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CheckPoint 156-315.80 exam questions video

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Practice With Real CheckPoint CCSE 156-315.80 Questions

QUESTION 1
What is the SOLR database for?
A. Used for full-text search and enables powerful matching capabilities
B. Writes data to the database and full-text search
C. Serves GUI responsible to transfer request to the DLE server
D. Enables powerful matching capabilities and writes data to the database
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 2
fwssd is a child process of which of the following Check Point daemons?
A. fwd
B. cpwd
C. fwm
D. cpd
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 3
From SecureXL perspective, what are the tree paths of traffic flow:
A. Initial Path; Medium Path; Accelerated Path
B. Layer Path; Blade Path; Rule Path
C. Firewall Path; Accept Path; Drop Path
D. Firewall Path; Accelerated Path; Medium Path
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4
When Dynamic Dispatcher is enabled, connections are assigned dynamically with the exception of:
A. Threat Emulation
B. HTTPS
C. QOS
D. VoIP
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 5
Which of the SecureXL templates are enabled by default on Security Gateway?
A. Accept
B. Drop
C. NAT
D. None
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 6
SandBlast offers businesses flexibility in implementation based on their individual business needs. What is an option for
deployment of Check Point SandBlast Zero-Day Protection?
A. Smart Cloud Service
B. Any Cloud Service
C. Threat Agent Service
D. Public Cloud Service
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 7
What state is the Management HA when both members have different policies/databases?
A. Synchronized
B. Never been synchronized
C. Lagging
D. Collision
Correct Answer: D
Reference: click here 

QUESTION 8
Fill in the blank: Identity Awareness AD-Query is using the Microsoft _______________ API to learn users from AD.
A. WMI
B. Eventvwr
C. XML
D. Services.msc
Correct Answer: A
Reference: click here 


QUESTION 9
Which command would you use to set the network interfaces\\’ affinity in Manual mode?
A. sim affinity -m
B. sim affinity -l
C. sim affinity -a
D. sim affinity -s
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 10
Fill in the blanks. There are ________ types of software containers: ___________.
A. Three; security management, Security Gateway, and endpoint security
B. Three; Security Gateway, endpoint security, and gateway management
C. Two; security management and endpoint security
D. Two; endpoint security and Security Gateway
Correct Answer: A
Reference: click here

QUESTION 11
What will SmartEvent automatically define as events?
A. Firewall
B. VPN
C. IPS
D. HTTPS
Correct Answer: C
Reference: click here 


QUESTION 12
What are the available options for downloading Check Point hotfixes in Gaia WebUI (CPUSE)?
A. Manually, Scheduled, Automatic
B. Manually, Automatic, Disabled
C. Manually, Scheduled, Disabled
D. Manually, Scheduled, Enabled
Correct Answer: A
Reference: click here 


QUESTION 13
Vanessa is a firewall administrator in her company. Her company is using Check Point firewall on a central and several
remote locations which are managed centrally by R77.30 Security Management Server. On central location is installed
R77.30 Gateway on Open server. Remote locations are using Check Point UTM-1570 series appliances with R75.30
and some of them are using a UTM-1-Edge-X or Edge-W with the latest available firmware. She is in process of migrating to
R80.
What can cause Vanessa unnecessary problems, if she didn\\’t checks all requirements for migration to R80?
A. Missing an installed R77.20 Add-on on Security Management Server
B. Unsupported firmware on UTM-1 Edge-W appliance
C. Unsupported version on UTM-1 570 series appliance
D. Unsupported appliances on remote locations
Correct Answer: A

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  • What is the Cisco CCNP Enterprise Certification
  • How do I pass its 350-401 exam?
  • Latest 350-401 exam dumps and 350-401 practice tests

What is the Cisco CCNP Enterprise Certification

You must pass two exams to become a CCNP corporate certification. A core exam and a corporate centralized exam of your choice are necessary. Each exam for this certification will give you an expert certification, which is the best way to identify a person’s achievements. Core 350-401 exam measures knowledge of enterprise infrastructure, dual-stack (IPv 4 and IPv 6) architecture.

Vendor: Cisco
Certifications: CCNP
Exam Code: 350-401
Exam Name: Implementing and Operating Cisco Enterprise Network Core Technologies (ENCOR)

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Cisco CCNP 350-401 practice tests questions answers

QUESTION 1
An engineer must configure interface GigabitEthernet0/0 for VRRP group 10. When the router has the highest priority in
the group, it must assume the master role. Which command set must be added to the initial configuration to accomplish
this task?

javacexam 350-401 exam questions-q1

A. vrrp 10 ip 172.16.13.254 vrrp 10 preempt
B. standby 10 ip 172.16.13.254 standby 10 priority 120
C. vrrp group 10 ip 172.16.13 254.255.255.255.0 vrrp group 10 priority 120
D. standby 10 ip 172.16.13.254 255.255.255.0 standby 10 preempt
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2
What are two reasons why broadcast radiation is caused in the virtual machine environment? (Choose two.)
A. vSwitch must interrupt the server CPU to process the broadcast packet.
B. The Layer 2 domain can be large in virtual machine environments.
C. Virtual machines communicate primarily through broadcast mode.
D. Communication between vSwitch and network switch is broadcast based.
E. Communication between vSwitch and network switch is multicast based.
Correct Answer: AD
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/solutions/collateral/data-centervirtualization/net_implementation_white_paper0900aecd806a9c05.html


QUESTION 3
How does SSO work with HSRP to minimize network disruptions?
A. It enables HSRP to elect another switch in the group as the active HSRP switch.
B. It ensures fast failover in the case of link failure.
C. It enables data forwarding along known routes following a switchover, white the routing protocol reconverges.
D. It enables HSRP to failover to the standby RP on the same device.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4
Refer to the exhibit.

javacexam 350-401 exam questions-q4

An engineer must establish eBGP peering between router R3 and router R4. Both routers should use their loopback
interfaces as the BGP router ID. Which configuration set accomplishes this task?

