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Pass4itsure Latest and Most Accurate Microsoft 070-464 Dumps Exam Q&As(1-12)

QUESTION 1
You use SQL Azure to store data used by an e-commerce application. You develop a stored procedure named sp1. Sp1 is used to read and change the price of all the products sold on the e-commerce site. You need to ensure that other transactions are blocked from updating product data while sp1 is executing. Which transaction isolation level should you use in sp1?
A. Repeatable read
B. Read committed
C. Serializable
D. Snapshot
070-464 exam Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 2
You review a query that runs slowly. The query accesses data in a table named Schema1.Table1.
The following is the relevant portion of the execution plan for the query:
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You need to create the missing index. Which code segment should you execute?
A. CREATE NONCLUSTERED INDEX IX1 on Schema1.Table1 (Column1) INCLUDE (Column4) WHERE Column2 <> Column3
B. CREATE NONCLUSTERED INDEX IX1 on Schema1.Table1 (Column1)
C. CREATE NONCLUSTERED INDEX IX1 on Schema1.Table1 (Column1, Column2, Column3) INCLUDE (Column4)
D. CREATE NONCLUSTERED INDEX IX1 on schema1.Table1 (Column1) INCLUDE (Column4)
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 3
You use SQL Server 2012 to maintain the data used by the applications at your company. You plan to create a table named Table1 by using the following statement. (Line numbers are included for reference only.)
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You need to ensure that Table1 contains a column named UserName. The UserName column will: Store string values in any language. Accept a maximum of 200 characters. Be case-insensitive and accent-insensitive. Which code segment should you add at line 03?
A. UserName nvarchar(200) COLLATE Latin1_General_CS_AS NOT NULL,
B. UserName varchar(200) COLLATE Latin1_General_CI_AI NOT NULL,
C. UserName varchar(200) COLLATE Latin 1_General_CS_AS NOT NULL,
D. UserName nvarchar(200) COLLATE Latin1_General_CI_AI NOT NULL,
070-464 dumps Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 4
You execute the following code:
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You need to select the task that has an IsFinished value of true from the Project that has an Id value of 1. Which code segment should you use?
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070-464 dumps
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 5
You are creating a table to support an application that will cache data outside of SQL Server. The application will detect whether cached values were changed before it updates the values. You need to create the table, and then verify that you can insert a row into the table. Which code segment should you use?
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A.
B.
C.
D.
070-464 pdf Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 6
Your company has a SQL Azure subscription. You implement a database named Database1. Database1 has two tables named Table1 and Table2. You create a stored procedure named sp1. Sp1 reads data from Table1 and inserts data into Table2. A user named User1 informs you that he is unable to run sp1. You verify that User1 has the SELECT permission on Table1 and Table2. You need to ensure that User1 can run sp1. The solution must minimize the number of permissions assigned to User1.
What should you do?
A. Change sp1 to run as the saUser.
B. Grant User1 the EXECUTE permission on sp1.
C. Add User1 to the db_datawriter role.
D. Grant User1 the INSERT permission on Table2.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 7
You execute the following code:
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You create a nonclustered index named IX_CustomerName on the CustomerName column. You execute the following query:

You need to reduce the amount of time it takes to execute the query. What should you do?
A. Partition the table and use the CustomerName column for the partition scheme.
B. Replace IX_CustomerName with a clustered index.
C. Replace LEFT(CustomerName ,1) = ‘a’ with CustomerName LIKE ‘a%’.
D. Replace LEFT(CustomerName ,1) = ‘a’ with SUBSTRING(CustomerName ,1,1) – ‘a’.
070-464 vce Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 8
You have a table named Rooms that contains three columns. You execute the following query:
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You discover the execution plan shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.)
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You need to recommend a solution to reduce the amount of time it takes to execute the query. What should you do? More than one answer choice may achieve the goal. Select the BEST answer.
A. Include the RoomName column and the Position column in the Room_IX index.
B. Create a nonclustered index for RoomName, Id, and Position.
C. Create a clustered index for Id.
D. Use the WITH (INDEX(Room_IX),NOLOCK) query hint.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 9
You have a database named database1. Database developers report that there are many deadlocks. You need to implement a solution to monitor the deadlocks. The solution must meet the following requirements:
Support real-time monitoring.
Be enabled and disabled easily.
Support querying of the monitored data.
What should you implement? More than one answer choice may achieve the goal. Select the BEST answer.
A. Log errors by using trace flag 1222
B. Log errors by using trace flag 1204
C. A SQL Server Profiler template
D. An Extended Events session
070-464 exam Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 10
You execute the following code:
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The execution plan for the query is shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.)
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You need to prevent the key lookup. What should you modify? More than one answer choice may achieve the goal. Select the BEST answer.
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Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 11
You have a database for a mission-critical web application. The database is stored on a SQL Server 2012 instance and is the only database on the instance. The application generates all T-SQL statements dynamically and does not use stored procedures. You need to maximize the amount of memory available for data caching. Which advanced server option should you modify?
A. Optimize for Ad hoc Workloads
B. Enable Contained Databases
C. Allow Triggers to Fire Others
D. Scan for Startup Procs
070-464 dumps Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 12
You have an application that uses a view to access data from multiple tables. You need to ensure that you can insert rows into the underlying tables by using the view. What should you do?
A. Create an INSTEAD OF trigger on the view.
B. Define the view by using the SCHEMABINDING option.
C. Define the view by using the CHECK option.
D. Materialize the view.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

Q: Why should companies train their IT professionals in this technology?
SQL Server is the most popular database platform for Windows-based environments. SQL Server 2014 adds powerful new features for all kinds of workloads and infrastructures, from in-memory technology to cloud integration, and it’s empowering database professionals to build faster, more flexible solutions.

Q: From a student-perspective, what did you keep in mind when creating this course?
I tried to give learners a different perspective for learning by providing a mix of concept and demonstration, also by providing our own simplified database and T-SQL examples to work with.

Q: Any outside-of-the-box tips to help students get the most out of your course?
Lab it up! Use our Virtual NuggetLab or your own environment to see how things work. A mix of concept, demonstration, and lab can go a long way toward reinforcing concepts and getting that crucial hands-on experience.

Q: What’s one real-world application someone can expect to use, thanks to this course?
You’ll improve your T-SQL skills and see first hand how to utilize the many programmable objects in SQL Server. You’ll also be ready to rock many of the new development features SQL Server 2014 offers.

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The 70-346 dumps Office 365 “Managing Office 365 Identities and Requirements” is a 211 questions and is associated with the Microsoft MCP, MCSA certification. Candidates can prepare for this exam by taking the course, “Managing Office 365 Identities and Requirements – Microsoft Office 365”. This exam tests a candidate’s understanding of cisco’s basic principles, foundational knowledge, and core skills needed to grasp the more advanced associate-level materials in the second required exam. The exam is closed book and no outside reference materials are allowed. Passing Microsoft Office 365 70-346 dumps help you driving your career growth as it is associated with the achievement of Managing Office 365 Identities and Requirements.

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This exam provides the knowledge and understanding for some of these important job functions:
1. Provision Office 365

  • Provision tenants
  • Add and configure custom domains
  • Plan a pilot

2. Plan and implement networking and security in Office 365

  • Configure DNS records for services
  • Enable client connectivity to Office 365
  • Administer rights management (RM)
  • Manage administrator roles in Office 365

3. Manage cloud identities

  • Configure password management
  • Manage user and security groups
  • Manage cloud identities with Windows PowerShell

4. Implement and manage identities by using DirSync

  • Prepare on-premises Active Directory for DirSync
  • Set up DirSync [WAAD sync tool]
  • Manage Active Directory users and groups with DirSync in place

5. Implement and manage federated identities (single sign-on [SSO])

  • Plan requirements for Active Directory Federation Services (AD FS)
  • Install and manage AD FS servers
  • Install and manage AD FS proxy servers

6. Monitor and troubleshoot Office 365 availability and usage

  • Analyze reports
  • Monitor service health
  • Isolate service interruption

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Pass4itsure Latest and Most Accurate Microsoft 70-346 Dumps Exam Q&As(1-14)

