. All the objects of scott in the Recycle Bin must be purged before executing the DROP command
E. Any objects in the Recycle Bin belonging to scott will not be affected by the above DROP command

Correct Answer: BC QUESTION 2
Which client requests to the database can be captured as a part of the workload capture? (Choose all that apply.)
A. Flashback query
B. Distributed transactions
C. Logging in and logging out of sessions
D. All DDL statements having bind variables
E. Direct path load of data from external files

Correct Answer: CD QUESTION 3
You executed the following SQL statement to shrink the EMPLOYEES table segment stored in the
EXAMPLE tablespace:
ALTER TABLE employees SHRINK SPACE CASCADE;
Which statement is correct in this scenario?

A. The EMPLOYEES table will be changed to read-only mode during the shrink operation
B. The indexes created on the EMPLOYEES table will need to be rebuilt after the shrink operation is over
C. The shrink behavior will be cascaded to all dependent segments of the table that support a shrink operation
D. Data manipulation language (DML) operations will not be possible on the EMPLOYYES table during the COMPACTION phase of the shrink operation

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 4
You want to convert your existing non-ASM files to ASM files for the database PROD. Which method or command would you use to accomplish this task?
A. Data Pump Export and Import
B. Conventional export and import
C. The CONVERT command of RMAN
D. The BACKUP AS COPY….. command of RMAN

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 5
You have three production databases, HRDB, FINDB and ORGDB that use the same ASM instance. At the
end of the day, while all three production database instances are running, you execute the following
command on the ASM instance.
SQL> shutdown immediate;
What is the result of executing this command?

A. The ASM instance is shut down, but the other instances are still running
B. It results in an error because other database instances are connected to it
C. All the instances, including the ASM instance, are shut down in the IMMEDIATE mode
D. HRDB, FINDB and ORGDB instances are shut down in the ABORT mode and the ASM instance is shut down in the IMMEDIATE mode

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 6
You are managing an Oracle 11g database with ASM storage, for which the COMPATIBLE initialization parameter is set to 11.1.0. In the ASM instance, the COMPATIBLE.RDBMS attribute for the disk group is set to 10.2 and the COMPATIBLE.ASM attribute is set to 11.1. Which two statements are in this scenario for the features enabled for ASM? (Choose two.)
A. The ASM-preferred mirror read feature is enabled
B. The ASM supports variable size of extents of 1,8 and 64 allocation units
C. The ASM disk is dropped immediately from a disk group when it becomes unavailable
D. The RDBMS always reads the primary copy of a mirrored extent of the ASM disk group

Correct Answer: AB QUESTION 7
You have three temporary tablespace groups named G1, G3 and G3 in you database.
You are creating a new temporary tablespace as follows:
CREATE TEMPORARY TABLESAPCE TEMP1 TEMPFILE `/u1/data/temp1.dbf’ SIZE 10M TABLESPACE

GROUP”;
Which statement regarding the above command is correct?

A. It will create the tablespace TEMP1 in group G1
B. It will create the tablespace TEMP1 in group G3
C. It will not add the tablespace TEMP1 to any group
D. It will create the tablespace TEMP1 in the default group

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 8
You executed the following SQL statement to shrink the EMPLOYEES table segment stored in the
EXAMPLE tablespace:
ALTER TABLE employees SHRINK SPACE CASCADE;
Which statement is correct in this scenario?

A. The EMPLOYEES table will be changed to read-only mode during the shrink operation
B. The indexes created on the EMPLOYEES table will need to be rebuilt after the shrink operation is over
C. The shrink behavior will be cascaded to all dependent segments of the table that support a shrink operation
D. Data manipulation language (DML) operations will not be possible on the EMPLOYYES table during the COMPACTION phase of the shrink operation

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 9
You have the following requirements in relation to the detection of block corruption for your database instance:
1.
Check for logical self-consistency of data blocks when modified in memory

2.
Checksums are calculated before and after the block change

3.
Checks are performed for the lost writes to the physical standby database Which method would help you perform the above checks automatically?
A. Set the DB_SECUREFILE parameter to PERMITTED
B. Set the DB_ULTRA_SAFE parameter to DATA_ONLY
C. Set the DB_LOCK_CHECKSUM parameter to TYPICAL
D. Set the DB_LOST _WRITE_PROTECT parameter to TYPICAL

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 10
Which client requests to the database can be captured as a part of the workload capture? (Choose all that apply.)
A. Flashback query
B. Distributed transactions
C. Logging in and logging out of sessions
D. All DDL statements having bind variables
E. Direct path load of data from external files

Correct Answer: CD QUESTION 11
ENCRYPT_TS is an encrypted tablespace that contains tables with data. Which statement is true regarding the effect of queries and data manipulation language (DML) statements on the encrypted data in the tables?
A. The data is decrypted during SORT and JOIN operations
B. The data remains encrypted when it is read into memory
C. The data remains encrypted when it is stored in the redo logs
D. The data remains encrypted in the UNDO tablespace provided that the UNDO tablespace was created with the encryption option enabled

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 12
See the Exhibit:

To examine the error obtained during the I/O calibration process.
There are no data files on raw devices. What is the reason for this error?

