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Microsoft MCSA 70-743

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Exam 70-743: Upgrading Your Skills to MCSA: Windows Server 2016: https://www.microsoft.com/en-us/learning/exam-70-743.aspx

Candidates for this exam are IT professionals who implement the Windows Server 2016 core infrastructure services.

Candidates have already earned an MCSA: Windows Server 2008 or MCSA: Windows Server 2012 R2 certification. This exam covers key aspects of installation, storage, compute, networking, and identity functionality available in Windows Server 2016.

pass4itsure 70-743 exam Skills measured

This exam measures your ability to accomplish the technical tasks listed below.

  • Install Windows Servers in Host and Compute Environments
  • Implement Storage Solutions
  • Implement Hyper-V
  • Implement Windows Containers
  • Implement High Availability
  • Implement Domain Name System (DNS)
  • Implement Network Connectivity and Remote Access Solutions
  • Implement an Advanced Network Infrastructure
  • Install and Configure Active Directory Domain Services (AD DS)
  • Implement identity federation and access solutions

The latest Microsoft MCSA 70-743 exam practice questions test your strength

QUESTION 1
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains two servers named
Server1 and Server2 that run Windows Server 2016.
Server1 has Microsoft System Center 2016 Virtual Machine Manager (VMM) installed.
Server2 has IP Address Management (IPAM) installed.
You create a domain user named User1.
You need to integrate IPAM and VMM. VMM must use the account of User1 to manage IPAM. The solution must use
the principle of least privilege.
What should you do on each server? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
Hot Area:pass4itsure 70-743 exam question q1

Correct Answer:

pass4itsure 70-743 exam question q1-1

 

QUESTION 2
You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2016.
The disk configuration for Server1 is shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.) You add Server1 to a cluster.
You need to ensure that you can use Disk 1 for Storage Spaces Direct.
What should you do first?
A. Set Disk 1 to offline.
B. Convert Partition (E:) to ReFS.
C. Convert Disk 1 to a dynamic disk.
D. Delete Partition (E:).
Correct Answer: D
The disks used in Storage Spaces Direct cannot contain existing partitions.

 

QUESTION 3
You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2016.
Server1 has two network cards. One network card connects to your internal network and the other network card
connects to the Internet.
You plan to use Server1 to provide Internet connectivity for client computers on the internal network.
You need to configure Server1 as a network address translation (NAT) server.
Which server role or role service should you install on Server1 first?
A. Network Controller
B. Web Application Proxy
C. Routing
D. DirectAccess and VPN (RAS)
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 4
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while
others might not have a correct solution.
After your answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear in the review screen.
Your network contains an Active Directory forest named contoso.com.
You need to identify which server is the schema master.
Solution: From Windows PowerShell, you run Get-ADDomainController -Discover -Service 2.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B
References: https://blogs.technet.microsoft.com/mempson/2007/11/08/how-to-find-out-who-has-your-fsmo-roles/

 

QUESTION 5
You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2016 server.
Server1 has the Docker daemon configured and has a container named Container1.
You need to mount the folder C:\Folder1 on Server1 to C:\ContainerFolder in Container1.
Which command should you run? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
Hot Area:pass4itsure 70-743 exam question q5

 

QUESTION 6
You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2016. Server1 has the Web Application Proxy role service
installed.
You need to publish Microsoft Exchange Server 2013 services through the Web Application Proxy. The solution must
use preauthentication whenever possible.
How should you configure the preauthentication method for each service? To answer, select the appropriate options in
the answer area.
Hot Area:pass4itsure 70-743 exam question q6

Correct Answer:

pass4itsure 70-743 exam question q6-1

 

QUESTION 7
You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2016. Server1 is located on the perimeter network, and
only inbound TCP port 443 is allowed to connect Server1 from the Internet.
You install the Remote Access server role on Server1.
You need to configure Server1 to accept VPN connections over port 443.
Which VPN protocol should you use?
A. PPTP
B. L2TP
C. SSTP
D. lKEv2
Correct Answer: C
References: https://www.thomasmaurer.ch/2016/10/how-to-install-vpn-on-windows-server-2016/
https://www.lukasberan.com/2016/12/how-to-configure-sstp-vpn-on-windows-server/

 

QUESTION 8
You have a DHCP server named Server1.
Server1 has an IPv4 scope that contains 100 addresses for a subnet named Subnet! Subnet1 provides guest access to
the Internet. There are never more than 20 client computers on Subnet1 simultaneously; however, the computers that
connect to Subnet 1 are rarely the same computers.
You discover that some client computers are unable to access the network. The computers that have the issue have IP
addresses in the range of 169.254.0.0/16.
You need to ensure that all of the computers can connect successfully to the network to access the Internet.
What should you do?
A. Create a new scope that uses IP addresses in the range of 169.254.0.0/16.
B. Modify the scope options.
C. Modify the lease duration.
D. Configure Network Access Protection (NAP) integration on the existing scope.
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 9
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that use the same or similar answer choices. An answer choice may
be correct for more than one question in the series. Each question is independent of the other questions in this series.
Information and details provided in a question apply only to that question.
You have an Active Directory domain that contains two Hyper-V servers named Server1 and Server2. Server1 has
Windows Server 2016 installed. Server2 has Windows Server 2012 R2 installed.
Each Hyper-V server has three network cards. Each network card is connected to a different subnet. Server1 contains a
dedicated migration network.
Server2 contains a virtual machine named VM5.
You plan to perform a live migration of VM5 to Server1.
You need to ensure that Server1 uses all available networks to perform the live migration of VM5.
What should you run?
A. the Mount-VHD cmdlet
B. the Diskpart command
C. the Set-VHD cmdlet
D. the Set-VM cmdlet
E. the Set-VMHost cmdlet
F. the Set-VMProcessorcmdlet
G. the Install-WindowsFeature cmdlet
H. the Optimize-VHD cmdlet
Correct Answer: E
Set-VMHost -UseAnyNetworkForMigration
Specifies how networks are selected for incoming live migration traffic. If set to $True, any available network on the host
can be used for this traffic. If set to $False, incoming live migration traffic is transmitted only on the networks specified in
the MigrationNetworks property of the host. References: https://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/hh848524.aspx

 

QUESTION 10
Active Directory Recycle Bin is enabled. You discover that a support technician accidentally removed 100 users from an
Active Directory group named Group1 an hour ago. You need to restore the membership of Group1. What should you
do?
A. Perform tombstone reanimation.
B. Export and import data by using Dsamain.
C. Perform a non-authoritative restore.
D. Recover the items by using Active Directory Recycle Bin.
Correct Answer: B
A group has been modified. Nothing has been deleted. Therefore, answers A and D will not work. Answer C would work
if it was an authoritative restore, but not a non-authoritative restore. The solution is to recover an earlier copy of the
group from a backup or active directory snapshot by using DSadmain.

 

QUESTION 11
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a DNS server named
Server1. All client computers run Windows 10. On Server1, you have the following zone configurationpass4itsure 70-743 exam question q11

You need to prevent Server1 from resolving queries from DNS clients located on Subnet4.
Server1 must resolve queries from all other DNS clients.
Solution: From Windows PowerShell on Server1, you run the Export-DnsServerDnsSecPublicKey cmdlet.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 12
You have a Hyper-V host named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2016. Server 1 has a virtual switch Switch1.
Server1 hosts the virtual machines configured as shown in the following table.pass4itsure 70-743 exam question q12

Windows firewall on VM1 and VM2 is configured to allow ICMP traffic. VM1 and VM2 connect to Switch1.
You fail to ping VM1 from VM2.
You need to view the VirtualSubnetid to which VM1 connects.
Which cmdlet should you run on Server1.
Hot Area:

pass4itsure 70-743 exam question q12-1

Correct Answer:

pass4itsure 70-743 exam question q12-2

 

QUESTION 13
You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2016. Server1 is a Hyper-V host that hosts a virtual
machine named VM1.
Server1 has three network adapter cards that are connected to virtual switches named vSwitch1, vSwitch2 and
vSwitch3.
You configure NIC Teaming on VM1 as shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.) You need to ensure that VM1 will
retain access to the network if a physical network adapter card fails on Server1.
What should you do?
A. From the properties of the NIC team on VM1, change the load balancing of the NIC team.
B. From Hyper-V Manager on Server1, modify the settings of VM1.
C. From Windows PowerShell on Server1, run the Set-VmNetworkAdapterFailoverConfigurationcmdlet.
D. From Hyper-V Manager on Server1, modify the properties of vSwitch1.
Correct Answer: B
You can configure NIC teaming in the Guest OS; however, before NIC teaming will work in a virtual machine, you need
to enable NIC teaming in the Advanced Features section of the VM settings.

