javascript2, Author at Javacexam IT Certification Prep, 100% Guaranteed Pass

SY0-601 Dumps 2023 | Focus On Where It Matters Most

March 1, 2023March 1, 2023 javascript2

In the process of preparing for the CompTIA Security+ 2023 exam, have you found that you spend a lot of thought but always can’t get started, spend a lot of time but don’t get good results? I’ll tell you, you didn’t find good SY0-601 dumps 2023. Focus your energy where it matters most!

Pass4itSure SY0-601 dumps https://www.pass4itsure.com/sy0-601.html collects questions from the latest SY0-601 exam, available in PDF or VCE format, to help you focus on challenging the CompTIA SY0-601 exam.

Want to pass the CompTIA SY0-601 exam fast? Want to get free CompTIA Security+ SY0-601 exam questions? It’s all possible here.

SY0-601 exam difficulty level depends on your concentration

Good steel is used on the blade. The same goes for preparing for the SY0-601 exam. People’s energy is limited, and they can’t work hard here today and prepare here tomorrow, which is ineffective. You need to focus on where it matters most – and the latest SY0-601 dumps (Pass4itSure) can help you do just that.

Pass4itSure concentrates entirely on the most important elements of your SY0-601 exam

Pass4itSure SY0-601 dumps provide unique, compact, and complete content that can save valuable time searching for your own learning content and won’t waste your energy on unnecessary, boring, and incomplete preliminary content, ensuring you focus effectively on preparing for the SY0-601 exam.

Don’t waste your time! Come and learn SY0-601 dumps free exam questions and answers

Here are some new CompTIA SY0-601 exam questions:

SY0-601 Q1:

A document that appears to be malicious has been discovered in an email that was sent to a company\’s Chief Financial Officer (CFO). Which of the following would be BEST to allow a security analyst to gather information and confirm it is a malicious document without executing any code it may contain?

A. Open the document on an air-gapped network

B. View the document\’s metadata for origin clues

C. Search for matching file hashes on malware websites

D. Detonate the document in an analysis sandbox

Correct Answer: D

SY0-601 Q2:

A company is setting up a web server on the Internet that will utilize both encrypted and unencrypted web-browsing protocols. A security engineer runs a port scan against the server from the Internet and sees the following output:

Which of the following steps would be best for the security engineer to take NEXT?

A. Allow DNS access from the internet.

B. Block SMTP access from the Internet

C. Block HTTPS access from the Internet

D. Block SSH access from the Internet.

Correct Answer: D

SY0-601 Q3:

A security analyst needs to determine how an attacker was able to use User3 to gain a foothold within a company\’s network. The company\’s lockout policy requires that an account be locked out for a minimum of 15 minutes after three unsuccessful attempts. While reviewing the log files, the analyst discovers the following:

Which of the following attacks MOST likely occurred?

A. Dictionary

B. Credential-stuffing

C. Password-spraying

D. Brute-force

Correct Answer: D

“Brute force attack in which stolen user account names and passwords are tested against multiple websites.” CompTIA SY0-601 Official Study Guide Page 690 This is a poorly worded question and while credential stuffing is a type of brute force attack, the information given does not indicate multiple websites. At best, this looks like a password-spraying attack, but it is more likely a brute-force attack. Also, note the output reads “username” and not “username” – perhaps irrelevant but the little things can and do matter

SY0-601 Q4:

A researcher has been analyzing large data sets for the last ten months. The researcher works with colleagues from other institutions and typically connects via SSH to retrieve additional data. Historically, this setup has worked without issue, but the researcher recently started getting the following message:

Which of the following network attacks is the researcher MOST likely experiencing?

A. MAC cloning

B. Evil twin

C. Man-in-the-middle

D. ARP poisoning

Correct Answer: C

SY0-601 Q5:

Which of the following are requirements that must be configured for PCI DSS compliance? (Select TWO).

A. Testing security systems and processes regularly

B. Installing and maintaining a web proxy to protect cardholder data

C. Assigning a unique ID to each person with computer access

D. Encrypting transmission of cardholder data across private networks

E. Benchmarking security awareness training for contractors

F. Using vendor-supplied default passwords for system passwords

Correct Answer: AC

https://www.pcisecuritystandards.org/pci_security/maintaining_payment_security

SY0-601 Q6:

A systems analyst determines the source of a high number of connections to a web server that were initiated by ten different IP addresses that belong to a network block in a specific country. Which of the following techniques will the systems analyst MOST likely implement to address this issue?