QUESTION 1
Contoso, Ltd. plans to use Office 365 for email services and Skype for Business Online. Contoso has four unique domain names. You need to migrate domain names to Office 365. Which two domain names should you exclude from the migration? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. contoso.us
B. contoso
C. contoso.local
D. contoso.co
70-346 exam Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 2
You administer the Office 365 environment for a company that has offices around the world. All of the offices use the same Office 365 tenant. You need to ensure that all users can access the services that are available in their regions. Which setting or service should you update?
A. User location settings
B. User licenses
C. Service usage address
D. Rights management
70-346 dumps Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
Your company has an Office 365 subscription. You create a new retention policy that contains several retention tags. A user named Test5 has a client computer that runs Microsoft Office Outlook 2007. You install Microsoft Outlook 2010 on the client computer of Test5. Test5 reports that the new retention tags are unavailable from Outlook 2010. You verify that other users can use the new retention tags. You need to ensure that the new retention tags are available to Test5 from Outlook 2010. What should you do?
A. Instruct Test5 to repair the Outlook profile.
B. Modify the retention policy tags.
C. Run the Set-Mailbox cmdlet.
D. Force directory synchronization.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
You deploy Skype for Business Online for a company that has offices in San Francisco and New York. The two offices both connect to the Internet. There is no private network link between the offices. Users in the New York office report that they cannot transfer files to the users in the San Francisco office by using Skype for Business Online. You need to ensure that users in both offices can transfer files by using Skype for Business Online. What should you do?
A. Configure the firewall to open Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) ports 50060-50079.
B. Configure the firewall to open Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) ports 50040-50059.
C. Create a private network connection to share files.
D. Upgrade all of the Skype for Business Online clients to use Skype for Business client application.
70-346 pdf Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
An organization plans to migrate to Office 365. You need to estimate the post-migration network traffic. Which tool should you use?
A. Microsoft Online Services Diagnostics and Logging (MOSDAL) Support Kit
B. Microsoft Network Monitor
C. Skype for Business Bandwidth Calculator
D. Microsoft Remote Connectivity Analyzer
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6
Your company has a subscription to Office 365 for midsize business and enterprises. The company uses Microsoft Skype for Business Online. You need to open ports on the network firewall to enable all of the features of Skype for Business Online. Which port or ports should you open? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
Choose all that apply.)
A. inbound TCP443
B. outbound TCP 5061
C. outbound UDP 3478
D. outbound TCP 443
E. outbound UDP 50000 to outbound UDP 59999
F. inbound TCP 8080
70-346 vce Correct Answer: ACDE

QUESTION 7
You have an Office 365 environment. Synchronization between the on-premises Active Directory and Office 365 is enabled.
You need to deactivate directory synchronization. Which Windows PowerShell cmdlet should you run?
A. Update-MsolFederatedDomain
B. Remove-MsolDomain
C. Remove-MsolFederatedDomain
D. Set-MsolDirSyncEnabled
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8
You plan to deploy an Office 365 tenant to multiple offices around the country. You need to modify the users and groups who are authorized to administer the Rights Management service. Which Windows PowerShell cmdlet should you run?
A. Add-MsolGroupMember
B. Get-Add rm Role Based Administrator
C. Remove-AadrmRoleBasedAdministrator
D. Enable AadrmSuperUserFeature
70-346 exam Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 9
A company migrates to Office 365. 2,000 active users have valid Office 365 licenses assigned. An additional 5,000 user accounts were created during the migration and testing processes. These users do not have any licenses assigned. You need to remove the Office 365 user accounts that do not have any licenses assigned by using the least amount of administrative effort. Which Windows PowerShell command should you run?
A. Get-MsolUser -All-EnabledFilter “DisabledOnly” | Remove-MsolUser -Force
B. Get-MsolUser-EnabledFilter “DisabledOnly” | Remove-MsolUser -Force
C. Get-MsolUser -All -UnlicensedUsersOnly | Remove-MsolUser -Force
D. Get-MsolUser -UnlicensedUsersOnly | Remove-MsolUser璅orce
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10
Your company subscribes to an Office 365 Plan E3. A user named User1 installs Office Professional Plus for Office 365 on a client computer. From the Microsoft Online Services portal, you assign User1 an Office Professional Plus license. One month after installing Office, User1 can no longer save and edit Office documents on the client computer. User1 can open and view Office documents. You need to ensure that User1 can save and edit documents on the client computer by using office. What should you do?
A. Install the Office Customization Tool.
B. Reinstall Office Professional Plus.
C. Install the Microsoft Online Services Sign-in Assistant.
D. Upgrade the subscription to Plan E4.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 11
An organization plans to migrate to Office 365. You use the Windows Azure Active Directory (AD) Sync tool. Several users will not migrate to Office 365. You must exclude these users from synchronization. All users must continue to authenticate against the on-premises Active Directory. You need to synchronize the remaining users. Which three actions should you perform? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. Populate an attribute for each user account.
B. Disable the user accounts in Active Directory.
C. Perform a full synchronization.
D. Configure the connection filter.
E. Run the Windows PowerShell command Set-MsolDirSyncEnabled -EnableDirSync $false.
70-346 dumps Correct Answer: ACD

QUESTION 12
Your company has a hybrid deployment of Office 365. All mailboxes are hosted on Office 365. All users access their Office 365 mailbox by using a user account that is hosted on- premises. You need to delete a user account and its associated mailbox. Which tool should you use?
A. The Remove-MSOLUser cmdlet
B. The Remove-Mailbox cmdlet
C. The Office 365 portal
D. Active Directory Users and Computers
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 13
An organization implements single sign-on (SSO) for use with Office 365 services. You install an Active Directory Federation Services (AD FS) proxy server. Users report that they are unable to authenticate. You launch the Event Viewer and view the event information shown in the following screen shot:
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You need to ensure that users can authenticate to Office 365. What should you do?
A. Re-enter the credentials used to establish the trust.
B. Verify the federation server proxy is trusted by the federation service.
C. Re-install the Secure Sockets Layer (SSL) certificate for the federation service.
D. Verify network connectivity between the Federation Service Proxy and federation server.
70-346 pdf Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 14
A company named Fabrikam, Inc. is deploying an Office 365 tenant. You install Active Directory Federation Services (AD FS) on a server that runs Windows Server 2012. The company’s environment is described in the following table:
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You must obtain a certificate from a certification authority and install it on the federation servers. You need to specify the subject name for the certificate. Which name should you specify?
A. fs.fabnkam.com
B. server1.fabrikam.com
C. fabrikam.com
D. server2.fabrikam.com
Correct Answer: A

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Q: Why should companies train their IT professionals in Microsoft Office 365? What value does it bring?

Office 365 offers so much more than just Office products in the cloud. It’s a full identity management solution with Exchange Server, Sharepoint, and Skype for Business integration. Office 365 represents a way to move your business off of bare metal servers in a closet in order to support a geographically dispersed and mobile workforce.

Q: From a learner perspective, what did you keep in mind when creating this course?

That Microsoft focuses its certifications on PowerShell and feature exploration but users want to know how to get the basics done. In this course, I focus on explaining how to get common tasks done in Office 365 while keeping in line with the certification objectives.

Q: Any out-of-the-box tips for learners on how to get the most out of your Microsoft Office 365: Identities and Requirements 70-346 course?

Don’t be afraid to try everything we cover in the course, up to and including the integration with on-premise Active Directory. There are myriad ways to test out the features and functions outside of your organization’s production environment and with minimal resources required.

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Pass4itusre Latest and Most Accurate Cisco 200-105 Dumps Exam Q&As(42-63)

QUESTION 42
Which commands are required to properly configure a router to run OSPF and to add network 192.168.16.0/24 to OSPF area 0? (Choose two.)
A. Router(config)# router ospf 0
B. Router(config)# router ospf 1
C. Router(config)# router ospf area 0
D. Router(config-router)# network 192.168.16.0 0.0.0.255 0
E. Router(config-router)# network 192.168.16.0 0.0.0.255 area 0
F. Router(config-router)# network 192.168.16.0 255.255.255.0 area 0
200-105 exam Correct Answer: BE
Explanation/Reference:
In the router ospf
Command, the ranges from 1 to 65535 so o is an invalid number – B is correct but A is not correct. To configure OSPF, we need a wildcard in the andquot;network” stat

QUESTION 43
Which statement is true, as relates to classful or classless routing?
A. Classful routing protocols send the subnet mask in routing updates.
B. RIPv1 and OSPF are classless routing protocols.
C. Automatic summarization at classful boundaries can cause problems on discontiguous subnets.
D. EIGRP and OSPF are classful routing protocols and summarize routes by default.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: RIPv1, RIPv2, IGRP, and EIGRP all auto-summarize classful boundaries by default (OSPF do

QUESTION 44
What does a router do if it has no EIGRP feasible successor route to a destination network and the successor route to that destination network is in active status?
A. It routes all traffic that is addressed to the destination network to the interface indicated in the routing table.
B. It sends a copy of its neighbor table to all adjacent routers.
C. It sends a multicast query packet to all adjacent neighbors requesting available routing paths to the destination network.
D. It broadcasts Hello packets to all routers in the network to re-establish neighbor adjacencies.
200-105 dumps Correct Answer: C
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 45
Which statement about named ACLs is true?
A. They support standard and extended ACLs.
B. They are used to filter usernames and passwords for Telnet and SSH.
C. They are used to filter Layer 7 traffic.
D. They support standard ACLs only.
E. They are used to rate limit traffic destined to targeted networks.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation/Reference:
Named Access Control Lists (ACLs) allows standard and extended ACLs to be given names instead of numbers. Unlike in numbered Access Control Lists (ACLs), we can edit Named Access Control Lists. Anoth