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Latest effective Cisco 300-550 Exam Practice Tests

QUESTION 1
Which statement about an agentless configuration management system is true?
A. It requires managed hosts to have an interpreter for a high-level language such as Python or Ruby.
B. It uses existing protocols to interface with the managed host.
C. It uses compiled languages as the basis of the domain-specific language to interface with managed
hosts.
D. It requires managed hosts to connect to a centralized host to receive updated configurations.
E. It requires a software package to be installed on the managed host.
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 2
Which two protocols can the Cisco ARC I M use to communicate with supported platforms? (Choose two.)
A. OpFlex
B. SNMPv2c
C. SSH
D. HTTPS
E. RPC
F. OpenFlow
Correct Answer: AB

 

QUESTION 3
You are developing a YANG data model to represent the functionality of a new network application. Which
two YANG statements do you use la organize the model into a hierarchy? (Choose two.)
A. module
B. grouping
C. submodule
D. augment
E. container
Correct Answer: BE

 

QUESTION 4
Which two queries are supported to access objects within the ACI Management Information Tree?
(Choose two.)
A. DN query
B. fabric query
C. RN query
D. class query
E. property query
Correct Answer: AB

 

QUESTION 5
How many Cisco APCs must fail, in order for a customer running an ACI fabric with a cluster of five APICs
to experience data loss?
A. 4
B. 3
C. 1D. 2
E. 5
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 6
Which statement about Cisco ASA REST API calls is true?
A. GET and POST methods are supported, whereas PUT is not supported.
B. Calls block other security management protocols, such as Cisco ASDM.
C. Changes to the configuration are automatically written to the startup configuration.
D. The Cisco ASA REST agent must first be enabled on the CLI.
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 7
Which two security techniques are important to implement a secured management network that is used to
access the management plane of a Cisco ARC cluster? (Choose two.)
A. VRFs
B. NAT
C. ipfilter
D. ACLs
E. route maps
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 8
An organization leverages a multivendor network to sell connectivity services using Layer 3 VPN and
VPLS. Where possible, the organization wants to use common APIs across vendors, in order to automate
the configuration of network services.
Which technology should the organization consider for the southbound interface?
A. BGP-LS
B. OpFlex
C. OpenFlow
D. NETCONF
E. PCEP
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 9
Which two data representation formats are used in RESTCONF? (Choose two.)
A. HTML
B. YAML
C. XML
D. GML
E. ASN.1
F. JSON
Correct Answer: AB

 

QUESTION 10
Which two statements about YANG are true? (Choose two.)
A. YANG was conceptualized by Jerry Yang, former CEO of Yahoo.B. YANG provides security beyond SSL 3.0.
C. YANG can be executed similarly to a Python script.
D. YANG is used by NETCONF to define objects and data in requests and replies.
E. YANG represents configuration, operational, and RPC data.
Correct Answer: DE

 

QUESTION 11
Which concept should you use when trying to improve a frequently repealed and predictable manual
process?
A. scalability
B. lifecycle management
C. deployment
D. orchestration
E. automation
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 12
Which command tests a REST API?
A. nc
B. tcpdump
C. curl
D. telnet
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 13
Which two tools help you to program against Nexus APIs? (Choose two.)
A. Jenkins
B. Cisco Nexus 1000v
C. VIRL
D. DevNet sandboxes
E. Cisco Open SDN Controller
Correct Answer: AC

 

QUESTION 14
Which feature enables service function chaining to steer traffic to virtual network functions?
A. GRE
B. VXLAN
C. EH
D. NSH
E. REST
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 15
You want to implement a new feature in a home-grown network automation tool. Because your
development team uses the Agile development methodology, which documentation must you create for
them, in order to put this feature on the roadmap?
A. ROI analysisB. case study
C. user story
D. SCIPAB breakdown
E. enhancement request
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 16
Which two parts are required for a RESTful API call? (Choose two.)
A. resource
B. parameter
C. method
D. query
E. fragment
Correct Answer: BC

 

QUESTION 17
Which two protocols are examples of southbound APIs? (Choose two.)
A. VXLAN-GPE
B. LLDP
C. NETCONF
D. IPFIX
E. SYSLOG
F. OpFlex
Correct Answer: CF

 

QUESTION 18
Which two northbound protocols are supported by the Cisco NSO Controller? (Choose two)
A. REST
B. SOAP
C. OpenFlow
D. NETCONF
E. PCEP
Correct Answer: AC

 

QUESTION 19
Which statement about shading in ACI is true?
A. Sharding is the technology that is designed to prevent “split-brain” scenarios in ACI.
B. Sharding is the service that presents the API on a Cisco APIC.
C. Sharding is the mechanism for distributing the database and configuration changes on a Cisco APIC
cluster.
D. Sharding is the distributed topology that is used in ACI (also referred to as spine-leaf).
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 20
After completing the OSC setup wizard, the configuration does not get applied. Which two log files should
you check to determine the errors that occurred? (Choose two.)
A. /var/log/node_config_state.logB. /var/log/platform_services.log
C. /var/log/ansible.log
D. /var/log/messages.log
E. /var/log/controller.log
Correct Answer: BE

 

QUESTION 21
YANG modeling supports which two comment styles? (Choose two.)
A. A block comment is enclosed within “<–” and “–>”.
B. A single-line comment starts with “#” and ends at the end of the line.
C. A single-line comment starts with “!” and ends at the end of the line.
D. A block comment is enclosed within “/*” and “*/”.
E. A single-line comment starts with “//” and ends at the end of the line.
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 22
How is a service ticket used when constructing a Cisco APIC-EM API request?
A. to identify the service type
B. to identify a service on the controller
C. to determine the request type
D. as a security token
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 23
Which statement about NX-API REST is true?
A. Configuration and state information is stored in the MIT.
B. NX-API REST requires a commercial license to enable.
C. Partial commits are supported.
D. Fault objects may be queried, but event objects cannot be queried.
Correct Answer: C

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Latest effective Cisco CCNP Wireless 300-365 Exam Practice Tests

QUESTION 1
Refer to Exhibit.pass4itsure 300-365-1What two items need to be supported on the VoWLAN phones in order to take full advantage of this WLAN configuration? (Choose two.)
A. APSD
B. 802.11a
C. 802.11e
D. WMM
E. 802.11r
F. SIFS
Correct Answer: CD

 

QUESTION 2
A network engineer for a college dormitory notices that student devices are filling up the SP-DB and are not allowing the shared wireless printers to be discovered.
Which feature can be used to reserve space in the SP-DB for the printers?
A. mDNS-AP
B. LSS
C. Priority MAC
D. sso
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 3
Refer to Exhibit.pass4itsure 300-365-3 pass4itsure 300-365-3-1A wireless client is connecting to FlexAPI which is currently working standalone mode. The AAA authentication process is returning the following AVPs:
Tunnel-Private-Group-ld(81): 15 Tunnel-Medium-Type(65):IEEE-802(6) Tunnel-Type(64): VLAN(13) Which three behaviors will the client experience? (Choose
three.)
A. While the AP is in standalone mode the client will be placed in VLAN 15.
B. While the AP is in standalone mode the client will be placed in VLAN 10.
C. When the AP transitions to connected mode the client will be de-authenticated.
D. While the AP is in standalone mode the client will be placed in VLAN 13.
E. When the AP is in connected mode the client will be placed in VLAN 13.
F. When the AP transitions to connected mode the client will remain associated.
G. When the AP is in connected mode the client will be placed in VLAN 15.
H. When the AP is in connected mode the client will be placed in VLAN 10.
Correct Answer: ADE

 

QUESTION 4
Which two options are limitations of using an AP as a workgroup bridge? (Choose two.)
A. Only factory-configured MAPs can support WGB mode.
B. MAPs that are configured in WGB mode do not answer S36 radio measurement requests.
C. A limited subset of Layer 2 security types are supported for wireless clients of a WGB.
D. There is a limit of 20 wired client devices.
E. Multiple VLANs are not supported for wireless clients.
Correct Answer: BD

 

QUESTION 5
On which AP radio or radios is Cisco WGB association supported?
A. 2.4 GHz only
B. 2.4 or 5 GHz only
C. 2.4 5 or 4.9 GHz
D. 5 GHz only
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 6
A customer requires that an SSID is broadcasted to specific access points that use certain interfaces. Which feature can be used to achieve this goal?
A. mobility groups
B. flex-connect roups
C. interface groups
D. APgroups
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 7
Which of the following is not a Cisco RF fingerprinting key advantage over Location Tracking?
A. Uses existing LWAPP-enabled Cisco Unified Networking components.
B. Proprietary client hardware or software is required.
C. Better accuracy and precision.
D. Reduced calibration effort.
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 8
A customer has implemented several WLANs in an auditorium utilizing a newly dedicated WLC and is experiencing excessive channel utilization regardless of
occupancy. Which action reduces channel utilization without removing SSIDs?
A. Disable MCS data rates 0 through 11.
B. Disable MCS data rates used by 40 MHz channels.
C. Disable data rates that use CCK.
D. Disable VHT data rates.
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 9
A corporation has a Cisco Unified Wireless Network that has been deployed for voice coverage. The wireless data rates have been tuned to mandatory rates of 18
Mbps and 36 Mbps. Some wireless clients have been experiencing drops streaming multicast video while moving throughout the building. What is the cause of the
drop in video?
A. Clients are roaming at lower data rates and are not maintaining 36Mbps connectivity.
B. Clients are not roaming due to coverage. This is causing the multicast data to drop due to the client re-associating often.
C. Clients are connected at 18Mbps; however other clients are connecting at 12Mbps and are causing the multicast video to degrade.
D. Clients are maintaining a 12Mbps rate and cannot receive the stream at 18Mbps.
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 10
An engineer used an interface group under the SSID configuration but noticed that a test client is getting an IP assigned in a different VLAN from the DHCP
server. Which two options override the interface group configuration on the SSID? (Choose two.)
A. static VLAN on client
B. ACL
C. APgroup
D. static IP on client
E. MAC filtering
F. RFgroup
G. AAA override
Correct Answer: CG

