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Verified Splunk IT Service Intelligence Certified Admin SPLK-3002 dumps Q&As

! The correct answer is at the end of the question.


After a notable event has been closed, how long will the metadata for that event remain in the KV Store by default?

A. 6 months.
B. 9 months.
C. 1 year.
D. 3 months.

By default, notable event metadata is archived after six months to keep the KV store from growing too large.


For which ITSI function is it a best practice to use a 15-30 minute time buffer?

A. Correlation searches.
B. Adaptive thresholding.
C. Maintenance windows
D. Anomaly detection.

It\\’s a best practice to schedule maintenance windows with a 15- to 30-minute time buffer before and after you start and stop your maintenance work. This gives the system an opportunity to catch up with the maintenance state and reduces the chances of ITSI generating false positives during maintenance operations.



Which of the following accurately describes base searches used for KPIs in a service?

A. Base searches can be used for multiple services.
B. A base search can only be used by its service and all dependent services.
C. All the metrics in a base search are used by one service.
D. All the KPIs in service use the same base search.

KPI base searches let you share a search definition across multiple KPIs in IT Service Intelligence (ITSI). Create base
searches to consolidate multiple similar KPIs, reduce search load, and improve search performance.



What is an episode?

A. A workflow task.
B. A deep dive.
C. A notable event group.
D. A notable event.

It\\’s a deduplicated group of notable events occurring as part of a larger sequence or an incident or period considered in isolation.



There are two departments using ITSI. Finance and Sales. Analysts in each department should not be allowed to see
each other\\’s services. What are the role configuration steps required to accomplish this?

A. itoa_finance_admin, inherited from itoa_admin; itoa_sales_admin, inherited from itoa_team_admin;
itoa_finance_analyst, inherited from itoa_analyst; itoa_sales_analyst, inherited from itoa_analyst.
B. itoa_finance_admin, inherited from itoa_admin; itoa_sales_admin, inherited from itoa_team_admin;
itoa_finance_analyst, inherited from itoa_team_analyst; itoa_sales_analyst, inherited from itoa_team_analyst.
C. itoa_finance_admin, inherited from itoa_admin; itoa_sales_admin, inherited from itoa_team_admin;
itoa_finance_analyst, inherited from itoa_analyst; itoa_sales_analyst, inherited from itoa_team_analyst.
D. itoa_finance_admin, inherited from itoa_team_admin; itoa_sales_admin, inherited from itoa_team_admin;
itoa_finance_analyst, inherited from itoa_analyst; itoa_sales_analyst, inherited from itoa_analyst.


What effects does the KPI importance weight of 11 have on the overall health score of a service?

A. At least 10% of the KPIs will go critical.
B. Importance weight is unused for health scoring.
C. The service will go critical.
D. It is a minimum health indicator KPI.



Which of the following describes entities? (Choose all that apply.)

A. Entities must be IT devices, such as routers and switches, and must be identified by either IP value, hostname, or
mac address.
B. An abstract (pseudo/logical) entity can be used to split by for a KPI, although no entity rules or filtering can be used to limit data to a specific service.
C. Multiple entities can share the same alias value but must have different role values.
D. To automatically restrict the KPI to only the entities in a particular service, select “Filter to Entities in



In Episode Review, what is the result of clicking an episode\\’s Acknowledge button?

A. Assign the current user as owner.
B. Change status from New to Acknowledged.
C. Change status from New to In Progress and assign the current user as owner.
D. Change status from New to Acknowledged and assign the current user as owner.

When an episode warrants investigation, the analyst acknowledges the episode, which moves the status from New to In Progress.



Which of the following describes enabling smart mode for an aggregation policy?

A. Configure –andgt; Policies –andgt; Smart Mode –andgt; Enable, select “fields”, click “Save”
B. Enable grouping in Notable Event Review, select “Smart Mode”, select “fields”, and click “Save”
C. Edit the aggregation policy, enable smart mode, select fields to analyze, click “Save”
D. Edit the notable event view, enable smart mode, select “fields”, and click “Save”

1. From the ITSI main menu, click Configuration > Notable Event Aggregation Policies.
2. Select a custom policy or the Default Policy.
3. Under Smart Mode grouping, enable Smart Mode.
4. Click Select fields. A dialog displays the fields found in your notable events from the last 24 hours.



What is the default importance value for dependent services’ health scores?

A. 11
B. 1
C. Unassigned
D. 10

By default, impacting service health scores have an importance value of 11.



Which scenario would benefit most by implementing ITSI?

A. Monitoring of business services functionality.
B. Monitoring of system hardware.
C. Monitoring of system process statuses.
D. Monitoring of retail sales metrics.



When changing a service template, which of the following will be added to linked services by default?

A. Thresholds.
B. Entity Rules.
C. New KPIs.
D. Health score.

Link multiple services to a service template to manage them collectively in IT Service Intelligence (ITSI). A service can
only be linked to one service template at a time.

