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QUESTION 1
Security Administrator, Zhi Wang, creates the CA Identity Minder roles required to implement delegated administration. Two weeks later, one of these new roles
requires some changes. These changes should be performed by the:
A. Role Owner
B. Role Manager
C. Role Administrator
D. Access Role Membership Approver
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
Which features characterize CA Identity Minder? (Choose three)
A. Assignment of privileges through roles
B. Delegation of the management of users and application access
C. Self-service options that enable users to manage their own accounts
D. User-defined service delivery service catalog that encompasses a menu of services
E. Full automation capabilities for inventory, tracking, maintenance, migration, and security across all enterprise client devices in a single product
Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 3
You are setting up the Bulk Load Client to perform a complete dump of all HR users into CA IdentityMinder. You want to avoid a problem you encountered
previously when a large number of records processed overloaded the server. Which command-line option addresses this issue?
A. imbulkloadclient -T, –transformOnly
B. imbulkloadclient -b, –batchSize <number>
C. imbulkloadclient -i, –inputFile <file, batchsize>
D. imbulkloadclient – e, –endpointlnfoFile <file, number>
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
In CA IdentityMinder, which self-service actions can you perform using public tasks? (Choose two)
A. Self-registration
B. Modifying your profile
C. Changing your password
D. Resetting a forgotten password
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 5
Which statement about CA Identity Minder end points is TRUE?
A. An endpoint type can only contain one instance of an endpoint.
B. They are generally client operating system versions, such as Windows XP and Red Hat Linux.
C. An endpoint type is the lowest unit of organization in the hierarchical structure managed by the provisioning engine.
D. A specific type of endpoint needs to be enabled on the Provisioning Server to enable CA Id entity Minder to communicate to it.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6
During the installation, CA Identity Minder creates several database schemas. Later, to provide scalability, you can create a separate database to replace any one
of these, Use the CreateDatabase script to set up a new:
A. Auditing database instance.
B. Workflow database instance.
C. Object Store database instance.
D. Task persistence database instance.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 7
Which statement about the Provisioning Server is TRUE?
A. It manages accounts on end point systems.
B. It communicates directly with the Snapshot Database.
C. It is a required component only if you intend to implement log management.
D. It is an optional component that enables you to fully implement Password Services and Single Sign- on.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8
Which step do you need to perform to configure email server settings for the JBoss application server?
A. Create a new XML file.
B. Modify the mail-service.xml file.
C. Change a property in the console.
D. Modify the Mail Transport Host field for the mail session.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9
In an email template, what is the purpose of the <% %> tag?
A. Inserts a static text variable
B. Embeds JavaScript into a template
C. Presents event context information
D. Indicates that the template is invalid
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10
Which ETAUTIL control statement is used to set the same attribute values for a set of objects?
A. MASSCHANGE
B. EXPLORE
C. UPDATE
D. DELETE
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
The role model in CA GovernanceMinder can be dynamically updated whenever changes are made in CA Identity Minder using:
A. Smart Provisioning.
B. Role Engineering.
C. Reverse Synchronization.
D. Provisioning Synchronization Management.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12
Which task do you perform using the CA IdentityMinder Management Console?
A. Manage the Provisioning Server.
B. Customize default roles and tasks.
C. Create and manage the Provisioning Directory.
D. Create an agent that CA SiteMinder can communicate with.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 13
You are implementing CA IdentityMinder at Forward Inc., an international logistics company with headquarters in the United Kingdom. At Forward Inc., a single
managed endpoint containing every person does not exist. However all users are contained in a payroll database, which can become the source of the global
users for the provisioning directory. In this context, the payroll database is known as a:
A. corporate store.
B. primary endpoint.
C. secondary endpoint.
D. operational database.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 14
Which two components communicate using a Connector?
A. Provisioning Server and endpoint
B. Policy Server and Report Server
C. User Store and Provisioning directory
D. Report Server and Snapshot Database
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 15
To help ensure role granularity, when you create provisioning roles, which guideline should you follow?
A. Every role should have at least one user.
B. Account templates should be assigned to individual users rather than to roles.
C. Depending on the size of an organization, a role should have between 50 and 200 users.
D. For most organizations, 50 percent of user access is from permanent roles and 50percent is from temporary roles.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 16
When you configure a WorkPoint manual activity, you can specify multiple Participant Resolvers, Using an order of precedence, CA Identity Minder identifies and
applies the first resolver and ignores any subsequent resolvers. To select the resolver, which order of precedence does CA IdentityMinder follow?
1. Role
2. Filter
3. Group
4. Custom
A. 1,3,2,4
B. 2,3,4,1
C. 3,1,2,4
D. 4,1,2,3
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 17
Forward Inc. is an international logistics company with headquarters in the United Kingdom. Forward Inc. has asked you to demonstrate how CA IdentityMinder
supports account provisioning. In the CA IdentityMinder configuration that you will use for your demonstration, which component is optional?
A. Provisioning Server
B. Provisioning Directory
C. IdentityMinder Server
D. SiteMinder Policy Server
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 18
When you build the CA IdentityMinder environment, you can configure support for public tasks. To do this, you specify a:
A. group and a name.
B. URL alias and a user.
C. directory and a task list.
D. role definition file and a default role.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 19
Which statement about installing Connector Xpress is TRUE?
A. It can be installed on a dedicated computer.
B. It must be installed on the Report Server computer.
C. It must be installed on the Provisioning Server computer.
D. It must be installed on the JavaConnector Server (JCS) computer.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 20
You want to configure password synchronization with UNIX systems. Which component enables CA Identity Minder to authenticate passwords against external
security systems?
A. Credential Provider
B. Pluggable Authentication Module (PAM)
C. Graphical Identification and Authorization (GINA)
D. Java Authentication & Authorization Service (JAAS) Agent
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 21
In CA IdentityMinder r12.6, the basic access request feature:
A. is fully integrated with CA GovernanceMinder.
B. includes granular filtering and search capabilities.
C. enables bulk definition ofaccess request services objects.
D. can use workflow approval and email notification functionality.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 22
Which optional component of the CA IdentityMinder architecture provides advanced authentication?
A. Connector Server
B. Provisioning Server
C. Resource Proxy Server
D. SiteMinder Policy Server
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 23
You are using CA SiteMJnder and CA IdentityMinder in an integrated environment. To configure directory mapping in the CA SiteMinder Policy Server, which
steps do you need to perform? (Choose three)
A. Create a Table element for each attribute.
B. Add a response attribute named sm_userdn for the SMJJSERNAME attribute.
C. Add the authentication directory to the CA IdentityMinder environment domain.
D. Use the Reference element for a secondary table to define its relationship to the primary table.
E. In the CA IdentityMinder environment realm, map the authorization directory to the authentication directory.
Correct Answer: BCE

QUESTION 24
CA IdentityMinder must integrate with CA SiteMinder in order to:
A. automatically remove white space in passwords.
B. add multiple regular expressions to a single password policy.
C. prevent passwords that are all numeric using a regular expression.
D. specify the maximum number of repeated characters in a password.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 25
Which statement about using Active Directory password synchronization with CA IdentityMinder is TRUE?
A. The new password is only propagated to the user’s native Windows account.
B. Changes to password restrictions on the endpoint are automatically propagated to the CA IdentityMinder Server.
C. The Password Synchronization Agent must be installed on the system on which password changes areto be intercepted.
D. The system on which you are installing the Password Synchronization Agent must be managed by a CA SiteMinder Policy Server.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 26
You have deployed CA IdentityMinder with a CA SiteMinder Policy Server. During the second day of testing your installation, you receive a “Not Loaded” error
message when you attempt to log in. You check that the User Store is running. Which other action should you take to investigate this issue?
A. Check the application server log.
B. Verify that theWeb Agent is running correctly.
C. Verify that CA SiteMinder can connect to the User Store.
D. Set the Internet browser option “Show friendly error message”to off to view the status page.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 27
For workflow installation, many steps that were previously manual are now performed automatically by the installer. Nonetheless, you still need to use the
Management Console to:
A. create the workflow database.
B. populate the database with sample workflows.
C. enable workflow for your CA IdentityMinder environment.
D. create a JDBC data source and connection file for the application server
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 28
Which tasks does Config Xpress enable you to perform? (Choose three)
A. Map dynamic connectors to endpoints.
B. Move components between environments.
C. Publish a report of thesystem components to a PDF file.
D. Publish the XML configuration fora particular component.
E. Create complex business logic withoutthe need to develop custom code.
Correct Answer: BCD

QUESTION 29
Which statement about Task Execution Web Services (TEWS) is TRUE?
A. Its interface is slower than the native web interface due to XML parsing.
B. It enables a CA SiteMinder Policy Server to support CA Identity Minder.
C. It is used by CA IdentityMinder to export data to CA GovernanceMinder.
D. It translates requests into the internal languages of the provisioning software.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 30
Because of a recent acquisition by Forward Inc., which will add 1800 new users to the system, you decide to use the Bulk Loader to feed the information to CA
IdentityMinder, You will need to prepare a file for the Bulk Loader, containing the relevant details. Which Bulk Loader input file guidelines do you need to follow?
(Choose three)
A. The file should contain no header.
B. A field representing the action is mandatory.
C. Each file must describe a single managed object type.
D. Multivalued attributes must beseparated by a hash (#) symbol.
E. Attribute names should be the physical or well-known names of the managed objects.
Correct Answer: BCE