 

QUESTION 11
A WLAN engineer has been asked to upgrade the software on a MSE 3365 Appliance. The engineer cannot access the system using the root password and the
Grub password as the details had never been documented. How should the engineer perform the password recovery?
A. Use a console cable.
B. Contact Cisco TAC and arrange an RMA of the MSE.
C. Boot the MSE using the software installation DVD.
D. The Password can be reset using Prime Infrastructure.
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 12
The customer has deployed C7960 phones with clients connected to them. What switch feature could be enabled to distinguish IP voice traffic from client data
traffic?
A. VoiceVLAN
B. QoS routing
C. WME
D. WeightedQueuing
E. QBSS
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 13
Which show command will show whether a WLAN is locally or centrally switched on a Cisco Wireless Lan Controller?
A. show ap config general Cisco_AP
B. show wlan wlan_id
C. show fexconnect summary
D. show fexconnect group detail
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 14
A network engineer is experiencing issues enabling LAG on the WLC. Which four characteristics should be validated to ensure LAG configuration? (Choose four.)
A. All ports participate in the LAG by default when LAG is enabled on the controller
B. Dynamic interfaces and management are moved to port 1
C. Primary and secondary ports are needed for each interface.
D. Multiple untagged interfaces to the same port are not allowed.
E. EtherChannel must be configured for mode “on” on the switch.
F. Only one functional physical port is needed to continue to pass traffic.
G. Multiple LAGs are permitted on the controller.
H. The WLC does not need to be rebooted to enable the LAG configuration.
Correct Answer: ADEF

 

QUESTION 15
A network engineer is debugging issues with the mDNS gateway. Which type of reply should be seen in the Wireshark capture when querying for a mDNS servicein the Bonjour Cache?
A. unicast from Prime Infrastructure
B. unicast from controller
C. multicast from devices
D. multicast from controller
E. unicast from devices
F. multicast from Prime Infrastructure
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 16
A customer requires that the remote site be able to utilize local servers when the AP is in WAN-down (standalone mode). Which AP mode must be configured on
the wireless controller?
A. SE-Connect
B. Monitor
C. Local
D. FlexConnect
E. Sniffer
F. Rogue Detector
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 17
What are two functions of the RAP in a mesh network? (Choose two.)
A. It provides a wired connection for the wireless mesh APs.
B. It adds capacity and resilience to a mesh area.
C. It creates a centralized management location for the mesh network.
D. It reduces the hop count to the wireless network that is connected to the edge.
E. It routes traffic from the wireless mesh to the wired network.
Correct Answer: BD

 

QUESTION 18
What address do PIM routers listen to in order to automatically discover the best RP for each multicast group?
A. 224.0.0.13
B. 224.0.1.39
C. 224.0.0.14
D. 224.0.140
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 19
A wireless engineer wants to enable optimized roaming for their 5GHz wireless network with these settings: -72dBm RSSI value 25% coverage exception level
percentage and a minimum of 50 packets received.
Which two commands achieve these settings? (Choose two.)
A. config advanced 802.11a coverage data fail-percentage 25
B. config advanced 802.11b optimized-roaming enable
C. config advanced 802.11b coverage data rssi-threshold -72
D. config advanced 802.11a optimized-roaming enable
E. config advanced 802.11a coverage data rssi-threshold -72
Correct Answer: AD

 

QUESTION 20
An engineer wants to configure WebEx to adjust the precedence and override the QoS profile on the WLAN. Which configuration is needed to complete this task?
A. Change the AVC application WebEx-app-sharing to mark
B. Create an ACL for WebEx.
C. Change the WLAN reserved bandwidth for WebEx.
D. Create an AVC profile for WebEx marked with a lower DSCP value
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 21
Which statement about when you configure FlexConnect APs and you want to set up Cisco Centralized Key Management fast roaming is true?
A. FlexConnect groups are required for Cisco Centralized Key Management fast roaming to work with FlexConnect access points.
B. APs that are in the same FlexConnect group but associated to different WLCs support Cisco Centralized Key Management.
C. Cisco Centralized Key Management fast roaming among FlexConnect and non-FlexConnect access points is supported.
D. The FlexConnect access point must be in standalone mode to support Cisco Centralized Key Management.
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 22
A network engineer observes a spike in controller CPU overhead and overall network utilization after enabling multicast on a controller with 500 APs. What feature
is necessary to correct the issue?
A. controller IGMP snooping
B. unicast AP Multicast ModeC. broadcast forwarding
D. multicast AP Multicast Mode
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 23
When a Vocera badge performs a broadcast call in a properly configured VoWLAN using WLC v7.0 which two choices indicate how the QoS is marked? (Choose
two.)
A. Upstream marked as Best Effort.
B. Upstream marked as ToS CS4.
C. Upstream marked as DSCP EF
D. Downstream marked as DSCP EF
E. Downstream marked as Best Effort.
F. Downstream marked as Silver.
Correct Answer: CE

 

QUESTION 24
An engineer would like to capture NetFlowdata on PI. Which resource is required to allow this?
A. Cisco MSE as NetFlow exporter
B. Prime Infrastructure 1.0 or later
C. Cisco NAC as NetFlow exporter
D. Cisco ISE as NetFlow exporter
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 25
What is the best practice for setting the WLC v7.0 use of WLAN QoS settings to support SIP phones on a VoWLAN?
A. Configure SIP with static CAC only with SIP call snooping.
B. Configure SIP with static CAC only without SIP call snooping.
C. Configure SIP with load-based CAC only with SIP call snooping.
D. Configure SIP with load-based CAC only without SIP call snooping.
E. Configure SIP with load-based CAC and TSPEC only with SIP call snooping.
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 26
A downstream packet containing a DSCP value arrives at the WLC Ethernet interface from the wired source network. The WLC is configured for QoS WLAN
802.1p mapping. How does the WLC treat the CAPWAP QoS marking when leaving the controller interface for the respective AP and final wireless client
destination?
A. No outer CAPWAP or inner QoS tagging is applied.
B. No outer CAPWAP QoS tag is applied but the original DSCP is maintained inside CAPWAP.
C. The outer CAPWAP CoS is marked and capped while the inner DSCP maintains the original marking.
D. The outer CAPWAP DHCP is marked and capped without any inner DSCP value.
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 27
VoWLAN implementation plans for a current mix of existing Cisco Unified Wireless IP Phones 7920G and 7921G to a final migration of Wireless IP Phones 7925G
in a single WLAN. What would be the most appropriate WLC WLAN configuration to end with Wireless IP Phones 7925G?
A. 7920 Client CAC = enabled only; Radio Policy = All; WMM = Disabled
B. 7920 AP CAC = enabled only; Radio Policy = All; WMM = Allowed
C. 7920 Client CAC = enabled only; Radio Policy = 802.11a only; WMM = Disabled
D. 7920 AP CAC = enabled only; Radio Policy = 802.11a only; WMM = Allowed
E. 7920 Client CAC = enabled only; Radio Policy = 802.11b/g only; WMM = Disabled
F. 7920 AP CAC = enabled only; Radio Policy = 802.11b/g only; WMM = Allowed
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 28
You are deploying a combination of Cisco Unified Wireless IP Phones 7921G and 7925G at your branch offices in a centralized call processing environment that
requires high availability at branch locations. Which three components need to be verified before the wireless IP phones can be deployed? (Choose three.)
A. Sufficient SRST license support at each branch location
B. Support for local voice mail
C. Branch gateways support MoH
D. Properly configured QoS over the IP WAN links
E. Support for single number reach
F. Support for E.164 dialing
G. Sufficient IP phone licenses in the Cisco Unified Communications Manager cluster
Correct Answer: ADG

 

QUESTION 29
You have a VoWLAN configured for platinum QoS WMM and CAC. IP phones for this VoWLAN include the Nokia and Cisco Unified Wireless IP Phones 7920G
(pre-v2.0 firmware) 7921G and 7925G. The Wireless IP Phones 7921G and 7925G work properly but the Nokia and the Wireless IP Phones 7920G associate with
the WLAN but cannot place calls. What is the issue?
A. The lowest mandatory speed in the WLAN is too high and needs to be reduced.
B. The Cisco Unified Wireless IP Phones 7920G and Nokia IP phones do not support TSPEC C. EDCA needs to be enabled on the WLAN.
D. HCCA needs to be enabled on the WLAN.
E. The reserved roaming bandwidth setting is set too low.
F. The expedited bandwidth setting needs to be enabled.
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 30
DRAG DROP
Drag the QoS values from the lef and drop them in the correct descending order of priority on the right.
Select and Place:

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QUESTION 1
Security Administrator, Zhi Wang, creates the CA Identity Minder roles required to implement delegated administration. Two weeks later, one of these new roles
requires some changes. These changes should be performed by the:
A. Role Owner
B. Role Manager
C. Role Administrator
D. Access Role Membership Approver
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
Which features characterize CA Identity Minder? (Choose three)
A. Assignment of privileges through roles
B. Delegation of the management of users and application access
C. Self-service options that enable users to manage their own accounts
D. User-defined service delivery service catalog that encompasses a menu of services
E. Full automation capabilities for inventory, tracking, maintenance, migration, and security across all enterprise client devices in a single product
Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 3
You are setting up the Bulk Load Client to perform a complete dump of all HR users into CA IdentityMinder. You want to avoid a problem you encountered
previously when a large number of records processed overloaded the server. Which command-line option addresses this issue?
A. imbulkloadclient -T, –transformOnly
B. imbulkloadclient -b, –batchSize <number>
C. imbulkloadclient -i, –inputFile <file, batchsize>
D. imbulkloadclient – e, –endpointlnfoFile <file, number>
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
In CA IdentityMinder, which self-service actions can you perform using public tasks? (Choose two)
A. Self-registration
B. Modifying your profile
C. Changing your password
D. Resetting a forgotten password
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 5
Which statement about CA Identity Minder end points is TRUE?
A. An endpoint type can only contain one instance of an endpoint.
B. They are generally client operating system versions, such as Windows XP and Red Hat Linux.
C. An endpoint type is the lowest unit of organization in the hierarchical structure managed by the provisioning engine.
D. A specific type of endpoint needs to be enabled on the Provisioning Server to enable CA Id entity Minder to communicate to it.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6
During the installation, CA Identity Minder creates several database schemas. Later, to provide scalability, you can create a separate database to replace any one
of these, Use the CreateDatabase script to set up a new:
A. Auditing database instance.
B. Workflow database instance.
C. Object Store database instance.
D. Task persistence database instance.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 7
Which statement about the Provisioning Server is TRUE?
A. It manages accounts on end point systems.
B. It communicates directly with the Snapshot Database.
C. It is a required component only if you intend to implement log management.
D. It is an optional component that enables you to fully implement Password Services and Single Sign- on.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8
Which step do you need to perform to configure email server settings for the JBoss application server?
A. Create a new XML file.
B. Modify the mail-service.xml file.
C. Change a property in the console.
D. Modify the Mail Transport Host field for the mail session.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9
In an email template, what is the purpose of the <% %> tag?
A. Inserts a static text variable
B. Embeds JavaScript into a template
C. Presents event context information
D. Indicates that the template is invalid
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10
Which ETAUTIL control statement is used to set the same attribute values for a set of objects?
A. MASSCHANGE
B. EXPLORE
C. UPDATE
D. DELETE
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
The role model in CA GovernanceMinder can be dynamically updated whenever changes are made in CA Identity Minder using:
A. Smart Provisioning.
B. Role Engineering.
C. Reverse Synchronization.
D. Provisioning Synchronization Management.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12
Which task do you perform using the CA IdentityMinder Management Console?
A. Manage the Provisioning Server.
B. Customize default roles and tasks.
C. Create and manage the Provisioning Directory.
D. Create an agent that CA SiteMinder can communicate with.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 13
You are implementing CA IdentityMinder at Forward Inc., an international logistics company with headquarters in the United Kingdom. At Forward Inc., a single
managed endpoint containing every person does not exist. However all users are contained in a payroll database, which can become the source of the global
users for the provisioning directory. In this context, the payroll database is known as a:
A. corporate store.
B. primary endpoint.
C. secondary endpoint.
D. operational database.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 14
Which two components communicate using a Connector?
A. Provisioning Server and endpoint
B. Policy Server and Report Server
C. User Store and Provisioning directory
D. Report Server and Snapshot Database
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 15
To help ensure role granularity, when you create provisioning roles, which guideline should you follow?
A. Every role should have at least one user.
B. Account templates should be assigned to individual users rather than to roles.
C. Depending on the size of an organization, a role should have between 50 and 200 users.
D. For most organizations, 50 percent of user access is from permanent roles and 50percent is from temporary roles.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 16
When you configure a WorkPoint manual activity, you can specify multiple Participant Resolvers, Using an order of precedence, CA Identity Minder identifies and
applies the first resolver and ignores any subsequent resolvers. To select the resolver, which order of precedence does CA IdentityMinder follow?
1. Role
2. Filter
3. Group
4. Custom
A. 1,3,2,4
B. 2,3,4,1
C. 3,1,2,4
D. 4,1,2,3
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 17
Forward Inc. is an international logistics company with headquarters in the United Kingdom. Forward Inc. has asked you to demonstrate how CA IdentityMinder
supports account provisioning. In the CA IdentityMinder configuration that you will use for your demonstration, which component is optional?
A. Provisioning Server
B. Provisioning Directory
C. IdentityMinder Server
D. SiteMinder Policy Server
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 18
When you build the CA IdentityMinder environment, you can configure support for public tasks. To do this, you specify a:
A. group and a name.
B. URL alias and a user.
C. directory and a task list.
D. role definition file and a default role.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 19
Which statement about installing Connector Xpress is TRUE?
A. It can be installed on a dedicated computer.
B. It must be installed on the Report Server computer.
C. It must be installed on the Provisioning Server computer.
D. It must be installed on the JavaConnector Server (JCS) computer.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 20
You want to configure password synchronization with UNIX systems. Which component enables CA Identity Minder to authenticate passwords against external
security systems?
A. Credential Provider
B. Pluggable Authentication Module (PAM)
C. Graphical Identification and Authorization (GINA)
D. Java Authentication & Authorization Service (JAAS) Agent
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 21
In CA IdentityMinder r12.6, the basic access request feature:
A. is fully integrated with CA GovernanceMinder.
B. includes granular filtering and search capabilities.
C. enables bulk definition ofaccess request services objects.
D. can use workflow approval and email notification functionality.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 22
Which optional component of the CA IdentityMinder architecture provides advanced authentication?
A. Connector Server
B. Provisioning Server
C. Resource Proxy Server
D. SiteMinder Policy Server
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 23
You are using CA SiteMJnder and CA IdentityMinder in an integrated environment. To configure directory mapping in the CA SiteMinder Policy Server, which
steps do you need to perform? (Choose three)
A. Create a Table element for each attribute.
B. Add a response attribute named sm_userdn for the SMJJSERNAME attribute.
C. Add the authentication directory to the CA IdentityMinder environment domain.
D. Use the Reference element for a secondary table to define its relationship to the primary table.
E. In the CA IdentityMinder environment realm, map the authorization directory to the authentication directory.
Correct Answer: BCE

QUESTION 24
CA IdentityMinder must integrate with CA SiteMinder in order to:
A. automatically remove white space in passwords.
B. add multiple regular expressions to a single password policy.
C. prevent passwords that are all numeric using a regular expression.
D. specify the maximum number of repeated characters in a password.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 25
Which statement about using Active Directory password synchronization with CA IdentityMinder is TRUE?
A. The new password is only propagated to the user’s native Windows account.
B. Changes to password restrictions on the endpoint are automatically propagated to the CA IdentityMinder Server.
C. The Password Synchronization Agent must be installed on the system on which password changes areto be intercepted.
D. The system on which you are installing the Password Synchronization Agent must be managed by a CA SiteMinder Policy Server.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 26
You have deployed CA IdentityMinder with a CA SiteMinder Policy Server. During the second day of testing your installation, you receive a “Not Loaded” error
message when you attempt to log in. You check that the User Store is running. Which other action should you take to investigate this issue?
A. Check the application server log.
B. Verify that theWeb Agent is running correctly.
C. Verify that CA SiteMinder can connect to the User Store.
D. Set the Internet browser option “Show friendly error message”to off to view the status page.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 27
For workflow installation, many steps that were previously manual are now performed automatically by the installer. Nonetheless, you still need to use the
Management Console to:
A. create the workflow database.
B. populate the database with sample workflows.
C. enable workflow for your CA IdentityMinder environment.
D. create a JDBC data source and connection file for the application server
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 28
Which tasks does Config Xpress enable you to perform? (Choose three)
A. Map dynamic connectors to endpoints.
B. Move components between environments.
C. Publish a report of thesystem components to a PDF file.
D. Publish the XML configuration fora particular component.
E. Create complex business logic withoutthe need to develop custom code.
Correct Answer: BCD

QUESTION 29
Which statement about Task Execution Web Services (TEWS) is TRUE?
A. Its interface is slower than the native web interface due to XML parsing.
B. It enables a CA SiteMinder Policy Server to support CA Identity Minder.
C. It is used by CA IdentityMinder to export data to CA GovernanceMinder.
D. It translates requests into the internal languages of the provisioning software.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 30
Because of a recent acquisition by Forward Inc., which will add 1800 new users to the system, you decide to use the Bulk Loader to feed the information to CA
IdentityMinder, You will need to prepare a file for the Bulk Loader, containing the relevant details. Which Bulk Loader input file guidelines do you need to follow?
(Choose three)
A. The file should contain no header.
B. A field representing the action is mandatory.
C. Each file must describe a single managed object type.
D. Multivalued attributes must beseparated by a hash (#) symbol.
E. Attribute names should be the physical or well-known names of the managed objects.
Correct Answer: BCE