QUESTION 46
What does the frame-relay interface-dlci command configure?
A. local DLCI on the subinterface
B. remote DLCI on the main interface
C. remote DCLI on the subinterface
D. local DLCI on the main interface
200-105 pdf Correct Answer: A
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 47
Peter is your new Security Administrator. On his first working day, he is very nervous and enters the wrong password three times. His account is locked. What can be done to unlock Peter’s account? Give the BEST answer.
A. It is not possible to unlock Peter’s account. You have to install the firewall once again or abstain from Peter’s help.
B. You can unlock Peter’s account by using the command fwm unlock_admin -u Peter on the Security Gateway.
C. You can unlock Peter’s account by using the command fwm lock_admin -u Peter on the Security Management Server.
D. You can unlock Peter’s account by using the command fwm unlock_admin -u Peter on the Security Management Server
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 48
Where can you find the Check Point’s SNMP MIB file?
A. $CPDIR/lib/snmp/chkpt.mib
B. There is no specific MIB file for Check Point products.
C. $FWDIR/conf/snmp.mib
D. It is obtained only by request from the TAC.
200-105 vce Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 49
You want to generate a cpinfo file via CLI on a system running GAiA. This will take about 40 minutes since the log files are also needed. What action do you need to take regarding timeout?
A. Log in as Administrator, set the timeout to one hour with the command idle 60 and start cpinfo.
B. Log in as the default user expert and start cpinfo.
C. No action is needed because cpshell has a timeout of one hour by default.
D. Log in as admin, switch to expert mode, set the timeout to one hour with the command, idle 60, then start cpinfo.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 50
Many companies have defined more than one administrator. To increase security, only one administrator should be able to install a Rule Base on a specific Firewall. How do you configure this?
A. Define a permission profile in SmartDashboard with read/write privileges, but restrict it to all other firewalls by placing them in the Policy Targets field. Then, an administrator with this permission profile cannot install a policy on any Firewall not listed here.
B. Put the one administrator in an Administrator group and configure this group in the specific Firewall object in Advanced > Permission to Install.
C. Right-click on the object representing the specific administrator, and select that Firewall in Policy Targets.
D. In the object General Properties representing the specific Firewall, go to the Software Blades product list and select Firewall. Right-click in the menu, select Administrator to Install to define only this  administrator.
200-105 exam Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 51
What is the officially accepted diagnostic tool for IP Appliance Support?
A. ipsoinfo
B. cpinfo
C. uag-diag
D. CST
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 52
ALL of the following options are provided by the SecurePlatform sysconfig utility, EXCEPT:
A. Export setup
B. Time & Date
C. DHCP Server configuration
D. GUI Clients
200-105 dumps Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 53
Which of the following options is available with the GAiA cpconfig utility?
A. Time & Date
B. GUI Clients
C. DHCP Server configuration
D. Export setup
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 54
Which command would provide the most comprehensive diagnostic information to Check Point Technical Support?
A. cpstat – date.cpstat.txt
B. fw cpinfo
C. cpinfo -o date.cpinfo.txt
D. diag
200-105 pdf Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 55
Which of the following statements accurately describes the command snapshot?
A. snapshot creates a Security Management Server full system-level backup on any OS.
B. snapshot stores only the system-configuration settings on the Gateway.
C. A Gateway snapshot includes configuration settings and Check Point product information from the remote Security Management Server.
D. snapshot creates a full OS-level backup, including network-interface data, Check Point product information, and configuration settings during an upgrade of a SecurePlatform Security Gateway.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 56
How do you recover communications between your Security Management Server and Security Gateway if you lock yourself out through a rule or policy mis-configuration?
A. fw delete [email protected]
B. fw unload policy
C. fwm unloadlocal
D. fw unloadlocal
200-105 vce Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 57
How can you check whether IP forwarding is enabled on an IP Security Appliance?
A. clish -c show routing active enable
B. ipsofwd list
C. cat /proc/sys/net/ipv4/ip_forward
D. echo 1 > /proc/sys/net/ipv4/ip_forward
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 58
Which command allows you to view the contents of an R76 table?
A. fw tab -s <tablename>
B. fw tab -t <tablename>
C. fw tab -x <tablename>
D. fw tab -a <tablename>
200-105 exam Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 59
Which of the following tools is used to generate a Security Gateway R76 configuration report?
A. infoCP
B. cpinfo
C. infoview
D. fw cpinfo
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 60
Which of the following is a CLI command for Security Gateway R76?
A. fw merge
B. fw tab -u
C. fw shutdown
D. fwm policy_print <policyname>
200-105 dumps Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 61
You are the Security Administrator for MegaCorp. A Check Point firewall is installed and in use on a platform using GAiA. You have trouble configuring the speed and duplex settings of your Ethernet interfaces. Which of the following commands can be used in Expert Mode to configure the speed and duplex settings of an Ethernet interface and will survive a reboot? Give the BEST answer.
A. eth_set
B. mii_tool
C. ifconfig -a
D. ethtool
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 62
John has scanned the web server with NMAP. However, he could not gather enough information to help him identify the operating system running on the remote host accurately.
What would you suggest to John to help identify the OS that is being used on the remote web server?
A. Connect to the web server with a browser and look at the web page.
B. Connect to the web server with an FTP client.
C. Telnet to port 8080 on the web server and look at the default page code.
D. Telnet to an open port and grab the banner.
200-105 pdf Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Most people don’t care about changing the banners presented by applications listening to open ports and therefore you should get fairly accurate information when grabbing banners from open ports with, for example, a telnet application.

QUESTION 63
An Nmap scan shows the following open ports, and nmap also reports that the OS guessing results to match too many signatures hence it cannot reliably be identified:
21 ftp
23 telnet
80 http
443 https
What does this suggest ?
A. This is a Windows Domain Controller
B. The host is not firewalled
C. The host is not a Linux or Solaris system
D. The host is not properly patched
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
If the answer was A nmap would guess it, it holds the MS signature database, the host not being firewalled makes no difference. The host is not linux or solaris, well it very well could be. The host is not properly patched? That is the closest; nmaps OS detection architecture is based solely off the TCP ISN issued by the operating systems TCP/IP stack, if the stack is modified to show output from randomized ISN’s or if your using a program to change the ISN then OS detection will fail. If the TCP/IP IP ID’s are modified then os detection could also fail, because the machine would most likely come back as being down.
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Pass4itusre Latest and Most Accurate Cisco 100-105 Dumps Exam Q&As(25-51)

QUESTION 25
Which of the following describe the process identifier that is used to run OSPF on a router? (Choose two)
A. It is locally significant.
B. It is globally significant.
C. It is needed to identify a unique instance of an OSPF database.
D. It is an optional parameter required only if multiple OSPF processes are running on the router.
E. All routers in the same OSPF area must have the same process ID if they are to exchange routing information.
100-105 exam Correct Answer: AC
Explanation/Reference:
They are locally significant only, and have no bearing on the structure of any OSPF packet or LSA update. So you can have a separate proc

QUESTION 26
Which statements are true regarding ICMP packets? (Choose two.)
A. They acknowledge receipt of TCP segments.
B. They guarantee datagram delivery.
C. TRACERT uses ICMP packets.
D. They are encapsulated within IP datagrams.
E. They are encapsulated within UDP datagrams.
Correct Answer: CD
Explanation/Reference:
Ping may be used to find out whether the local machines are connected to the network or whether a remote site is reachable. This tool is a common network tool for determining the network connectivi

QUESTION 27
Refer to the exhibit.
100-105 dumps

Which two statements are true about the loopback address that is configured on RouterB? (Choose two.)
A. It ensures that data will be forwarded by RouterB.
B. It provides stability for the OSPF process on RouterB.
C. It specifies that the router ID for RouterB should be 10.0.0.1.
D. It decreases the metric for routes that are advertised from RouterB.
E. It indicates that RouterB should be elected the DR for the LAN.
100-105 dumps Correct Answer: BC
Explanation/Reference:
A loopback interface never comes down even if the link is broken so it provides stability for the OSPF process (for example we use that loopback interface as the router-id) – The router-ID is chose

QUESTION 28
Scenario:
You are a junior network engineer for a financial company, and the main office network is experiencing network issues. Troubleshoot the network issues. Router R1 connects the main office to the internet, and routers R2 and R3 are internal routers. NAT is enabled on router R1. The routing protocol that is enabled between routers R1, R2 and R3 is RIPv2. R1 sends the default route into RIPv2 for the internal routers to forward internet traffic to R1. You have console access on R1, R2 and R3 devices. Use only show commands to troubleshoot the issues.
100-105 dumps

100-105 dumps

100-105 dumps

100-105 dumps

100-105 dumps

100-105 dumps

100-105 dumps

100-105 dumps

Users complain that they are unable to reach internet sites. You are troubleshooting internet connectivity problem at main office. Which statement correctly identifies the problem on Router R1?
A. Interesting traffic for NAT ACL is incorrectly configured.
B. NAT configurations on the interfaces are incorrectly configured
C. NAT translation statement incorrectly configured.
D. Only static NAT translation configured for the server, missing Dynamic NAT or Dynamic NAT overloading for internal networks.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 29
Refer to the exhibit.
100-105 dumps