javacexam 350-401 exam questions-q4-2

A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 5
Which feature must be configured to allow packet capture over Layer 3 infrastructure\\’?
A. VSPAN
B. IPSPAN
C. RSPAN
D. ERSPAN
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6

javacexam 350-401 exam questions-q6

Refer to the exhibit. Which level message does the WLC send to the syslog server?
A. syslog level errors and less severity messages
B. syslog level errors messages
C. all syslog levels messages
D. syslog level errors and greater severity messages
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7
Refer to the exhibit.

javacexam 350-401 exam questions-q7

A client reports being unable to log into the wireless network, which uses PEAPv2. Which two issues appear in the
output? (Choose two.)
A. There is a problem with the client supplicant.
B. The AP has the incorrect RADIUS server address.
C. The AP has lost IP connectivity to the authentication server.
D. The EAP client timeout value should be increased.
E. The authentication server is misconfigured on the controller.
F. The authentication server is misconfigured in the WLAN.
Correct Answer: AD


QUESTION 8
Which PAgP mode combination prevents an Etherchannel from forming?
A. auto/auto
B. desirable/desirable
C. auto/desirable
D. desirable
Correct Answer: A
Reference: https://www.omnisecu.com/cisco-certified-network-associate-ccna/etherchannel-pagp-and-lacp-modes.php

QUESTION 9
Which configuration restricts the amount of SSH traffic that a router accepts to 100 kbps?

javacexam 350-401 exam questions-q9

javacexam 350-401 exam questions-q9-2

A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 10
A network is being migrated from IPV4 to IPV6 using a dual-stack approach. Network management is already 100%
IPV6 enabled.
In a dual-stack network with two dual-stack NetFlow collections, how many flow exporters are needed per network
device in the flexible NetFlow configuration?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 4
D. 8
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11
Refer to the exhibit.

javacexam 350-401 exam questions-q11

Refer to the exhibit. Which two commands are needed to allow for full reachability between AS 1000 and AS 2000?
(Choose two)
A. R1#network 19.168.0.0 mask 255.255.0.0
B. R2#no network 10.0.0.0 255.255.255.0
C. R2#network 19.168.0.0 mask 255.255.0.0
D. R2#network 209.165.201.0 mask 255.255.192.0
E. R1#no network 10.0.0.0 255.255.255.0
Correct Answer: BC


QUESTION 12
Refer to the exhibit.

javacexam 350-401 exam questions-q12

Refer to the exhibit. Which command allows hosts that are connected to FastEthernet0/2 to access the Internet?
A. ip nat inside source list 10 interface FastEthernet0/1 overload
B. ip nat inside source list 10 interface FastEthernet0/2 overload
C. ip nat outside source list 10 interface FastEthernet0/2 overload
D. ip nat outside source static 209.165.200.225 10.10.10.0 overload
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 13
A server running Linux is providing support for virtual machines along with DNS and DHCP services for a small
business. Which technology does this represent?
A. container
B. Type 1 hypervisor
C. hardware pass-thru
D. Type 2 hypervisor
Correct Answer: D

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Real CompTIA N10-007 exam questions and answers 1-13

QUESTION 1
A junior network technician is working in the field and needs to connect to the company/s remote server, however, doing
so will require the junior technician to use the public Internet. Because security is a concern which of the following is the
BEST method to use?
A. Telnet
B. SSH
C. SFTP
D. VNC
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 2
A network engineer planning for wireless connectivity in large office building. Currently, the office building contains both
legacy and newer devices. Which of the following wireless network routers should engineer select for the fastest
throughput for all wireless devices in the office building?
A. 802.11ac
B. 802.11b
C. 802.11g
D. 802.11n
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 3
A client requests a new dynamic address and receives a response from two DHCP servers. Which of the following
addressing information would the client use?
A. The IP addressing information received last
B. The IP addressing information from the highest server MAC address
C. The IP addressing information from the highest server IP address
D. The IP addressing information received first
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4
A company has procured a new office building and started the process of assigning employees to work at that location.
The company has also purchased equipment for the new location. There are 5033 laptops, 6000 monitors, and 857
printers. Which of the following steps is the technician most likely to complete FIRST?
A. Create a rack diagram
B. Create a network baseline
C. Create an inventory database
D. Create a port location diagram
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 5
Two WAPs are positioned with overlapping coverage, but seamless roaming across them is not working. Which of the
following should be checked?
A. WPA should be enabled
B. PKI should be turned off
C. WAP SSIDs are matching
D. WAPs are transmitting on same channel
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 6
Allowing data to be centrally stored and accessed by multiple devices on an isolated subnet is BEST understood as:
A. NAS
B. iSCSI
C. SAN
D. FCoE
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7
Which of the following default ports should be opened on a firewall to allow for SSH and Telnet? (Select TWO)
A. 21
B. 22
C. 23
D. 25
E. 123
F. 443
Correct Answer: BC


QUESTION 8
A network extension needs to be run to a location 500ft(152m) from the nearest switch. Which of the following solutions
would work BEST? (Choose two.)
A. Cat 6 with a repeater placed in the middle of the run
B. Cat 7
C. Crossover cable
D. Fiber-optic cabling
E. Cat 7 with a patch panel placed in the middle of the run
Correct Answer: AD


QUESTION 9
Which of the following is a secure way to connect to a device?
A. RSH
B. TFTP
C. SNMPv2
D. SFTP
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 10
Which of the following is based ENTIRELY on using ICMP packets?
A. Social engineering
B. NMAP
C. Buffer overflow attack D. Smurf attack
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 11
A technician is setting up a branch office on a point-to-point connection. Which of the following IP network blocks is the
MOST efficient use of IP address space for the router connections between the two sites?
A. /24
B. /25
C. /30
D. /32
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 12
Jeff, a technician, is charged with setting up network monitoring for critical devices in the network. It is important the
information be sent securely to the monitoring station. Which of the following protocols will support secure transmission
of the data?
A. SNMP v2
B. VPN
C. SYSLOG
D. SMTP
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 13
Which of the following physical security devices is used to detect unauthorized server room access?
A. Access badge
B. Biometrics
C. Smart card
D. Video surveillance
Correct Answer: D

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In this article, I will explain what the Microsoft Power platform is, what products are there, why it is important, and so on. Microsoft quickly innovates, updates and releases new products and solutions, and you will read a lot about power platforms.