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QUESTION 1
Which one of the following categories from the Document Categorization model consists of the normative parts of
TOGAF which are considered central to its usage?
A. TOGAF Core
B. TOGAF Mandated
C. TOGAF Recommended
D. TOGAF Referenced
E. TOGAF Supporting
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
Which of the following is a true statement about the TOGAF Technical Reference Model?
A. The TOGAF Architecture Development Method mandates the use of the Technical Reference Model for large
complex architecture projects
B. The Technical Reference Model is an integral part of the TOGAF Architecture Development Method
C. The Technical Reference Model should not be modified
D. The Technical Reference Model includes a set of graphical models and a corresponding taxonomy
E. The Technical Reference Model provides a direct mapping to the Zachman Framework
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3
Which one of the following best describes the next step in an Architecture Compliance Review once the scope of the
review has been determined?
A. Interview the project principals to obtain background information
B. Prepare the Architecture Compliance Review report
C. Schedule the Architecture Review meeting
D. Send the assessment report to the Architecture Review co-ordinator
E. Tailor the checklists to address business requirements
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 4
Which of the following statements best describes the Requirements Management process? A. It is used to develop requirements for Transition Architectures that deliver business value
B. It is used to dispose of, address and prioritize architecture requirements
C. It is used to establish requirements for Phase A
D. It is used to manage architecture requirements throughout the ADM cycle
E. It is used to review business requirements
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
Complete the sentence: TOGAF provides a set of reference materials for establishing an architecture function within an
organization known as the_________.
A. Architecture Capability Framework
B. Architecture Content Framework
C. Architecture Landscape
D. Architecture Repository
E. Architecture Roadmap
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
Complete the sentence. According to TOGAF, all of the following are responsibilities of an Architecture Board, except
______________________.
A. Ensuring consistency between sub-architectures
B. Ensuring flexibility of the enterprise architecture to meet business needs
C. Improving the maturity of the organization\’s architecture discipline
D. Monitoring of architecture contracts
E. Preparing architecture review reports
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 7
Which model within TOGAF is closely related to the concept of Boundaryless Information Flow?
A. The ARTS data model
B. The Architecture Governance Framework
C. The Enterprise Continuum
D. The Integrated Information Infrastructure Model E. The TOGAF Technical Reference Model
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8
Which one of the following is NOT an element of an architecture framework?
A. A common vocabulary
B. A list of recommended standards
C. A method for designing an information system in terms of building blocks
D. A set of structuresWhich can be used to develop a broad range of architectures
E. A system development lifecycle method for software engineering
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 9
Which pair of the following responses best completes the sentence? Architecture building blocks ____, where as
Solution Building blocks ____
A. are assembled; are single function components
B. are single function components; are groups of architecture building blocks
C. are reusable; are not reusable
D. define the architecture; provide the existing legacy system
E. define functionality; define the implementation of functionality
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 10
Which one of the following is responsible for the acceptance and sign-off of an Architecture Compliance review?
A. Architecture Board
B. Architecture Review Co-ordinator
C. CIO
D. Lead Enterprise Architect
E. Project Leader
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
According to TOGAF, Which of the following activities is described as part of the approach in the Preliminary Phase of
the ADM? A. Creating the Architecture Vision deliverable
B. Defining a set of Architecture Principles
C. Developing an Architecture Contract
D. Extending the business scenario with business modeling
E. Preparing a consolidated Gap Analysis
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 12
What part of the Architecture Repository holds specifications toWhich architectures must conform?
A. Standards Information Base
B. Enterprise Continuum
C. Governance Log
D. Architecture Landscape
E. Reference Library
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 13
What class of architectural information within the Architecture Repository defines processes that support governance of
the Architecture Repository?
A. Architecture Capability
B. Architecture Landscape
C. Architecture Metamodel
D. Governance Log
E. Reference Library
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 14
Which of the following describes how the Enterprise Continuum is used when developing an enterprise architecture?
A. To coordinate with the other management frameworks in use
B. To describe how an architecture addresses stakeholder concerns
C. To identify and understand business requirements
D. To provide a system for continuous monitoring E. To structure re-usable architecture and solution assets
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 15
Which of the following best describes the purpose of an architecture compliance review?
A. To review the validity of a project\’s Architecture Vision
B. To review a project for compliance to external laws and regulations
C. To review a project against established architecture criteria and business objectives
D. To ensure that stakeholder concerns are being addressed by a project
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 16
Which phase of the TOGAF ADM is the first phase directly concerned with the planning for the implementation of the
target architecture(s)?
A. Phase D
B. Phase E
C. Phase F
D. Phase G
E. Phase H
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 17
Which section of the TOGAF document contains a structured metamodel for architectural artifacts?
A. Part II: Architecture Development Method
B. Part III: ADM Guidelines and Techniques
C. Part IV: Architecture Content Framework
D. Part VI: TOGAF Reference Models
E. Part VII: Architecture Capability Framework
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 18
When determining the requirements for enterprise architecture work in the Preliminary Phase, Which of the following is
not a business imperative that should be considered?
A. Business requirements B. Cultural aspirations
C. Forecast financial requirements
D. Strategic Intent
E. Technical elegance
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 19
According to TOGAF, Which of the following best describes the purpose of an Architecture Definition Document?
A. To act as a deliverable container for artifacts created during a project
B. To ensure that architecture information is communicated to the right stakeholders at the right time
C. To govern the architecture throughout its implementation process
D. To provide a high-level view of the end architecture product
E. To show progression of change from the Baseline Architecture to the Target Architecture
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 20
Which one of the following does TOGAF Part VII recommend in order to implement an Enterprise Architecture
Capability?
A. Develop an Architecture Roadmap
B. Populate the Architecture Repository
C. Populate the Enterprise Continuum
D. Use the Architecture Development Method
E. Use the Implementation Governance Phase
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 21
Which one of the following is an objective of the Preliminary Phase of the ADM?
A. To define the Baseline Architecture for this cycle of the ADM
B. To define the application systems for the Target Architecture
C. To define the framework and methodologies to be used
D. To define the relevant stakeholders and their concerns
E. To define and prioritise work packages
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 22
Complete the sentence. All of the following are parts of the conceptual structure of the TOGAF Architecture Governance
Framework, except ______
A. Content
B. Context
C. Process Flow Control
D. Repository
E. Vision
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 23
According to TOGAF, Which of the following best describes the classification of architectural change in the case where
multiple server systems are being consolidated to a single system?
A. A bottom-up change to enhance operational capability
B. An incremental change handled via change management techniques
C. A re-architecting change that puts the whole architecture through an ADM cycle
D. A revision change of the enterprise architecture
E. A simplification change handled via change management techniques
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 24
Which one of the following best describes a primary use of the Architecture Vision document?
A. A checklist for compliance reviews
B. An evaluation tool to select vendors to conduct a proof of concept demonstration
C. A tool for calculating detailed cost estimates
D. A tool for project planning the implementation activities
E. A tool for selling the benefits of the proposed capability to stakeholders
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 25
Complete the sentence. As the architecture evolves, the assets in the Solutions Continuum progress towards a (n)
_____ A. Common Systems Architecture
B. Industry Specific Architecture
C. Foundation Solution
D. Organization Specific Solution
E. Technology Neutral Implementation
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 26
Which one of the following is a key objective of Phase A of the TOGAF ADM?
A. To create a roadmap that describes the evolution of the architecture over time
B. To prepare a Solution Architecture for the enterprise
C. To define an IT Strategy that maps out the technology infrastructure
D. To allocate the resources needed to implement the architecture project
E. To articulate an Architecture Vision
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 27
Which of the following TOGAF components was created to enable architects to design architectures addressing
Boundaryless Information Flow?
A. The Architecture Repository
B. The Enterprise Continuum
C. The Integrated Information Infrastructure Model
D. The TOGAF Technical Reference Model
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 28
Complete the sentence. In the Preliminary Phase, all of the following are part of preparing the organization to undertake
successful enterprise architecture, except __________.
A. defining architecture principles
B. defining relationships between management frameworks
C. defining the enterprise
D. evaluating the enterprise architecture maturity
E. identifying stakeholders and their concerns
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 29
According to TOGAF, in which sequence should Application Architecture and Data Architecture be developed in Phase
C?
A. Application Architecture should be developed first, then Data Architecture
B. Application Architecture should be developed concurrently with Data Architecture
C. Data Architecture should be developed first, then Application Architecture
D. Application Architecture and Data Architecture may be developed in either sequence
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 30
Which one of the following describes a purpose of an Architecture Compliance review?
A. To define the capabilities of the organization
B. To communicate the technical readiness of the project
C. To evaluate the readiness of the organization to undergo change
D. To produce a new Request for Architecture Work
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 31
Which one of the following lists the main components within the TOGAF Architecture Repository?
A. Organizational Metamodel, Architecture Capability, Architecture Landscape, Best Practices, Reference Library,
Compliance Strategy
B. Architecture Metamodel, Organizational Capability Model, Application Landscape, SIB, Reference Library,
Governance Model
C. Business Metamodel, Architecture Capability, Architecture Landscape, SIB, Reference Library, Governance Log
D. Architecture Metamodel, Architecture Capability, Architecture Landscape, SIB, Reference Library, Governance Log
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 32
Complete the sentence. TOGAF covers the development of four architecture domains, Application, Business, Data
and__________.
A. Capability
B. Segment
C. Technology D. Transition
E. Vision
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 33
Which of the following architectures in the Architecture Continuum contains the most re-usable architecture elements?
A. Common Systems Architectures
B. Foundation Architectures
C. Industry Architectures
D. Organization-Specific Architectures
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 34
Which of the following statements best describes the purpose of the Architecture Requirements Specification?
A. A document that triggers the start of an architecture development cycle
B. A qualitative view of the solution to communicate the intent of the architect
C. A quantitative view of the solution to measure the implementation
D. A record of deviations from the planned architectural approach
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 35
Which of the following describes the TOGAF Technical Reference Model?
A. A Common Systems Architecture
B. A Foundation Architecture
C. An Industry-Specific Architecture
D. An Organization-Specific Architecture
E. A Solution Architecture
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 36
Complete the sentence. The Business Transformation Readiness Assessment technique is primarily focused on ___
A. determining if the organization is ready to accept change
B. planning the migration steps needed to achieve the transformation C. ensuring that there are adequate trained developers and engineers to implement the solution
D. ensuring that there is sufficient financial capacity to execute the desired transformation
E. determining if there is adequate stakeholder support for the implementation process
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 37
Which one of the following statements about TOGAF Building Blocks is true?
A. Building blocks at a functional level are known as Solutions Building Blocks
B. Solutions Building Blocks are selected in Phases A, B, C and D
C. The specification of a building block should be loosely coupled to its implementation
D. The gap analysis technique should be used to identify building blocks for re-use
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 38
According to TOGAF, Which of the following is a characteristic of a Foundation Architecture?
A. It contains only solution building blocks
B. It contains business functions and processes specific to a particular industry sector
C. It contains building blocks and their corresponding standards
D. It includes a model of application components and application services software, including brokering applications
E. It includes models for common high-level business functions, such as supply chain management
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 39
Which of the following best describes the purpose of the Statement of Architecture Work?
A. It contains an assessment of the current architecture requirements
B. It defines the scope and approach to complete an architecture project
C. It is sent from the sponsor and triggers the start of an architecture development cycle
D. It provides a high-level aspirational view of the end architecture project
E. It provides a schedule for implementation of the target architecture
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 40
Which section of the TOGAF template for defining principles should highlight the requirements for carrying out theprinciple?
A. Implications
B. Name
C. Rationale
D. Statement
Correct Answer: A