When you link a service to a service template, any existing KPIs in the
service are preserved and KPIs in the template is added to the service. You can choose to append, replace, or keep
entity rules.


Post correct answer:


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Avaya Aura and Call Center Elite together help reduce the total cost of ownership (TCO) with centralization and
Avaya\\’s open architecture provides feature and investment options for any enterprise, and customers can choose from which two options? (Choose two.)

A. Subscription-based payments
B. Cloud Contact Center with AACC
C. Managed Private or Hybrid Networks
D. Cloud Storage Box


Avaya Survey Assist is a multi-purpose application that allows you to easily create automated voice and SMS surveys. It
supports full integration into the Avaya Experience Portal (AEP) and Proactive Outreach Manager (POM) for voice and
SMS transactions.

Which two are current deployment options for Avaya Survey Assist? (Choose two.)

A. Upgradable Single Box
B. Cluster Mode
C. Geo-redundancy
D. Single Box


Avaya enabled the automated installation of the Avaya OneCloudTM ReadyNow software. With each ready now
The solution, Avaya is delivering a pre-built golden image that includes the Avaya Virtual Machine applications or

Additionally, which program Is leveraged to automate the implementation of network, firewalls, and security containers?

A. Avaya Update Manager
B. Capacity Planner
C. Avaya Maestro
D. vCenter Manager


A client wants a solution to view live, real-time information, and see the immediate results of their adjustments.
From a migration standpoint, in addition to Avaya Aura? Call Center Elite, which additional application will preserve the
customer investment?

A. Avaya IXTM Workforce Engagement
B. Avaya Intelligent Customer Routing
C. Avaya Call Management System
D. Avaya Aura?Elite Multichannel


Avaya OneCloud IX, H Contact Center is a true, multi-tenant, complete Contact Center solution that provides a simplified cloud experience for operations and agents. A customer needs skill-based call center routing as part of their solution.

Which two IXTM Contact Center bundles offer this feature? (Choose two.)

A. Reporting Bundle
B. Basic Bundle
C. Voice Bundle
D. Advanced Bundle


Based on customer feedback, what was the top priority in 2019 for Contact Center organizations?

A. To increase first contact resolution
B. To increase agent retention
C. To increase self-service usage
D. To increase digital channel usage


An Avaya Aura? Call Center Elite customer wants an application solution with the following requirements:

1. Synchronizes with a desk phone to share the control of telephony and agent features
2. Includes capabilities of integrated video and Instant messaging
3. Increases collaboration
4. Reduces agent talk time and facilitates first call resolution

To meet these requirements, which two applications would you recommend be used in conjunction with Call Center
Elite? (Choose two.)

A. Agent Desktop Displays (ADD)
B. Avaya one-X?Agent
C. Agent Map
D. Avaya Agent for Desktop (AAfD)


Workspaces for Elite with POM Integration can Increase agent productivity by providing a unified desktop for agents to
handle all inbound and outbound voice tasks, and which three types of calls? (Choose three.)

A. Predictive
B. Progressive
C. Performance
D. Proficient
E. Preview


A customer wants to use the Avaya Aura? Media Server (AAMS) because of its advanced multimedia processing
features. Which three statements are true for the AAMS? (Choose three.)

A. AAMS provides Communication Manager IP audio functionality.
B. Pricing is differentiated, so customers will buy AAMS-enabled features unique to each adopter.
C. AAMS is shareable between different adapters.
D. AAMS provides virtualization, high channel density, and no playback announcement limits.
E. Experience Portal will use the AAMS as a media resource.


Which key Avaya Aura Call Center Elite Multichannel (EMC) component sends a signal to Avaya Enablement Services
(AES) to pass the call control and call event Information to Elite Multichannel applications, such as the EMC Desktop?

A. XML Service
B. XML Application
C. XML Server
D. XML Client


You are designing a solution for a customer with Avaya IXTM Workforce Engagement and Avaya Contact Recorder
(ACR) in their contact center.

When determining the number of DSP\\’s required for agent recording in an all IP environment using DMCC Call
Recording, what is the recommended ratio used?

A. Number of agents X 5 = DSPs
B. Number of agents X 4 = DSPs
C. Number of agents X 3 = DSPs
D. Number of agents X 2 = DSPs


A customer needs to integrate a network of call centers for better load balancing and optimal agent utilization. They also need to monitor the status of the specified resources and adjust call processing. This would enable the system to
compare the specified skills, identify the skill that provides the best service to a call, and deliver the call to an agent in the skill. If no agents are available in the skill, the call is queued.

Which Avaya Aura Call Center Elite feature would you recommend to this customer?