  • What is the Microsoft Power Platform? Quick overview!
  • Four products provided by the Microsoft Power platform
  • Exams included
  • Why is it important?
  • More related resources

What is the Microsoft Power Platform? Quick overview!

It is a series of integrated tools designed to unlock the potential of other Microsoft applications.

“Microsoft Power Platform” is the general term for three Microsoft products: Power BI, Power Apps and Power Automate, Power Virtual Agent. This Microsoft Power platform merges all data into a common data model. It is a set of products provided by Microsoft to develop and build complex business solutions, analyze and graph data visualization, automate business processes, or build virtual agents for communication.

Power Platform has many exciting possibilities and implications, but it is difficult to know where to start or what it can do for your organization. If you want to learn more about the Power platform, or discuss a potential idea, please contact us today.

Four products provided by the Microsoft Power platform

There are four products:

  1. POWER BI – used to analyze data from different data sources
  2. Power Apps – used to build powerful mobile applications for internal use within the organization
  3. Power Automation – used to design automated workflows to reduce manual tasks.
  4. Power Virtual Agent – used to develop flexible chatbots that can communicate with external clients
POWER BI
(Overview 2020)
Power BI is a business analysis tool that allows you to easily connect to data sources, create visualizations, and quickly acquire business intelligence.
Power Apps (Overview 2020)Power Apps is a low-code custom application development method that allows users to quickly create applications in a “point and click” manner. Power Apps is more like a service platform provided by Microsoft’s Power platform. This service enables users to quickly build applications that can run on any modern web browser, such as Chrome, Firefox, etc., as well as native mobile applications using Android, IOS, or Windows.
Power Automate (Overview 2020)Power Automate allows you to create automated workflows between Microsoft services or other third-party applications, so that workers can avoid performing repetitive tasks and save valuable time.
Power Virtual Agent (Overview 2020)Power Virtual Agent is a BOT construction service provided by Microsoft for business users. Using it, users can build virtual chat agents from scratch without writing a line of code. All integration and logic can be implemented in the graphical user interface of the Power Virtual Agent portal.

Exams included

Microsoft Power Platform Exams:

  • MB-600: Microsoft Power Apps + Dynamics 365 Solution Architect
  • PL-900: Microsoft Power Platform Fundamentals

Why is it important?

In this digital age, our dependence on data is very high. The Power platform democratizes data-enabling typical (non-technical) end users to access digital information.

It provides three technologies that enable staff to process more data by themselves without coding knowledge. It does provide an easy way for most users to create, automate, or analyze their data in ways that have never been possible for ordinary workers.

More related resources

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The goal of Javacexam is to provide you with the latest news, tips and best practices in the Microsoft Power Platform. Learn about Power Platform updates!

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Use Our Salesforce Developer CRT-450 Exam Questions

QUESTION 1
A developer has created a Visualforce Page and Apex Controller that uses the With Sharing keyword. The page will be
used of by Sales Managers and should only display Accounts owned by Sales Representatives who report to the
running Sales Manager. The organization-wide sharing for Accounts is set to Private. Which additional set of stops
should the developer take?
A. Create one Profile, two Permission Sets, and one Role.
B. Create one Profile, one Permission Set, and one Role.
C. Create one Profile, one Permission Set, and two Roles.
D. Create two Profiles, one Permission Set, and one Role.
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 2
A developer writes a trigger on the Account object on the before update event that increments a count field. A workflow
rule also increments the count field every time that an Account is created or updated. The field update in the workflow
rule is configured to not re-evaluate workflow rules.
What is the value of the count field if an Account is inserted with an initial value of zero, assuming no other automation
logic is implemented on the Account?
A. 1
B. 3
C. 4
D. 2
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 3
How should a developer make sure that a child record on a custom object, with a lookup to the Account object, has the
same sharing access as its associated account?
A. Create a Sharing Rule comparing the custom object owner to the account owner.
B. Create a validation rule on the custom object comparing the record owners on both records.
C. Include the sharing related list on the custom object page layout.
D. Ensure that the relationship between the objects is Master-Detail.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4
A platform developer needs to write an apex method that will only perform an action if a record is assigned to a specific
record type. Which two options allow the developer to dynamically determine the ID of the required record type by its
name? [Choose 2 answers]
A. Use the getrecordtypeinfosbydevelopername() method in the describesobjectresult class
B. Make an outbound web services call to the SOAP API
C. Execute a SOQL query on the recordtype object
D. Hardcore the ID as a constant in an apex class
Correct Answer: AC


QUESTION 5
An Approval Process is defined in the Expense_Item__c object. A business rule dictates that whenever a user changes
the Status to `Submitted\\’ on an Expense_Report__c record, all the Expense_Item__c records related to the expense
report must enter the approval process individually.
Which approach should be used to ensure the business requirement is met?
A. Create a Process Builder on Expense_Report__c with an `Apex\\’ action type to submit all related Expense_Item__c
records when the criteria is met.
B. Create a Process Builder on Expense_Report__c to mark the related Expense_Item__c as submittable and a trigger
on Expense_Item__c to submit the records for approval.
C. Create two Process Builders, one on Expense_Report__c to mark the related Expense_Item__c as submittable and
the second on Expense_Item__c to submit the records for approval.
D. Create a Process Builder on Expense_Report__c with a `Submit for Approval\\’ action type to submit all related
Expense_Item__c records when the criteria are met.
Correct Answer: B
 