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QUESTION 1
Which one of the following categories from the Document Categorization model consists of the normative parts of
TOGAF which are considered central to its usage?
A. TOGAF Core
B. TOGAF Mandated
C. TOGAF Recommended
D. TOGAF Referenced
E. TOGAF Supporting
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
Which of the following is a true statement about the TOGAF Technical Reference Model?
A. The TOGAF Architecture Development Method mandates the use of the Technical Reference Model for large
complex architecture projects
B. The Technical Reference Model is an integral part of the TOGAF Architecture Development Method
C. The Technical Reference Model should not be modified
D. The Technical Reference Model includes a set of graphical models and a corresponding taxonomy
E. The Technical Reference Model provides a direct mapping to the Zachman Framework
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3
Which one of the following best describes the next step in an Architecture Compliance Review once the scope of the
review has been determined?
A. Interview the project principals to obtain background information
B. Prepare the Architecture Compliance Review report
C. Schedule the Architecture Review meeting
D. Send the assessment report to the Architecture Review co-ordinator
E. Tailor the checklists to address business requirements
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 4
Which of the following statements best describes the Requirements Management process? A. It is used to develop requirements for Transition Architectures that deliver business value
B. It is used to dispose of, address and prioritize architecture requirements
C. It is used to establish requirements for Phase A
D. It is used to manage architecture requirements throughout the ADM cycle
E. It is used to review business requirements
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
Complete the sentence: TOGAF provides a set of reference materials for establishing an architecture function within an
organization known as the_________.
A. Architecture Capability Framework
B. Architecture Content Framework
C. Architecture Landscape
D. Architecture Repository
E. Architecture Roadmap
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
Complete the sentence. According to TOGAF, all of the following are responsibilities of an Architecture Board, except
______________________.
A. Ensuring consistency between sub-architectures
B. Ensuring flexibility of the enterprise architecture to meet business needs
C. Improving the maturity of the organization\’s architecture discipline
D. Monitoring of architecture contracts
E. Preparing architecture review reports
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 7
Which model within TOGAF is closely related to the concept of Boundaryless Information Flow?
A. The ARTS data model
B. The Architecture Governance Framework
C. The Enterprise Continuum
D. The Integrated Information Infrastructure Model E. The TOGAF Technical Reference Model
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8
Which one of the following is NOT an element of an architecture framework?
A. A common vocabulary
B. A list of recommended standards
C. A method for designing an information system in terms of building blocks
D. A set of structuresWhich can be used to develop a broad range of architectures
E. A system development lifecycle method for software engineering
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 9
Which pair of the following responses best completes the sentence? Architecture building blocks ____, where as
Solution Building blocks ____
A. are assembled; are single function components
B. are single function components; are groups of architecture building blocks
C. are reusable; are not reusable
D. define the architecture; provide the existing legacy system
E. define functionality; define the implementation of functionality
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 10
Which one of the following is responsible for the acceptance and sign-off of an Architecture Compliance review?
A. Architecture Board
B. Architecture Review Co-ordinator
C. CIO
D. Lead Enterprise Architect
E. Project Leader
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
According to TOGAF, Which of the following activities is described as part of the approach in the Preliminary Phase of
the ADM? A. Creating the Architecture Vision deliverable
B. Defining a set of Architecture Principles
C. Developing an Architecture Contract
D. Extending the business scenario with business modeling
E. Preparing a consolidated Gap Analysis
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 12
What part of the Architecture Repository holds specifications toWhich architectures must conform?
A. Standards Information Base
B. Enterprise Continuum
C. Governance Log
D. Architecture Landscape
E. Reference Library
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 13
What class of architectural information within the Architecture Repository defines processes that support governance of
the Architecture Repository?
A. Architecture Capability
B. Architecture Landscape
C. Architecture Metamodel
D. Governance Log
E. Reference Library
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 14
Which of the following describes how the Enterprise Continuum is used when developing an enterprise architecture?
A. To coordinate with the other management frameworks in use
B. To describe how an architecture addresses stakeholder concerns
C. To identify and understand business requirements
D. To provide a system for continuous monitoring E. To structure re-usable architecture and solution assets
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 15
Which of the following best describes the purpose of an architecture compliance review?
A. To review the validity of a project\’s Architecture Vision
B. To review a project for compliance to external laws and regulations
C. To review a project against established architecture criteria and business objectives
D. To ensure that stakeholder concerns are being addressed by a project
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 16
Which phase of the TOGAF ADM is the first phase directly concerned with the planning for the implementation of the
target architecture(s)?
A. Phase D
B. Phase E
C. Phase F
D. Phase G
E. Phase H
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 17
Which section of the TOGAF document contains a structured metamodel for architectural artifacts?
A. Part II: Architecture Development Method
B. Part III: ADM Guidelines and Techniques
C. Part IV: Architecture Content Framework
D. Part VI: TOGAF Reference Models
E. Part VII: Architecture Capability Framework
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 18
When determining the requirements for enterprise architecture work in the Preliminary Phase, Which of the following is
not a business imperative that should be considered?
A. Business requirements B. Cultural aspirations
C. Forecast financial requirements
D. Strategic Intent
E. Technical elegance
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 19
According to TOGAF, Which of the following best describes the purpose of an Architecture Definition Document?
A. To act as a deliverable container for artifacts created during a project
B. To ensure that architecture information is communicated to the right stakeholders at the right time
C. To govern the architecture throughout its implementation process
D. To provide a high-level view of the end architecture product
E. To show progression of change from the Baseline Architecture to the Target Architecture
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 20
Which one of the following does TOGAF Part VII recommend in order to implement an Enterprise Architecture
Capability?
A. Develop an Architecture Roadmap
B. Populate the Architecture Repository
C. Populate the Enterprise Continuum
D. Use the Architecture Development Method
E. Use the Implementation Governance Phase
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 21
Which one of the following is an objective of the Preliminary Phase of the ADM?
A. To define the Baseline Architecture for this cycle of the ADM
B. To define the application systems for the Target Architecture
C. To define the framework and methodologies to be used
D. To define the relevant stakeholders and their concerns
E. To define and prioritise work packages
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 22
Complete the sentence. All of the following are parts of the conceptual structure of the TOGAF Architecture Governance
Framework, except ______
A. Content
B. Context
C. Process Flow Control
D. Repository
E. Vision
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 23
According to TOGAF, Which of the following best describes the classification of architectural change in the case where
multiple server systems are being consolidated to a single system?
A. A bottom-up change to enhance operational capability
B. An incremental change handled via change management techniques
C. A re-architecting change that puts the whole architecture through an ADM cycle
D. A revision change of the enterprise architecture
E. A simplification change handled via change management techniques
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 24
Which one of the following best describes a primary use of the Architecture Vision document?
A. A checklist for compliance reviews
B. An evaluation tool to select vendors to conduct a proof of concept demonstration
C. A tool for calculating detailed cost estimates
D. A tool for project planning the implementation activities
E. A tool for selling the benefits of the proposed capability to stakeholders
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 25
Complete the sentence. As the architecture evolves, the assets in the Solutions Continuum progress towards a (n)
_____ A. Common Systems Architecture
B. Industry Specific Architecture
C. Foundation Solution
D. Organization Specific Solution
E. Technology Neutral Implementation
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 26
Which one of the following is a key objective of Phase A of the TOGAF ADM?
A. To create a roadmap that describes the evolution of the architecture over time
B. To prepare a Solution Architecture for the enterprise
C. To define an IT Strategy that maps out the technology infrastructure
D. To allocate the resources needed to implement the architecture project
E. To articulate an Architecture Vision
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 27
Which of the following TOGAF components was created to enable architects to design architectures addressing
Boundaryless Information Flow?
A. The Architecture Repository
B. The Enterprise Continuum
C. The Integrated Information Infrastructure Model
D. The TOGAF Technical Reference Model
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 28
Complete the sentence. In the Preliminary Phase, all of the following are part of preparing the organization to undertake
successful enterprise architecture, except __________.
A. defining architecture principles
B. defining relationships between management frameworks
C. defining the enterprise
D. evaluating the enterprise architecture maturity
E. identifying stakeholders and their concerns
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 29
According to TOGAF, in which sequence should Application Architecture and Data Architecture be developed in Phase
C?
A. Application Architecture should be developed first, then Data Architecture
B. Application Architecture should be developed concurrently with Data Architecture
C. Data Architecture should be developed first, then Application Architecture
D. Application Architecture and Data Architecture may be developed in either sequence
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 30
Which one of the following describes a purpose of an Architecture Compliance review?
A. To define the capabilities of the organization
B. To communicate the technical readiness of the project
C. To evaluate the readiness of the organization to undergo change
D. To produce a new Request for Architecture Work
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 31
Which one of the following lists the main components within the TOGAF Architecture Repository?
A. Organizational Metamodel, Architecture Capability, Architecture Landscape, Best Practices, Reference Library,
Compliance Strategy
B. Architecture Metamodel, Organizational Capability Model, Application Landscape, SIB, Reference Library,
Governance Model
C. Business Metamodel, Architecture Capability, Architecture Landscape, SIB, Reference Library, Governance Log
D. Architecture Metamodel, Architecture Capability, Architecture Landscape, SIB, Reference Library, Governance Log
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 32
Complete the sentence. TOGAF covers the development of four architecture domains, Application, Business, Data
and__________.
A. Capability
B. Segment
C. Technology D. Transition
E. Vision
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 33
Which of the following architectures in the Architecture Continuum contains the most re-usable architecture elements?
A. Common Systems Architectures
B. Foundation Architectures
C. Industry Architectures
D. Organization-Specific Architectures
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 34
Which of the following statements best describes the purpose of the Architecture Requirements Specification?
A. A document that triggers the start of an architecture development cycle
B. A qualitative view of the solution to communicate the intent of the architect
C. A quantitative view of the solution to measure the implementation
D. A record of deviations from the planned architectural approach
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 35
Which of the following describes the TOGAF Technical Reference Model?
A. A Common Systems Architecture
B. A Foundation Architecture
C. An Industry-Specific Architecture
D. An Organization-Specific Architecture
E. A Solution Architecture
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 36
Complete the sentence. The Business Transformation Readiness Assessment technique is primarily focused on ___
A. determining if the organization is ready to accept change
B. planning the migration steps needed to achieve the transformation C. ensuring that there are adequate trained developers and engineers to implement the solution
D. ensuring that there is sufficient financial capacity to execute the desired transformation
E. determining if there is adequate stakeholder support for the implementation process
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 37
Which one of the following statements about TOGAF Building Blocks is true?
A. Building blocks at a functional level are known as Solutions Building Blocks
B. Solutions Building Blocks are selected in Phases A, B, C and D
C. The specification of a building block should be loosely coupled to its implementation
D. The gap analysis technique should be used to identify building blocks for re-use
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 38
According to TOGAF, Which of the following is a characteristic of a Foundation Architecture?
A. It contains only solution building blocks
B. It contains business functions and processes specific to a particular industry sector
C. It contains building blocks and their corresponding standards
D. It includes a model of application components and application services software, including brokering applications
E. It includes models for common high-level business functions, such as supply chain management
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 39
Which of the following best describes the purpose of the Statement of Architecture Work?
A. It contains an assessment of the current architecture requirements
B. It defines the scope and approach to complete an architecture project
C. It is sent from the sponsor and triggers the start of an architecture development cycle
D. It provides a high-level aspirational view of the end architecture project
E. It provides a schedule for implementation of the target architecture
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 40
Which section of the TOGAF template for defining principles should highlight the requirements for carrying out theprinciple?
A. Implications
B. Name
C. Rationale
D. Statement
Correct Answer: A