A. SIEM

B. SIEM

C. Firewall rules

D. DLP

Correct Answer: C

SY0-601 Q7:

A company is designing the layout of a new data center so it will have an optimal environmental temperature Which of the following must be included? (Select TWO)

A. An air gap

B. A cold aisle

C. Removable doors

D. A hot aisle

E. An loT thermostat

F. A humidity monitor

Correct Answer: BD

SY0-601 Q8:

Which of the following describes the exploitation of an interactive process to gain access to restncted areas?

A. Persistence

B. Buffer overflow

C. Privilege escalation

D. Pharming

Correct Answer: C

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Privilege_escalation#:~:text=Privilege%20escalation%20is%20 the%20act,from%20an%20application%20or%20user

SY0-601 Q9:

A financial institution that would like to store its customer data could but still allow the data ta be accessed and manipulated while encrypted. Doing so would prevent the cloud service provider from being able to decipher the data due to its sensitivity. The financial institution is not concerned about computational overheads and slow speeds,

Which of the following cryptographic techniques would BEST meet the requirement?

A. Asymmetric

B. Symmetric

C. Homeomorphic

D. Ephemeral

Correct Answer: C

“In a nutshell, homomorphic encryption is a method of encryption that allows any data to remain encrypted while it\’s being processed and manipulated. It enables you or a third party (such as a cloud provider) to apply functions on encrypted data without needing to reveal the values of the data.”

https://www.thesslstore.com/blog/what-is-homomorphic-encryption/ https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Homomorphic_encryption

SY0-601 Q10:

Which of the following will MOST likely cause machine learning and Al-enabled systems to operate with unintended consequences?

A. Stored procedures

B. Buffer overflows

C. Data bias

D. Code reuse

Correct Answer: C

https://lionbridge.ai/articles/7-types-of-data-bias-in-machine-learning/ https://bernardmarr.com/default.asp?contentID=1827

SY0-601 Q11:

A security researcher has alerted an organization that its sensitive user data was found for sale on a website. Which of the following should the organization use to inform the affected parties?

A. An incident response plan

B. A communications plan

C. A business continuity plan

D. A disaster recovery plan

Correct Answer: A

SY0-601 Q12:

A company uses specially configured workstations for any work that requires administrator privileges to its Tier 0 and Tier 1 systems. The company follows a strict process to harden systems immediately upon delivery. Even with these strict security measures in place, an incident occurred at one of the workstations. The root cause appears to be that the SoC was tampered with or replaced.

Which of the following MOST likely occurred?

A. Fileless malware

B. A downgrade attack

C. A supply-chain attack

D. A logic bomb

E. Misconfigured BIOS

Correct Answer: C

SY0-601 Q13:

A recent audit uncovered a key finding regarding the use of a specific encryption standard in a web application that is used to communicate with business customers. Due to the technical limitations of its customers, the company is unable to upgrade the encryption standard. Which of the following types of controls should be used to reduce the risk created by this scenario?

A. Physical

B. Detective

C. Preventive

D. Compensating

Correct Answer: D

SY0-601 Q14:

A network engineer needs to build a solution that will allow guests at the company\’s headquarters to access the Internet via WiFi. This solution should not allow access to the internal corporate network, but it should require guests to sign off on the acceptable use policy before accessing the Internet. Which of the following should the engineer employ to meet these requirements?

A. Implement open PSK on the APs

B. Deploy a WAF

C. Configure WIPS on the APs

D. Install a captive portal

Correct Answer: D

SY0-601 Q15:

During an incident response process involving a laptop, a host was identified as the entry point for malware. The management team would like to have the laptop restored and given back to the user. The cybersecurity analyst would like to continue investigating the intrusion on the host. Which of the following would allow the analyst to continue the investigation and also return the laptop to the user as soon as possible?

A. dd

B. mem dump

C. tcpdump

D. head

Correct Answer: C

Latest SY0-601 pdf free download: https://drive.google.com/file/d/1K34tTP8WCdNOxo2OUrlqscdaEirpTVDZ/view?usp=share_link

Now, are you ready? Get the full SY0-601 dumps, at this address https://www.pass4itsure.com/sy0-601.html and focus on preparing for the CompTIA Security+ 2023 exam.

New Avaya 31860X Dumps Update – Comprehensive Preparation Materials

April 8, 2022April 8, 2022 javascript2

The Avaya industry needs its people to earn Avaya ACDS–3186 certified 31860X dumps and keep pace with technological advancements. The latest version of Avaya 31860X dumps update https://www.pass4itsure.com/31860x.html (Collect 60+ valid 31860X questions and answers) the most comprehensive preparation material (PDF and VCE) to help you pass the exam in one go.