QUESTION 6
Universal Containers (UC) has an integration with its Accounting system that creates tens of thousands of Orders inside
of Salesforce in a nightly batch. UC wants to add automaton that can attempt to match Leads and Contacts to these
Orders using the Email Address field on the insert. UC is concerned about the performance of the automation with a
large data volume. Which tool should UC use to automate this process?
A. Process Builder
B. Process Builder with an Autolaunched Flow
C. Workflow Rules
D. Apex
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7
Which Salesforce org has a complete duplicate copy of the production org including data and configuration?
A. Developer Pro Sandbox
B. Partial Copy Sandbox
C. Production
D. Full Sandbox
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8
In which three areas can a Lightning component be used in the Lightning Experience? (Choose three.)
A. Lightning Report page
B. Lightning Connect page
C. Lightning Record Page
D. Lightning Community Page
E. Lightning Home page
Correct Answer: CDE

QUESTION 9
Which two statement are acceptable for a developer to use Inside procedural loops?
A. Contactlist.remove(i)
B. Delete contactList
C. Account a=[select id,name from account where id=:con.accountid limit 1]
D. Contact con =new contact()
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 10
A developer needs to join data received from an integration with an external system with parent records in Salesforce.
The data set does not contain the Salesforce IDs of the parent records, but it does have a foreign key attribute that can
be used to identify the parent. Which action will allow the developer to relate records in the data model without knowing
the Salesforce ID?
A. Create and populate a custom field on the parent object marked as Unique.
B. Create a custom field on the child object of type External Relationship.
C. Create and populate a custom field on the parent object marked as an External ID.
D. Create a custom field on the child object of type Foreign Key.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 11
Using the Schema Builder, a developer tries to change the API name of a field that is referenced in an Apex test class.
What is the end result?
A. The API name is not changed and there are no other impacts.
B. The API name of the field and the reference in the test class is changed.
C. The API name of the field is changed, and a warning is issued to update the class.
D. The API name of the field and the reference in the test class is updated.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12
The following Apex method is part of the ContactService class that is called from a trigger:

softwarexam CRT-450 exam questions-q12

How should the developer modify the code to ensure best practices are met?

softwarexam CRT-450 exam questions-q12-2

A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 13
What is considered the primary purpose for creating Apex tests?
A. To confirm all classes and triggers compile successfully
B. To ensure every use case of the application is covered by a test
C. To confirm every trigger in executed at least once
D. To guarantee at least 50% of code is covered by unit tests before it is deployed
Correct Answer: B

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Use Our Salesforce Service Cloud Consultant CRT-261 Exam Questions

QUESTION 1
Universal Containers has a single contact center that handles all service requests including chat, Cases, and web form
submissions. It is important that Reps are assigned work evenly so that all requests are handled in the order they are
received.
How would a Consultant address this requirement?
A. Configure Case Assignment Rules
B. Configure Omni-Channel with Most Available Routing
C. Configure Live Agent Skills-based Routing
D. Configure Omni-Channel with Least Active Routing
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 2
Universal Containers assigns its contact center agents to certain interaction channels and would like to optimize the
agents\\’ desktop based on their assigned interaction channels. What is the best solution?
A. Create multiple agent console applications and configure the Iayout based on the user\\’s requirements.
B. Create multiple Salesforce Console for Service applications and configure them based on user\\’s requirements.
C. Create case page layouts for each interaction channel and assign them to different agent profiles.
D. Create a Salesforce Console for Service layout and allow the agents to drag and drop the components they need.
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 3
Case escalation rules triggered on the last modification will be reset each time a user does which of the following
actions?
A. Reads the case
B. Adds a related comment to the case
C. Adds an activity or sends an email from the case record
D. Edits the case
E. All of the above
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4
In the telesales contact center, Universal Containers has three-step and five-step order process, contingent on the type
of product solD. Which approach should be used to optimize the order process? Choose 2 answers
A. Use Visualforce to create a wizard for each process
B. Organize the fields on the page layout to match each process
C. Use Visual Workflow to streamline the process
D. Create a custom object for each step in the process
Correct Answer: BC


QUESTION 5
Which feature should a Consultant recommend to allow a Tier 2 Service Representative to take over case processing
from Tier l and know how far Tier l had progressed in troubleshooting?
A. Service Console Macros
B. Lightning Guided Engagement
C. Path for Cases
D. Lightning Flow Component
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 6
Universal Containers wants customers to have the ability to log cases with structured data and route based on Urgency
and Product Line. How should a Consultant accomplish this?
A. Standard Email-to-Case with assignment rules
B. Lightning Email with web routing prioritization
C. Omni-Channel with prioritized queues
D. Standard Web-to-Case with assignment rules
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
Universal Containers is implementing a CTI solution for its inbound service and support contact center. Currently, the
company handles only existing customers with support issues. The contact center manager has been tasked with improving sales for the premier support offering. What key metrics can be expected to improve following the CTI
implementation? (Choose 2)
A. Average days to close
B. Average handle time
C. First call resolution
D. Abandon rate
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 8
A consulting firm has been retained to implement a new Service Cloud platform for a company. This company requires
quick iterations and a speedy project completion. The company has requested frequent project updates for check-ins
and refinement. Which methodology should the Consultant recommend to meet the given requirements?
A. Kanban
B. Lightning Platform
C. Agile
D. Waterfall
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 9
To manage the publishing lifecycle for articles in Salesforce Knowledge, the contact center director wants to provide
article with various publishing capabilities. What configuration should be recommended to meet this objective?
A. Assign article managers to public groups and specific article actions to each group.
B. Assign article managers to publication teams and specific article actions to each team.
C. Assign article managers to public groups and specific publication states to each group.
D. Assign article managers to publication teams and specific publication states to each team.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
Universal Containers CFO is looking for ways to reduce contact center costs. Which customer service metric should the
CFO monitor to reach the budget goals? (Choose 2)
A. First call resolution
B. Average handle time
C. Upsell percentage
D. Customer retention
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 11
What metrics should a contact center manager consider to measure adoption of Salesforce Knowledge? (Choose 2)
A. Number of cases escalated by agent
B. Number of articles created by agent
C. Number of articles attached to a case
D. Number of solutions created by agent
Correct Answer: BC