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Pass4itsure Latest and Most Accurate Cisco 300-075 Dumps Exam Q&As(1-16)
QUESTION 1
Which functionality does ILS use to link all hub clusters in an ILS network?
A. Fullmesh
B. Automesh
C. ILS updates
D. multicast
300-075 exam Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
Company X has a primary and a backup Cisco Unified Communications Manager instance. The administrator had to do
maintenance on the primary node and did a shutdown, which resulted in a failover to the backup node. What happens when the primary node comes back online?
A. The primary node becomes the backup node.
B. Endpoints detect that the primary is back and reregisters automatically.
C. The backup node must be shut down first to allow the endpoints to realize that the primary node is online again.
D. Nothing, the endpoints only failover when the node they lose connection to their registered node.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
You need to verify if the Media Gateway Control Protocol gateway is enabled and active. Which command should you use for this purpose?
A. show running-config
B. show fallback-mgcp
C. show gateway
D. show ccm-manager fallback-mgcp
E. show running-config gateway
F. show fallback-mgcp ccm-manager
300-075 dumps Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4
Company X has a Cisco Unified Communications Manager cluster and a Cisco Unity Connection cluster at its head office and implemented SRST for its branch offices. One Monday at 2:00 pm, the WAN connection to a branch office failed and stayed down for 45 minutes. That day the help desk received several calls from the branch saying their voicemail was not working but they were able to make and receive calls. Why did the users not realize the WAN was down and prevented access to their voicemail?
A. All the phones should have started ringing the instant the WAN connection failed to signal the start of SRST mode.
B. All calls should have dropped when the WAN failed so users would be instantly aware.
C. Although the phones were still working, the users should have noticed that the phone displays said andquot;SRST
Fallback Activeandquot;.
D. The voice administrators at the head office did not call the users to notify them.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5
Which two options must be selected in the SIP Trunk Security Profile configuration between Cisco Unified Communications Manager and Expressway? (Choose two)
A. Enable application-level authorization
B. Accept presence subscription
C. Accept out-of-dialog refer
D. Accept unsolicited notification
E. Accept replaces header
F. Transmit security status
G. Allow charging header
300-075 pdf Correct Answer: DE

QUESTION 6
Which two options should be used to create a secure traversal zone between the Expressway-C and Expressway-E? (Choose two.)
A. Expressway-C and Expressway-E must trust each other\’s server certificate.
B. One Cisco Unified Communications traversal zone for H.323 and SIP connections.
C. A separate pair of traversal zones must be configured if an H.323 connection is required and Interworking is disabled.
D. Enable username and password authentication verification on Expressway-E.
E. Create a set of username and password on each of the Expressway-C and Expressway- E to authenticate the neighboring peer.
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 7
Which three statements about configuring an encrypted trunk between Cisco TelePresence Video Communication Server and Cisco Unified Communications Manager are true? (Choose three.)
A. The root CA of the VCS server certificate must be loaded in Cisco Unified Communications Manager.
B. A SIP trunk security profile must be configured with Incoming Transport Type set to TCP+UDP.
C. The Cisco Unified Communications Manager trunk configuration must have the destination port set to 5061.
D. A SIP trunk security profile must be configured with Device Security Mode set to TLS.
E. A SIP trunk security profile must be configured with the X.509 Subject Name from the VCS certificate.
F. The Cisco Unified Communications Manager zone configured in VCS must have SIP authentication trust mode set to On.
G. The Cisco Unified Communications Manager zone configured in VCS must have TLS verify mode set to Off.
300-075 vce Correct Answer: ACE

QUESTION 8
Which command displays the detailed configuration of all the Cisco Unified IP phones, voice ports, and dial peers of the Cisco Unified SRST router?
A. show call-manager-fallback all
B. show dial-peer voice summary
C. show ephone summary
D. show voice port summary
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
Which two actions ensure that the call load from Cisco TelePresence Video Communication Server to a Cisco Unified Communications Manager cluster is shared across Unified CM nodes? (Choose two.)
A. Create a neighbor zone in VCS with the Unified CM nodes listed as location peer addresses.
B. Create a single traversal client zone in VCS with the Unified CM nodes listed as location peer addresses.
C. Create one neighbor zone in VCS for each Unified CM node.
D. Create a VCS DNS zone and configure one DNS SRV record per Unified CM node.
E. In VCS set Unified Communications mode to Mobile and remote access and configure each Unified CM node.
300-075 exam Correct Answer: AE

QUESTION 10
Which command is needed to utilize local dial peers on an MGCP-controlled ISR during an SRST failover?
A. ccm-manager fallback-mgcp
B. telephony-service
C. dialplan-pattern
D. isdn overlap-receiving
E. voice-translation-rule
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
Where can you change the clusterwide DSCP setting for Cisco Unified Communications Manager?
A. enterprise parameters
B. service parameters
C. enterprise phone configuration
D. Ethernet configuration
300-075 dumps Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 12
Widgets.com\’s Cisco TelePresence Video Communication Server allows SIP and H.323 registrations. Which local zone search rule configuration allows SIP registered endpoints to connect to H.323 endpoints that register with an H.323 E.164 number only?
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A. Configure the publisher node only in the SAF Forwarder configuration page.
B. Append an @ symbol at the end of the client label value in the SAF Forwarder configuration page.
C. Configure the correct node in the EIGRP configuration of the gateway router that is associated with the Cisco Unified
Communications Manager node.
D. Configure the SAF Security Profile Configuration to support only a single node.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 14
Which three commands can be used to verify SRST fallback mode? (Choose three.)
A. show telephony-service all
B. show telephony-service ephone-dn
C. show telephony-service ephone
D. show telephony-service voice-port
E. show telephony-service tftp-bindings
300-075 pdf Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 15
Which two options are requirements for hardware MTP on Cisco IOS routers? (Choose two.)
A. the same audio codec on both legs of the call
B. an FXO card
C. a binding IP address
D. a hardware transcoder
E. DSP resources
F. a T1 card
Correct Answer: DE

QUESTION 16
An engineer is configuring Global Dial Plan Replication and wants to prevent the local cluster from routing the Vice President number 5555555555 to the remote cluster. Which action accomplishes this task?
A. Create a block route pattern.
B. Create a block learned pattern.
C. Create a block transformation pattern.
D. Create a block translation pattern.
300-075 vce Correct Answer: C

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Pass4itsure Latest and Most Accurate CompTIA 220-902 Dumps Exam Q&As(1-19)

QUESTION 1
A customer has recently installed several applications on a Windows 7 workstation and is now experiencing slow system performance and spontaneous restarts. After removing some of the recently installed applications, the issue persists. Which of the following tools could the technician use to troubleshoot the problem while preventing data loss?
A. Factory restore
B. SecureBoot
C. msconfig
D. diskpart
220-902 exam Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2
A user reports that a file they shared out on their computer for another network user is not accessible to the third party. The user insists they specifically gave this third party Allow rights for Read and Write access. Which of the following could explain the problem at hand?
A. The parent folder has explicit Allow rights set for this user.
B. The parent folder has explicit Deny rights set for this user.
C. The user forgot to share the parent folder and only shared the specific file.
D. The parent folder likely has the andquot;archiveandquot; attribute enabled.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
A technician needs to install a clean Windows OS on several laptops in the office. The office is running a 100Base-T network. The owner would like the installations completed as soon as possible. Which of the following installation methods should the technician use?
A. FireWire External Hard Drive
B. PXE-based Network Installation
C. USB 3.0 Flash Drive
D. DVD-ROM
220-902 dumps Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4
In preparation for an operating system upgrade, a technician is tasked with installing additional memory modules in a computer. Which of the following safety steps should be performed FIRST?
A. Use safety goggles
B. Remove jewelry
C. Put on an ESD strap
D. Disconnect power
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
A technician recently removed spyware from a computer and now the user is getting error messages about system files. Which of the following tools would a technician use to verify all system files are intact and in their original versions?
A. Repair Disk
B. SFC
C. FIXMBR
D. ASR
220-902 pdf Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6
A user calls the help desk because a folder containing critical business files is missing from the local drive. The user is adamant that the folder was there the previous day, and cannot understand why it is gone. The technician views the properties of the parent folder and sees a back up listed on the andquot;Prior Versionsandquot; tab. According to the theory of troubleshooting, which of the following is the technician\’s NEXT step?
A. Establish a theory of probable cause
B. Establish a plan of action and implement the solution
C. Document findings, actions and outcomes
D. Verify full system functionality and implement preventive measures
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
A user needs their email set up on their iOS device. The email needs to synchronize all changes made with the server and the PC. Which of the following would the technician use to accomplish this?
A. IMAP
B. SMTP
C. SMNP
D. POP3
220-902 exam Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8
A customer calls an IT consultant to explain an issue they are having with their Windows 7 Professional PC. Windows Update attempts to install patches upon each startup but fails on the same single update. The customer has attempted to re-run Windows Update from Control Panel but the issue remains. Which of the following courses of action would BEST resolve the problem?
A. Running a full DEFRAG on the system
B. Clearing the AppData temp folder entirely
C. Clearing the Windows Update download cache entirely
D. Uninstalling the Windows Update feature in Windows 7 and reinstalling it directly from the Microsoft website
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 9
A user states that when typing in directions on a navigation website, the map is not viewable in a newer web browser. The technician runs updates to Java, but is still unable to view the map. The technician should change which of the following Internet Options?
A. Compatibility view
B. Manage add-ons
C. Clear browser cache
D. Pop-up blocker
220-902 dumps Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
When the computer is turned on it emits a series of beeps and does not POST. This can be caused by a bad:
A. CMOS battery.
B. video card.
C. IDE cable.
D. floppy cable.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11
A computer was recently infected by malware after a flash drive was plugged in. The user, Ann, indicates she never opened any files or folders from the flash drive. A technician needs to prevent this from occurring in the future. Which of
the following would accomplish this?
A. BitLocker To Go
B. Set strong passwords
C. Disable usermin
D. Disable AutoRun
220-902 pdf Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 12
In order to prevent other users from editing files in `C:\ Files\’, which of the following steps should be taken?
A. Set NTFS permissions to read only
B. Set the folder to index files for search
C. Set the local administrator as the owner of the folder
D. Set network share permissions to read only
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 13
A technician has been tasked with limiting the users who can connect to a network printer located centrally within an office environment. Which of the following tools would be the BEST to utilize to achieve this goal?
A. VPN
B. ACL
C. RDP
D. DLP
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 14
Which of the following network hosts would MOST likely provide the services needed to allow client access to Internet web pages?
A. File server
B. Web server
C. WINS server
D. Proxy server
220-902 vce Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 15
Which of the following best practices is used to fix a zero-day vulnerability on Linux?
A. Scheduled backup
B. Scheduled disk maintenance
C. Patch management
D. Antivirus update
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 16
Which of the following features of a mobile device operates the touch screen?
A. Gyroscope
B. Digitizer
C. Accelerometer
D. Geotracking
220-902 exam Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 17
A customer calls the help desk to report an issue. The customer suggests that the problem is hardware related, but the technician knows from the description that this is not the case. Which of the following is the BEST course of action for the technician?
A. Follow the customer\’s prescribed course of action.
B. Convince the customer to take a better course of action to resolve the issue.
C. Explain why the customer\’s prescribed course of action is incorrect.
D. Acknowledge the customer\’s input, but follow another course of action.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 18
A user tries to connect to the Internet using a dial-up modem and receives a andquot;No dial tone detectedandquot; message. Which of the following is the FIRST thing the technician should check to troubleshoot the issue?
A. Check if the cable is connected on the modem\’s phone RJ-45 port.
B. Check if the cable is connected on the modem\’s line RJ-11 port.
C. Check if the cable is connected on the modem\’s line RJ-45 port.
D. Check if the cable is connected on the modem\’s phone RJ-11 port.
220-902 dumps Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 19
Joe, an end-user, reports that the Windows PC he is using automatically locks when he leaves his desk and walks to a printer to retrieve documents. Joe is then required to type in his username and password to unlock the computer. The technician looks at the settings on the PC and notices that the screensaver and screen-lock options are grayed out on the computer and cannot be changed. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of this issue?
A. Domain-level group policies
B. Antivirus domain-level policies
C. Corrupted registry settings
D. Incorrect local-level user policies
Correct Answer: A