A. The DISK_ASYNCH_IO parameter is set to TRUE
B. The FILESYSTEMIO_OPTIONS parameter is set to NONE
C. Another session runs the I/O calibration process concurrently
D. The pending area has not been created before running the I/O calibration process

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 13
See the exhibit: To examine the error while executing the REPARI FAILURe command in an RMAN session. What is the reason for this error?

A. Another repair session is running concurrently
B. The failure ID has not been mentioned in the command for data file5.
C. There are new failures recorded in the Automatic Diagnostic Repository (ADR).
D. The ADVISE FAILURE command has not been issued before the REPAIR FAILURE command.

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 14
The Oracle Database 11g database is running in the ARCHIVELOG mode. The archived redo log files are
stored on three locations. The Flash Recovery Area is one of the locations. The details are given below:

LOG_ARCHIVE_DEST_1 = `LOCATION = /disk1/archive’ LOG_ARCHIVE_DEST_2 = `SERVICE = stdb1′
DB-RECOVERY_FILE_DEST = `/u01/oradata’
Examine the following RMAN command is used to set the deletion policy for archived log files:

RMAN> CONFIGURE ARCHIVELOG DELETION POLICY TO BACKED up 2 TIMES TO sbt;

Which statement is true regarding what this command accomplishes?

A. All archived redo log files backed up at least twice to tape are deleted
B. All archived redo log files backed up at least once to tape are eligible for deletion C. All archived redo log files backed up at least twice to tape are deleted from the flash recovery area
D. All archived redo log files in local archiving destinations and the flash recovery area backed up at least twice to tape are eligible for deletion

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 15
You want to convert you existing non-ASM files to ASM files for the database PROD. Which method or command would you use to accomplish this task?
A. Data Pump Export and Import
B. Conventional export and import
C. The COVERT command of RMAN
D. The BACKUP AS COPY….. command of RMAN

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 16
See the Exhibit: In the CUSTOMERS_OBE table, when the value of COST_STATE_PROVINCE is “CA”, the value of COUNTRY_ID is “US”. See the exhibit to examine the commands and query plans.

The optimizer can sense 8 rows instead of 29 rows, which is the actual number of rows in the table. What can you do to make the optimizer detect the actual selectivity?
A. Set the STATISTICS_LEVEL parameter to TYPICAL
B. Change the STALE_PERCENT value for the CUSTOMERS_OBE table
C. Set the OPTIMIZER_USE_PENDiNG_STATISTICS parameter to FALSE
D. Create extended statistics for the CUST_STATE_PROVINCE and COUNTRY_ID columns

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 17
You plan to set up the automatic Workload Repository (AWR) baseline metric threshold for moving window baseline. Which action would you take before performing this task?
A. Compute the baseline statistics
B. Take an immediate AWR snapshot
C. Decrease the window size for the baseline
D. Decrease the expiration time for the baseline

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 18
See the following PL/SQL block:
DECLARE
my_plans pls_integer,
BEGIN
My_plans := DBMS_SPM.LOAD_PLANS_FROM_CURSOR_CACHE(sql_id=> >9twu5t2dn5xd?;

END;

Which statement is true about the plan being loaded into the SQL plan baseline by the above command?

A. It is loaded with the FIXED status
B. It is loaded with the ACCEPTED status
C. It is not loaded with the ENABLED status
D. It is not loaded with the ACCEPTED status

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 19
Identify the three predefined server-generated alerts. (Choose three.)
A. Drop User
B. Tablespace Space Usage
C. Resumable Session Suspended
D. Recovery Area Low On Free Space
E. SYSTEM Tablespace Size Increment

Correct Answer: BCD QUESTION 20
You perform the following activities during the database upgrade from Oracle Database 10g to Oracle Database 11g;
1.
Capture plans for a SQL workload into a SQL Tuning Set (STS) before upgrade

2.
Load these plans from the STS into the SQL plan baseline immediately after the upgrade What is the reason for performing these activities?
A. To minimize plan regression due to the use of a new optimizer version
B. To completely avoid the use of new plans generated by a new optimizer version
C. To prevent plan capturing when the SQL statement is executed after the database upgrade
D. To keep the plan in the plan history so that is can be used when the older version of the optimizer is used