A. Advanced Call Vectoring
B. Expert Agent Selection
C. Best Service Routing
D. Business Advocate

Correct answer:


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On an endpoint, which method should you use to secure applications against exploits?
A. endpoint-based firewall
B. strong user passwords
C. full-disk encryption
D. software patches


Which network analysis tool can be used to record packet captures?
A. Smart IP Scanner
B. Wireshark
C. Angry IP Scanner
D. Netman


Match the description with the VPN technology.
Select and Place:


Which option is an example of a North-South traffic flow?
A. Lateral movement within a cloud or data center
B. An internal three-tier application
C. Client-server interactions that cross the edge perimeter
D. Traffic between an internal server and internal user


An Administrator wants to maximize the use of a network address. The network is and there are three
subnets that need to be created that can not overlap. Which subnet would you use for the network with 120 hosts?
Requirements for the three subnets: Subnet 1: 3 host address Subnet 2: 25 host address Subnet 3: 120 host


In SecOps, what are two of the components included in the identify stage? (Choose two.)
A. Initial Research
B. Change Control
C. Content Engineering
D. Breach Response


Which IPsec feature allows device traffic to go directly to the Internet?
A. Split tunneling
B. Diffie-Hellman groups
C. d.Authentication Header (AH)
D. IKE Security Association


Which aspect of a SaaS application requires compliance with local organizational security policies?
A. Types of physical storage media used
B. data-at-rest encryption standards
C. Acceptable use of the SaaS application
D. Vulnerability scanning and management


Which product from Palo Alto Networks enables organizations to prevent successful cyberattacks as well as simplify
and strengthen security processes?
A. Expedition
B. AutoFocus
C. MineMeld
D. Cortex XDR


Which not-for-profit organization maintains the common vulnerability exposure catalog that is available through their
public website?
A. Department of Homeland Security
C. Office of Cyber Security and Information Assurance
D. Cybersecurity Vulnerability Research Center


In the attached network diagram, which device is the switch?


Order the OSI model with Layer7 at the top and Layer1 at the bottom.
Select and Place:


Which Palo Alto Networks subscription service complements App-ID by enabling you to configure the next-generation
firewall to identify and control access to websites and to protect your organization from websites hosting malware and
phishing pages?
A. Threat Prevention
B. DNS Security
C. WildFire
D. URL Filtering

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Which of the following are the default ports that must be configured for Splunk Enterprise Security to function?

A. SplunkWeb (8088), Splunk Management (8089), KV Store (8000)
B. SplunkWeb (8397), Splunk Management (8877), KV Store (8350)
C. SplunkWeb (8043), Splunk Management (8088), KV Store (8191)
D. SplunkWeb (8000), Splunk Management (8089), KV Store (8191)
Correct Answer: D


Which setting is used in indexes.conf to specify alternate locations for accelerated storage?

A. thawedPath
B. tstatsHomePath
C. summaryHomePath
D. warmToColdScript
Correct Answer: B


Which of the following would allow an add-on to be automatically imported into Splunk Enterprise Security?

A. A prefix of CIM_
B. A suffix of .spl
C. A prefix of TECH_
D. A prefix of Splunk_TA_
Correct Answer: D


Adaptive response action history is stored in which index?

A. cim_modactions
B. modular_history
C. cim_adaptiveactions
D. modular_action_history
Correct Answer: A


Which component normalizes events?

B. SA-Notable.
C. ES application.
D. Technology add-on.
Correct Answer: A
Reference: UsetheCIMtonormalizedataatsearchtime


To which of the following should the ES application be uploaded?

A. The indexer.
B. The KV Store.
C. The search head.
D. The dedicated forwarder.
Correct Answer: C


Which of the following is part of tuning correlation searches for a new ES installation?

A. Configuring correlation permissions.
B. Configuring correlation adaptive responses.
C. Configuring correlation notable event index.
D. Configuring correlation result storage.
Correct Answer: C


What is the bar across the bottom of any ES window?

A. The Investigator Workbench.
B. The Investigation Bar.
C. The Compliance Bar.
D. The Analyst Bar.
Correct Answer: B


Which of the following is a key feature of a glass table?

A. Rigidity.
B. Customization.
C. Interactive investigations.
D. Strong data for later retrieval.
Correct Answer: B


Which columns in the Assets lookup are used to identify an asset in an event?

A. src, DVC, dest
B. cidr, port, netbios, saml
C. IP, mac, DNS, nt_host
D. host, hostname, URL, address
Correct Answer: C


Which of the following is an adaptive action that is configured by default for ES?

A. Create a new asset
B. Create notable event
C. Create investigation
D. Create a new correlation search
Correct Answer: D


An administrator is asked to configure a “Nslookup” adaptive response actions that appear as a selectable option in the notable event\’s action menu when an analyst is working in the Incident Review dashboard.

next, What steps would the administrator take to configure this option?

A. Configure -> Content Management -> Type: Correlation Search -> Notable -> Nslookup
B. Configure -> Type: Correlation Search -> Notable -> Recommended Actions -> Nslookup
C. Configure -> Content Management -> Type: Correlation Search -> Notable -> Next Steps -> Nslookup
D. Configure -> Content Management -> Type: Correlation Search -> Notable -> Recommended Actions > Nslookup
Correct Answer: D


Which of the following is a way to test for a properly normalized data model?