Recommended Experience

  • Basic computer and internet usage skills

Recommended Equipment

  • Windows computer system
  • Mac computer system
  • Linux computer system

Related Certifications

  • CompTIA A+

Related Job Functions

  • Technical support specialist
  • Field service technician
  • IT support technician
  • IT support administrator

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QUESTION 1
You use SQL Azure to store data used by an e-commerce application. You develop a stored procedure named sp1. Sp1 is used to read and change the price of all the products sold on the e-commerce site. You need to ensure that other transactions are blocked from updating product data while sp1 is executing. Which transaction isolation level should you use in sp1?
A. Repeatable read
B. Read committed
C. Serializable
D. Snapshot
070-464 exam Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 2
You review a query that runs slowly. The query accesses data in a table named Schema1.Table1.
The following is the relevant portion of the execution plan for the query:
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You need to create the missing index. Which code segment should you execute?
A. CREATE NONCLUSTERED INDEX IX1 on Schema1.Table1 (Column1) INCLUDE (Column4) WHERE Column2 <> Column3
B. CREATE NONCLUSTERED INDEX IX1 on Schema1.Table1 (Column1)
C. CREATE NONCLUSTERED INDEX IX1 on Schema1.Table1 (Column1, Column2, Column3) INCLUDE (Column4)
D. CREATE NONCLUSTERED INDEX IX1 on schema1.Table1 (Column1) INCLUDE (Column4)
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 3
You use SQL Server 2012 to maintain the data used by the applications at your company. You plan to create a table named Table1 by using the following statement. (Line numbers are included for reference only.)
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B. UserName varchar(200) COLLATE Latin1_General_CI_AI NOT NULL,
C. UserName varchar(200) COLLATE Latin 1_General_CS_AS NOT NULL,
D. UserName nvarchar(200) COLLATE Latin1_General_CI_AI NOT NULL,
070-464 dumps Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 4
You execute the following code:
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You need to select the task that has an IsFinished value of true from the Project that has an Id value of 1. Which code segment should you use?
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070-464 dumps
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 5
You are creating a table to support an application that will cache data outside of SQL Server. The application will detect whether cached values were changed before it updates the values. You need to create the table, and then verify that you can insert a row into the table. Which code segment should you use?
070-464 dumps
A.
B.
C.
D.
070-464 pdf Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 6
Your company has a SQL Azure subscription. You implement a database named Database1. Database1 has two tables named Table1 and Table2. You create a stored procedure named sp1. Sp1 reads data from Table1 and inserts data into Table2. A user named User1 informs you that he is unable to run sp1. You verify that User1 has the SELECT permission on Table1 and Table2. You need to ensure that User1 can run sp1. The solution must minimize the number of permissions assigned to User1.
What should you do?
A. Change sp1 to run as the saUser.
B. Grant User1 the EXECUTE permission on sp1.
C. Add User1 to the db_datawriter role.
D. Grant User1 the INSERT permission on Table2.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 7
You execute the following code:
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You create a nonclustered index named IX_CustomerName on the CustomerName column. You execute the following query:

You need to reduce the amount of time it takes to execute the query. What should you do?
A. Partition the table and use the CustomerName column for the partition scheme.
B. Replace IX_CustomerName with a clustered index.
C. Replace LEFT(CustomerName ,1) = ‘a’ with CustomerName LIKE ‘a%’.
D. Replace LEFT(CustomerName ,1) = ‘a’ with SUBSTRING(CustomerName ,1,1) – ‘a’.
070-464 vce Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 8
You have a table named Rooms that contains three columns. You execute the following query:
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You discover the execution plan shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.)
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You need to recommend a solution to reduce the amount of time it takes to execute the query. What should you do? More than one answer choice may achieve the goal. Select the BEST answer.
A. Include the RoomName column and the Position column in the Room_IX index.
B. Create a nonclustered index for RoomName, Id, and Position.
C. Create a clustered index for Id.
D. Use the WITH (INDEX(Room_IX),NOLOCK) query hint.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 9
You have a database named database1. Database developers report that there are many deadlocks. You need to implement a solution to monitor the deadlocks. The solution must meet the following requirements:
Support real-time monitoring.
Be enabled and disabled easily.
Support querying of the monitored data.
What should you implement? More than one answer choice may achieve the goal. Select the BEST answer.
A. Log errors by using trace flag 1222
B. Log errors by using trace flag 1204
C. A SQL Server Profiler template
D. An Extended Events session
070-464 exam Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 10
You execute the following code:
070-464 dumps
The execution plan for the query is shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.)
070-464 dumps
You need to prevent the key lookup. What should you modify? More than one answer choice may achieve the goal. Select the BEST answer.
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Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 11
You have a database for a mission-critical web application. The database is stored on a SQL Server 2012 instance and is the only database on the instance. The application generates all T-SQL statements dynamically and does not use stored procedures. You need to maximize the amount of memory available for data caching. Which advanced server option should you modify?
A. Optimize for Ad hoc Workloads
B. Enable Contained Databases
C. Allow Triggers to Fire Others
D. Scan for Startup Procs
070-464 dumps Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 12
You have an application that uses a view to access data from multiple tables. You need to ensure that you can insert rows into the underlying tables by using the view. What should you do?
A. Create an INSTEAD OF trigger on the view.
B. Define the view by using the SCHEMABINDING option.
C. Define the view by using the CHECK option.
D. Materialize the view.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

Q: Why should companies train their IT professionals in this technology?
SQL Server is the most popular database platform for Windows-based environments. SQL Server 2014 adds powerful new features for all kinds of workloads and infrastructures, from in-memory technology to cloud integration, and it’s empowering database professionals to build faster, more flexible solutions.

Q: From a student-perspective, what did you keep in mind when creating this course?
I tried to give learners a different perspective for learning by providing a mix of concept and demonstration, also by providing our own simplified database and T-SQL examples to work with.

Q: Any outside-of-the-box tips to help students get the most out of your course?
Lab it up! Use our Virtual NuggetLab or your own environment to see how things work. A mix of concept, demonstration, and lab can go a long way toward reinforcing concepts and getting that crucial hands-on experience.

Q: What’s one real-world application someone can expect to use, thanks to this course?
You’ll improve your T-SQL skills and see first hand how to utilize the many programmable objects in SQL Server. You’ll also be ready to rock many of the new development features SQL Server 2014 offers.

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The 70-346 dumps Office 365 “Managing Office 365 Identities and Requirements” is a 211 questions and is associated with the Microsoft MCP, MCSA certification. Candidates can prepare for this exam by taking the course, “Managing Office 365 Identities and Requirements – Microsoft Office 365”. This exam tests a candidate’s understanding of cisco’s basic principles, foundational knowledge, and core skills needed to grasp the more advanced associate-level materials in the second required exam. The exam is closed book and no outside reference materials are allowed. Passing Microsoft Office 365 70-346 dumps help you driving your career growth as it is associated with the achievement of Managing Office 365 Identities and Requirements.

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This exam provides the knowledge and understanding for some of these important job functions:
1. Provision Office 365

  • Provision tenants
  • Add and configure custom domains
  • Plan a pilot

2. Plan and implement networking and security in Office 365

  • Configure DNS records for services
  • Enable client connectivity to Office 365
  • Administer rights management (RM)
  • Manage administrator roles in Office 365

3. Manage cloud identities

  • Configure password management
  • Manage user and security groups
  • Manage cloud identities with Windows PowerShell

4. Implement and manage identities by using DirSync

  • Prepare on-premises Active Directory for DirSync
  • Set up DirSync [WAAD sync tool]
  • Manage Active Directory users and groups with DirSync in place

5. Implement and manage federated identities (single sign-on [SSO])

  • Plan requirements for Active Directory Federation Services (AD FS)
  • Install and manage AD FS servers
  • Install and manage AD FS proxy servers

6. Monitor and troubleshoot Office 365 availability and usage

  • Analyze reports
  • Monitor service health
  • Isolate service interruption

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Pass4itsure Latest and Most Accurate Microsoft 70-346 Dumps Exam Q&As(1-14)