Avaya 31860X dumps – available in 3 formats

Pass4itSure brings three formats of Avaya ACDS–3186 Certification 31860X exam questions;

PDF
Software,
Software+ PDF

To ensure smooth and convenient preparation for the 31860X exam. The most comprehensive learning material!

Pass4itSure provides the 2022 update Avaya 31860X dumps exercises, and our free practice questions will help you prepare for the Avaya IX Calling Design exam.

Practice the following questions: free 31860X dumps questions (real and effective)

1. When designing an Avaya Aura solution, what are two design requirements that require the installation of a G430 or G450 Gateway? (Choose two.)

A. DSP resources
B. TDM trunks
C. T.38 Fax
D. SIP devices

2. You are trying to determine how many Basic and Mainstream licenses are needed to support a proposal for Avaya IX Messaging. Which feature requires a Mainstream license?

A. Multiple greetings
B. Full synchronization with 0365 email applications
C. Distribution lists
D. Multiple Telephone User Interfaces (TUIs)

3. A customer has provided the following requirements for a basic telephone user: Two line appearances
Basic telephony 3 rings then cover to voice mail”; No shared line appearances Cheapest telephone Possible low power requirements Which telephone-type would be a good choice for the basic user?

A. 9611G
B. 9641
C. J129
D. J179

4. A customer has a single size with 2,500 users. They want a solution that provides hardware redundancy. The failure of a single component should not be service-impacting. Given these parameters, what would satisfy their request?

A. Communication Manager Duplex
B. Communication Manager S8300
C. Communication Manager Simplex with Survivable Core
D. Communication Manager Simplex with Survivable Remote

5. The adoption of Avaya Aura(g) Media Server by the Communications Manager (AAMS-CM) provides many of the resource capabilities of the H.323 Media Gateways (MG), but it is not always a direct replacement. With Avaya Aura and Communications Manager (CM) 8.1, both AAMS-CM and MGs are sold as media resource options, since AAMS-CM can support more channels per instance than either H.323 media gateway.

When would AAMS-CM be deployed, instead of a media gateway?

A. If the deployment is supporting third-party digital stations
B. If the users require using T.38 fax
C. If there are multiple Instances supporting one Communications Manager
D. If the deployment is using a G722 codec for ad hoc conferencing

6. A customer is interested in deploying geo-redundant System Managers. Which two requirements would they need to know? (Choose two.)

A. Both servers must be on the same IP subnet.
B. The two servers must have the same version of the software,
C. The two servers can reach each other on the network.
D. Both servers must have the same IP address.

7. You have a customer who requires both SIP Trunking and Remote Workers. After examining the features needed overall, you have determined that 700 Core Suite licenses are required. You still need to quote SBCE licenses, in addition to the entitlements included with Core Suite licenses, to support a total of 120 PSTN SIP trunks and 330 remote workers.

The customer has agreed to a 3 remote worker users to 1 session access basis- How many additional standard and advanced a la carte SBCE licenses are needed? (Choose two.)

A. 30 SBCE Standard Licenses
B. 20 SBCE Standard Licenses
C. 10 SBCE Advanced Licenses
D. 20 SBCE Advanced Licenses

8. A customer with an Avaya Aura Platform requires survivable remote capabilities at their new branch location. The new branch location must also support five analog telephones and two Tl trunks. What will address these requirements?

A. Communication Manager and Session Manager on Appliance Virtualization platform with local data switch
B. Communication Manager on Appliance Virtualization platform with local data switch
C. G430 with embedded S8300 with needed media modules
D. G450 with embedded S8300 with needed media modules

9. Your customer is expanding their communications infrastructure. They want to protect their investment In existing equipment. They currently have two Avaya G450 gateways. What is the maximum number of Digital Signaling Processor (DSP) resources that the two Avaya G450 will support?

A. 640
B. 360
C. 960
D. 1200

10. You are explaining to your customer that Avaya Aura Media Server (AAMS) has been adopted by the Communication Manager, but Is not a direct replacement for media gateways. Which two capabilities are supported by the Avaya Aura Media Server? (Choose two.)