QUESTION 12
Which feature should a Consultant configure to allow global Service Reps to call customers from within the Lightning
Service Console?
A. Open CTI
B. Macros
C. Local Presence
D. Lightning Dialer
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 13
What are some uses of www.trust.salesforce.com in business continuity planning? (Choose 3) A. To provide online
security threat information
B. To provide live and historical data on system performance
C. To provide information planning planned maintenance
D. To provide live support for system and data backup
E. To provide best practices for continuity plans
Correct Answer: ABC

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Question No : 10 You create a stored procedure that will update multiple tables within a transaction.
You need to ensure that if the stored procedure raises a run-time error, the entire
transaction is terminated and rolled back.
Which Transact-SQL statement should you include at the beginning of the stored
procedure?
A. SET XACT_ABORT ON
B. SET ARITHABORT ON
C. TRY
D. BEGIN
E. SET ARITHABORT OFF
F. SET XACT_ABORT OFF
070-461 exam 
Answer: A
Question No : 11 Your database contains two tables named DomesticSalesOrders and
InternationalSalesOrders. Both tables contain more than 100 million rows. Each table has a
Primary Key column named SalesOrderId. The data in the two tables is distinct from one
another.
Business users want a report that includes aggregate information about the total number of
global sales and total sales amounts.
You need to ensure that your query executes in the minimum possible time.
Which query should you use?
A. SELECT COUNT(*) AS NumberOfSales, SUM(SalesAmount) AS TotalSalesAmount
FROM (
SELECT SalesOrderId, SalesAmount
FROM DomesticSalesOrders
UNION ALL
SELECT SalesOrderId, SalesAmount
FROM InternationalSalesOrders
) AS p
B. SELECT COUNT(*) AS NumberOfSales, SUM(SalesAmount) AS TotalSalesAmount
FROM (
SELECT SalesOrderId, SalesAmount
FROM DomesticSalesOrders
UNION
SELECT SalesOrderId, SalesAmount
FROM InternationalSalesOrders
) AS p
C. SELECT COUNT(*) AS NumberOfSales, SUM(SalesAmount) AS TotalSalesAmount
FROM DomesticSalesOrders
UNION
SELECT COUNT(*) AS NumberOfSales, SUM(SalesAmount) AS TotalSalesAmount
FROM InternationalSalesOrders
D. SELECT COUNT(*) AS NumberOfSales, SUM(SalesAmount) AS TotalSalesAmount
FROM DomesticSalesOrders
UNION ALL
SELECT COUNT(*) AS NumberOfSales, SUM(SalesAmount) AS TotalSalesAmount
FROM InternationalSalesOrders
Answer: A
Question No : 12 You are a database developer at an independent software vendor. You create stored
procedures that contain proprietary code.
You need to protect the code from being viewed by your customers.
Which stored procedure option should you use?
A. ENCRYPTBYKEY
B. ENCRYPTION
C. ENCRYPTBYPASSPHRASE
D. ENCRYPTBYCERT
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Answer: B
Question No : 13 You use a Microsoft SQL Server 2012 database.
You want to create a table to store Microsoft Word documents.
You need to ensure that the documents must only be accessible via Transact-SQL queries.
Which Transact-SQL statement should you use?
A. CREATE TABLE DocumentStore
(
[Id] INT NOT NULL PRIMARY KEY,
[Document] VARBINARY(MAX) NULL
)
GO
B. CREATE TABLE DocumentStore
(
[Id] hierarchyid,
[Document] NVARCHAR NOT NULL
)
GO
C. CREATE TABLE DocumentStore AS FileTable
D. CREATE TABLE DocumentStore
(
[Id] [uniqueidentifier] ROWGUIDCOL NOT NULL UNIQUE,
[Document] VARBINARY(MAX) FILESTREAM NULL
)
GO
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 14
The BEST description of the purpose of Service Operation is?
A. To design and build processes that will meet business needs
B. To deliver and support IT Services at agreed levels to business users and customers
C. To decide how IT will engage with suppliers during the Service Management Lifecycle
D. To proactively prevent all outages to IT Services
070-461 pdf 
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 15
Which of the following is NOT an aim of the Change Management process?
A. Overall business risk is optimized
B. Standardized methods and procedures are used for efficient and prompt handling of all
Changes
C. All budgets and expenditures are accounted for
D. All changes to Service Assets and Configuration Items (CIs) are recorded in the Configuration
Management system
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 16
How does Problem Management work with Change Management?
A. By installing changes to fix problems
B. By negotiating with Incident Management for changes in IT for Problem resolution
C. By issuing RFCs for permanent solutions
D. By working with users to change their IT configurations
070-461 vce 
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 17
Which of the following statements is CORRECT?
A. The CMS is part of the Configuration Management Data Base (CMDB)
B. The Configuration Management System (CMS) is part of the Known Error Data Base (KEDB)
C. The Service Knowledge Management System (SKMS) is part of the CMS
D. The KEDB and the CMS form part of the larger SKMS
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 18
Understanding customer usage of services and how this varies over the Business Lifecycle is part
of which process?
A. Service Portfolio Management
B. Service Level Management
C. Component Capacity Management
D. Demand Management
070-461 exam 
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 19
Which is NOT a purpose of Service Transition?
A. Ensure that a service can be managed, operated and supported.
B. Provide quality knowledge of Change, Release and Deployment Mgmt.
C. Plan and manage the capacity and resource requirements to manage a release.
D. Provide training and certification in project management.
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 20
Which of the following is the BEST definition of an Incident?
A. Loss of ability to operate to specification, or to deliver the required output
B. A change of state which has significance for the management of a Configuration Item or IT
Service
C. A warning that a threshold has been reached, something has changed, or a failure has
occurred
D. An unplanned interruption to an IT service or reduction in the quality of an IT service
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Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 21
The BEST description of the guidance provided by Service Design is?
A. The design and development of new services
B. The design and development of service improvements
C. The design and development of services and service management processes
D. The day-to-day operation and support of services
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 22
How many times should each stage of the Plan, Do, Check, Act (PDCA) cycle be visited?
A. Each stage should be carried out once in the order Plan-Do-Check-Act
B. There should be a single Plan and Do,then Check and Act should be carried out multiple times
to implement Continual Improvement
C. The entire cycle should be repeated multiple times to implement Continual Improvement
D. There should be a single Plan,then the Do-Check-Act cycle should be repeated multiple times
to implement Continual Improvement
070-461 pdf 
Answer: C

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Q&As: 97

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QUESTION 10
You need to implement the social maintenance tool.
How should you complete the relevant code? (To answer, select the appropriate option from each
dropdown list in the answer area.)