The MAC address table is shown in its entirety. The Ethernet frame that is shown arrives at the switch. What two operations will the switch perform when it receives this frame? (Choose two.)
A. The switch will not forward a frame with this destination MAC address.
B. The MAC address of 0000.00aa.aaaa will be added to the MAC Address Table.
C. The MAC address of ffff.ffff.ffff will be added to the MAC address table.
D. The frame will be forwarded out of all the active switch ports except for port fa0/0.
E. The frame will be forwarded out of fa0/0 and fa0/1 only.
F. The frame will be forwarded out of all the ports on the switch.
100-105 pdf Correct Answer: BD
Explanation/Reference:
If the switch already has the MAC address in its table for the destination, it will forward the frame directly to the destination port. If it was not already in its MAC table, then they frame would

QUESTION 30
Refer to the exhibit.
100-105 dumps

The network is converged.After link-state advertisements are received from Router_A, what information will Router_E contain in its routing table for the subnets 208.149.23.64 and 208.149.23.96?
A. 208.149.23.64[110/13] via 190.173.23.10, 00:00:07, FastEthemet0/0 208.149.23.96[110/13] via 190.173.23.10, 00:00:16, FastEthemet0/0
B. 208.149.23.64[110/1] via 190.172.23.10, 00:00:07, Serial1/0 208.149.23.96[110/3] via 190.173.23.10, 00:00:16, FastEthemet0/0
C. 208.149.23.64[110/13] via 190.173.23.10, 00:00:07, Serial1/0 208.149.23.96[110/13] via 190.173.23.10, 00:00:16, Serial1/0 208.149.23.96[110/13] via 190.173.23.10, 00:00:16, FastEthemet0/0
D. 208.149.23.64[110/3] via 190.172.23.10, 00:00:07, Serial1/0 208.149.23.96[110/3] via 190.173.23.10, 00:00:16, Serial1/0
Correct Answer: A
Explanation/Reference:
Router_E learns two subnets subnets 208.149.23.64 and 208.149.23.96 via Router_A through FastEthernet interface.
The interface cost is calculated with the formula 108 / Bandwidth. For FastEthernet i

QUESTION 31 Scope Control is used to
A.configure to which users a certain application is available.
B.configure to which users a certain PowerLaunch setting is applied.
C.define which nodes are available to a user with access to a certain Security Role.
D.define which PowerFuse objects are available to a user with access to a certain Security Role.
100-105 vce Correct:D

QUESTION 32. Workspace Management dynamically combines users with
A.their services.
B.their technology stack.
C.User Environment Management.
D.Application Delivery Solutions.
Correct:A

QUESTION 33. A PowerFuse Environment consists of laptops, workstations and Citrix servers. What must an administrator do to make sure that users can have no more than one session while still being able to access published applications on the Citrix servers?
A.Configure the Instant Passthrough settings on the Defaults tab of the Citrix Integration node.
B.Enable Access Balancing and limit the maximum allowed simultaneous logons to 1.
C.Enable SessionGuard and select “Always allow passthrough sessions”.
D.Enable Instant Logoff for duplicate sessions.
100-105 exam Correct:C

QUESTION 34.What happens when the RES PowerFuse Shell is being used and a user double-clicks the system tray clock?
A.The RES PowerFuse calendar is displayed.
B.The default Microsoft Outlook calendar is displayed.
C.The RES PowerFuse Task Scheduler is displayed.
D.The Windows Date and Time properties are displayed.
Correct:A

QUESTION 35.What is the BEST source for an overview of all applications running Security Management in Learning mode?
A.PowerTrace
B.Application List
C.Access Control List
D.Modification Log
Correct:B

QUESTION 36.When using an unattended installation, is it possible to add the RES PowerFuse Agent to a workspace automatically?
A.Yes, but the workspace must be available.
B.Yes, but the workspace must first be created with the corresponding public property.
C.No, this should be done manually in the RES PowerFuse Management Console.
D.No, this should be done manually or by using a Building Block.
100-105 dumps Correct:A

QUESTION 37.What is the minimum RES Wisdom Version required for RES Wisdom integration in RES PowerFuse?
A.8.01
B.7.03d
C.5.00f
D.4 SR2
Correct:D

QUESTION 38.To determine what Security Roles are assigned to an administrator, the administrative user should navigate to
A.File > Show My Security Role(s).
B.Help > Show My Security Role(s).
C.Pane > Show My Security Role(s).
D.Action > Show My Security Role(s).
100-105 pdf Correct:B

QUESTION 39.Which RES PowerFuse component provides the functionality that the end user needs? The RES PowerFuse
A.Agent.
B.Datastore.
C.Workspace Manager.
D.Management Console.
Correct:C

QUESTION 40.Which variable should be used to create exceptions to the default drive letter for the home directory?
A.%reshomedrive%
B.%homedrive%
C.\\server\share\%username%
D.%homepath%
Correct:A

QUESTION 41
When creating an analytic service, the discovery process requires a minimum of:
A. At least three days of data available.
B. At least three weeks of data available.
C. The application specialist available.
D. Some historical data and some starting point (a server, port, application).
E. A customer network diagram available.
100-105 vce Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 42
Link Congestion policies apply to a specific interface and can: (Select 3)
A. Warn if either inbound or outbound traffic increases abnormally
B. Warn if an application component of traffic increases abnormally
C. Warn if traffic to/from specific hosts exceeds a specific utilization level
D. Warn if the response time across a link increases abnormally
Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 43
If a VLAN SPAN (VLAN101) is configured and monitored by Cascade Shark, which of the following is true? (Select 2)
A. Inter VLAN101 traffic will be monitored; Intra VLAN101 traffic will not.
B. Intra VLAN101 traffic will be monitored; Inter VLAN101 traffic will not.
C. Both inter and intra VLAN101 traffic will be monitored.
D. It is a best practice to configure the Cascade Shark monitoring port (the SPAN destination) with ‘deduplication’ enabled.
E. It is a best practice to configure the Cascade Shark monitoring port (the SPAN destination) without ‘deduplication’ enabled.
100-105 exam Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 44
Quality of Service information is obtained from what Cascade sources?
A. Cascade Sensor only
B. Cannot get QoS data on Cascade
C. Cascade Sensor and Cascade Gateway
D. CascadeFlow traffic only
E. NetFlow and IPFIX traffic only
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 45
Cascade Profiler provides identity information collected from Active Directory 2008 by installing and correctly configuring the ‘Cascade Connector’ agent software on:
A. Every DNS server in the AD environment
B. Any server in the MS domain
C. Every client desktop in the AD environment
D. Every NTP server in the MS domain
E. The Microsoft Event Collector component in the AD environment
100-105 dumps Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 46
Which of the following statements is true regarding SNMP polling and NTP syncing among Cascade components?
A. Cascade Gateway’s poll via SNMP sources of Netflow, while Cascade Profiler, Cascade Gateway and Cascade Sensor sync NTP from a common source.
B. Cascade Profiler’s poll via SNMP sources of Netflow, while Cascade Profiler, Cascade Gateway and Cascade Sensor sync NTP from a common source.
C. Cascade Profiler, Cascade Gateway and Cascade Sensor sync NTP from different sources, while Cascade Profiler’s poll via SNMP sources of Netflow.
D. Cascade Profiler, Cascade Gateway and Cascade Sensor sync NTP from different sources, while Cascade Gateway’s poll via SNMP sources of Netflow.
E. Cascade Profiler does all SNMP polling and is also the source of all NTP.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 47
Within Cascade Pilot, to analyze the round-trip time in a trace file, you can:
A. Ask Riverbed Support to send you the proper View to use.
B. Open the View folders in Cascade Pilot to look for a View named “Round-trip time”.
C. Use the View search box and enter “round”.
D. Use the Help menu and search for round.
100-105 pdf Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 48
For DNS reverse lookup, Cascade Profiler caches as follows:
A. Cache the most recent 500 IPs.
B. Obey DNS TTLs.
C. Cascade does not cache DNS responses.
D. For 24 hours.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 49
What are two differences between NetFlow version 5 and NetFlow version 9 (select 2)
A. NetFlow version 5 generally support ingress flow export only; NetFlow version 9 supports both ingress and egress export.
B. NetFlow version 5 is used for Switches, NetFlow version 9 is used for Routers.
C. NetFlow version 9 includes information about CPU, Power-status and other router performance characteristics; NetFlow version 5 does not.
D. NetFlow version 9 includes the ability to export the Time-To-Live (TTL); NetFlow version 5 does not.
E. NetFlow version 9 includes the ability to export the packet latency, NetFlow version 5 does not.
100-105 vce Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 50
When changing the priority for a Layer 4 mapping on Cascade Profiler best practices indicate that Application Mappings should be given higher priorities based on:
A. Longest Match
B. Shortest Match
C. IP & Port
D. IP
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 51
What is the relationship between a Host Group and a Host Group Type in Cascade Profiler?
A. A Host Group Type is a container that may contain multiple Host Groups.
B. A Host Group Type defines the name of the Host Group.
C. They are the same thing.
D. Each Host Group must be defined by the Type of application it serves; this is the Host Group Type.
100-105 exam Correct Answer: A