A. TDM interfaces for digital, analog stations, and trunks
B. V.150.1 (Modem-over-IP)
C. Virtualization
D. Basic media resource capabilities

11. You are designing a Communication Manager (CM) 8 solution with centralized ISDN trunks at the main site and two remote gateway locations. Each remote location will be connected to the main server via a dedicated, point-to-point WAN service. Main – CM 8.1 duplex pair with 2-G450s and 250 IP stations

Remote 1 – S8300E LSP/G450 with 125 IP stations
Remote 2 – S8300E LSP/G430 with 30 IP stations.

To ensure that no one site Is overwhelmed by CM traffic, what is the recommended number of network regions required for this design?

A. 7 regions: 1 at the main, 1 at each remote site, 1 for each site\\’s IP telephones, and one for the virtual network region
B. 4 regions: 1 at the main, 1 at each remote site, and 1 for the virtual network region
C. 3 regions: 1 at the main, and 1 at each remote site
D. 6 regions: 1 at the main, 1 at each remote site, and 1 virtual network region for each site

12. You are recommending the WAN link requirement per branch for a multi-location customer. The customer estimates the branch Inter-office communication use rate over the WAN to be one trunk per 20 branch users, and there are 460 users at each branch.

You assume that after all header compressions have been applied, there is a 30% protocol overhead, and the G.729 codec being used provides 7.2 kbps. How much bandwidth is needed for voice traffic on the WAN link for each branch?

A. 187.2 Kbps
B. 115.9 Kbps
C. 165.6 Kbps
D. 215.3 Kbps

13. You are reviewing a design done by another engineer, and want to be sure there is enough Touch Tone Receiver (TTR) resources. Which component of the design uses TTR resources?

A. H.323 endpoints
B. SIP endpoints
C. Analog endpoints
D. SIP trunks

Post correct answer:

1	2	3	4	5	6	7	8	9	10	11	12	13
C	C	D	A	B	A	C	A	A	CD	C	B	C

Updated Avaya 31860X dumps PDF content https://drive.google.com/file/d/1t-i1QSdWMzrUnFCgK_3AznL9wZhIpeNi/view?usp=sharing

Pass4itSure provides a complete set of authentic learning materials for the Avaya 31860X exam, download the latest Avaya 31860X dumps at https://www.pass4itsure.com/31860x.html pass the exam.

Past [2021] Avaya 31860X exam practice exam questions https://www.javacexam.com/get-avaya-31860x-dumps-practice-exam-questions.html

Learn Splunk SPLK-3002 Dumps With Actual Questions

January 6, 2022January 6, 2022 javascript2

The good news is that Javacexam can help you prepare for the SPLUNK IT Service Intelligence Certified Admin certification Splunk SPURK-3002 exam.

How to pass the SPLK-3002 exam in a short time? [True and effective]

Pass your SPLK-3002 exam smartly with Pass4itSure final [January -2022] SPLK-3002 pdf dumps with valid SPLK-3002 dumps in a short time. The latest SPLK-3002 dumps https://www.pass4itsure.com/splk-3002.html (PDF +VCE).

The Splunk Certification Exams Study Guide contains important details regarding exam preparation and delivery: https://www.splunk.com/en_us/training/certification-track/splunk-itsi-certified-admin.html

Verified Splunk IT Service Intelligence Certified Admin SPLK-3002 dumps Q&As

! The correct answer is at the end of the question.

QUESTION 1 #

After a notable event has been closed, how long will the metadata for that event remain in the KV Store by default?

A. 6 months.
B. 9 months.
C. 1 year.
D. 3 months.

By default, notable event metadata is archived after six months to keep the KV store from growing too large.
Reference: https://docs.splunk.com/Documentation/ITSI/4.10.2/EA/TrimNECollections

QUESTION 2 #

For which ITSI function is it a best practice to use a 15-30 minute time buffer?

A. Correlation searches.
B. Adaptive thresholding.
C. Maintenance windows
D. Anomaly detection.

It\\’s a best practice to schedule maintenance windows with a 15- to 30-minute time buffer before and after you start and stop your maintenance work. This gives the system an opportunity to catch up with the maintenance state and reduces the chances of ITSI generating false positives during maintenance operations.

Reference: https://docs.splunk.com/Documentation/ITSI/4.10.2/Configure/AboutMW

QUESTION 3 #

Which of the following accurately describes base searches used for KPIs in a service?

A. Base searches can be used for multiple services.
B. A base search can only be used by its service and all dependent services.
C. All the metrics in a base search are used by one service.
D. All the KPIs in service use the same base search.

KPI base searches let you share a search definition across multiple KPIs in IT Service Intelligence (ITSI). Create base
searches to consolidate multiple similar KPIs, reduce search load, and improve search performance.