A. Use Audit -> Normalization Audit and check the Errors panel.
B. Run a | data model search, compare results to the CIM documentation for the data model.
C. Run a | load job search, look at tag values and compare them to known tags based on the encoding.
D. Run a | data model search and compare the results to the list of data models in the ES normalization guide.
Correct Answer: B
Reference: UsetheCIMtonormalizedataatsearchtime


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What is a benefit of Session Manager?
A. It centralizes the management of remote gateways.
B. It provides SIP application interoperability across multi-vendor equipment.
C. It provides traditional analog trunking to the edge devices.
D. It de-centralizes management of phones and users enterprise-wide.
Correct Answer: A


A technician is adding 1100 users to an Avaya Aura solution. There is only bandwidth for 30kbps calls per user.
Which audio codec will provide the highest fidelity that the network will support?
A. G.722
B. H.264
C. G.711
D. G.729
Correct Answer: A


The account team is concerned about limitations associated with analog licenses that you have included in your solution
Which two characteristics of analog licenses would you share with the account team? (Choose two.)
A. It is possible to uplift an analog license to a Core suite license.
B. Analog users will get all benefits of a Core license user; the only difference Is the device.
C. Analog license users can coexist in the same Communication Manager with Mobility and Collaboration users.
D. The percentage of analog licenses, within a solution, cannot exceed 60% of the total number of licenses.
Correct Answer: AC


You are explaining to your customer that Avaya Aura Media Server (AAMS) has been adopted by the Communication
Manager, but Is not a direct replacement for media gateways.
Which two capabilities are supported by the Avaya Aura Media Server? (Choose two.)
A. TDM interfaces for digital, analog stations and trunks
B. V.150.1 (Modem-over-IP)
C. Virtualization
D. Basic media resource capabilities
Correct Answer: CD


Which change was made to EC500, to provide a CS1000 Mobile-X-like feature experience?
A. You can now put the call on hold before dialing a feature access code.
B. You can now dial a feature access code without putting the call on hold.
C. You can now enter a feature access code before receiving a call.
D. You must now enter feature access codes before you put a call on hold.
Correct Answer: A


A customer wants to ensure that their remote workers who access the Avaya core are authenticated by the Avaya
Session Border Controller for Enterprise (SBCE).
What is the recommended location for the SBCE?
A. On the same virtual instance with Session Manager
B. In the Internet Service Provider network
C. Behind the firewall in the customer’s enterprise
D. In the customer\’s DMZ
Correct Answer: C


To support 2000 users, the customer wants an Avaya Session Border Controller for Enterprise (SBCE) with encryption for
SIP trunking. They have agreed to use one session for every five users’ sizing models.
How many licenses does this customer need?
A. 2,000 standard and 2,000 advanced licenses
B. 400 standard and 400 advanced licenses
C. 400 standard licenses
D. 2,000 standard licenses
Correct Answer: C


A customer has a branch location with the following requirements:
24 H.323 Endpoints 30 SIP Endpoints 1 DS-1 for PSTN trunking 15 Analog Ports Survivability for all endpoints in the event
of WAN fail
What is the least cost gateway solution that meets all of these requirements?
A. G450 Media Gateway with S8300
B. G450 Media Gateway
C. G430 Media Gateway
D. G430 Media Gateway with S8300
Correct Answer: C


A Sales Engineer is designing an Avaya Aura 8.x solution where 900 video users are being added. There is enough
bandwidth for all users to establish video calls at 6 Mbps.
Which video codec will provide the best video quality that the network will support?
A. H.264
B. H.263
C. H.261
D. H.262
Correct Answer: D


You have a customer who requires both SIP Trunking and Remote Workers. After examining the features needed
overall, you have determined that 700 Core Suite licenses are required. You still need to quote SBCE licenses, in
addition to the entitlements included with Core Suite licenses, to support a total of 120 PSTN SIP trunks and 330 remote
workers. The customer has agreed to a 3 remote worker users to 1 session access basis- How many additional
standard and advanced a la carte SBCE licenses are needed? (Choose two.)
A. 30 SBCE Standard Licenses
B. 20 SBCE Standard Licenses
C. 10 SBCE Advanced Licenses
D. 20 SBCE Advanced Licenses
Correct Answer: C


You are designing an addition to a customer\’s existing Avaya Aura system. The addition will include 575 IP sets, of
which 200 will also use Avaya Equinox for the Desktop, 175 will use Desktop P2P Video, and 25 of them will also need
Extension to Cellular (EC500). There are 75 other new users who will use Avaya Equinox for iOS as their only UC Client
or endpoint. The customer does not want a la carte licensing for applications not covered by Core Suite, and will
purchase other Avaya Aura Suites as required.
How many Core Suite licenses are needed for the addition?
A. 675
B. 650
C. 625
D. 575
Correct Answer: D