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Question No : 151 Which three options can be used to configure digit manipulation for dial peers? (Choose three.)
A. digit translation rules
B. called party transformations
C. route partitions
D. forward digits
E. route patterns
F. digit stripping and prefixes
G. calling party transformations
300-070 exam Answer: A,D,F
Reference:
Question No : 152 When creating a route pattern, which two of these options should you avoid? (Choose two)
A. Lowercase characters, such as a, b, c
B. Wildcards.
C. Numbers.
D. Uppercase characters, such as A, B, C.
E. Spaces.
F. Special characters andescape sequences, such as @ and \+.
Answer: A,E
Question No : 153 Which of the following simplifies and enhances conference resource management?
A. Cisco Telepresence Server
B. Cisco Telepresence MCU
C. Cisco Telepresence MSE 8000
D. Cisco IOS routers with packet voice/data module (PVDM)
E. Cisco Telepresence Conductor
300-070 dumps Answer: E
 QUESTION 154
A Project Cost Management plan is created as a part of:
A. Develop Project Management Plan process
B. Control Costs process
C. Determine Budget process
D. Estimate Costs process
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
There is no separate process in the Project Cost Estimation knowledge area to develop a cost management plan. It is devloped in Develop Project Management Plan process.
QUESTION 155
__________ involves using project characteristics in a mathematical model
A. Analogous estimating
B. Life-cycle costing
C. Parametric modelling
D. Bottom up estimating
300-070 pdf Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Parametric modeling : Using project characteristics (or parameters) in a mathematical model to predict  costs (e.g., price per square foot).
QUESTION 156
Adjusting Leads and Lags is a technique for:
A. Develop Schedule
B. Estimate Activity Durations
C. Estimate Activity Resources
D. Sequence Activities
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Adjusting Leads and Lags: Since the improper use of leads or lags can distort the project schedule, the leads or lags are adjusted during schedule network analysis to develop a viable project schedule. Tools and Techniques for Develop Schedule are : Mathematical analysis,Duration compression,Simulation,Resource-leveling ,Project management software,Adjusting Leads and Lags and Coding structure.
QUESTION 157
Analogous Estimate Costs is _________.
A. Generally Accurate
B. Generally less accurate
C. Bottom-up estimating
D. None
300-070 vce Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Analogous Estimate Costs is Generally less accurate . Analogous Estimate Costs Uses Expert Judgment. It is used when reference projects are similar . It is useful in early phases of the project.
QUESTION 158
With triangular distribution, the low, likely and high values are 20, 30 and 40, respectively. The mean is
_____.
A. 30.0
B. 22.5
C. 25.0
D. 27.5
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
mean = (20+30+40)/3= 30
QUESTION 159
You have a piece of equipment that was purchased for your project recently for $5,000 and is expected to last 5 years in production. At the end of the five years, the expected worth of the equipment is $2,000. Using the straight-line deprecation, what is the amount that can be written off each year?
A. $600
B. $1200
C. $3000
D. $100
300-070 exam Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
A is the correct answer. The straight-line depreciation takes the purchase value of the item, minus the salvage price of the item, divided by the number of time periods. Calculation is (5000-2000)/5 = $600.
QUESTION 160
Which of the following is an output of a Verify Scope process?
A. Formal acceptance
B. WBStemplate
C. SOW acceptance
D. Rework
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Output of Verify Scope is formal acceptance.
QUESTION 161
What involves determining what quantities are to be used to perform project activities.
A. Resource planning
B. Estimate Costs
C. Determine Budget
D. Control Costs
300-070 dumps Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Resource planning :Planning, identifying, documenting, and assigning project roles, responsibilities, and reporting relationships to individuals or groups.
QUESTION 162
Which of the following is NOT an example of a type of schedule report?
A. Gantt chart
B. Milestone chart
C. fishbone diagram
D. network diagram
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 163
A Change Control Board should be _______?
A. flexible
B. Include the project manager
C. appropriate authority
D. al1 of the above
300-070 pdf Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
CCB should have all the mentioned characteristics.
QUESTION 164
Project risk is defined as the cumulative effect of chances of ________ which will adversely affect project objectives.
A. Likely events
B. Complex activities
C. Complex schedules
D. Uncertain occurrences
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Uncertain occurrences can affect project objective.
QUESTION 165
Which of the following is not a tool or technique for a Source Selection?
A. Contract negotiation
B. Weighting system
C. Payment system
D. Screening system
300-070 vce Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Payment system is not a tool or technique for Source Selection. Other options are .
QUESTION 166
Which of the following is ensuring that all features and functions are included in a product or service
A. Project scope
B. Project verification
C. Project control
D. Product scope
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Project verification ensuring all features and functions are included in a product or service
QUESTION 167
A major assumption of all network scheduling methods is that the activity duration must be _____.
A. Statistically dependent
B. Variance distributed
C. Statistically independent
D. Deterministic
300-070 exam Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Statistically independent
QUESTION 168
Which of the following is not a part of the project cost baseline but is included in the project budget?
A. Management Contingency Reserve
B. Management Overheads
C. Project Management Planing
D. Activity Cost Contingency Reserve
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The difference between the Cost Baseline and Funding requirement at Project completion is Management Contingency Reserve. Management Contingency Reserve is not part of project cost baseline.
QUESTION 169
In an optimal organization structure, the project manager is:
A. Functional
B. Weak matrix
C. Piojectized
D. Dedicated project team
300-070 dumps Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Dedicated project team
QUESTION 170
Which of the following is not a part of the Earned Value calculations?
A. Unknown Unknowns
B. Project Budget
C. Known Unknowns
D. Amount of work completed
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Unknown Unknowns is not part of the Earned Value calculations.
QUESTION 171
What is the purpose of the WBS?
A. To show which work elements have been assigned to organizational units.
B. To ensure that all work within a project is identified and defined within a common framework.
C. To show the organizational structure of a program.
D. all of the above
300-070 pdf Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 172
A Project Scope Management includes :
A. Initiation
B. Project Plan Execution
C. Overall Change Control
D. Report Performance
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Project scope management includes: Initiation, Collect Requirements, Define Scope, Verify Scope and
Control Scope
QUESTION 173
At which stage, stakeholders have the maximum influence on a project?
A. Initial stage
B. Closing stage
C. Execution stage
D. None of the above
300-070 vce Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
It is easy to make changes to project goals and approach at the initial stage. Stake holders have maximum influence at Initial stage.
QUESTION 174
An activity that consumes no time or resource and shows only that a dependency exists between two
activities is called:
A. A milestone
B. A hammock
C. A dummy activity
D. a and c
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 175
A change requests can occur due to:
A. An external event such as a change in government regulation.
B. An error or omission in defining the scope of the product.
C. An error or omission in defining the scope of the project.
D. all of the above
300-070 exam Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 176
Another term for top down estimating is:.
A. Analogous estimating
B. Life-cycle costing
C. Parametric modeling
D. Bottom up estimating
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 177
A Reserve Analysis is a technique for:
A. Estimate Activity Durations
B. Estimate Activity Resources
C. Sequence Activities
D. Define Activities
300-070 dumps Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 178
The scope management provides:
A. A basis for future decisions about the project.
B. A baseline to accomplish verification measures.
C. A baseline to evaluate potential scope changes.
D. All of the above.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 179
A project plan is:
A. A formal, approved document used to guide both project execution and project control.
B. A document issued by senior management that provides the project manager with the authority to apply organizational resources to project activities.
C. A narrative description of products or services to be supplie
D. A document describing the organizational breakdown structure of the company.
300-070 pdf Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 180
Which of the following relationship is used in the Arrow Diagramming Method [ADM] :
A. Start-to-Finish
B. Finish-to-Start
C. Start-to-Start
D. Finish-to-Finish
300-070 vce Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 181
When should a project manager be assigned to a project?
A. As early in the project as feasible.
B. Preferably before much project planning has been done.
C. At least prior to the start of project plan execution.
D. All of the above.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 182
Which of the following tools and techniques are commonly used in a Define Scope Process?
A. Product analysis
B. Expert Judgment
C. Alternative Identification
D. All of the above
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 183
Your project has a budget of $240,000 and is expect to last for 1 year, with the work and budget spread evenly across all months. The project is now in the fourth month, the work is on schedule, but you have spent $120,000 of the project budget. What is your COST Variance percentage in this case?
A. -50%
B. 50%
C. 40%
D. 20%
300-070 exam Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 184
Which of the following is a common characteristic of most project life cycle descriptions?
A. Cost and staffing are low at the start, higher towards the end. and drop rapidly as the project nears completion.
B. The probability of successfully completing the project is highest at the start of the project.
C. Stakeholders have the most influence on the final characteristics of the product at the end of the project.
D. a and b
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 185
A Project Manager is at the project kick-off meeting. He confidently states the vision and mission for the project. This PM is exhibiting the following leadership style:
A. Hierarchal
B. Authoritarian
C. Charismatic
D. Associative
300-070 dumps Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 186
Which of the following must be measured regularly to identify variances from the plan.
A. Stakeholder requirements
B. Project performance
C. Control Schedule
D. Project controls
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 187
Identification of Mandatory Dependencies is done during which of the following process:
A. Sequence Activities
B. Develop Schedule
C. Define Activities
D. Estimate Activity Durations
300-070 pdf Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 188
Which is the most important element of a Project Management Plan that is useful in the Develop Human
Resource Plan process:
A. Risk Management activities
B. Activity Resource requirements
C. Budget Control activities
D. Quality Assurance activities
300-070 vce Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 189
In which type of organization, a project manager is in complete control of the project?
A. Projectized organization
B. Balanced Matrix organization
C. Strong Matrix
D. Weak Matrix organization
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