Reference: https://docs.splunk.com/Documentation/ITSI/4.10.2/SI/BaseSearch

QUESTION 4 #

What is an episode?

A. A workflow task.
B. A deep dive.
C. A notable event group.
D. A notable event.

It\\’s a deduplicated group of notable events occurring as part of a larger sequence or an incident or period considered in isolation.

Reference: https://docs.splunk.com/Documentation/ITSI/4.10.2/EA/EpisodeOverview

QUESTION 5 #

There are two departments using ITSI. Finance and Sales. Analysts in each department should not be allowed to see
each other\\’s services. What are the role configuration steps required to accomplish this?

A. itoa_finance_admin, inherited from itoa_admin; itoa_sales_admin, inherited from itoa_team_admin;
itoa_finance_analyst, inherited from itoa_analyst; itoa_sales_analyst, inherited from itoa_analyst.
B. itoa_finance_admin, inherited from itoa_admin; itoa_sales_admin, inherited from itoa_team_admin;
itoa_finance_analyst, inherited from itoa_team_analyst; itoa_sales_analyst, inherited from itoa_team_analyst.
C. itoa_finance_admin, inherited from itoa_admin; itoa_sales_admin, inherited from itoa_team_admin;
itoa_finance_analyst, inherited from itoa_analyst; itoa_sales_analyst, inherited from itoa_team_analyst.
D. itoa_finance_admin, inherited from itoa_team_admin; itoa_sales_admin, inherited from itoa_team_admin;
itoa_finance_analyst, inherited from itoa_analyst; itoa_sales_analyst, inherited from itoa_analyst.

QUESTION 6 #

What effects does the KPI importance weight of 11 have on the overall health score of a service?

A. At least 10% of the KPIs will go critical.
B. Importance weight is unused for health scoring.
C. The service will go critical.
D. It is a minimum health indicator KPI.

Reference: https://docs.splunk.com/Documentation/ITSI/4.10.2/SI/KPIImportance#:~:text=ITSI%
20considers%20KPIs%20that%20have,other%20KPIs%20in%20the%20service

QUESTION 7 #

Which of the following describes entities? (Choose all that apply.)

A. Entities must be IT devices, such as routers and switches, and must be identified by either IP value, hostname, or
mac address.
B. An abstract (pseudo/logical) entity can be used to split by for a KPI, although no entity rules or filtering can be used to limit data to a specific service.
C. Multiple entities can share the same alias value but must have different role values.
D. To automatically restrict the KPI to only the entities in a particular service, select “Filter to Entities in
Service”

Reference: https://docs.splunk.com/Documentation/ITSI/4.10.2/SI/KPIfilter

QUESTION 8 #

In Episode Review, what is the result of clicking an episode\\’s Acknowledge button?

A. Assign the current user as owner.
B. Change status from New to Acknowledged.
C. Change status from New to In Progress and assign the current user as owner.
D. Change status from New to Acknowledged and assign the current user as owner.

When an episode warrants investigation, the analyst acknowledges the episode, which moves the status from New to In Progress.

Reference: https://docs.splunk.com/Documentation/ITSI/4.10.2/EA/EpisodeOverview

QUESTION 9 #

Which of the following describes enabling smart mode for an aggregation policy?

A. Configure –andgt; Policies –andgt; Smart Mode –andgt; Enable, select “fields”, click “Save”
B. Enable grouping in Notable Event Review, select “Smart Mode”, select “fields”, and click “Save”
C. Edit the aggregation policy, enable smart mode, select fields to analyze, click “Save”
D. Edit the notable event view, enable smart mode, select “fields”, and click “Save”

1. From the ITSI main menu, click Configuration > Notable Event Aggregation Policies.
2. Select a custom policy or the Default Policy.
3. Under Smart Mode grouping, enable Smart Mode.
4. Click Select fields. A dialog displays the fields found in your notable events from the last 24 hours.

Reference:
https://docs.splunk.com/Documentation/ITSI/4.10.2/EA/SmartMode

QUESTION 10 #

What is the default importance value for dependent services’ health scores?

A. 11
B. 1
C. Unassigned
D. 10

By default, impacting service health scores have an importance value of 11.

Reference:
https://docs.splunk.com/Documentation/ITSI/4.10.2/SI/Dependencies

QUESTION 11 #

Which scenario would benefit most by implementing ITSI?

A. Monitoring of business services functionality.
B. Monitoring of system hardware.
C. Monitoring of system process statuses.
D. Monitoring of retail sales metrics.