You are adding 1400 users to an existing Avaya Aura communication core- The customer wants the same services for
alt users, but with this expansion there Is not enough bandwidth for audio and video calls for all.
If the bandwidth parameter Is set lower than the minimum video requirement, what will happen to users Initiating audio
and video calls?
A. Audio calls will connect but video calls will not initiate.
B. Audio and video calls will connect for some users.
C. Audio and video calls will connect for all users.
D. Audio calls will connect and video calls will connect as audio calls.
Correct Answer: B


A customer is interested in deploying geo-redundant System Managers. Which two requirements would they need to
know? (Choose two.)
A. Both servers must be on the same IP subnet.
B. The two servers must have the same version of the software.
C. The two servers can reach each other on the network.
D. Both servers must have the same IP address.
Correct Answer: A

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What is a limitation of searches generated by workflow actions?
A. Searches generated by workflow action cannot use macros.
B. Searches generated by workflow actions must be less than 256 characters long.
C. Searches generated by workflow action must run in the same app as the workflow action.
D. Searches generated by workflow action run with the same permissions as the user running them.
Correct Answer: D

Select this in the fields sidebar to automatically pipe you search results to the rare command
A. events with this field
B. rare values
C. top values by time
D. top values
Correct Answer: B

Which of the following searches show a valid use of macro? (Select all that apply)
A. index=main source=mySource oldField=* |\\’makeMyField(oldField)\\’| table _time newField
B. index=main source=mySource oldField=* | stats if(\\’makeMyField(oldField)\\’) | table _time newField
C. index=main source=mySource oldField=* | eval newField=\\’makeMyField(oldField)\\’| table _time newField
D. index=main source=mySource oldField=* | “\\’newField(\\’makeMyField(oldField)\\’)\\'” | table _time newField
Correct Answer: AB

A data model can consist of what three types of datasets?
A. Pivot, searches, and events.
B. Pivot, events, and transactions.
C. Searches, transactions, and pivot.
D. Events, searches, and transactions.
Correct Answer: D

Which of the following about reports is/are true?
A. Reports are knowledge objects.
B. Reports can be scheduled.
C. Reports can run a script.
D. All of the above.
Correct Answer: D

Which search would limit an “alert” tag to the “host” field?
A. tag=alert
B. host::tag::alert
C. tag==alert
D. tag::host=alert
Correct Answer: D

These allow you to categorize events based on search terms. Select your answer.
A. Groups
B. Event Types
C. Macros
D. Tags
Correct Answer: B

Selected fields are displayed ______each event in the search results.
A. below
B. interesting fields
C. other fields
D. above
Correct Answer: A

In the following eval statement, what is the value of description if the status is 503?
index=main | eval description=case(status==200, “OK”, status==404, “Not found”, status==500, “Internal Server Error”)
A. The description field would contain no value.
B. The description field would contain the value 0.
C. The description field would contain the value “Internal Server Error”.
D. This statement would produce an error in Splunk because it is incomplete.
Correct Answer: C

When extracting fields, we may choose to use our own regular expressions
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A

which of the following are valid options with the chart command
A. useother
B. usenull
C. fillfield
D. usefiled
Correct Answer: AB

The time range specified for a historical search defines the ____________ .——questionable on ans
A. Amount of data shown on the timeline as data streams in
B. Amount of data fetched from index matching that time range
C. Time range for the static results
Correct Answer: B

Data model are composed of one or more of which of the fo-owing datasets? (select all that apply.)
A. Events datasets
B. Search datasets
C. Transaction datasets
D. Any child of event, transaction, and search datasets
Correct Answer: ABC

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Refer to the Scenario:
Bittersweet Coffee Company (BCC).

37820X exam questions-q1

Your initial bid response has been designed to meet only the customer\\’s stated needs from the RFP. Which feature
brings added value to your solution without incurring any additional cost to the customer?
A. On demand call recording and reporting for any user
B. HTML based call accounting reports
C. Meet-me audio conferencing
D. Centralized management of wired network switches
Correct Answer: D

Refer to the exhibit.

37820X exam questions-q2

You have just finished your discovery conversation with a multi-location, midsize customer. What would you do to use
the generic functional UCandC architecture shown in the exhibit?
A. Create a version of this diagram for each location.
B. Add the specific product names for components in your solution.
C. Cross out functionality not requested by the customer.
D. Add In quantities for each of the components in your solution.
Correct Answer: C

In an IP Office environment, which one can be run on the Vantage device?
A. Vantage Connect Client
B. Avaya IXTM Workplace Client
C. Avaya Equinox Attendant
D. IP Office Web Client
Correct Answer: B

You have just completed a series of discovery conversations with a customer. To summarize the results of your
conversations, what would you create to show each of the customer contacts you met with?
A. A design diagram for each person
B. An architectural diagram for each person
C. A single architectural diagram
D. A single design diagram
Correct Answer: B

Refer to the Scenario: HandH Ticket.