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 21

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QUESTION 1
You notice that the performance of the database has degraded because of frequent checkpoints. Which two actions resolve the issue? (Choose two.)
A. Disable automatic checkpoint tuning
B. Check the size of the redo log file size and increase the size if it is small
C. Set the FAST_START_MTTR_TARGET parameter as per the advice given by the MTTR Advisor
D. Decrease the number of redo log members if there are more than one redo log members available in each redo log group
Correct Answer: BC Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 2
Identify the memory component from which memory may be allocated for:
Session memory for the shared serverBuffers for I/O slavesOracle Database Recovery Manager (RMAN) backup and restore operations

A. Large Pool
B. Redo Log Buffer
C. Database Buffer Cache
D. Program Global Area (PGA)
Correct Answer: A Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 3
You executed the following command to create a tablespace called SALES_DATA:
SQL> CREATE TABLESPACE sales_data
DATAFILE SIZE 100M
SEGMENT SPACE MANAGEMENT AUTO;

Which two statements are true about the SALES_DATA tablespace? (Choose two)

A. The database automatically determines the extent-sizing policy for the tablespace.
B. The segments are automatically shrunk when the contents are removed from them.
C. The allocation of extents within the tablespace is managed through the dictionary tables.
D. The space utilization description of the data blocks in segments is recorded in bitmap blocks.
E. The space utilization description of the data blocks in segments is managed through free lists.
Correct Answer: AD Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 4
In which of the scenario will the DBA perform recovery? (Choose all that apply.)
A. The alert log file is corrupted
B. A tablespace is accidentally dropped
C. One of the redo log members is corrupted
D. A database user terminates the session abnormally
E. The hard disk on which the data files is stored is corrupted
Correct Answer: BE Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 5
You want to enable archiving on your database. Presently, the database is running in NOARCHIVELOG mode. Given below are the steps to accomplish the task in random order:
1.
Shut down the instance.

2.
Execute the ALTER DATABASE ARCHIVELOG command.

3.
Start up the instance and mount the database.

4.
Set the DB_RECOVERY_FILE_DEST initialization parameter to $ORACLE_HOME/dest_1.

5.
Open the database.
Which is the correct sequence of steps for accomplishing the task?
A. 4, 1, 3, 2, 5
B. 1, 3, 4, 5, 2
C. 1, 3, 2, 5; 4 not required
D. 4, 1, 5, 2; 3 not required
E. 1, 3, 4, 5; 2 not required
Correct Answer: C Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 6
You want to check the details of few errors that users have reported. You search for the alert log file and execute few commands to find the location of the alert log
file.
View the Exhibit and check the commands executed.
What is the location of the alert_orcl.log file?
A. ORACLE_HOME/dbs
B. ORACEL_HOME/rdbms
C. /u01/app/oracle/admin/orcl/adump
D. /u01/app/oracle/flash_recovery_area
E. ORACLE_BASE/diag/rdbms/orcl/alert
F. ORACLE_BASE/diag/rdbms/orcl/orcl/trace
Correct Answer: F Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 7
See the Exhibit:

Which statements are true regarding the USERS tablespace? (Choose all that apply.)
A. A bitmap is used to record free extents
B. Free extents information is managed within the tablespace
C. Free extents information is managed in the SYSAUX tablespace
D. The data dictionary tables are updated when extents are allocated or deallocated
Correct Answer: AB Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 8
Examine the values for the following initialization parameters:
FAST_START_MTTR_TARGET=0 LOG_CHECKPOINT_INTERVAL=0
Which two will be the implications of these values in your database? (Choose two.)
A. The SGA advisor will be disabled
B. The MTTR advisor will be disabled
C. Automatic checkpoint tuning will be disabled
D. Checkpoint information will not be written to the alert log file
Correct Answer: BC Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 9
In your database instance, the STATISTICS_LEVEL initialization parameter is set to BASIC. What is the impact of this setting?
A. Optimizer statistics are collected automatically.
B. Only timed operating system (OS) statistics and plan execution statistics are collected.
C. The snapshots for the Automatic Workload Repository (AWR) are not generated automatically.
D. Snapshots cannot be collected manually by using the DBMS_WORKLOAD_REPOSITORY package.
E. The Oracle server dynamically generates the necessary statistics on tables as part of query optimization.
Correct Answer: C Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 10
You have recently collected statistics on certain objects of a schema in your database. But you observe suboptimal execution plans for the queries on these objects after two days of statistics collection. The optimizer statistics retention period is set to its default value. Which action would help to use the previous set of statistics on the objects?
A. Restore statistics from statistics history.
B. Reduce the optimizer statistics retention period by 2 days.
C. Set the OPTIMIZER_PENDING_STATISTICS parameter to TRUE.
D. Reduce the Automatic Workload Repository (AWR) retention period by 2 days.
Correct Answer: A Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 11
Which three statements regarding the server parameter file (SPFILE) are true? (Choose three.)
A. An SPFILE is a binary file
B. An SPFILE cannot reside on a client
C. An SPFILE cannot contain static parameters
D. An SPFILE can store changes persistently across instance restarts
E. An SPFILE can be read by the database server, but it is not written to by the server
F. An SPFILE must be created manually, before creating a database, even if you use the Database Configuration Assistant (DBCA) to create the database
Correct Answer: ABD Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 12
Your test database is configured to run in NOARCHIVELOG mode. One of the data files in the USERS tablespace is lost due to a media failure. You notice that all
the online redo logs have been overwritten since the last backup.
What would you do to recover the data file?