Reference: https://docs.splunk.com/Documentation/ITSI/4.10.2/SI/AboutSI

QUESTION 12 #

When changing a service template, which of the following will be added to linked services by default?

A. Thresholds.
B. Entity Rules.
C. New KPIs.
D. Health score.

Link multiple services to a service template to manage them collectively in IT Service Intelligence (ITSI). A service can
only be linked to one service template at a time.

When you link a service to a service template, any existing KPIs in the
service are preserved and KPIs in the template is added to the service. You can choose to append, replace, or keep
entity rules.

Reference: https://docs.splunk.com/Documentation/ITSI/4.10.2/SI/LinkST

Post correct answer:

q1	q2	q3	q4	q5	q6	q7	q8	q9	q10	q11	q12
A	C	A	D	C	D	D	C	A	A	A	B

Ps, SPLK-3002 dumps pdf maybe you are also interested:

Google Drive:

Splunk SPLK-3002 pdf free https://drive.google.com/file/d/1iWC_WpVbUpQNn0WPAx2tavCSoLOU-OXy/view?usp=sharing

Get the valid SPLK-3002 dumps from the Pass4itSure team https://www.pass4itsure.com/splk-3002.html

Before you start preparing for the SPLK-3002 exam, it will help you make sure you are ready for the Splunk IT Service Intelligence Certified Admin exam. You can also get continuous updates of the SPLK-3002 dumps for free here.

Smoothly run the Avaya 33820X exam with the help of the 33820X dumps pdf

January 5, 2022January 5, 2022 javascript2

This blog tells you: Running the Avaya 33820X exam smoothly with the 33820X exam dumps pdf is the best way to learn.

Why get Avaya ACDS-3382 certification?

We know that passing the Avaya Aura Call Center Elite and Elite Multichannel Solution Design Exams will be helpful for our careers, but success is not an easy task. You can take the latest updated 33820X exam practice to improve your skills. Get greater recognition from the company!

How to pass the Avaya Aura Call Center Elite & Elite Multichannel Solution Design 33820X exam?

Pass your 33820X exam with newly released Avaya 33820X dumps questions by Pass4itSure.

You can learn almost all of the 33820X exam questions from the Pass4itSure Avaya 33820X exam dumps! Very good!!

Here is for reference only:

https://www.pass4itsure.com/33820x.html

Good luck!

Not only that, but we also share with you the latest 33820X dumps pdf practice questions.

Participate in Avaya 33820X exam dumps practice free

Ps, the correct answer is posted at the end of the question.

# QUESTION 1

Avaya Aura and Call Center Elite together help reduce the total cost of ownership (TCO) with centralization and
consolidation.
Avaya\\’s open architecture provides feature and investment options for any enterprise, and customers can choose from which two options? (Choose two.)

A. Subscription-based payments
B. Cloud Contact Center with AACC
C. Managed Private or Hybrid Networks
D. Cloud Storage Box

# QUESTION 2

Avaya Survey Assist is a multi-purpose application that allows you to easily create automated voice and SMS surveys. It
supports full integration into the Avaya Experience Portal (AEP) and Proactive Outreach Manager (POM) for voice and
SMS transactions.

Which two are current deployment options for Avaya Survey Assist? (Choose two.)

A. Upgradable Single Box
B. Cluster Mode
C. Geo-redundancy
D. Single Box

# QUESTION 3

Avaya enabled the automated installation of the Avaya OneCloudTM ReadyNow software. With each ready now
The solution, Avaya is delivering a pre-built golden image that includes the Avaya Virtual Machine applications or
services.

Additionally, which program Is leveraged to automate the implementation of network, firewalls, and security containers?

A. Avaya Update Manager
B. Capacity Planner
C. Avaya Maestro
D. vCenter Manager

# QUESTION 4

A client wants a solution to view live, real-time information, and see the immediate results of their adjustments.
From a migration standpoint, in addition to Avaya Aura? Call Center Elite, which additional application will preserve the
customer investment?

A. Avaya IXTM Workforce Engagement
B. Avaya Intelligent Customer Routing
C. Avaya Call Management System
D. Avaya Aura?Elite Multichannel

# QUESTION 5

Avaya OneCloud IX, H Contact Center is a true, multi-tenant, complete Contact Center solution that provides a simplified cloud experience for operations and agents. A customer needs skill-based call center routing as part of their solution.

Which two IXTM Contact Center bundles offer this feature? (Choose two.)