37820X exam questions-q5

The HandH Ticket company wants to replace their DEFINITY systems with a solution for which they can easily obtain
parts and maintenance. The customer contact wants to know why they should migrate to IP Office”* and not Avaya
Aura? In addition to telling them that this solution was purpose-built to support midsize enterprises with up to 3000
users, what else would you tell them?
A. IP Office Includes built-in apps such as voicemail, audio and web collaboration, mobility, IM and Presence.
B. The IP Office can be virtualized in either a Nutanix or a VMware environment.
C. IP Office integrates with a multi-channel contact center solution that can migrate to Avaya Aura Contact Center.
D. IP Office uses many of the same components and applications such as SBCE and System Manager.
Correct Answer: D

You are speaking with a customer who has a large multi-site enterprise, and limited IT staff to support a new
communications system. They like the idea of housing the primary call control in a reliable data center, but do not have
such an environment. In their business today. Local survivability is critical as reliable communications is a core function
of their business. Based on these factors, which IP OfficeTM deployment model would meet the customer
A. Private Cloud
B. Public Cloud
C. Hybrid Cloud
D. On-Premise
Correct Answer: A

Web is using Outlook with an Exchange server. You have proposed that the customer use
the Outlook plug-In.
What does this plug-In do for the users at Web
A. It adds Avaya IX Workplace Client functionality to the Outlook window.
B. It adds Outlook access to the Avaya IX Workplace Client for IP Office.
C. it adds Outlook access to the one-X Portal desktop.
D. it adds a subset of one-X Portal functionality to the Outlook window.
Correct Answer: C

Which agent application uses the Communication Control Toolkit (CCT) function in Avaya Contact Center Select
A. one-X Agent
B. Avaya Communicator
C. Avaya Agent Desktop
D. Agent Desktop Display
Correct Answer: B

One of the security enhancements in the Powered By IP 0ffice offer is SIP Registrar Hardening that
enables Better control to allow SIP clients to register using a whitelist and blacklist.
To which platform is this functionality relevant?
A. SCN IP500 V2
B. Expansion IP500 V2
C. Linux servers
D. CentOS servers
Correct Answer: C

Refer to the Scenario: IT-FAC.

37820X exam questions-q10

IT-FAC Is very concerned about reliability since they need the ability to always make calls and receive calls. They are
not as concerned about reliability of messaging and other forms of collaboration. Based on the above information, what
Is required in the IP Office solution to provide backup for their SIP trunks and Session Border Controller for Enterprise
A. Add an E1 or T1 line with a combo card.
B. Add a second Portwell SBCE to provide High Availability (HA).
C. Add Plain Old Telephone Service (POTS) lines and analog modules to the IP500 V2.
D. Duplicate all of the SIP trunks, add another Portwell SBCE and High Availability (HA. licenses.
Correct Answer: A

With the Avaya J100 Series IXTM IP phones, which feature requires PoE Class 2?
A. The JBM24/JEM24 button module
B. The color display
C. The J100 wireless module
D. The built-in volume boost
Correct Answer: B

You are working with a customer to migrate them to an Avaya Midsize solution with IP OfficeTM. They have nine
existing analog trunks that each cost $40 per month. You want to determine If It would be cost effective to go to digital
trunking using a T1/E1 at a cost of $400 per month. Although the analog monthly line charges are less, what else would
need to be taken Into consideration to look at the total cost difference?
A. Analog devices, such as a classic fax machine, attached to the IP Office require analog trunks.
B. Digital trunking requires an SBCE for security.
C. The cost for nine analog trunk ports versus a single digital trunk port.
D. Digital trunking needs VCM channels and analog trunks do not  Correct Answer: A

With Avaya Equinox Meetings Online, what is the maximum number of live broadcast viewers for a Pro VMR version?
A. 500 viewers
B. 50 viewers
C. 25 viewers
D. 100 viewers
Correct Answer: A

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What predefined drilldown tokens are available specifically for trellis layouts? (Select all that apply.)
A. trellis.Xaxis
B. trellis.Yaxis
D. trellis.value
Correct Answer: CD

Which of the following are valid parent elements for the event action shown below? (Select all that apply.)
Correct Answer: AC

Given a dashboard with a Simple XML extension in myApp, what is the XML reference for the file myJS.js located in
myOtherApp in the location shown below?
Correct Answer: A

Using Splunk Web to modify config settings for a shared object, a revised config file with those changes is placed in
which directory?
A. $SPLUNK_HOME/etc/apps/myApp/local
B. $SPLUNK_HOME/etc/system/default/
C. $SPLUNK_HOME/etc/system/local
D. $SPLUNK_HOME/etc/apps/myApp/default
Correct Answer: A