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Question No : 46 Which Cisco TelePresence Multipoint Control Unit Layout view mode gives prominence to one conference participant over the other conference participants while still allowing conference participants to view multiple participants at the same time?
A. enhanced continuous presence
B. active speaker
C. continuous presence
D. room switching
E. speaker switching
210-065 exam Answer: A
Question No : 47 Which two additional items can be configured for an endpoint to register with the Cisco TelePresence Video Communication Server for H.323 to function correctly? (Choose two.)
A. unique system ID
B. unique H.323 ID
C. unique DNS entry ID
D. unique E.164 alias
E. unique real-time transport protocol port numbers
F. unique NTP server IPv4 address
Answer: B,D
 Question No : 48  Which bridge solution requires Cisco TelePresence Conductor?
A. Cisco TelePresence Server operating in remotely managed mode
B. Cisco TelePresence Server operating in locally managed mode
C. Cisco TelePresence MCU operating in remotely managed mode
D. Cisco TelePresence MCU operating in locally managed mode
210-065 dumps Answer: A
 QUESTION 49
What type of risk results when an IS auditor uses an inadequate test procedure and concludes that material errors do not exist when errors actually exist?
A. Business risk
B. Detection risk
C. Residual risk
D. Inherent risk
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Detection risk results when an IS auditor uses an inadequate test procedure and concludes that material errors do not exist when errors actually exist.
QUESTION 50
A primary benefit derived from an organization employing control self-assessment (CSA) techniques is that it can:
A. Identify high-risk areas that might need a detailed review later
B. Reduce audit costs
C. Reduce audit time
D. Increase audit accuracy
210-065 pdf Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
A primary benefit derived from an organization employing control self-assessment (CSA) techniques is that it can identify high-risk areas that might need a detailed review later.
QUESTION 51
What type of approach to the development of organizational policies is often driven by risk assessment?
A. Bottom-up
B. Top-down
C. Comprehensive
D. Integrated
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
A bottom-up approach to the development of organizational policies is often driven by risk assessment.
QUESTION 52
Who is accountable for maintaining appropriate security measures over information assets?
A. Data and systems owners
B. Data and systems users
C. Data and systems custodians
D. Data and systems auditors
210-065 vce Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Data and systems owners are accountable for maintaining appropriate security measures over information assets.
QUESTION 53
Proper segregation of duties prohibits a system analyst from performing quality assurance functions. True or false?
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Proper segregation of duties prohibits a system analyst from performing quality assurance functions.
QUESTION 54
What should an IS auditor do if he or she observes that project-approval procedures do not exist?
A. Advise senior management to invest in project-management training for the staff
B. Create project-approval procedures for future project implementations
C. Assign project leaders
D. Recommend to management that formal approval procedures be adopted and documented
210-065 exam Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
If an IS auditor observes that project-approval procedures do not exist, the IS auditor should recommend to management that formal approval procedures be adopted and documented.
QUESTION 55
Who is ultimately accountable for the development of an IS security policy?
A. The board of directors
B. Middle management
C. Security administrators
D. Network administrators
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
The board of directors is ultimately accountable for the development of an IS security policy.
QUESTION 56
Proper segregation of duties normally does not prohibit a LAN administrator from also having programming responsibilities. True or false?
A. True
B. False
210-065 dumps Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Proper segregation of duties normally prohibits a LAN administrator from also having programming responsibilities.
QUESTION 57
A core tenant of an IS strategy is that it must:
A. Be inexpensive
B. Be protected as sensitive confidential information
C. Protect information confidentiality, integrity, and availability
D. Support the business objectives of the organization
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Above all else, an IS strategy must support the business objectives of the organization.
QUESTION 58
Batch control reconciliation is a _____________________ (fill in the blank) control for mitigating risk of inadequate segregation of duties.
A. Detective
B. Corrective
C. Preventative
D. Compensatory
210-065 pdf Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Batch control reconciliations is a compensatory control for mitigating risk of inadequate segregation of duties.
QUESTION 59
Key verification is one of the best controls for ensuring that:
A. Data is entered correctly
B. Only authorized cryptographic keys are used
C. Input is authorized
D. Database indexing is performed properly
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Key verification is one of the best controls for ensuring that data is entered correctly.
QUESTION 60
If senior management is not committed to strategic planning, how likely is it that a company’s implementation of IT will be successful?
A. IT cannot be implemented if senior management is not committed to strategic planning.
B. More likely.
C. Less likely.
D. Strategic planning does not affect the success of a company’s implementation of IT
210-065 vce Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
A company’s implementation of IT will be less likely to succeed if senior management is not committed to strategic planning.
QUESTION 61
Which of the following could lead to an unintentional loss of confidentiality? Choose the BEST answer.
A. Lack of employee awareness of a company’s information security policy
B. Failure to comply with a company’s information security policy
C. A momentary lapse of reason
D. Lack of security policy enforcement procedures
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Lack of employee awareness of a company’s information security policy could
lead to an unintentional loss of confidentiality.

 

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QUESTION 24
You have a SharePoint Server 2013 server farm that contains a web application named WebApp1. WebApp1 contains 10 site collections. All of the users who use the farm belong to the same Active Directory domain. You plan to assign the Deny All permission policy for WebApp1 to the Domain Users group. For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise select No.
Hot Area:
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QUESTION 25
You have a SharePoint Server 2013 server farm. The farm has four front-end Web servers. You have a master page named Contoso.master. The master page contains an image file that is 50 KB. You need to recommend a solution to cache content.
The solution must meet the following requirements: The image must be stored physically on each front-end Web server.
Authentication information must be cached and replicated on all of the font-end Web servers. The pages generated by using Contoso.master and all of the page layouts must be stored in the memory of each front-end Web server. Which caching mechanism should you recommend for each requirement? (To answer, drag the appropriate caching mechanisms to the correct requirements. Each caching mechanism may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.) Select and Place:
70-331 dumps
70-331 exam Correct Answer:
70-331 dumps
QUESTION 26
A company has two SharePoint 2007 site collections that each store 200,000 unique documents. The average size of each document is 250 KB. There are two non-current versions for each document. There are approximately 600,000 list items in addition to the documents. The company plans to upgrade the farm to SharePoint 2013. The new farm will use two SQL Server instances that are configured as an AlwaysOn availability group. You use the following formula to estimate the size of the content database: Database Size = ((D x V) x S) + (10 KB x (L + (V x D))) You need to configure the storage for the content databases. What is the minimum amount of storage space that you must allocate?
A. 101GB
B. 110 GB
C. 220 GB
D. 405 GB
E. 440 GB
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 27.
The stored members in the Dense dimension Scenario are Actual and Budget. Database A has Actual and Budget data loaded for all products in all markets. Database B has only the Budget data loaded for all products in all markets. Which statement about database B is true?
A. The index is half as large as database A.
B. It has half the number of blocks that exist in database A. C.
Block density is reduced by fifty percent from database A.
D. Fifty percent fewer blocks fit in the Data Cache as in database A.
70-331 dumps Answer: C
QUESTION 28.
In an aggregate storage database, which two statements are true about database aggregations? (Choose two.)
A. Creating aggregate views is optional.
B. You can specify which upper level views to materialize. C.
Aggregation scripts can be saved and run at a later time.
D. Incrementally loading data requires a new database aggregation to be run.
Answer: AC
QUESTION 29.
Which statement is true about conversion of a block storage database to an aggregate storage database?
A. A conversion log is created in the Arborpath directory.
B. The conversion wizard converts, outlines, load rules and security filters.
C. An outline can be converted from both the file system and an active database.
D. Block storage member formula syntax is commented out and converted to MDX.
70-331 pdf Answer: C
QUESTION 30.
When should you select Shared Member functionality, as opposed to Attribute dimension functionality?(Choose two.)
A. when providing crosstab reports
B. when applying a member formula
C. when providing an alternate hierarchy for reporting
D. when creating alternate hierarchies in a Dense dimension
Answer: CD
QUESTION31.
When should you select User-Defined Attribute (UDA) functionality, as opposed to Attribute dimension functionality? (Choose two.)
A. when providing crosstab reports
B. when providing filtering on Dense dimensions
C. when utilizing Attribute Calculations dimensions
D. when applying attributes to multiple dimensions
70-331 vce Answer: BD
QUESTION 32.
What does the Data Cache contain?
A. compressed data blocks
B. uncompressed data blocks
C. the addresses of data blocks on the disk
D. a record of recently accessed data blocks
Answer: B
QUESTION 33.
The Essbase.cfg setting DATAFILECACHESIZE can be used to .
A. alter Data File Cache size for existing databases
B. optimize calculation performance on large, flat dimensions
C. define the initial Data File Cache size for all newly created databases
D. manage Data File Cache sizes for specific applications and databases
70-331 exam Answer: C
QUESTION 34.
Which three statements about Substitution Variables are true? (Choose three.)
A. They are stored in the database page file.
B. They can be set as global server settings.
C. They are available for queries in a spreadsheet.
D. They can be set specifically for each application or database.
Answer: BCD
QUESTION 35.
When selecting the most optimal dimension in an aggregate storage database to tag as Accounts, you
should choose a .
A. sparsely populated dimension with formulas
B. densely populated dimension with deep hierarchies
C. sparsely populated dimension with deep hierarchies D. flat dimension (a dimension that does not have many levels)
70-331 dumps Answer: D
QUESTION 36.
When working with an aggregate storage database, what is the default dimension calculation order?
A. Accounts, Time, Dense, Sparse, Two-Pass
B. Stored hierarchies (variable order), Dynamic hierarchies
C. Dynamic hierarchies, Stored hierarchies (variable order)
D. Sparse, Accounts (if dense), Time(if dense), other Dense
Answer: B