070-489

070-489

QUESTION 11
You need to notify Windows phone users about the new Windows phone app.
Which three actions should you perform in sequence? (To answer, move the appropriate actions
from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
Select and Place:
070-489

070-489

Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Note:
* A device channel panel is a container that can be used on a master page or page layout when
you want specific content to render based on the alias of a given device channel, or set of
channels. For example, you may have a web part or control that you want revealed only on the
desktop view of the site, and not on any mobile device. The device channel panel can enable you
to encapsulate this web part in code, and enable you to render it only through a designated device
channel.
* From scenario:
You create a Windows Phone app. When users access the site by using a Windows phone, a
message must appear on every page of the mobile site. The message must notify users that they
can download the Windows Phone app to their phone. The HTML that contains the message
must render only to the Windows phones.

070-489

070-489

Correct Answer:
070-489

Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

Testlet 1
Topic 3, Contoso Ltd
Background
Contoso Ltd. is a global real estate company. You are hired to replace the company’s existing
ASP.NET website at http://www.contoso.com with a new SharePoint 2013 public-facing
website. The site will display data about the company and information about residential
properties that the individual agents in the company are selling. You have SharePoint Server
environments for development, staging, and production.
Search
The website has the following requirements:
Site visitors must be able to search for documents that are located
anywhere on the site.
When site visitors search for real estate properties, they must see
information about a property.
When a visitor searches for the word Guidelines, a PDF document named
Real Estate Guidelines must appear at the top of the search results.
Search Engine Optimization
The company wants to ensure that the website displays prominently in Internet search results
when people search for real estate.
The website has the following requirements:
Internet search engines must properly rank pages so that the more popular
pages on the site appear first in the Internet search engine results.
SharePoint must generate the sitemap.xml and robots.txt files that are used
by Internet search engines.
When an Internet search engine crawls the site, the search engine must recognize that the
following URLs display information about different agents:
http://www.contoso.com/FindAnAgent?agentName=JohnDoe&officeId =
Sacramento
http://www.contoso.com/FindAnAgent?agentName=JohnDoe&officeId =
Houston
The search engine must recognize that the following URLs display the same information about
the same agent:
http://www.contoso.com/FindAnAgent?
agentName=JohnDoe&officeId=Sacramento
http://www.contoso.com/FindAnAgent?agentName=JohnDoe&officeId =
Sacramento8icerts=true
Managed Metadata Service (MMS)
The MMS must include three term sets named Offices, Cities, and Features.
Offices Term Set
The Offices term set has the following requirements:
The Offices term set must be a child of the group named Navigation.
The Offices term set must be configured to use friendly URLs in the
Offices sub-site.
The name for each new office must be added to the Offices term set
programmatically.
The left navigation pane for the Offices page on the website must use the
terms in the Offices term set.
When the company opens a new office, a link for each new office must
display in the left navigation pane.
Cities Term Set
The Cities term set has the following requirements:
The Cities term set must contain a list that contains the names of major
metropolitan areas.
Many of the cities that are included in the Offices term set may also
appear in the Cities term set, but the term sets may not be identical.
If a city is required in both term sets, it must first be added to the Offices
term set before it can be added to the Cities term set.
If a term is changed in the Offices term set, it must automatically change
in the Cities term set.
The term Dallas must have a term ID of {b6ell481-3445-413c-9da0-
bl5ae5d5cbd4}.
Features Term Set
You have an Excel file that contains a list of possible features for each property. The Features
term set has the following requirements:
The Features term set must contain the terms that describe details about
each property, such as whether the building is a single family house or a
condominium.
The list of possible features must be programmatically imported from the
Excel file into the term store in each server environment.
Web Application
The Internet Information Services (IIS) website contains a folder named _ConfigurationFiles.
The web application has the following requirements:
Anonymous access must be enabled on the web application.
Internet search engines must index the site.
Internet search engines must not index the files in the _ConfigurationFiles
folder.
Site Collections and Content
The web application includes the following three site collections.
Board Member Site Collection
The Board Member site collection is only accessible to the board members so that they can view
private company information.
The Board Member site collection has the following requirements:
Only board members can log in to the site collection.
A page within the site collection must display a list of all the board
members.
The website must be located at http://www.contoso.com/sites/board.
Internet Site Collection
Anonymous access is enabled on the Internet site collection. The Internet site collection has the
following requirements:
The site collection must include a sub-site named Offices.
The URL of the Offices sub-site is http://www.contoso.com/Offices.
Each office must have its own page on the site.
The pages for each office must have the same style and structure.
Each office page must contain a Content Search Web Part that displays a
listing of all the properties that are being sold by agents in the office.
The Content Search Web Part must use a custom display template named
Real Estate Property to render search results when site visitors search for a
property.
The target page for terms in the Office term set must point to a page
named Office.aspx that is in the Pages library of the Offices sub-site.
The site must contain an About Us section that contains a Content Search
Web Part that lists the members of the board of directors for the company.
Each member of the board must have a page that contains biographical
information about that board member.
The list of board members must be available in the Board Member site
collection.
Site visitors must be able to view information about individual agents,
including their contact information, certifications, and picture.
When agents visit the Internet site collection, the agents may add
information about each of the real estate properties that they are selling.
The agents must be able to tag real estate properties according to their
features.
Real estate agents must enter real estate property information into a web
form that is used specifically for data collection.
The web form must collect the following information:
The property address.
Up to five pictures of the property.
The selling price.
The number of bedrooms and bathrooms.
The name of the real estate agent.
Tags that will further describe the property.
Agent Site Collection
The Agent site collection is in the same web application and is accessible only to agents. The
Agent site collection has the following requirements:
The site collection must include a site that contains instructions for real
estate agents that tells them how to add property information to the
website.
The website must be located at http://www.contoso.com/sites/agents.
A Web Part must use the .NET client-side object model (CS0M) to
retrieve all of the terms from only the Features term set.
Page Layouts and Web Parts
Page Layouts
You must create the following page layouts: About Us, Biography With Image, Biography No
Image, and Office.
The page layouts have the following requirements:
The About Us page layout must include a field to which the user may add
Web Parts.
The Biography With Image and Biography No Image page layouts must
display biographical information about the board of directors.
You must create a content type named Biography. Biography With Image
and Biography No Image page layouts must use the Biography content
type.
The Office page layout must display information for each office and must
use the fields that that are defined in the Elements.xml file.
Web Parts
The Agent Web Part has the following requirements:
The Web Part must display information about an individual agent.
The Web Part must display information that is based on query string
parameters.
The URL of the page that hosts the Web Part must be
http://www.contoso.com/FindAnAgent.
The following table lists the query string parameters and the way that each parameter must be
used by the Web Part.