Which of the following are characteristics of an add-on? (Select all that apply.)
A. Requires navigation file.
B. Occupies a unique namespace within Splunk.
C. Can depend on add-ons for correct operation.
D. Contains technology or components not intended for reuse by other apps.
Correct Answer: AD

For a KV store, a lookup stanza in the transforms.conf file must contain which of the following? (Select all that apply.)
A. collection
B. fields_list
C. external_type
D. internal_type
Correct Answer: AB

Which HTTP Event Collector (HEC) endpoint should be used to collect data in the following format? {“message”:”Hello
World”, “foo”:”bar”, “pony”:”buttercup”}
A. data/inputs/http/Splunk Certified Developer
B. services/collector/raw
C. services/collector
D. data/inputs/http
Correct Answer: B

Which of the following search commands can be used to perform statistical queries on indexed fields in TSIDX files?
A. stats
B. tstats
C. tscollect
D. transaction
Correct Answer: B

The response message from a successful Splunk REST call includes an element. What is contained in an element?
A. A dictionary of elements.
B. Metadata encapsulating the element.
C. A response code indicating success or failure.
D. An individual element in an collection.
Correct Answer: B

Which Splunk REST endpoint is used to create a KV store collection?
A. /storage/collections
B. /storage/kvstore/create
C. /storage/collections/config
D. /storage/kvstore/collections
Correct Answer: A

Which of the following ensures that quotation marks surround the value referenced by the token?
A. $token_name|s$
B. “$token_name$”
C. ($token_name$)
D. \”$token_name$\”
Correct Answer: A

Which of the following formats are valid for a Splunk REST URI?
A. host:port/endpoint
B. scheme://host/servicesNS/*/
C. $SPLUNK HOME/services/endpoint
D. scheme://host:port/services/endpoint
Correct Answer: D

There is a global search named “global_search” defined on a form as shown below:
index-_internal source-*splunkd.log | stats count by component, log_level
Which of the following would be a valid post-processing search? (Select all that apply.)
A. | tstats count
B. sourcetype=mysourcetype
C. stats sum(count) AS count by log level
D. search log_level=error | stats sum(count) AS count by component
Correct Answer: CD

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A customer has the UCMv2 installed in their IP Office 500 V2. They are using one-X® Portal for 25 of their users.
In this scenario, what is the maximum voicemail ports supported on the Voicemail Pro?
A. 30
B. 20
C. 25
D. 40
Correct Answer: B
References: Page: 9

As of Avaya IP Office Release 10 software, which type of license can be used?
C. Windows
D. Linux
Correct Answer: B

Which two methods are voicemails to email with the Voicemail Pro? (Choose two.)
A. Outlook
Correct Answer: BD
References: Page: 57

If no Music-on-Hold source is selected, what will a caller hear when a user places them on hold?
A. a double bleep tone
B. silence
C. ringing
D. an automated voice saying “Please Hold”
Correct Answer: A

Which Application is used to upgrade IP Office Server Edition?
A. Manager
B. Web Manager
C. System Status
D. Linux command line
Correct Answer: A

A customer has two main receptionists using SoftConsole; however, when they are on a break or at lunch, there are
four back office workers that can open the SoftConsole on their PC to take calls to cover these periods.
How many licenses are required for this to work?
A. 8
B. 6
C. 2
D. 4
Correct Answer: D
References: Page: 9

A customer has requested that all users should be prevented from dialing international numbers. What is the quickest
way to apply the short code to the system\\’s short codes?
A. Apply the short code to the ARS table.
B. Apply the short code to a user right.
C. Apply the short code to all external lines.
D. Apply the short code to each user individually.
Correct Answer: A

A user at a remote IP Office site calls in to discuss a voicemail issue. You launch the Manager program to see your
multi-site IP Office network, but only your local IP Office appears.
What is causing this problem?
A. The Unit/Broadcast address is
B. No SCN users are available.
C. The remotes are doing a reboot.
D. Your login is not correct.
Correct Answer: B

Which method will avoid corruption of the data on the SD card when removing the SD card from the IP Office?
A. Dial the shutdown short code to shut down the card before removing the SD card.
B. Use the Manager application to shut down the card before removing the SD card.
C. Use System Monitor to shut down the card before removing the SD card.
D. Pull out the card. Special shutdown is not required.
Correct Answer: B

The Debug level is set to Verbose for creating log files to help with fault finding on which application?
A. Avaya Equinox Client
B. Media Manager
C. one-X® Portal Client
D. VM Pro
Correct Answer: D

When creating a Short Code that is to connect to a Start point on Modules in the Voicemail Pro, which Short Code
feature should you use?
A. Voicemail Call
B. Voicemail Off
C. Voicemail On
D. Voicemail Node
Correct Answer: D