A. Reporting Bundle
B. Basic Bundle
C. Voice Bundle
D. Advanced Bundle

# QUESTION 6

Based on customer feedback, what was the top priority in 2019 for Contact Center organizations?

A. To increase first contact resolution
B. To increase agent retention
C. To increase self-service usage
D. To increase digital channel usage

# QUESTION 7

An Avaya Aura? Call Center Elite customer wants an application solution with the following requirements:

1. Synchronizes with a desk phone to share the control of telephony and agent features
2. Includes capabilities of integrated video and Instant messaging
3. Increases collaboration
4. Reduces agent talk time and facilitates first call resolution

To meet these requirements, which two applications would you recommend be used in conjunction with Call Center
Elite? (Choose two.)

A. Agent Desktop Displays (ADD)
B. Avaya one-X?Agent
C. Agent Map
D. Avaya Agent for Desktop (AAfD)

# QUESTION 8

Workspaces for Elite with POM Integration can Increase agent productivity by providing a unified desktop for agents to
handle all inbound and outbound voice tasks, and which three types of calls? (Choose three.)

A. Predictive
B. Progressive
C. Performance
D. Proficient
E. Preview

# QUESTION 9

A customer wants to use the Avaya Aura? Media Server (AAMS) because of its advanced multimedia processing
features. Which three statements are true for the AAMS? (Choose three.)

A. AAMS provides Communication Manager IP audio functionality.
B. Pricing is differentiated, so customers will buy AAMS-enabled features unique to each adopter.
C. AAMS is shareable between different adapters.
D. AAMS provides virtualization, high channel density, and no playback announcement limits.
E. Experience Portal will use the AAMS as a media resource.

# QUESTION 10

Which key Avaya Aura Call Center Elite Multichannel (EMC) component sends a signal to Avaya Enablement Services
(AES) to pass the call control and call event Information to Elite Multichannel applications, such as the EMC Desktop?

A. XML Service
B. XML Application
C. XML Server
D. XML Client

# QUESTION 11

You are designing a solution for a customer with Avaya IXTM Workforce Engagement and Avaya Contact Recorder
(ACR) in their contact center.

When determining the number of DSP\\’s required for agent recording in an all IP environment using DMCC Call
Recording, what is the recommended ratio used?

A. Number of agents X 5 = DSPs
B. Number of agents X 4 = DSPs
C. Number of agents X 3 = DSPs
D. Number of agents X 2 = DSPs

# QUESTION 12

A customer needs to integrate a network of call centers for better load balancing and optimal agent utilization. They also need to monitor the status of the specified resources and adjust call processing. This would enable the system to
compare the specified skills, identify the skill that provides the best service to a call, and deliver the call to an agent in the skill. If no agents are available in the skill, the call is queued.

Which Avaya Aura Call Center Elite feature would you recommend to this customer?

A. Advanced Call Vectoring
B. Expert Agent Selection
C. Best Service Routing
D. Business Advocate

Correct answer:

Q1	Q2	Q3	Q4	Q5	Q6	Q7	Q8	Q9	Q10	Q11	Q12
C	AC	C	A	AB	A	BD	BCE	ACD	C	A	C

Also, free Avaya 33820X dumps pdf download

Avaya 33820X dumps pdf [google drive] https://drive.google.com/file/d/1QctmjughagN3m4dSIlhUCfs7R1ljs6EW/view?usp=sharing

If you’re willing to advance your IT career, you must earn the 33820X exam certification. Here, Pass4itSure makes things easier, and by preparing the correct 33820X dumps pdf: https://www.pass4itsure.com/33820x.html

You can pass the 33820X exam.

Believe in yourself, practice diligently, success is yours!

Want to know how to take the Palo Alto Networks PCCET exam

October 25, 2021October 25, 2021 javascript2

Is the Palo Alto Networks PCCET exam easy? Is the question difficult? It will be completed in a few weeks, I would like to know any tips. Here to tell you: Getting the latest PCCET exam dumps practice questions is the secret to passing the exam! The most effective and direct method.

This blog does not share official information and exam details that everyone knows about Palo Alto Networks. Only share with you the best PCCET exam series learning experience~ Get the latest updated PCCET exam dumps >>> https://www.pass4itsure.com/pccet.html pass the exam successfully!