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QUESTION 1
You use SQL Azure to store data used by an e-commerce application. You develop a stored procedure named sp1. Sp1 is used to read and change the price of all the products sold on the e-commerce site. You need to ensure that other transactions are blocked from updating product data while sp1 is executing. Which transaction isolation level should you use in sp1?
A. Repeatable read
B. Read committed
C. Serializable
D. Snapshot
070-464 exam Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 2
You review a query that runs slowly. The query accesses data in a table named Schema1.Table1.
The following is the relevant portion of the execution plan for the query:
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You need to create the missing index. Which code segment should you execute?
A. CREATE NONCLUSTERED INDEX IX1 on Schema1.Table1 (Column1) INCLUDE (Column4) WHERE Column2 <> Column3
B. CREATE NONCLUSTERED INDEX IX1 on Schema1.Table1 (Column1)
C. CREATE NONCLUSTERED INDEX IX1 on Schema1.Table1 (Column1, Column2, Column3) INCLUDE (Column4)
D. CREATE NONCLUSTERED INDEX IX1 on schema1.Table1 (Column1) INCLUDE (Column4)
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 3
You use SQL Server 2012 to maintain the data used by the applications at your company. You plan to create a table named Table1 by using the following statement. (Line numbers are included for reference only.)
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You need to ensure that Table1 contains a column named UserName. The UserName column will: Store string values in any language. Accept a maximum of 200 characters. Be case-insensitive and accent-insensitive. Which code segment should you add at line 03?
A. UserName nvarchar(200) COLLATE Latin1_General_CS_AS NOT NULL,
B. UserName varchar(200) COLLATE Latin1_General_CI_AI NOT NULL,
C. UserName varchar(200) COLLATE Latin 1_General_CS_AS NOT NULL,
D. UserName nvarchar(200) COLLATE Latin1_General_CI_AI NOT NULL,
070-464 dumps Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 4
You execute the following code:
070-464 dumps
You need to select the task that has an IsFinished value of true from the Project that has an Id value of 1. Which code segment should you use?
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070-464 dumps
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 5
You are creating a table to support an application that will cache data outside of SQL Server. The application will detect whether cached values were changed before it updates the values. You need to create the table, and then verify that you can insert a row into the table. Which code segment should you use?
070-464 dumps
A.
B.
C.
D.
070-464 pdf Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 6
Your company has a SQL Azure subscription. You implement a database named Database1. Database1 has two tables named Table1 and Table2. You create a stored procedure named sp1. Sp1 reads data from Table1 and inserts data into Table2. A user named User1 informs you that he is unable to run sp1. You verify that User1 has the SELECT permission on Table1 and Table2. You need to ensure that User1 can run sp1. The solution must minimize the number of permissions assigned to User1.
What should you do?
A. Change sp1 to run as the saUser.
B. Grant User1 the EXECUTE permission on sp1.
C. Add User1 to the db_datawriter role.
D. Grant User1 the INSERT permission on Table2.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 7
You execute the following code:
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You create a nonclustered index named IX_CustomerName on the CustomerName column. You execute the following query:

You need to reduce the amount of time it takes to execute the query. What should you do?
A. Partition the table and use the CustomerName column for the partition scheme.
B. Replace IX_CustomerName with a clustered index.
C. Replace LEFT(CustomerName ,1) = ‘a’ with CustomerName LIKE ‘a%’.
D. Replace LEFT(CustomerName ,1) = ‘a’ with SUBSTRING(CustomerName ,1,1) – ‘a’.
070-464 vce Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 8
You have a table named Rooms that contains three columns. You execute the following query:
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You discover the execution plan shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.)
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You need to recommend a solution to reduce the amount of time it takes to execute the query. What should you do? More than one answer choice may achieve the goal. Select the BEST answer.
A. Include the RoomName column and the Position column in the Room_IX index.
B. Create a nonclustered index for RoomName, Id, and Position.
C. Create a clustered index for Id.
D. Use the WITH (INDEX(Room_IX),NOLOCK) query hint.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 9
You have a database named database1. Database developers report that there are many deadlocks. You need to implement a solution to monitor the deadlocks. The solution must meet the following requirements:
Support real-time monitoring.
Be enabled and disabled easily.
Support querying of the monitored data.
What should you implement? More than one answer choice may achieve the goal. Select the BEST answer.
A. Log errors by using trace flag 1222
B. Log errors by using trace flag 1204
C. A SQL Server Profiler template
D. An Extended Events session
070-464 exam Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 10
You execute the following code:
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The execution plan for the query is shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.)
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You need to prevent the key lookup. What should you modify? More than one answer choice may achieve the goal. Select the BEST answer.
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Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 11
You have a database for a mission-critical web application. The database is stored on a SQL Server 2012 instance and is the only database on the instance. The application generates all T-SQL statements dynamically and does not use stored procedures. You need to maximize the amount of memory available for data caching. Which advanced server option should you modify?
A. Optimize for Ad hoc Workloads
B. Enable Contained Databases
C. Allow Triggers to Fire Others
D. Scan for Startup Procs
70-464 dumps Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 12
You have an application that uses a view to access data from multiple tables. You need to ensure that you can insert rows into the underlying tables by using the view. What should you do?
A. Create an INSTEAD OF trigger on the view.
B. Define the view by using the SCHEMABINDING option.
C. Define the view by using the CHECK option.
D. Materialize the view.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