QUESTION 1
Contoso, Ltd. plans to use Office 365 for email services and Skype for Business Online. Contoso has four unique domain names. You need to migrate domain names to Office 365. Which two domain names should you exclude from the migration? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. contoso.us
B. contoso
C. contoso.local
D. contoso.co
70-346 exam Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 2
You administer the Office 365 environment for a company that has offices around the world. All of the offices use the same Office 365 tenant. You need to ensure that all users can access the services that are available in their regions. Which setting or service should you update?
A. User location settings
B. User licenses
C. Service usage address
D. Rights management
70-346 dumps Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
Your company has an Office 365 subscription. You create a new retention policy that contains several retention tags. A user named Test5 has a client computer that runs Microsoft Office Outlook 2007. You install Microsoft Outlook 2010 on the client computer of Test5. Test5 reports that the new retention tags are unavailable from Outlook 2010. You verify that other users can use the new retention tags. You need to ensure that the new retention tags are available to Test5 from Outlook 2010. What should you do?
A. Instruct Test5 to repair the Outlook profile.
B. Modify the retention policy tags.
C. Run the Set-Mailbox cmdlet.
D. Force directory synchronization.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
You deploy Skype for Business Online for a company that has offices in San Francisco and New York. The two offices both connect to the Internet. There is no private network link between the offices. Users in the New York office report that they cannot transfer files to the users in the San Francisco office by using Skype for Business Online. You need to ensure that users in both offices can transfer files by using Skype for Business Online. What should you do?
A. Configure the firewall to open Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) ports 50060-50079.
B. Configure the firewall to open Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) ports 50040-50059.
C. Create a private network connection to share files.
D. Upgrade all of the Skype for Business Online clients to use Skype for Business client application.
70-346 pdf Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
An organization plans to migrate to Office 365. You need to estimate the post-migration network traffic. Which tool should you use?
A. Microsoft Online Services Diagnostics and Logging (MOSDAL) Support Kit
B. Microsoft Network Monitor
C. Skype for Business Bandwidth Calculator
D. Microsoft Remote Connectivity Analyzer
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6
Your company has a subscription to Office 365 for midsize business and enterprises. The company uses Microsoft Skype for Business Online. You need to open ports on the network firewall to enable all of the features of Skype for Business Online. Which port or ports should you open? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
Choose all that apply.)
A. inbound TCP443
B. outbound TCP 5061
C. outbound UDP 3478
D. outbound TCP 443
E. outbound UDP 50000 to outbound UDP 59999
F. inbound TCP 8080
70-346 vce Correct Answer: ACDE

QUESTION 7
You have an Office 365 environment. Synchronization between the on-premises Active Directory and Office 365 is enabled.
You need to deactivate directory synchronization. Which Windows PowerShell cmdlet should you run?
A. Update-MsolFederatedDomain
B. Remove-MsolDomain
C. Remove-MsolFederatedDomain
D. Set-MsolDirSyncEnabled
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8
You plan to deploy an Office 365 tenant to multiple offices around the country. You need to modify the users and groups who are authorized to administer the Rights Management service. Which Windows PowerShell cmdlet should you run?
A. Add-MsolGroupMember
B. Get-Add rm Role Based Administrator
C. Remove-AadrmRoleBasedAdministrator
D. Enable AadrmSuperUserFeature
70-346 exam Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 9
A company migrates to Office 365. 2,000 active users have valid Office 365 licenses assigned. An additional 5,000 user accounts were created during the migration and testing processes. These users do not have any licenses assigned. You need to remove the Office 365 user accounts that do not have any licenses assigned by using the least amount of administrative effort. Which Windows PowerShell command should you run?
A. Get-MsolUser -All-EnabledFilter “DisabledOnly” | Remove-MsolUser -Force
B. Get-MsolUser-EnabledFilter “DisabledOnly” | Remove-MsolUser -Force
C. Get-MsolUser -All -UnlicensedUsersOnly | Remove-MsolUser -Force
D. Get-MsolUser -UnlicensedUsersOnly | Remove-MsolUser璅orce
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10
Your company subscribes to an Office 365 Plan E3. A user named User1 installs Office Professional Plus for Office 365 on a client computer. From the Microsoft Online Services portal, you assign User1 an Office Professional Plus license. One month after installing Office, User1 can no longer save and edit Office documents on the client computer. User1 can open and view Office documents. You need to ensure that User1 can save and edit documents on the client computer by using office. What should you do?
A. Install the Office Customization Tool.
B. Reinstall Office Professional Plus.
C. Install the Microsoft Online Services Sign-in Assistant.
D. Upgrade the subscription to Plan E4.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 11
An organization plans to migrate to Office 365. You use the Windows Azure Active Directory (AD) Sync tool. Several users will not migrate to Office 365. You must exclude these users from synchronization. All users must continue to authenticate against the on-premises Active Directory. You need to synchronize the remaining users. Which three actions should you perform? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. Populate an attribute for each user account.
B. Disable the user accounts in Active Directory.
C. Perform a full synchronization.
D. Configure the connection filter.
E. Run the Windows PowerShell command Set-MsolDirSyncEnabled -EnableDirSync $false.
70-346 dumps Correct Answer: ACD

QUESTION 12
Your company has a hybrid deployment of Office 365. All mailboxes are hosted on Office 365. All users access their Office 365 mailbox by using a user account that is hosted on- premises. You need to delete a user account and its associated mailbox. Which tool should you use?
A. The Remove-MSOLUser cmdlet
B. The Remove-Mailbox cmdlet
C. The Office 365 portal
D. Active Directory Users and Computers
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 13
An organization implements single sign-on (SSO) for use with Office 365 services. You install an Active Directory Federation Services (AD FS) proxy server. Users report that they are unable to authenticate. You launch the Event Viewer and view the event information shown in the following screen shot:
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You need to ensure that users can authenticate to Office 365. What should you do?
A. Re-enter the credentials used to establish the trust.
B. Verify the federation server proxy is trusted by the federation service.
C. Re-install the Secure Sockets Layer (SSL) certificate for the federation service.
D. Verify network connectivity between the Federation Service Proxy and federation server.
70-346 pdf Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 14
A company named Fabrikam, Inc. is deploying an Office 365 tenant. You install Active Directory Federation Services (AD FS) on a server that runs Windows Server 2012. The company’s environment is described in the following table:
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You must obtain a certificate from a certification authority and install it on the federation servers. You need to specify the subject name for the certificate. Which name should you specify?
A. fs.fabnkam.com
B. server1.fabrikam.com
C. fabrikam.com
D. server2.fabrikam.com
Correct Answer: A

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Q: Why should companies train their IT professionals in Microsoft Office 365? What value does it bring?

Office 365 offers so much more than just Office products in the cloud. It’s a full identity management solution with Exchange Server, Sharepoint, and Skype for Business integration. Office 365 represents a way to move your business off of bare metal servers in a closet in order to support a geographically dispersed and mobile workforce.

Q: From a learner perspective, what did you keep in mind when creating this course?

That Microsoft focuses its certifications on PowerShell and feature exploration but users want to know how to get the basics done. In this course, I focus on explaining how to get common tasks done in Office 365 while keeping in line with the certification objectives.

Q: Any out-of-the-box tips for learners on how to get the most out of your Microsoft Office 365: Identities and Requirements 70-346 course?

Don’t be afraid to try everything we cover in the course, up to and including the integration with on-premise Active Directory. There are myriad ways to test out the features and functions outside of your organization’s production environment and with minimal resources required.

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Pass4itusre Latest and Most Accurate Cisco 200-105 Dumps Exam Q&As(42-63)

QUESTION 42
Which commands are required to properly configure a router to run OSPF and to add network 192.168.16.0/24 to OSPF area 0? (Choose two.)
A. Router(config)# router ospf 0
B. Router(config)# router ospf 1
C. Router(config)# router ospf area 0
D. Router(config-router)# network 192.168.16.0 0.0.0.255 0
E. Router(config-router)# network 192.168.16.0 0.0.0.255 area 0
F. Router(config-router)# network 192.168.16.0 255.255.255.0 area 0
200-105 exam Correct Answer: BE
Explanation/Reference:
In the router ospf
Command, the ranges from 1 to 65535 so o is an invalid number – B is correct but A is not correct. To configure OSPF, we need a wildcard in the andquot;network” stat

QUESTION 43
Which statement is true, as relates to classful or classless routing?
A. Classful routing protocols send the subnet mask in routing updates.
B. RIPv1 and OSPF are classless routing protocols.
C. Automatic summarization at classful boundaries can cause problems on discontiguous subnets.
D. EIGRP and OSPF are classful routing protocols and summarize routes by default.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: RIPv1, RIPv2, IGRP, and EIGRP all auto-summarize classful boundaries by default (OSPF do

QUESTION 44
What does a router do if it has no EIGRP feasible successor route to a destination network and the successor route to that destination network is in active status?
A. It routes all traffic that is addressed to the destination network to the interface indicated in the routing table.
B. It sends a copy of its neighbor table to all adjacent routers.
C. It sends a multicast query packet to all adjacent neighbors requesting available routing paths to the destination network.
D. It broadcasts Hello packets to all routers in the network to re-establish neighbor adjacencies.
200-105 dumps Correct Answer: C
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 45
Which statement about named ACLs is true?
A. They support standard and extended ACLs.
B. They are used to filter usernames and passwords for Telnet and SSH.
C. They are used to filter Layer 7 traffic.
D. They support standard ACLs only.
E. They are used to rate limit traffic destined to targeted networks.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation/Reference:
Named Access Control Lists (ACLs) allows standard and extended ACLs to be given names instead of numbers. Unlike in numbered Access Control Lists (ACLs), we can edit Named Access Control Lists. Anoth