A. Take the USERS tablespace offline and re-create the lost data file
B. Shutdown the instance, restore the data file from the last consistent backup and restart the database instance
C. Shutdown the instance, restores all the database files from the last consistent backup and restart the database instance
D. Take the USERS tablespace offline, restore all the data files of the USERS tablespace from the last consistent backup and make the tablespace online
Correct Answer: C Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 13
Examine the command:
SQL>DBMS_STATS.SET_TABLE_PREFS(‘SH’,’CUSTOMERS’,’PUBLISH’,’false’); Which statement describes the effect of the above command?

A. Automatic statistics collection is stopped for the CUSTOMERS table
B. Statistics for the CUSTOMERS table are locked and cannot be overwritten
C. Existing statistics for the CUSTOMERS table become unusable for the query optimizer
D. Subsequently, statistics gathered on the CUSTOMERS table are stored as pending statistics
Correct Answer: D Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 14
The instance abnormally terminates because of a power outage. Which statement is true about redo log files during instance recovery?
A. Inactive and current redo log files are required to accomplish recovery
B. Online and archived redo files are required to accomplish instance recovery
C. All redo log entries after the last checkpoint are applied from redo log files to data files
D. All redo log entries recorded in the current log file until the checkpoint position are applied to data files
Correct Answer: C Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 15
Examine the command:
SQL>ALTER USR skd ACCOUNT LOCK;
Which two statements are true after the command is executed? (Choose two.)

A. The SKD user cannot log in to the database instance
B. The objects owned by the SKD user are not accessible to any user
C. The other users can access the objects owned by the SKD user, on which they have access
D. The password for the SKD user expires and the user is forced to change the password at the next log in
Correct Answer: AC Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 16
For which database operation would you need the database to be in the MOUNT state?
A. Renaming the control files
B. Re-creating the control files
C. Dropping a user in your database
D. Dropping a tablespace in your database
E. Configuring the database instance to operate in the ARCHIVELOG or NOARCHIVELOG modes
Correct Answer: E Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 17
The job to gather optimizer statistics for objects runs as part of the automatic maintenance window in your database instance. At a certain point of time, the
maintenance window closes before the statistics are gathered for all objects.
Which statement is true in this scenario?

A. The statistics collection continues until all objects are processed.
B. The job is terminated and the statistics collected are restored to a time before the job started.
C. This produces an error and the statistics collected are locked until the next time that the maintenance window is opened.
D. The job is terminated and the statistics for the remaining objects are collected the next time that the maintenance window is opened.
Correct Answer: D Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 18
You want to move all objects of the APPS user in the test database to the DB_USR schema of the production database. Which option of IMPDP would you use to accomplish this task?

A. FULL
B. SCHEMAS
C. TRANSFORM
D. REMAP_SCHEMA
E. REMAP_TABLESPACE
Correct Answer: D Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 19
You executed the following command to create a password file in the database server:
$ orapwd file = orapworcl entries = 5 ignorecase=N
Which statement describes the purpose of the above password file?

A. It records usernames and passwords of users when granted the DBA role
B. It contains usernames and passwords of users for whom auditing is enabled
C. It is used by Oracle to authenticate users for remote database administrator
D. It records usernames and passwords of all users when they are added to OSDBA or OSOPER operating groups
Correct Answer: C Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 20
SQL> CREATE BIGFILE TABLESPACE MRKT
2 DATAFILE ‘/u01/app/oracle/oradata/orcl/mrkt.dbf’ size 10M LOGGING 3 EXTENT MANAGEMENT LOCAL SEGMENT SPACE MANAGEMENT AUTO;
Tablespace created.

SQL> ALTER DATABASE DEFAULT TABLESPACE MRKT;
Database altered.

Which two statements are true regarding the MRKT tablespace? (Choose two.)

A. No more data files can be added to the tablespace.
B. Segment space is managed by free lists in the tablespace.
C. A user created without being assigned a default tablespace uses this tablespace.
D. The tablespace can be dropped with the current setting with segments present in it.
Correct Answer: AC Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

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