Q: Why should companies train their IT professionals in this technology?
SQL Server is the most popular database platform for Windows-based environments. SQL Server 2014 adds powerful new features for all kinds of workloads and infrastructures, from in-memory technology to cloud integration, and it’s empowering database professionals to build faster, more flexible solutions.

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I tried to give learners a different perspective for learning by providing a mix of concept and demonstration, also by providing our own simplified database and T-SQL examples to work with.

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Lab it up! Use our Virtual NuggetLab or your own environment to see how things work. A mix of concept, demonstration, and lab can go a long way toward reinforcing concepts and getting that crucial hands-on experience.

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Exam Code: 70-413
Exam Name: Designing and Implementing a Server Infrastructure
Updated: Aug 03, 2017
Q&As: 206

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Pass4itusre Latest and Most Accurate Microsoft 70-413 Dumps Exam Q&As:

Question No : 32  The power draw from a three-phase UPS is measured using a true RMS voltmeter. The
meter reads 10 kW as well as 10 kVA.
Why are the watts and volt-amps the same?
A. The RMS voltage is 208 VAC.
B. The three-phases are balanced.
C. The power factor is equal to one.
D. Each of the three-phases are synchronized.
070-413 exam 
Answer: C

Question No : 33  In three-phase power, by how many degrees are the three basic power waveforms offset?
A. 60
B. 90
C. 120
D. 180
Answer: C

Question No : 34  What is the function of a circuit breaker?
A. To distribute power from the UPS to critical loads
B. To filter harmonics caused by non-power factor corrected computer loads
C. To protect electrical equipment from damage caused by overload or short circuit
D. To balance the loads in the data center to prevent stray currents on the ground wire
070-413 dumps Answer: C
Question No : 35  Which UPS topology switches to batteries and turns on the inverter when the utility fails?
A. Rotary
B. Standby
C. Delta conversion
D. Double conversion
Answer: B

Question No : 36  Which two UPS topologies are used for UPS systems that supply at least 50 kW? (Choose
two.)
A. Standby
B. Standby – ferro
C. Delta conversion online
D. Double conversion online
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Answer: C,D

Question No : 37  What are two advantages of the line interactive UPS? (Choose two.)
A. High reliability
B. High efficiency
C. High frequency control
D. Optimized for 10 kW and above
Answer: A,B

Question No : 38  Which UPS topology uses a transfer switch between the primary power source and the
inverter?
A. Standby
B. High speed relay
C. Delta conversion online
D. Double conversion online
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Answer: A

Question No : 39  Which UPS topology is most commonly used to protect small business and departmental
servers where voltage regulation is required?
A. Standby
B. Line interactive
C. High-speed relay
D. Delta conversion online
Answer: B

Question No : 40  What is the primary purpose of a UPS?
A. To remove transients from the power path
B. To detect and report power factor problems
C. To provide battery backup power should the utility fail
D. To convert from three-phase power to Single-phase power
070-413 exam 
Answer: C

Question No : 41  What is the main function of a UPS?
A. To provide battery back-up power to IT equipment
B. To regulate the voltage of power going to the racks
C. To distribute power from the transformer to the racks
D. To supply diesel-generated power when the utility is out
Answer: A

Question No : 42  What is a function of a transformer in a line interactive UPS?
A. To increase the power factor as the load increases
B. To increase harmonics by stepping down the output
C. To regulate output voltage as the input voltage varies
D. To provide low impedance for switched mode power supplies
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Answer: C

Question No : 43  Which component of a line interactive UPS increases its battery life?
A. Dual mains input
B. Voltage regulating transformer
C. Low impedance DC disconnect
D. High impedance battery charge circuit
Answer: B

Question No : 44  How long is the transfer to battery time for a double conversion online UPS?
A. 0 ms (0 cycles)
B. 8 ms (0.5 cycles)
C. 16 ms (1 cycle)
D. 500 ms (30 cycles)
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Answer: A

Question No : 45  What are two key characteristics of a UPS? (Choose two.)
A. It tests voltages on IT equipment.
B. It safeguards data in the event of a power loss.
C. It measures energy consumption of IT equipment.
D. It transfers IT equipment from utility to battery power.
Answer: B,D

Question No : 46  Which two characteristics do all static UPS topologies share? (Choose two.)
A. A battery
B. An inverter
C. A transfer switch
D. A single-phase input
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Answer: A,B

Question No : 47
What is the primary difference between double conversion and delta conversion UPS
systems?
A. Double conversion UPSs require a 1.3X generator oversizing. Delta conversion UPSs
require a 3X generator oversizing.
B. Double conversion UPSs are practical in size ranges from 0 – 20 kW. Delta conversion
UPSs are practical in size ranges of 20 kW to 1 MW.
C. In a double conversion UPS, 100% of the power is converted from AC to DC and then
again from DC to AC. In a delta conversion UPS, only the difference between input and
output power is converted.
D. In a double conversion UPS, the transformer has a special ferro-resonant capability,
which provides limited voltage regulation and output waveform shaping. In a delta
conversion UPS, a standard transformer is used.
Answer: C

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