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Pass4itsure Latest and Most Accurate Cisco 300-075 Dumps Exam Q&As(1-16)
QUESTION 1
Which functionality does ILS use to link all hub clusters in an ILS network?
A. Fullmesh
B. Automesh
C. ILS updates
D. multicast
300-075 exam Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
Company X has a primary and a backup Cisco Unified Communications Manager instance. The administrator had to do
maintenance on the primary node and did a shutdown, which resulted in a failover to the backup node. What happens when the primary node comes back online?
A. The primary node becomes the backup node.
B. Endpoints detect that the primary is back and reregisters automatically.
C. The backup node must be shut down first to allow the endpoints to realize that the primary node is online again.
D. Nothing, the endpoints only failover when the node they lose connection to their registered node.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
You need to verify if the Media Gateway Control Protocol gateway is enabled and active. Which command should you use for this purpose?
A. show running-config
B. show fallback-mgcp
C. show gateway
D. show ccm-manager fallback-mgcp
E. show running-config gateway
F. show fallback-mgcp ccm-manager
300-075 dumps Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4
Company X has a Cisco Unified Communications Manager cluster and a Cisco Unity Connection cluster at its head office and implemented SRST for its branch offices. One Monday at 2:00 pm, the WAN connection to a branch office failed and stayed down for 45 minutes. That day the help desk received several calls from the branch saying their voicemail was not working but they were able to make and receive calls. Why did the users not realize the WAN was down and prevented access to their voicemail?
A. All the phones should have started ringing the instant the WAN connection failed to signal the start of SRST mode.
B. All calls should have dropped when the WAN failed so users would be instantly aware.
C. Although the phones were still working, the users should have noticed that the phone displays said andquot;SRST
Fallback Activeandquot;.
D. The voice administrators at the head office did not call the users to notify them.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5
Which two options must be selected in the SIP Trunk Security Profile configuration between Cisco Unified Communications Manager and Expressway? (Choose two)
A. Enable application-level authorization
B. Accept presence subscription
C. Accept out-of-dialog refer
D. Accept unsolicited notification
E. Accept replaces header
F. Transmit security status
G. Allow charging header
300-075 pdf Correct Answer: DE

QUESTION 6
Which two options should be used to create a secure traversal zone between the Expressway-C and Expressway-E? (Choose two.)
A. Expressway-C and Expressway-E must trust each other\’s server certificate.
B. One Cisco Unified Communications traversal zone for H.323 and SIP connections.
C. A separate pair of traversal zones must be configured if an H.323 connection is required and Interworking is disabled.
D. Enable username and password authentication verification on Expressway-E.
E. Create a set of username and password on each of the Expressway-C and Expressway- E to authenticate the neighboring peer.
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 7
Which three statements about configuring an encrypted trunk between Cisco TelePresence Video Communication Server and Cisco Unified Communications Manager are true? (Choose three.)
A. The root CA of the VCS server certificate must be loaded in Cisco Unified Communications Manager.
B. A SIP trunk security profile must be configured with Incoming Transport Type set to TCP+UDP.
C. The Cisco Unified Communications Manager trunk configuration must have the destination port set to 5061.
D. A SIP trunk security profile must be configured with Device Security Mode set to TLS.
E. A SIP trunk security profile must be configured with the X.509 Subject Name from the VCS certificate.
F. The Cisco Unified Communications Manager zone configured in VCS must have SIP authentication trust mode set to On.
G. The Cisco Unified Communications Manager zone configured in VCS must have TLS verify mode set to Off.
300-075 vce Correct Answer: ACE

QUESTION 8
Which command displays the detailed configuration of all the Cisco Unified IP phones, voice ports, and dial peers of the Cisco Unified SRST router?
A. show call-manager-fallback all
B. show dial-peer voice summary
C. show ephone summary
D. show voice port summary
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
Which two actions ensure that the call load from Cisco TelePresence Video Communication Server to a Cisco Unified Communications Manager cluster is shared across Unified CM nodes? (Choose two.)
A. Create a neighbor zone in VCS with the Unified CM nodes listed as location peer addresses.
B. Create a single traversal client zone in VCS with the Unified CM nodes listed as location peer addresses.
C. Create one neighbor zone in VCS for each Unified CM node.
D. Create a VCS DNS zone and configure one DNS SRV record per Unified CM node.
E. In VCS set Unified Communications mode to Mobile and remote access and configure each Unified CM node.
300-075 exam Correct Answer: AE

QUESTION 10
Which command is needed to utilize local dial peers on an MGCP-controlled ISR during an SRST failover?
A. ccm-manager fallback-mgcp
B. telephony-service
C. dialplan-pattern
D. isdn overlap-receiving
E. voice-translation-rule
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
Where can you change the clusterwide DSCP setting for Cisco Unified Communications Manager?
A. enterprise parameters
B. service parameters
C. enterprise phone configuration
D. Ethernet configuration
300-075 dumps Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 12
Widgets.com\’s Cisco TelePresence Video Communication Server allows SIP and H.323 registrations. Which local zone search rule configuration allows SIP registered endpoints to connect to H.323 endpoints that register with an H.323 E.164 number only?
300-075 dumps
300-075 dumps
A. Configure the publisher node only in the SAF Forwarder configuration page.
B. Append an @ symbol at the end of the client label value in the SAF Forwarder configuration page.
C. Configure the correct node in the EIGRP configuration of the gateway router that is associated with the Cisco Unified
Communications Manager node.
D. Configure the SAF Security Profile Configuration to support only a single node.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 14
Which three commands can be used to verify SRST fallback mode? (Choose three.)
A. show telephony-service all
B. show telephony-service ephone-dn
C. show telephony-service ephone
D. show telephony-service voice-port
E. show telephony-service tftp-bindings
300-075 pdf Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 15
Which two options are requirements for hardware MTP on Cisco IOS routers? (Choose two.)
A. the same audio codec on both legs of the call
B. an FXO card
C. a binding IP address
D. a hardware transcoder
E. DSP resources
F. a T1 card
Correct Answer: DE

QUESTION 16
An engineer is configuring Global Dial Plan Replication and wants to prevent the local cluster from routing the Vice President number 5555555555 to the remote cluster. Which action accomplishes this task?
A. Create a block route pattern.
B. Create a block learned pattern.
C. Create a block transformation pattern.
D. Create a block translation pattern.
300-075 vce Correct Answer: C

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Pass4itsure Latest and Most Accurate CompTIA 220-902 Dumps Exam Q&As(1-19)