Free Palo Alto Networks PCCET exam PDF

Free Palo Alto Networks PCCET exam questions in PDF format https://drive.google.com/file/d/18L0OQvqfNG5J7Vf5INSDoV0xtFHyiG-k/view?usp=sharing

New PCCET practice test Palo Alto Networks with Pass4itSure PCCET exam dumps

QUESTION 1

On an endpoint, which method should you use to secure applications against exploits?
A. endpoint-based firewall
B. strong user passwords
C. full-disk encryption
D. software patches

QUESTION 2

Which network analysis tool can be used to record packet captures?
A. Smart IP Scanner
B. Wireshark
C. Angry IP Scanner
D. Netman

QUESTION 3

DRAG-DROP
Match the description with the VPN technology.
Select and Place:

QUESTION 4

Which option is an example of a North-South traffic flow?
A. Lateral movement within a cloud or data center
B. An internal three-tier application
C. Client-server interactions that cross the edge perimeter
D. Traffic between an internal server and internal user

QUESTION 5

An Administrator wants to maximize the use of a network address. The network is 192.168.6.0/24 and there are three
subnets that need to be created that can not overlap. Which subnet would you use for the network with 120 hosts?
Requirements for the three subnets: Subnet 1: 3 host address Subnet 2: 25 host address Subnet 3: 120 host
addresses
A. 192.168.6.168/30
B. 192.168.6.0/25
C. 192.168.6.160/29
D. 192.168.6.128/27

QUESTION 6

In SecOps, what are two of the components included in the identify stage? (Choose two.)
A. Initial Research
B. Change Control
C. Content Engineering
D. Breach Response

QUESTION 7

Which IPsec feature allows device traffic to go directly to the Internet?
A. Split tunneling
B. Diffie-Hellman groups
C. d.Authentication Header (AH)
D. IKE Security Association

QUESTION 8

Which aspect of a SaaS application requires compliance with local organizational security policies?
A. Types of physical storage media used
B. data-at-rest encryption standards
C. Acceptable use of the SaaS application
D. Vulnerability scanning and management

QUESTION 9

Which product from Palo Alto Networks enables organizations to prevent successful cyberattacks as well as simplify
and strengthen security processes?
A. Expedition
B. AutoFocus
C. MineMeld
D. Cortex XDR

QUESTION 10

Which not-for-profit organization maintains the common vulnerability exposure catalog that is available through their
public website?
A. Department of Homeland Security
B. MITRE
C. Office of Cyber Security and Information Assurance
D. Cybersecurity Vulnerability Research Center

QUESTION 11

In the attached network diagram, which device is the switch?

QUESTION 12

DRAG-DROP
Order the OSI model with Layer7 at the top and Layer1 at the bottom.
Select and Place:

QUESTION 13

Which Palo Alto Networks subscription service complements App-ID by enabling you to configure the next-generation
firewall to identify and control access to websites and to protect your organization from websites hosting malware and
phishing pages?
A. Threat Prevention
B. DNS Security
C. WildFire
D. URL Filtering

These are part of the exam questions, the complete ones are in Pass4itSure.

Passing the Palo Alto Networks PCCET exam is not easy. But do as mentioned above, and you can do it easily. Get the latest updated PCCET exam dumps here: https://www.pass4itsure.com/pccet.html (PDF plus VCE). Of course, don’t forget to study every day.

PS.

The correct answer is here!

Q10

Q11

Q12

Q13

See picture

Share SPLK-3001 dumps questions and answers for the SPLK-3001 exam

September 9, 2021September 9, 2021 javascript2

You can get Splunk SPLK-3001 dumps questions and answers from Pass4itSure.com. Pass4itSure provides a great resource for the Splunk SPLK-3001 exam. It makes it easy for candidates to succeed. SPLK-3001 dumps show you the latest Splunk Enterprise Security Certified Admin exam questions and answers (PDF + VCE), based entirely on the updated real Splunk exam. Get Complete SPLK-3001 exam questions and answers https://www.pass4itsure.com/splk-3001.html pass the Splunk SPLK-3001 exam with a 100% passing assurance.

Where can I get the latest Splunk Splunk Enterprise Security Certified Admin SPLK-3001 exam questions? Keep reading and I will tell you. Pass4itSure is your best choice.

Free Splunk SPLK-3001 PDF questions and answers

First, Download the free SPLK-3001 PDF from Drive

Splunk SPLK-3001 dumps pdf free https://drive.google.com/file/d/1lQlOVHXoxkueC1XJFEFFQI2GWqleb-jL/view?usp=sharing by Pass4itSure.

You can download the exercises online. To get the complete SPLK-3001 exam questions and answers, please choose Pass4itSure.

Share Splunk SPLK-3001 exam practice questions answers [q1-q13]