What does “IMAP support” mean in the IP Office UMS service?
A. A user can see/listen to voicemail messages via Web browser.
B. A user can receive voicemail messages only using MS Outlook.
C. All messages are forwarded to a user e-mail account and deleted on their telephone.
D. A user can receive voicemail messages to their Outlook, Outlook Express and/or Lotus Notes programs running on
their PC.
E. A new message is sent to a user e-mail account. The user can listen to it by dialing their telephone number.
Correct Answer: B

A customer has given six employees the ability to hot-desk for when they come into the office. When they log off, their
calls will go to their voicemail boxes. Employees want to retrieve their voicemail while out of the office.
How should you set up DDI/DID to achieve this?
A. DDI/DID to their Login code
B. DDI/DID number to their Extension
C. DDI/DID to the short code feature “Voicemail Collect”
D. DDI/DID to a Voicemail module “Recording”
Correct Answer: C

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The SIP-enabled AACC Communication Control Toolkit integrates the agents and supervisors within the SIP
environment to offer features.
Which application programming interface type is used to publish the CCT functions?
A. Microsoft .NET
B. Open Database Connectivity (ODBC)
C. Open Computing Language (OpenGL)
D. Simple Direct Media Layer
Correct Answer: B

Media Servers are needed in a SIP-enabled AACC
Which deployment allows the co-resident installation of Voice and Multimedia Contact Center with Media Server?
A. Physical Mid-Range Server
B. Physical Entry-Level Server
C. VMware Mid-Range Server
D. VMware High-End Server
Correct Answer: A

A Contact Center manager knows that a modern agent Interface which can deliver all of the relevant customer
information, creates a better customer experience.
Which two agent interfaces are supported with AACC Release 7.1? (Choose two)
A. Avaya IXTM Workplace
B. Avaya Agent Desktop a
C. Avaya IXTM Workspaces
D. Avaya one-X Agent Desktop
Correct Answer: BC

During the discovery conversation with South Travel Stores, they said they want to leave a chat message for the experts
if they are not available.
Which component would the sales person offer South Travel Stores?
A. Co-browse Snap-In
B. Multimedia Messaging
C. Messaging (AAM)
D. Context Store Snap-In
Correct Answer: D

Which three attributes describe the right context of a customer journey experience? (Choose three.)
A. Specific Report focused
B. Single Channel driven
C. Seamless
D. Personalized
E. Intelligent
Correct Answer: A

When upgrading existing AACC Systems, which Avaya Engagement AACC package is available?
A. Agent Greeting
B. Instant Message
C. Resilience
D. Geographic Node
Correct Answer: D

Which group offers the AACC Callback Request solution that leverages AACC scripting and web services, as well\\’as
the outbound capability of AACC?
A. Avaya technical staff
B. Avaya Development team
C. Avaya Support
D. Avaya Professional Services
Correct Answer: B

Refer to the exhibit.

33810x exam questions-q8

AACC routes contacts based on business logic to any SIP addressable endpoint. Which statement about AACC Voice
Contact is true?
A. It Is anchored In the Media Processing Platform.
B. It Is anchored In the G450.
C. It Is anchored In the Media Server.
D. It Is anchored in the Session Manager.
Correct Answer: D

A Contact Center manager wants a fast First Call Resolution, and has requested a Skype for Business client software
on Avaya Agent Desktop.
Which statement describes what the Avaya support department needs be prepared to tell the manager?
A. Different Presence client software are supported on Avaya Agent Desktop.
B. Agent Desktop does not support co-resident Skype for Business client software.
C. Microsoft Lync Server are not supported.
D. Microsoft Skype Server are not supported.
Correct Answer: A

An IT manager wants a Callback offer leveraging AACC scripting and Web services, as well as the outbound capability
of AACC.
What Is this solution called?
A. Call Completion No Reply (CCNR)
B. Call Back Assist (CBA)
C. Call Back Request (CBR)
D. Call Completion Busy Subscriber (CCBS)
Correct Answer: C

A customer needs an application that is provided free of charge and allows them to reduce the time required to develop
and maintain scripts, workflows, and applications in the Avaya Aura Contact Center.
Which application will meet the customer\\’s requirements?
A. Avaya Control Manager
B. Avaya one-X Agent Desktop
C. Avaya Agent Desktop
D. Avaya Contact Center Orchestration Designer
Correct Answer: C

A finance director wants a solution that both answers Inbound calls during peak call times to avoid poor customer
experience, and minimizes costs for additional agents.
Which solution meets these customer requirements?
A. Avaya IX TM Workplace
B. Avaya Callback Assist
C. Avaya IX TMM Workspaces
D. Avaya Agent Desktop
Correct Answer: C

A design specialist prepares for a customer meeting, and knows that data on the customer, their Industry, and the
possible competition, will need to be collected.
Which additional information is also needed?
A. The salaries of the executives In the meeting
B. The design diagram for discussion with customer
C. The Avaya solutions and services Avaya could offer
D. The model numbers of the existing contact center equipment
Correct Answer: D

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