QUESTION 1
A customer has recently installed several applications on a Windows 7 workstation and is now experiencing slow system performance and spontaneous restarts. After removing some of the recently installed applications, the issue persists. Which of the following tools could the technician use to troubleshoot the problem while preventing data loss?
A. Factory restore
B. SecureBoot
C. msconfig
D. diskpart
220-902 exam Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2
A user reports that a file they shared out on their computer for another network user is not accessible to the third party. The user insists they specifically gave this third party Allow rights for Read and Write access. Which of the following could explain the problem at hand?
A. The parent folder has explicit Allow rights set for this user.
B. The parent folder has explicit Deny rights set for this user.
C. The user forgot to share the parent folder and only shared the specific file.
D. The parent folder likely has the andquot;archiveandquot; attribute enabled.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
A technician needs to install a clean Windows OS on several laptops in the office. The office is running a 100Base-T network. The owner would like the installations completed as soon as possible. Which of the following installation methods should the technician use?
A. FireWire External Hard Drive
B. PXE-based Network Installation
C. USB 3.0 Flash Drive
D. DVD-ROM
220-902 dumps Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4
In preparation for an operating system upgrade, a technician is tasked with installing additional memory modules in a computer. Which of the following safety steps should be performed FIRST?
A. Use safety goggles
B. Remove jewelry
C. Put on an ESD strap
D. Disconnect power
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
A technician recently removed spyware from a computer and now the user is getting error messages about system files. Which of the following tools would a technician use to verify all system files are intact and in their original versions?
A. Repair Disk
B. SFC
C. FIXMBR
D. ASR
220-902 pdf Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6
A user calls the help desk because a folder containing critical business files is missing from the local drive. The user is adamant that the folder was there the previous day, and cannot understand why it is gone. The technician views the properties of the parent folder and sees a back up listed on the andquot;Prior Versionsandquot; tab. According to the theory of troubleshooting, which of the following is the technician\’s NEXT step?
A. Establish a theory of probable cause
B. Establish a plan of action and implement the solution
C. Document findings, actions and outcomes
D. Verify full system functionality and implement preventive measures
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
A user needs their email set up on their iOS device. The email needs to synchronize all changes made with the server and the PC. Which of the following would the technician use to accomplish this?
A. IMAP
B. SMTP
C. SMNP
D. POP3
220-902 exam Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8
A customer calls an IT consultant to explain an issue they are having with their Windows 7 Professional PC. Windows Update attempts to install patches upon each startup but fails on the same single update. The customer has attempted to re-run Windows Update from Control Panel but the issue remains. Which of the following courses of action would BEST resolve the problem?
A. Running a full DEFRAG on the system
B. Clearing the AppData temp folder entirely
C. Clearing the Windows Update download cache entirely
D. Uninstalling the Windows Update feature in Windows 7 and reinstalling it directly from the Microsoft website
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 9
A user states that when typing in directions on a navigation website, the map is not viewable in a newer web browser. The technician runs updates to Java, but is still unable to view the map. The technician should change which of the following Internet Options?
A. Compatibility view
B. Manage add-ons
C. Clear browser cache
D. Pop-up blocker
220-902 dumps Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
When the computer is turned on it emits a series of beeps and does not POST. This can be caused by a bad:
A. CMOS battery.
B. video card.
C. IDE cable.
D. floppy cable.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11
A computer was recently infected by malware after a flash drive was plugged in. The user, Ann, indicates she never opened any files or folders from the flash drive. A technician needs to prevent this from occurring in the future. Which of
the following would accomplish this?
A. BitLocker To Go
B. Set strong passwords
C. Disable usermin
D. Disable AutoRun
220-902 pdf Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 12
In order to prevent other users from editing files in `C:\ Files\’, which of the following steps should be taken?
A. Set NTFS permissions to read only
B. Set the folder to index files for search
C. Set the local administrator as the owner of the folder
D. Set network share permissions to read only
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 13
A technician has been tasked with limiting the users who can connect to a network printer located centrally within an office environment. Which of the following tools would be the BEST to utilize to achieve this goal?
A. VPN
B. ACL
C. RDP
D. DLP
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 14
Which of the following network hosts would MOST likely provide the services needed to allow client access to Internet web pages?
A. File server
B. Web server
C. WINS server
D. Proxy server
220-902 vce Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 15
Which of the following best practices is used to fix a zero-day vulnerability on Linux?
A. Scheduled backup
B. Scheduled disk maintenance
C. Patch management
D. Antivirus update
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 16
Which of the following features of a mobile device operates the touch screen?
A. Gyroscope
B. Digitizer
C. Accelerometer
D. Geotracking
220-902 exam Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 17
A customer calls the help desk to report an issue. The customer suggests that the problem is hardware related, but the technician knows from the description that this is not the case. Which of the following is the BEST course of action for the technician?
A. Follow the customer\’s prescribed course of action.
B. Convince the customer to take a better course of action to resolve the issue.
C. Explain why the customer\’s prescribed course of action is incorrect.
D. Acknowledge the customer\’s input, but follow another course of action.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 18
A user tries to connect to the Internet using a dial-up modem and receives a andquot;No dial tone detectedandquot; message. Which of the following is the FIRST thing the technician should check to troubleshoot the issue?
A. Check if the cable is connected on the modem\’s phone RJ-45 port.
B. Check if the cable is connected on the modem\’s line RJ-11 port.
C. Check if the cable is connected on the modem\’s line RJ-45 port.
D. Check if the cable is connected on the modem\’s phone RJ-11 port.
220-902 dumps Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 19
Joe, an end-user, reports that the Windows PC he is using automatically locks when he leaves his desk and walks to a printer to retrieve documents. Joe is then required to type in his username and password to unlock the computer. The technician looks at the settings on the PC and notices that the screensaver and screen-lock options are grayed out on the computer and cannot be changed. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of this issue?
A. Domain-level group policies
B. Antivirus domain-level policies
C. Corrupted registry settings
D. Incorrect local-level user policies
Correct Answer: A

Recommended Experience

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Related Certifications

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Pass4itsure Latest and Most Accurate Microsoft 070-464 Dumps Exam Q&As(1-12)

QUESTION 1
You use SQL Azure to store data used by an e-commerce application. You develop a stored procedure named sp1. Sp1 is used to read and change the price of all the products sold on the e-commerce site. You need to ensure that other transactions are blocked from updating product data while sp1 is executing. Which transaction isolation level should you use in sp1?
A. Repeatable read
B. Read committed
C. Serializable
D. Snapshot
070-464 exam Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 2
You review a query that runs slowly. The query accesses data in a table named Schema1.Table1.
The following is the relevant portion of the execution plan for the query:
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You need to create the missing index. Which code segment should you execute?
A. CREATE NONCLUSTERED INDEX IX1 on Schema1.Table1 (Column1) INCLUDE (Column4) WHERE Column2 <> Column3
B. CREATE NONCLUSTERED INDEX IX1 on Schema1.Table1 (Column1)
C. CREATE NONCLUSTERED INDEX IX1 on Schema1.Table1 (Column1, Column2, Column3) INCLUDE (Column4)
D. CREATE NONCLUSTERED INDEX IX1 on schema1.Table1 (Column1) INCLUDE (Column4)
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 3
You use SQL Server 2012 to maintain the data used by the applications at your company. You plan to create a table named Table1 by using the following statement. (Line numbers are included for reference only.)
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You need to ensure that Table1 contains a column named UserName. The UserName column will: Store string values in any language. Accept a maximum of 200 characters. Be case-insensitive and accent-insensitive. Which code segment should you add at line 03?
A. UserName nvarchar(200) COLLATE Latin1_General_CS_AS NOT NULL,
B. UserName varchar(200) COLLATE Latin1_General_CI_AI NOT NULL,
C. UserName varchar(200) COLLATE Latin 1_General_CS_AS NOT NULL,
D. UserName nvarchar(200) COLLATE Latin1_General_CI_AI NOT NULL,
070-464 dumps Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 4
You execute the following code:
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You need to select the task that has an IsFinished value of true from the Project that has an Id value of 1. Which code segment should you use?
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Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 5
You are creating a table to support an application that will cache data outside of SQL Server. The application will detect whether cached values were changed before it updates the values. You need to create the table, and then verify that you can insert a row into the table. Which code segment should you use?
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A.
B.
C.
D.
070-464 pdf Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 6
Your company has a SQL Azure subscription. You implement a database named Database1. Database1 has two tables named Table1 and Table2. You create a stored procedure named sp1. Sp1 reads data from Table1 and inserts data into Table2. A user named User1 informs you that he is unable to run sp1. You verify that User1 has the SELECT permission on Table1 and Table2. You need to ensure that User1 can run sp1. The solution must minimize the number of permissions assigned to User1.
What should you do?
A. Change sp1 to run as the saUser.
B. Grant User1 the EXECUTE permission on sp1.
C. Add User1 to the db_datawriter role.
D. Grant User1 the INSERT permission on Table2.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 7
You execute the following code:
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You create a nonclustered index named IX_CustomerName on the CustomerName column. You execute the following query:

You need to reduce the amount of time it takes to execute the query. What should you do?
A. Partition the table and use the CustomerName column for the partition scheme.
B. Replace IX_CustomerName with a clustered index.
C. Replace LEFT(CustomerName ,1) = ‘a’ with CustomerName LIKE ‘a%’.
D. Replace LEFT(CustomerName ,1) = ‘a’ with SUBSTRING(CustomerName ,1,1) – ‘a’.
070-464 vce Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 8
You have a table named Rooms that contains three columns. You execute the following query:
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You discover the execution plan shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.)
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You need to recommend a solution to reduce the amount of time it takes to execute the query. What should you do? More than one answer choice may achieve the goal. Select the BEST answer.
A. Include the RoomName column and the Position column in the Room_IX index.
B. Create a nonclustered index for RoomName, Id, and Position.
C. Create a clustered index for Id.
D. Use the WITH (INDEX(Room_IX),NOLOCK) query hint.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 9
You have a database named database1. Database developers report that there are many deadlocks. You need to implement a solution to monitor the deadlocks. The solution must meet the following requirements:
Support real-time monitoring.
Be enabled and disabled easily.
Support querying of the monitored data.
What should you implement? More than one answer choice may achieve the goal. Select the BEST answer.
A. Log errors by using trace flag 1222
B. Log errors by using trace flag 1204
C. A SQL Server Profiler template
D. An Extended Events session
070-464 exam Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 10
You execute the following code:
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The execution plan for the query is shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.)
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You need to prevent the key lookup. What should you modify? More than one answer choice may achieve the goal. Select the BEST answer.
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Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 11
You have a database for a mission-critical web application. The database is stored on a SQL Server 2012 instance and is the only database on the instance. The application generates all T-SQL statements dynamically and does not use stored procedures. You need to maximize the amount of memory available for data caching. Which advanced server option should you modify?
A. Optimize for Ad hoc Workloads
B. Enable Contained Databases
C. Allow Triggers to Fire Others
D. Scan for Startup Procs
070-464 dumps Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 12
You have an application that uses a view to access data from multiple tables. You need to ensure that you can insert rows into the underlying tables by using the view. What should you do?
A. Create an INSTEAD OF trigger on the view.
B. Define the view by using the SCHEMABINDING option.
C. Define the view by using the CHECK option.
D. Materialize the view.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

Q: Why should companies train their IT professionals in this technology?
SQL Server is the most popular database platform for Windows-based environments. SQL Server 2014 adds powerful new features for all kinds of workloads and infrastructures, from in-memory technology to cloud integration, and it’s empowering database professionals to build faster, more flexible solutions.