QUESTION 46
What does the frame-relay interface-dlci command configure?
A. local DLCI on the subinterface
B. remote DLCI on the main interface
C. remote DCLI on the subinterface
D. local DLCI on the main interface
200-105 pdf Correct Answer: A
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 47
Peter is your new Security Administrator. On his first working day, he is very nervous and enters the wrong password three times. His account is locked. What can be done to unlock Peter’s account? Give the BEST answer.
A. It is not possible to unlock Peter’s account. You have to install the firewall once again or abstain from Peter’s help.
B. You can unlock Peter’s account by using the command fwm unlock_admin -u Peter on the Security Gateway.
C. You can unlock Peter’s account by using the command fwm lock_admin -u Peter on the Security Management Server.
D. You can unlock Peter’s account by using the command fwm unlock_admin -u Peter on the Security Management Server
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 48
Where can you find the Check Point’s SNMP MIB file?
A. $CPDIR/lib/snmp/chkpt.mib
B. There is no specific MIB file for Check Point products.
C. $FWDIR/conf/snmp.mib
D. It is obtained only by request from the TAC.
200-105 vce Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 49
You want to generate a cpinfo file via CLI on a system running GAiA. This will take about 40 minutes since the log files are also needed. What action do you need to take regarding timeout?
A. Log in as Administrator, set the timeout to one hour with the command idle 60 and start cpinfo.
B. Log in as the default user expert and start cpinfo.
C. No action is needed because cpshell has a timeout of one hour by default.
D. Log in as admin, switch to expert mode, set the timeout to one hour with the command, idle 60, then start cpinfo.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 50
Many companies have defined more than one administrator. To increase security, only one administrator should be able to install a Rule Base on a specific Firewall. How do you configure this?
A. Define a permission profile in SmartDashboard with read/write privileges, but restrict it to all other firewalls by placing them in the Policy Targets field. Then, an administrator with this permission profile cannot install a policy on any Firewall not listed here.
B. Put the one administrator in an Administrator group and configure this group in the specific Firewall object in Advanced > Permission to Install.
C. Right-click on the object representing the specific administrator, and select that Firewall in Policy Targets.
D. In the object General Properties representing the specific Firewall, go to the Software Blades product list and select Firewall. Right-click in the menu, select Administrator to Install to define only this  administrator.
200-105 exam Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 51
What is the officially accepted diagnostic tool for IP Appliance Support?
A. ipsoinfo
B. cpinfo
C. uag-diag
D. CST
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 52
ALL of the following options are provided by the SecurePlatform sysconfig utility, EXCEPT:
A. Export setup
B. Time & Date
C. DHCP Server configuration
D. GUI Clients
200-105 dumps Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 53
Which of the following options is available with the GAiA cpconfig utility?
A. Time & Date
B. GUI Clients
C. DHCP Server configuration
D. Export setup
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 54
Which command would provide the most comprehensive diagnostic information to Check Point Technical Support?
A. cpstat – date.cpstat.txt
B. fw cpinfo
C. cpinfo -o date.cpinfo.txt
D. diag
200-105 pdf Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 55
Which of the following statements accurately describes the command snapshot?
A. snapshot creates a Security Management Server full system-level backup on any OS.
B. snapshot stores only the system-configuration settings on the Gateway.
C. A Gateway snapshot includes configuration settings and Check Point product information from the remote Security Management Server.
D. snapshot creates a full OS-level backup, including network-interface data, Check Point product information, and configuration settings during an upgrade of a SecurePlatform Security Gateway.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 56
How do you recover communications between your Security Management Server and Security Gateway if you lock yourself out through a rule or policy mis-configuration?
A. fw delete [email protected]
B. fw unload policy
C. fwm unloadlocal
D. fw unloadlocal
200-105 vce Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 57
How can you check whether IP forwarding is enabled on an IP Security Appliance?
A. clish -c show routing active enable
B. ipsofwd list
C. cat /proc/sys/net/ipv4/ip_forward
D. echo 1 > /proc/sys/net/ipv4/ip_forward
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 58
Which command allows you to view the contents of an R76 table?
A. fw tab -s <tablename>
B. fw tab -t <tablename>
C. fw tab -x <tablename>
D. fw tab -a <tablename>
200-105 exam Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 59
Which of the following tools is used to generate a Security Gateway R76 configuration report?
A. infoCP
B. cpinfo
C. infoview
D. fw cpinfo
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 60
Which of the following is a CLI command for Security Gateway R76?
A. fw merge
B. fw tab -u
C. fw shutdown
D. fwm policy_print <policyname>
200-105 dumps Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 61
You are the Security Administrator for MegaCorp. A Check Point firewall is installed and in use on a platform using GAiA. You have trouble configuring the speed and duplex settings of your Ethernet interfaces. Which of the following commands can be used in Expert Mode to configure the speed and duplex settings of an Ethernet interface and will survive a reboot? Give the BEST answer.
A. eth_set
B. mii_tool
C. ifconfig -a
D. ethtool
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 62
John has scanned the web server with NMAP. However, he could not gather enough information to help him identify the operating system running on the remote host accurately.
What would you suggest to John to help identify the OS that is being used on the remote web server?
A. Connect to the web server with a browser and look at the web page.
B. Connect to the web server with an FTP client.
C. Telnet to port 8080 on the web server and look at the default page code.
D. Telnet to an open port and grab the banner.
200-105 pdf Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Most people don’t care about changing the banners presented by applications listening to open ports and therefore you should get fairly accurate information when grabbing banners from open ports with, for example, a telnet application.

QUESTION 63
An Nmap scan shows the following open ports, and nmap also reports that the OS guessing results to match too many signatures hence it cannot reliably be identified:
21 ftp
23 telnet
80 http
443 https
What does this suggest ?
A. This is a Windows Domain Controller
B. The host is not firewalled
C. The host is not a Linux or Solaris system
D. The host is not properly patched
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
If the answer was A nmap would guess it, it holds the MS signature database, the host not being firewalled makes no difference. The host is not linux or solaris, well it very well could be. The host is not properly patched? That is the closest; nmaps OS detection architecture is based solely off the TCP ISN issued by the operating systems TCP/IP stack, if the stack is modified to show output from randomized ISN’s or if your using a program to change the ISN then OS detection will fail. If the TCP/IP IP ID’s are modified then os detection could also fail, because the machine would most likely come back as being down.
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100-105 dumps

Pass4itusre Latest and Most Accurate Cisco 100-105 Dumps Exam Q&As(25-51)

QUESTION 25
Which of the following describe the process identifier that is used to run OSPF on a router? (Choose two)
A. It is locally significant.
B. It is globally significant.
C. It is needed to identify a unique instance of an OSPF database.
D. It is an optional parameter required only if multiple OSPF processes are running on the router.
E. All routers in the same OSPF area must have the same process ID if they are to exchange routing information.
100-105 exam Correct Answer: AC
Explanation/Reference:
They are locally significant only, and have no bearing on the structure of any OSPF packet or LSA update. So you can have a separate proc

QUESTION 26
Which statements are true regarding ICMP packets? (Choose two.)
A. They acknowledge receipt of TCP segments.
B. They guarantee datagram delivery.
C. TRACERT uses ICMP packets.
D. They are encapsulated within IP datagrams.
E. They are encapsulated within UDP datagrams.
Correct Answer: CD
Explanation/Reference:
Ping may be used to find out whether the local machines are connected to the network or whether a remote site is reachable. This tool is a common network tool for determining the network connectivi

QUESTION 27
Refer to the exhibit.
100-105 dumps

Which two statements are true about the loopback address that is configured on RouterB? (Choose two.)
A. It ensures that data will be forwarded by RouterB.
B. It provides stability for the OSPF process on RouterB.
C. It specifies that the router ID for RouterB should be 10.0.0.1.
D. It decreases the metric for routes that are advertised from RouterB.
E. It indicates that RouterB should be elected the DR for the LAN.
100-105 dumps Correct Answer: BC
Explanation/Reference:
A loopback interface never comes down even if the link is broken so it provides stability for the OSPF process (for example we use that loopback interface as the router-id) – The router-ID is chose

QUESTION 28
Scenario:
You are a junior network engineer for a financial company, and the main office network is experiencing network issues. Troubleshoot the network issues. Router R1 connects the main office to the internet, and routers R2 and R3 are internal routers. NAT is enabled on router R1. The routing protocol that is enabled between routers R1, R2 and R3 is RIPv2. R1 sends the default route into RIPv2 for the internal routers to forward internet traffic to R1. You have console access on R1, R2 and R3 devices. Use only show commands to troubleshoot the issues.
100-105 dumps

100-105 dumps

100-105 dumps

100-105 dumps

100-105 dumps

100-105 dumps

100-105 dumps

100-105 dumps

Users complain that they are unable to reach internet sites. You are troubleshooting internet connectivity problem at main office. Which statement correctly identifies the problem on Router R1?
A. Interesting traffic for NAT ACL is incorrectly configured.
B. NAT configurations on the interfaces are incorrectly configured
C. NAT translation statement incorrectly configured.
D. Only static NAT translation configured for the server, missing Dynamic NAT or Dynamic NAT overloading for internal networks.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 29
Refer to the exhibit.
100-105 dumps

The MAC address table is shown in its entirety. The Ethernet frame that is shown arrives at the switch. What two operations will the switch perform when it receives this frame? (Choose two.)
A. The switch will not forward a frame with this destination MAC address.
B. The MAC address of 0000.00aa.aaaa will be added to the MAC Address Table.
C. The MAC address of ffff.ffff.ffff will be added to the MAC address table.
D. The frame will be forwarded out of all the active switch ports except for port fa0/0.
E. The frame will be forwarded out of fa0/0 and fa0/1 only.
F. The frame will be forwarded out of all the ports on the switch.
100-105 pdf Correct Answer: BD
Explanation/Reference:
If the switch already has the MAC address in its table for the destination, it will forward the frame directly to the destination port. If it was not already in its MAC table, then they frame would

QUESTION 30
Refer to the exhibit.
100-105 dumps

The network is converged.After link-state advertisements are received from Router_A, what information will Router_E contain in its routing table for the subnets 208.149.23.64 and 208.149.23.96?
A. 208.149.23.64[110/13] via 190.173.23.10, 00:00:07, FastEthemet0/0 208.149.23.96[110/13] via 190.173.23.10, 00:00:16, FastEthemet0/0
B. 208.149.23.64[110/1] via 190.172.23.10, 00:00:07, Serial1/0 208.149.23.96[110/3] via 190.173.23.10, 00:00:16, FastEthemet0/0
C. 208.149.23.64[110/13] via 190.173.23.10, 00:00:07, Serial1/0 208.149.23.96[110/13] via 190.173.23.10, 00:00:16, Serial1/0 208.149.23.96[110/13] via 190.173.23.10, 00:00:16, FastEthemet0/0
D. 208.149.23.64[110/3] via 190.172.23.10, 00:00:07, Serial1/0 208.149.23.96[110/3] via 190.173.23.10, 00:00:16, Serial1/0
Correct Answer: A
Explanation/Reference:
Router_E learns two subnets subnets 208.149.23.64 and 208.149.23.96 via Router_A through FastEthernet interface.
The interface cost is calculated with the formula 108 / Bandwidth. For FastEthernet i

QUESTION 31 Scope Control is used to
A.configure to which users a certain application is available.
B.configure to which users a certain PowerLaunch setting is applied.
C.define which nodes are available to a user with access to a certain Security Role.
D.define which PowerFuse objects are available to a user with access to a certain Security Role.
100-105 vce Correct:D

QUESTION 32. Workspace Management dynamically combines users with
A.their services.
B.their technology stack.
C.User Environment Management.
D.Application Delivery Solutions.
Correct:A