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QUESTION 25
What is the function of NSF?
A. forward traffic simultaneously using both supervisors
B. forward traffic based on Cisco Express Forwarding
C. provide automatic failover to back up supervisor in VSS mode
D. provide nonstop forwarding in the event of failure of one of the member supervisors
300-115 exam Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
VSS is network system virtualization technology that pools multiple Cisco Catalyst 6500 Series Switches into one virtual switch, increasing operational efficiency, boosting nonstop communications, and scaling system bandwidth capacity to 1.4 Tbps. Switches would operate as a single logical virtual switch called a virtual switching system 1440 (VSS1440). VSS formed by two Cisco Catalyst 6500 Series Switches with the Virtual Switching Supervisor 720-10GE. In a VSS, the data plane and switch fabric with capacity of 720 Gbps of supervisor engine in each chassis are active at the same time on both chassis, combining for an active 1400- Gbps switching capacity per VSS. Only one of the virtual switch members has the active control plane. Both chassis are kept in sync with the inter-chassis Stateful Switchover (SSO) mechanism along with Nonstop Forwarding (NSF) to provide nonstop communication even in the event of failure of one of the member supervisor engines or chassis.
QUESTION 26
After UDLD is implemented, a Network Administrator noticed that one port stops receiving UDLD packets. This port continues to reestablish until after eight failed retries. The port then transitions into the errdisable state. Which option describes what causes the port to go into the errdisable state?
A. Normal UDLD operations that prevent traffic loops.
B. UDLD port is configured in aggressive mode.
C. UDLD is enabled globally.
D. UDLD timers are inconsistent.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
With UDLD aggressive mode enabled, when a port on a bidirectional link that has a UDLD neighbor relationship established stops receiving UDLD packets, UDLD tries to reestablish the connection with the neighbor. After eight failed retries, the port is disabled.
QUESTION 27
After reviewing UDLD status on switch ports, an engineer notices that the.” Which statement describes what this indicates about the status of the port?
A. The port is fully operational and no known issues are detected.
B. The bidirectional status of “unknown” indicates that the port will go into the disabled state because it stopped receiving UDLD packets from its neighbor.
C. UDLD moved into aggressive mode after inconsistent acknowledgements were detected.
D. The UDLD port is placed in the “unknown” state for 5 seconds until the next UDLD packet is received on the interface.
300-115 dumps Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
By default, UDLD is disabled on all interfaces. We can enable UDLD globally on the device, or individually on specific interfaces with the command udld port. This enables UDLD in normal mode. It would be prohibitively difficult to coordinate the configuration of UDLD on both ends of a link at the same time, so when UDLD is first enabled and does not detect a neighbor the link state is considered unknown, which is not necessarily an error condition. The port will remain operational during this time. When UDLD is finally enabled on the other end, the status will transition to bidirectional.
QUESTION 28
Pilot testing of the new switching infrastructure finds that when the root port is lost, STP immediately replaces the root port with an alternative root port. Which spanning-tree technology is used to accomplish backup root port selection?
A. PVST+
B. PortFast
C. BackboneFast
D. UplinkFast
E. Loop Guard
F. UDLD
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
I f a switch loses connectivity, it begins using the alternate paths as soon as the spanning tree selects a new root port. By enabling UplinkFast with the spanning tree uplinkfast global configuration command, you can accelerate the choice of a new root port when a link or switch fails or when the spanning tree reconfigures itself. The root port transitions to the forwarding state immediately without going through the listening and learning states, as it would with the normal spanning-tree
procedures. UplinkFast provides fast convergence after a direct link failure and achieves load balancing between redundant Layer 2 links using uplink groups. An uplink group is a set of Layer 2 interfaces (per VLAN), only one of which is forwarding at any given time. Specifically, an uplink group consists of the root port (which is forwarding) and a set of blocked ports, except for self-looping ports. The uplink group provides an alternate path in case the currently forwarding link fails.
QUESTION 29
A network engineer must adjust the STP interface attributes to influence root port selection. Which two elements are used to accomplish this? (Choose two.)
A. port-priority
B. cost
C. forward-timers
D. link type
E. root guard
300-115 pdf Correct Answer: AB
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Spanning tree forces redundant data paths into a standby (blocked) state. If a network segment in the spanning tree fails and a redundant path exists, the spanning-tree algorithm recalculates the spanning-tree topology and activates the standby path. Switches send and receive spanning-tree frames, called bridge protocol data units (BPDUs), at regular intervals. The switches do not forward these frames but use them to construct a loop-free path. BPDUs contain information about the sending switch and its ports, including switch and MAC addresses, switch priority, port priority, and path cost. Spanning tree uses this information to elect the root switch and root port for the switched network and the root port and designated port for each switched segment. When two ports on a switch are part of a loop, the spanning-tree port priority and path cost settings control which port is put in the forwarding state and which is put in the blocking state. The spanning tree port priority value represents the location of a port in the network topology and how well it is located to pass traffic. The path cost value represents the media speed.
Reference:

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Q&As: 310

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QUESTION: 56
Which two methods can you use to create a new cross-tab in your report? (Choose two.)
A. Select the Cross-Tab Expert from the Format menu.
B. Select the Cross-Tab option from the Insert toolbar.
C. Select the Cross-Tab option from the Insert menu.
D. Select the Cross-Tab option from the Formatting toolbar.
210-260 exam Answer: B, C
QUESTION: 57
Which data source does Crystal Reports 2008 automatically install?
A. HTML
B. JDBC
C. Salesforce.com
D. crystalreports.com
Answer: C
QUESTION: 58
A motorcycle manufacturer contracts you to produce a complex inventory report. The Production Manager informs you that the seventh character in each motorcycle’s 12- character serial number (SN) represents the type of engine used. The report must be sorted by engine type. Which formula will meet the requirement?
A. {Stock.SN} (7)
B. {Stock.SN} [7]
C. Mid [{Stock.SN}, 7]
D. Mid ({Stock.SN}, 7)
210-260 dumps Answer: B
QUESTION: 59
Which two statements are true regarding barcodes? (Choose two.)
A. BLOB fields can be converted to barcode format.
B. UPC Barcode support is standard in Crystal Reports 2008.
C. Converting a field to a barcode was not available prior to Crystal Reports 2008.
D. If “####” displays when a field is converted to a barcode, the display field must be
widened.
Answer: B, D
QUESTION: 60
Which two top-level data source folders can you choose if you want to create a new report using the Standard Report Creation Wizard? (Choose two.)
A. Universes
B. ODBC
C. Create New Connection
D. Repository
210-260 pdf Answer: C, D
QUESTION: 61
Which two formulas will return a string of 10 blank spaces? (Choose two.)
A. InsertSpace(10)
B. Space(10)
C. ReplicateString(” “, 10)
D. RepeatString(” “, 10)
Answer: B, C
QUESTION: 62
Which feature of Crystal Reports formulas must you use to perform a prescribed set of steps without specifying each step?
A. Functions
B. Operators
C. Procedures
D. Variables
210-260 vce Answer: A
QUESTION: 63
You design a report in Crystal Reports using three different groups. You notice that you insertedthe first and second groups backwards: first by City, then by State and then by Customer. Thecorrect sequence is State, then City and then Customer. Which two procedures can you use to correct this situation? (Choose two.)
A. Delete only the City group. Use the Insert Group icon to recreate the City group and move it between the State and Customer groups.
B. Open the Group Expert and use the black arrows in the upper required corner to reorder the groups as required.
C. Delete the first two groups and recreate them in the correct order.
D. In the Design view, click the Group Header #2 caption on the left side and drag it on top of the Group Header #1 caption. Release your mouse button and the groups will reverse sequence.
Answer: B, D
QUESTION: 64
You need to modify an existing calculated member in a Cross-Tab. Which three formulas can you edit? (Choose three.)
A. Header formula
B. Insertion formula
C. Row value formula
D. Column value formula
210-260 exam Answer: A, B, D
QUESTION: 65
You are developing a Crystal report for a vehicle leasing company. All vehicle information is stored in an array, with each member of the array representing a different vehicle type. The vehicle model is represented b y the third position of the alphanumeric vehicle stock number. Which formula will return the vehicle model from the stock number?
A. Local stringvar array saModels := [“car”,”truck”,”van”,”SUV”]; saModels[Tonumber({Invty.Stk#}[3])];
B. Local stringvar array saModels [“car”,”truck”,”van”,”SUV”]; saModels[Tonumber({Invty.Stk#}[2])];
C. Local stringvar array saModels := [“car”,”truck”,”van”,”SUV”]; saModels[Tonumber({Invty.Stk#}[2])];
D. Local stringvar saModels := [“car”,”truck”,”van”,”SUV”]; saModels[Tonumber({Invty.Stk#}[3])];
Answer: A
QUESTION: 66
You want to connect to your Salesforce.com database for reporting. Which server will authenticate you?
A. Salesforce.com
B. crystalreports.com
C. Windows Active Directory
D. BusinessObjects Enterprise XI
210-260 dumps Answer: A
QUESTION: 67
You create a Crystal report that requires the company logo to appear on all pages after the title page. You want to use conditional suppression. Which formula will produce the correct result?
A. PageNumber >= 2
B. PageNumber < 2
C. PageNumber = 1
D. PageNumber := 1
Answer: C
QUESTION: 68
Which formula can you use in a record selection to include all dates from the first day of the month to the date the report is refreshed?
A. {Orders.Order Date} in CurrentMonth
B. {Orders.Order Date} in MonthToDate
C. {Orders.Order Date} in MonthToToday
D. {Orders.Order Date} in CurrentDate
210-260 pdf Answer: B
QUESTION: 69
Which formula calculates the difference in weeks between two date values?
A. DateDiff (“yyyy”, #10/7/1999#, #10/31/1999#)
B. DateDiff (“w”, #10/7/1999#, #10/31/1999#)
C. DateDiff (“ww”, #10/7/1999#, #10/31/1999#)
D. DateDiff (“weeks”, #10/7/1999#, #10/31/1999#)
Answer: B
QUESTION: 70
Each employee in your organization has a unique employee ID. The fifth character of the employee ID represents the department code. Which control structure in the Crystal Reports Formula Editor will enable you to use the employee ID to group the employees by department?
A. Subscript
B. Select Case
C. Else
D. Count
210-260 vce Answer: B
QUESTION: 71
You need to create a report using a stored procedure. The required procedure is missing from the Database Expert. Which configuration change in the Database tab of the Options dialog box could cause this?
A. Disabling the Verify Stored Procedures On First Refresh option
B. Disabling the Stored Procedures option
C. Enabling the Synonyms option
D. Enabling the System Tables option
Answer: B
QUESTION: 72
Which special field can you use to display the total number of pages in a report on the first page of the report?
A. Page Count
B. Total M Count
C. Page Number
D. Total Page Count
210-260 exam Answer: D
QUESTION: 73
In which pass do shared variables get processed?
A. Pre-pass 2
B. Pass 1
C. Pass 3
D. Pass 2
E. Pre-pass 3
210-260 dumps Answer: D
QUESTION: 74
What must be enabled to use the Custom Zoom Factor in Crystal Reports 2008?
A. Active X
B. CMC rights
C. .NET framework
D. Latest Java update
Answer: A

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Exam Name: Introducing Cisco Data Center Technologies
Q&As: 85

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QUESTION NO: 19
Which of the following methods is used by forensic investigators to acquire an image over the network in a secure manner?
A. DOS boot disk
B. Linux Live CD
C. Secure Authentication for EnCase (SAFE)
D. EnCase with a hardware write blocker
200-155 exam Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 20
You company suspects an employee of sending unauthorized emails to competitors. These emails are alleged to contain confidential company data. Which of the following is the most important step  for you to take in preserving the chain of custody?
A. Preserve the email server including all logs.
B. Make copies of that employee’s email.
C. Seize the employee’s PC.
D. Place spyware on the employee’s PC to confirm these activities.
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 21
Which of the following is the correct order of loading system files into the main memory of the system, when the computer is running on Microsoft’s Windows XP operating system?
A. NTLDR, BOOT.ini, HAL.dll, NTDETECT.com, NTOSKRNL.exe
B. NTLDR, BOOT.ini, NTDETECT.com, HAL.dll, NTOSKRNL.exe
C. NTLDR, BOOT.ini, HAL.dll, NTDETECT.com, NTOSKRNL.exe
D. BOOT.ini, HAL.dll, NTDETECT.com, NTLDR, NTOSKRNL.exe
200-155 dumps Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 22
Fill in the blank with the appropriate name. is a list, which specifies the order of volatility of data in a Windows based system.
A. RFC 3227
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 23
Which of the following file systems provides file-level security?
A. CDFS
B. FAT
C. FAT32
 D. NTFS
200-155 pdf Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 24
Adam works as an Incident Handler for Umbrella Inc. He is informed by the senior authorities that the server of the marketing department has been affected by a malicious hacking attack. Supervisors are also claiming that some sensitive data are also stolen. Adam immediately arrived to the server room of the marketing department and identified the event as an incident. He isolated the infected network from the remaining part of the network and started preparing to image the entire system. He captures volatile data, such as running process, ram, and network connections. Which of the following steps of the incident handling process is being performed by Adam?
A. Recovery
B. Eradication
C. Identification
D. Containment
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 25
Which of the following is the process of overwriting all addressable locations on a disk?
A. Drive wiping
B. Spoofing
C. Sanitization
D. Authentication
200-155 vce Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 26
An executive in your company reports odd behavior on her PDA. After investigation you discover that a trusted device is actually copying data off the PDA. The executive tells you that the behavior started shortly after accepting an e-business card from an unknown person. What type of attack is this?
 A. Session Hijacking
B. Bluesnarfing
C. PDA Hijacking
D. Privilege Escalation
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 27
You work as a Network Administrator for Net Perfect Inc. The company has a Windows Server 2008 network environment. The network is configured as a Windows Active Directory-based single forest single domain network. The network is configured on IP version 6 protocol. All the computers on the network are connected to a switch device. One day, users complain that they are unable to connect to a file server. You try to ping the client computers from the server, but the pinging fails. You try to ping the server’s own loopback address, but it fails to ping. You restart the server, but the problem persists.
What is the most likely cause?
A. The cable that connects the server to the switch is broken.
B. Automatic IP addressing is not working.
C. The switch device is not working.
D. The server is configured with unspecified IP address.
E. The server’s NIC is not working.
200-155 exam Answer: E
QUESTION NO: 28
You want to upgrade a partition in your computer’s hard disk drive from FAT to NTFS. Which of the following DOS commands will you use to accomplish this?
A. FORMAT C: /s
B. CONVERT C: /fs:ntfs
C. SYS C:
D. FDISK /mbr
Answer: B
 QUESTION NO: 29
A firewall is a combination of hardware and software, used to provide security to a network. It is used to protect an internal network or intranet against unauthorized access from the Internet or other outside networks. It restricts inbound and outbound access and can analyze all traffic between an internal network and the Internet. Users can configure a firewall to pass or block packets from specific IP addresses and ports. Which of the following tools works as a firewall for the Linux 2.4 kernel?
A. OpenSSH
B. IPTables
C. IPChains
D. Stunnel
200-155 dumps Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 30
You work as a Web developer for ABC Inc. You want to investigate the Cross-Site Scripting attack on your company’s Web site. Which of the following methods of investigation can you use to accomplish the task?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Review the source of any HTML-formatted e-mail messages for embedded scripts or links in the URL to the company’s site.
B. Look at the Web server’s logs and normal traffic logging.
C. Use Wireshark to capture traffic going to the server and then searching for the requests going to the input page, which may give log of the malicious traffic and the IP address of the source.
D. Use a Web proxy to view the Web server transactions in real time and investigate any communication with outside servers.
Answer: A,B,D

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