QUESTION 33. A PowerFuse Environment consists of laptops, workstations and Citrix servers. What must an administrator do to make sure that users can have no more than one session while still being able to access published applications on the Citrix servers?
A.Configure the Instant Passthrough settings on the Defaults tab of the Citrix Integration node.
B.Enable Access Balancing and limit the maximum allowed simultaneous logons to 1.
C.Enable SessionGuard and select “Always allow passthrough sessions”.
D.Enable Instant Logoff for duplicate sessions.
100-105 exam Correct:C

QUESTION 34.What happens when the RES PowerFuse Shell is being used and a user double-clicks the system tray clock?
A.The RES PowerFuse calendar is displayed.
B.The default Microsoft Outlook calendar is displayed.
C.The RES PowerFuse Task Scheduler is displayed.
D.The Windows Date and Time properties are displayed.
Correct:A

QUESTION 35.What is the BEST source for an overview of all applications running Security Management in Learning mode?
A.PowerTrace
B.Application List
C.Access Control List
D.Modification Log
Correct:B

QUESTION 36.When using an unattended installation, is it possible to add the RES PowerFuse Agent to a workspace automatically?
A.Yes, but the workspace must be available.
B.Yes, but the workspace must first be created with the corresponding public property.
C.No, this should be done manually in the RES PowerFuse Management Console.
D.No, this should be done manually or by using a Building Block.
100-105 dumps Correct:A

QUESTION 37.What is the minimum RES Wisdom Version required for RES Wisdom integration in RES PowerFuse?
A.8.01
B.7.03d
C.5.00f
D.4 SR2
Correct:D

QUESTION 38.To determine what Security Roles are assigned to an administrator, the administrative user should navigate to
A.File > Show My Security Role(s).
B.Help > Show My Security Role(s).
C.Pane > Show My Security Role(s).
D.Action > Show My Security Role(s).
100-105 pdf Correct:B

QUESTION 39.Which RES PowerFuse component provides the functionality that the end user needs? The RES PowerFuse
A.Agent.
B.Datastore.
C.Workspace Manager.
D.Management Console.
Correct:C

QUESTION 40.Which variable should be used to create exceptions to the default drive letter for the home directory?
A.%reshomedrive%
B.%homedrive%
C.\\server\share\%username%
D.%homepath%
Correct:A

QUESTION 41
When creating an analytic service, the discovery process requires a minimum of:
A. At least three days of data available.
B. At least three weeks of data available.
C. The application specialist available.
D. Some historical data and some starting point (a server, port, application).
E. A customer network diagram available.
100-105 vce Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 42
Link Congestion policies apply to a specific interface and can: (Select 3)
A. Warn if either inbound or outbound traffic increases abnormally
B. Warn if an application component of traffic increases abnormally
C. Warn if traffic to/from specific hosts exceeds a specific utilization level
D. Warn if the response time across a link increases abnormally
Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 43
If a VLAN SPAN (VLAN101) is configured and monitored by Cascade Shark, which of the following is true? (Select 2)
A. Inter VLAN101 traffic will be monitored; Intra VLAN101 traffic will not.
B. Intra VLAN101 traffic will be monitored; Inter VLAN101 traffic will not.
C. Both inter and intra VLAN101 traffic will be monitored.
D. It is a best practice to configure the Cascade Shark monitoring port (the SPAN destination) with ‘deduplication’ enabled.
E. It is a best practice to configure the Cascade Shark monitoring port (the SPAN destination) without ‘deduplication’ enabled.
100-105 exam Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 44
Quality of Service information is obtained from what Cascade sources?
A. Cascade Sensor only
B. Cannot get QoS data on Cascade
C. Cascade Sensor and Cascade Gateway
D. CascadeFlow traffic only
E. NetFlow and IPFIX traffic only
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 45
Cascade Profiler provides identity information collected from Active Directory 2008 by installing and correctly configuring the ‘Cascade Connector’ agent software on:
A. Every DNS server in the AD environment
B. Any server in the MS domain
C. Every client desktop in the AD environment
D. Every NTP server in the MS domain
E. The Microsoft Event Collector component in the AD environment
100-105 dumps Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 46
Which of the following statements is true regarding SNMP polling and NTP syncing among Cascade components?
A. Cascade Gateway’s poll via SNMP sources of Netflow, while Cascade Profiler, Cascade Gateway and Cascade Sensor sync NTP from a common source.
B. Cascade Profiler’s poll via SNMP sources of Netflow, while Cascade Profiler, Cascade Gateway and Cascade Sensor sync NTP from a common source.
C. Cascade Profiler, Cascade Gateway and Cascade Sensor sync NTP from different sources, while Cascade Profiler’s poll via SNMP sources of Netflow.
D. Cascade Profiler, Cascade Gateway and Cascade Sensor sync NTP from different sources, while Cascade Gateway’s poll via SNMP sources of Netflow.
E. Cascade Profiler does all SNMP polling and is also the source of all NTP.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 47
Within Cascade Pilot, to analyze the round-trip time in a trace file, you can:
A. Ask Riverbed Support to send you the proper View to use.
B. Open the View folders in Cascade Pilot to look for a View named “Round-trip time”.
C. Use the View search box and enter “round”.
D. Use the Help menu and search for round.
100-105 pdf Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 48
For DNS reverse lookup, Cascade Profiler caches as follows:
A. Cache the most recent 500 IPs.
B. Obey DNS TTLs.
C. Cascade does not cache DNS responses.
D. For 24 hours.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 49
What are two differences between NetFlow version 5 and NetFlow version 9 (select 2)
A. NetFlow version 5 generally support ingress flow export only; NetFlow version 9 supports both ingress and egress export.
B. NetFlow version 5 is used for Switches, NetFlow version 9 is used for Routers.
C. NetFlow version 9 includes information about CPU, Power-status and other router performance characteristics; NetFlow version 5 does not.
D. NetFlow version 9 includes the ability to export the Time-To-Live (TTL); NetFlow version 5 does not.
E. NetFlow version 9 includes the ability to export the packet latency, NetFlow version 5 does not.
100-105 vce Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 50
When changing the priority for a Layer 4 mapping on Cascade Profiler best practices indicate that Application Mappings should be given higher priorities based on:
A. Longest Match
B. Shortest Match
C. IP & Port
D. IP
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 51
What is the relationship between a Host Group and a Host Group Type in Cascade Profiler?
A. A Host Group Type is a container that may contain multiple Host Groups.
B. A Host Group Type defines the name of the Host Group.
C. They are the same thing.
D. Each Host Group must be defined by the Type of application it serves; this is the Host Group Type.
100-105 exam Correct Answer: A

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300-070 dumps

Pass4itusre Latest and Most Accurate Cisco 300-070 Dumps Exam Q&As:

Question No : 151 Which three options can be used to configure digit manipulation for dial peers? (Choose three.)
A. digit translation rules
B. called party transformations
C. route partitions
D. forward digits
E. route patterns
F. digit stripping and prefixes
G. calling party transformations
300-070 exam Answer: A,D,F
Reference:
Question No : 152 When creating a route pattern, which two of these options should you avoid? (Choose two)
A. Lowercase characters, such as a, b, c
B. Wildcards.
C. Numbers.
D. Uppercase characters, such as A, B, C.
E. Spaces.
F. Special characters andescape sequences, such as @ and \+.
Answer: A,E
Question No : 153 Which of the following simplifies and enhances conference resource management?
A. Cisco Telepresence Server
B. Cisco Telepresence MCU
C. Cisco Telepresence MSE 8000
D. Cisco IOS routers with packet voice/data module (PVDM)
E. Cisco Telepresence Conductor
300-070 dumps Answer: E
 QUESTION 154
A Project Cost Management plan is created as a part of:
A. Develop Project Management Plan process
B. Control Costs process
C. Determine Budget process
D. Estimate Costs process
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
There is no separate process in the Project Cost Estimation knowledge area to develop a cost management plan. It is devloped in Develop Project Management Plan process.
QUESTION 155
__________ involves using project characteristics in a mathematical model
A. Analogous estimating
B. Life-cycle costing
C. Parametric modelling
D. Bottom up estimating
300-070 pdf Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Parametric modeling : Using project characteristics (or parameters) in a mathematical model to predict  costs (e.g., price per square foot).
QUESTION 156
Adjusting Leads and Lags is a technique for:
A. Develop Schedule
B. Estimate Activity Durations
C. Estimate Activity Resources
D. Sequence Activities
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Adjusting Leads and Lags: Since the improper use of leads or lags can distort the project schedule, the leads or lags are adjusted during schedule network analysis to develop a viable project schedule. Tools and Techniques for Develop Schedule are : Mathematical analysis,Duration compression,Simulation,Resource-leveling ,Project management software,Adjusting Leads and Lags and Coding structure.
QUESTION 157
Analogous Estimate Costs is _________.
A. Generally Accurate
B. Generally less accurate
C. Bottom-up estimating
D. None
300-070 vce Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Analogous Estimate Costs is Generally less accurate . Analogous Estimate Costs Uses Expert Judgment. It is used when reference projects are similar . It is useful in early phases of the project.
QUESTION 158
With triangular distribution, the low, likely and high values are 20, 30 and 40, respectively. The mean is
_____.
A. 30.0
B. 22.5
C. 25.0
D. 27.5
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
mean = (20+30+40)/3= 30
QUESTION 159
You have a piece of equipment that was purchased for your project recently for $5,000 and is expected to last 5 years in production. At the end of the five years, the expected worth of the equipment is $2,000. Using the straight-line deprecation, what is the amount that can be written off each year?
A. $600
B. $1200
C. $3000
D. $100
300-070 exam Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
A is the correct answer. The straight-line depreciation takes the purchase value of the item, minus the salvage price of the item, divided by the number of time periods. Calculation is (5000-2000)/5 = $600.
QUESTION 160
Which of the following is an output of a Verify Scope process?
A. Formal acceptance
B. WBStemplate
C. SOW acceptance
D. Rework
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Output of Verify Scope is formal acceptance.
QUESTION 161
What involves determining what quantities are to be used to perform project activities.
A. Resource planning
B. Estimate Costs
C. Determine Budget
D. Control Costs
300-070 dumps Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Resource planning :Planning, identifying, documenting, and assigning project roles, responsibilities, and reporting relationships to individuals or groups.
QUESTION 162
Which of the following is NOT an example of a type of schedule report?
A. Gantt chart
B. Milestone chart
C. fishbone diagram
D. network diagram
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 163
A Change Control Board should be _______?
A. flexible
B. Include the project manager
C. appropriate authority
D. al1 of the above
300-070 pdf Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
CCB should have all the mentioned characteristics.
QUESTION 164
Project risk is defined as the cumulative effect of chances of ________ which will adversely affect project objectives.
A. Likely events
B. Complex activities
C. Complex schedules
D. Uncertain occurrences
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Uncertain occurrences can affect project objective.
QUESTION 165
Which of the following is not a tool or technique for a Source Selection?
A. Contract negotiation
B. Weighting system
C. Payment system
D. Screening system
300-070 vce Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Payment system is not a tool or technique for Source Selection. Other options are .
QUESTION 166
Which of the following is ensuring that all features and functions are included in a product or service
A. Project scope
B. Project verification
C. Project control
D. Product scope
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Project verification ensuring all features and functions are included in a product or service
QUESTION 167
A major assumption of all network scheduling methods is that the activity duration must be _____.
A. Statistically dependent
B. Variance distributed
C. Statistically independent
D. Deterministic
300-070 exam Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Statistically independent
QUESTION 168
Which of the following is not a part of the project cost baseline but is included in the project budget?
A. Management Contingency Reserve
B. Management Overheads
C. Project Management Planing
D. Activity Cost Contingency Reserve
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The difference between the Cost Baseline and Funding requirement at Project completion is Management Contingency Reserve. Management Contingency Reserve is not part of project cost baseline.
QUESTION 169
In an optimal organization structure, the project manager is:
A. Functional
B. Weak matrix
C. Piojectized
D. Dedicated project team
300-070 dumps Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Dedicated project team
QUESTION 170
Which of the following is not a part of the Earned Value calculations?
A. Unknown Unknowns
B. Project Budget
C. Known Unknowns
D. Amount of work completed
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Unknown Unknowns is not part of the Earned Value calculations.
QUESTION 171
What is the purpose of the WBS?
A. To show which work elements have been assigned to organizational units.
B. To ensure that all work within a project is identified and defined within a common framework.
C. To show the organizational structure of a program.
D. all of the above
300-070 pdf Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 172
A Project Scope Management includes :
A. Initiation
B. Project Plan Execution
C. Overall Change Control
D. Report Performance
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Project scope management includes: Initiation, Collect Requirements, Define Scope, Verify Scope and
Control Scope
QUESTION 173
At which stage, stakeholders have the maximum influence on a project?
A. Initial stage
B. Closing stage
C. Execution stage
D. None of the above
300-070 vce Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
It is easy to make changes to project goals and approach at the initial stage. Stake holders have maximum influence at Initial stage.
QUESTION 174
An activity that consumes no time or resource and shows only that a dependency exists between two
activities is called:
A. A milestone
B. A hammock
C. A dummy activity
D. a and c
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 175
A change requests can occur due to:
A. An external event such as a change in government regulation.
B. An error or omission in defining the scope of the product.
C. An error or omission in defining the scope of the project.
D. all of the above
300-070 exam Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 176
Another term for top down estimating is:.
A. Analogous estimating
B. Life-cycle costing
C. Parametric modeling
D. Bottom up estimating
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 177
A Reserve Analysis is a technique for:
A. Estimate Activity Durations
B. Estimate Activity Resources
C. Sequence Activities
D. Define Activities
300-070 dumps Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 178
The scope management provides:
A. A basis for future decisions about the project.
B. A baseline to accomplish verification measures.
C. A baseline to evaluate potential scope changes.
D. All of the above.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 179
A project plan is:
A. A formal, approved document used to guide both project execution and project control.
B. A document issued by senior management that provides the project manager with the authority to apply organizational resources to project activities.
C. A narrative description of products or services to be supplie
D. A document describing the organizational breakdown structure of the company.
300-070 pdf Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 180
Which of the following relationship is used in the Arrow Diagramming Method [ADM] :
A. Start-to-Finish
B. Finish-to-Start
C. Start-to-Start
D. Finish-to-Finish
300-070 vce Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 181
When should a project manager be assigned to a project?
A. As early in the project as feasible.
B. Preferably before much project planning has been done.
C. At least prior to the start of project plan execution.
D. All of the above.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 182
Which of the following tools and techniques are commonly used in a Define Scope Process?
A. Product analysis
B. Expert Judgment
C. Alternative Identification
D. All of the above
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 183
Your project has a budget of $240,000 and is expect to last for 1 year, with the work and budget spread evenly across all months. The project is now in the fourth month, the work is on schedule, but you have spent $120,000 of the project budget. What is your COST Variance percentage in this case?
A. -50%
B. 50%
C. 40%
D. 20%
300-070 exam Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 184
Which of the following is a common characteristic of most project life cycle descriptions?
A. Cost and staffing are low at the start, higher towards the end. and drop rapidly as the project nears completion.
B. The probability of successfully completing the project is highest at the start of the project.
C. Stakeholders have the most influence on the final characteristics of the product at the end of the project.
D. a and b
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 185
A Project Manager is at the project kick-off meeting. He confidently states the vision and mission for the project. This PM is exhibiting the following leadership style:
A. Hierarchal
B. Authoritarian
C. Charismatic
D. Associative
300-070 dumps Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 186
Which of the following must be measured regularly to identify variances from the plan.
A. Stakeholder requirements
B. Project performance
C. Control Schedule
D. Project controls
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 187
Identification of Mandatory Dependencies is done during which of the following process:
A. Sequence Activities
B. Develop Schedule
C. Define Activities
D. Estimate Activity Durations
300-070 pdf Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 188
Which is the most important element of a Project Management Plan that is useful in the Develop Human
Resource Plan process:
A. Risk Management activities
B. Activity Resource requirements
C. Budget Control activities
D. Quality Assurance activities
300-070 vce Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 189
In which type of organization, a project manager is in complete control of the project?
A. Projectized organization
B. Balanced Matrix organization
C. Strong Matrix
D. Weak Matrix organization
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

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Question No : 46 Which Cisco TelePresence Multipoint Control Unit Layout view mode gives prominence to one conference participant over the other conference participants while still allowing conference participants to view multiple participants at the same time?
A. enhanced continuous presence
B. active speaker
C. continuous presence
D. room switching
E. speaker switching
210-065 exam Answer: A
Question No : 47 Which two additional items can be configured for an endpoint to register with the Cisco TelePresence Video Communication Server for H.323 to function correctly? (Choose two.)
A. unique system ID
B. unique H.323 ID
C. unique DNS entry ID
D. unique E.164 alias
E. unique real-time transport protocol port numbers
F. unique NTP server IPv4 address
Answer: B,D
 Question No : 48  Which bridge solution requires Cisco TelePresence Conductor?
A. Cisco TelePresence Server operating in remotely managed mode
B. Cisco TelePresence Server operating in locally managed mode
C. Cisco TelePresence MCU operating in remotely managed mode
D. Cisco TelePresence MCU operating in locally managed mode
210-065 dumps Answer: A
 QUESTION 49
What type of risk results when an IS auditor uses an inadequate test procedure and concludes that material errors do not exist when errors actually exist?
A. Business risk
B. Detection risk
C. Residual risk
D. Inherent risk
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Detection risk results when an IS auditor uses an inadequate test procedure and concludes that material errors do not exist when errors actually exist.
QUESTION 50
A primary benefit derived from an organization employing control self-assessment (CSA) techniques is that it can:
A. Identify high-risk areas that might need a detailed review later
B. Reduce audit costs
C. Reduce audit time
D. Increase audit accuracy
210-065 pdf Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
A primary benefit derived from an organization employing control self-assessment (CSA) techniques is that it can identify high-risk areas that might need a detailed review later.
QUESTION 51
What type of approach to the development of organizational policies is often driven by risk assessment?
A. Bottom-up
B. Top-down
C. Comprehensive
D. Integrated
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
A bottom-up approach to the development of organizational policies is often driven by risk assessment.
QUESTION 52
Who is accountable for maintaining appropriate security measures over information assets?
A. Data and systems owners
B. Data and systems users
C. Data and systems custodians
D. Data and systems auditors
210-065 vce Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Data and systems owners are accountable for maintaining appropriate security measures over information assets.
QUESTION 53
Proper segregation of duties prohibits a system analyst from performing quality assurance functions. True or false?
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Proper segregation of duties prohibits a system analyst from performing quality assurance functions.
QUESTION 54
What should an IS auditor do if he or she observes that project-approval procedures do not exist?
A. Advise senior management to invest in project-management training for the staff
B. Create project-approval procedures for future project implementations
C. Assign project leaders
D. Recommend to management that formal approval procedures be adopted and documented
210-065 exam Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
If an IS auditor observes that project-approval procedures do not exist, the IS auditor should recommend to management that formal approval procedures be adopted and documented.
QUESTION 55
Who is ultimately accountable for the development of an IS security policy?
A. The board of directors
B. Middle management
C. Security administrators
D. Network administrators
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
The board of directors is ultimately accountable for the development of an IS security policy.
QUESTION 56
Proper segregation of duties normally does not prohibit a LAN administrator from also having programming responsibilities. True or false?
A. True
B. False
210-065 dumps Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Proper segregation of duties normally prohibits a LAN administrator from also having programming responsibilities.
QUESTION 57
A core tenant of an IS strategy is that it must:
A. Be inexpensive
B. Be protected as sensitive confidential information
C. Protect information confidentiality, integrity, and availability
D. Support the business objectives of the organization
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Above all else, an IS strategy must support the business objectives of the organization.
QUESTION 58
Batch control reconciliation is a _____________________ (fill in the blank) control for mitigating risk of inadequate segregation of duties.
A. Detective
B. Corrective
C. Preventative
D. Compensatory
210-065 pdf Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Batch control reconciliations is a compensatory control for mitigating risk of inadequate segregation of duties.
QUESTION 59
Key verification is one of the best controls for ensuring that:
A. Data is entered correctly
B. Only authorized cryptographic keys are used
C. Input is authorized
D. Database indexing is performed properly
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Key verification is one of the best controls for ensuring that data is entered correctly.
QUESTION 60
If senior management is not committed to strategic planning, how likely is it that a company’s implementation of IT will be successful?
A. IT cannot be implemented if senior management is not committed to strategic planning.
B. More likely.
C. Less likely.
D. Strategic planning does not affect the success of a company’s implementation of IT
210-065 vce Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
A company’s implementation of IT will be less likely to succeed if senior management is not committed to strategic planning.
QUESTION 61
Which of the following could lead to an unintentional loss of confidentiality? Choose the BEST answer.
A. Lack of employee awareness of a company’s information security policy
B. Failure to comply with a company’s information security policy
C. A momentary lapse of reason
D. Lack of security policy enforcement procedures
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Lack of employee awareness of a company’s information security policy could
lead to an unintentional loss of confidentiality.

 

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