Q: From a student-perspective, what did you keep in mind when creating this course?
I tried to give learners a different perspective for learning by providing a mix of concept and demonstration, also by providing our own simplified database and T-SQL examples to work with.

Q: Any outside-of-the-box tips to help students get the most out of your course?
Lab it up! Use our Virtual NuggetLab or your own environment to see how things work. A mix of concept, demonstration, and lab can go a long way toward reinforcing concepts and getting that crucial hands-on experience.

Q: What’s one real-world application someone can expect to use, thanks to this course?
You’ll improve your T-SQL skills and see first hand how to utilize the many programmable objects in SQL Server. You’ll also be ready to rock many of the new development features SQL Server 2014 offers.

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This exam provides the knowledge and understanding for some of these important job functions:
1. Provision Office 365

  • Provision tenants
  • Add and configure custom domains
  • Plan a pilot

2. Plan and implement networking and security in Office 365

  • Configure DNS records for services
  • Enable client connectivity to Office 365
  • Administer rights management (RM)
  • Manage administrator roles in Office 365

3. Manage cloud identities

  • Configure password management
  • Manage user and security groups
  • Manage cloud identities with Windows PowerShell

4. Implement and manage identities by using DirSync

  • Prepare on-premises Active Directory for DirSync
  • Set up DirSync [WAAD sync tool]
  • Manage Active Directory users and groups with DirSync in place

5. Implement and manage federated identities (single sign-on [SSO])

  • Plan requirements for Active Directory Federation Services (AD FS)
  • Install and manage AD FS servers
  • Install and manage AD FS proxy servers

6. Monitor and troubleshoot Office 365 availability and usage

  • Analyze reports
  • Monitor service health
  • Isolate service interruption

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Pass4itsure Latest and Most Accurate Microsoft 70-346 Dumps Exam Q&As(1-14)

QUESTION 1
Contoso, Ltd. plans to use Office 365 for email services and Skype for Business Online. Contoso has four unique domain names. You need to migrate domain names to Office 365. Which two domain names should you exclude from the migration? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. contoso.us
B. contoso
C. contoso.local
D. contoso.co
70-346 exam Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 2
You administer the Office 365 environment for a company that has offices around the world. All of the offices use the same Office 365 tenant. You need to ensure that all users can access the services that are available in their regions. Which setting or service should you update?
A. User location settings
B. User licenses
C. Service usage address
D. Rights management
70-346 dumps Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
Your company has an Office 365 subscription. You create a new retention policy that contains several retention tags. A user named Test5 has a client computer that runs Microsoft Office Outlook 2007. You install Microsoft Outlook 2010 on the client computer of Test5. Test5 reports that the new retention tags are unavailable from Outlook 2010. You verify that other users can use the new retention tags. You need to ensure that the new retention tags are available to Test5 from Outlook 2010. What should you do?
A. Instruct Test5 to repair the Outlook profile.
B. Modify the retention policy tags.
C. Run the Set-Mailbox cmdlet.
D. Force directory synchronization.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
You deploy Skype for Business Online for a company that has offices in San Francisco and New York. The two offices both connect to the Internet. There is no private network link between the offices. Users in the New York office report that they cannot transfer files to the users in the San Francisco office by using Skype for Business Online. You need to ensure that users in both offices can transfer files by using Skype for Business Online. What should you do?
A. Configure the firewall to open Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) ports 50060-50079.
B. Configure the firewall to open Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) ports 50040-50059.
C. Create a private network connection to share files.
D. Upgrade all of the Skype for Business Online clients to use Skype for Business client application.
70-346 pdf Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
An organization plans to migrate to Office 365. You need to estimate the post-migration network traffic. Which tool should you use?
A. Microsoft Online Services Diagnostics and Logging (MOSDAL) Support Kit
B. Microsoft Network Monitor
C. Skype for Business Bandwidth Calculator
D. Microsoft Remote Connectivity Analyzer
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6
Your company has a subscription to Office 365 for midsize business and enterprises. The company uses Microsoft Skype for Business Online. You need to open ports on the network firewall to enable all of the features of Skype for Business Online. Which port or ports should you open? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
Choose all that apply.)
A. inbound TCP443
B. outbound TCP 5061
C. outbound UDP 3478
D. outbound TCP 443
E. outbound UDP 50000 to outbound UDP 59999
F. inbound TCP 8080
70-346 vce Correct Answer: ACDE

QUESTION 7
You have an Office 365 environment. Synchronization between the on-premises Active Directory and Office 365 is enabled.
You need to deactivate directory synchronization. Which Windows PowerShell cmdlet should you run?
A. Update-MsolFederatedDomain
B. Remove-MsolDomain
C. Remove-MsolFederatedDomain
D. Set-MsolDirSyncEnabled
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8
You plan to deploy an Office 365 tenant to multiple offices around the country. You need to modify the users and groups who are authorized to administer the Rights Management service. Which Windows PowerShell cmdlet should you run?
A. Add-MsolGroupMember
B. Get-Add rm Role Based Administrator
C. Remove-AadrmRoleBasedAdministrator
D. Enable AadrmSuperUserFeature
70-346 exam Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 9
A company migrates to Office 365. 2,000 active users have valid Office 365 licenses assigned. An additional 5,000 user accounts were created during the migration and testing processes. These users do not have any licenses assigned. You need to remove the Office 365 user accounts that do not have any licenses assigned by using the least amount of administrative effort. Which Windows PowerShell command should you run?
A. Get-MsolUser -All-EnabledFilter “DisabledOnly” | Remove-MsolUser -Force
B. Get-MsolUser-EnabledFilter “DisabledOnly” | Remove-MsolUser -Force
C. Get-MsolUser -All -UnlicensedUsersOnly | Remove-MsolUser -Force
D. Get-MsolUser -UnlicensedUsersOnly | Remove-MsolUser璅orce
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10
Your company subscribes to an Office 365 Plan E3. A user named User1 installs Office Professional Plus for Office 365 on a client computer. From the Microsoft Online Services portal, you assign User1 an Office Professional Plus license. One month after installing Office, User1 can no longer save and edit Office documents on the client computer. User1 can open and view Office documents. You need to ensure that User1 can save and edit documents on the client computer by using office. What should you do?
A. Install the Office Customization Tool.
B. Reinstall Office Professional Plus.
C. Install the Microsoft Online Services Sign-in Assistant.
D. Upgrade the subscription to Plan E4.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 11
An organization plans to migrate to Office 365. You use the Windows Azure Active Directory (AD) Sync tool. Several users will not migrate to Office 365. You must exclude these users from synchronization. All users must continue to authenticate against the on-premises Active Directory. You need to synchronize the remaining users. Which three actions should you perform? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. Populate an attribute for each user account.
B. Disable the user accounts in Active Directory.
C. Perform a full synchronization.
D. Configure the connection filter.
E. Run the Windows PowerShell command Set-MsolDirSyncEnabled -EnableDirSync $false.
70-346 dumps Correct Answer: ACD

QUESTION 12
Your company has a hybrid deployment of Office 365. All mailboxes are hosted on Office 365. All users access their Office 365 mailbox by using a user account that is hosted on- premises. You need to delete a user account and its associated mailbox. Which tool should you use?
A. The Remove-MSOLUser cmdlet
B. The Remove-Mailbox cmdlet
C. The Office 365 portal
D. Active Directory Users and Computers
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 13
An organization implements single sign-on (SSO) for use with Office 365 services. You install an Active Directory Federation Services (AD FS) proxy server. Users report that they are unable to authenticate. You launch the Event Viewer and view the event information shown in the following screen shot:
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You need to ensure that users can authenticate to Office 365. What should you do?
A. Re-enter the credentials used to establish the trust.
B. Verify the federation server proxy is trusted by the federation service.
C. Re-install the Secure Sockets Layer (SSL) certificate for the federation service.
D. Verify network connectivity between the Federation Service Proxy and federation server.
70-346 pdf Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 14
A company named Fabrikam, Inc. is deploying an Office 365 tenant. You install Active Directory Federation Services (AD FS) on a server that runs Windows Server 2012. The company’s environment is described in the following table:
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You must obtain a certificate from a certification authority and install it on the federation servers. You need to specify the subject name for the certificate. Which name should you specify?
A. fs.fabnkam.com
B. server1.fabrikam.com
C. fabrikam.com
D. server2.fabrikam.com
Correct Answer: A

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Q: Why should companies train their IT professionals in Microsoft Office 365? What value does it bring?

Office 365 offers so much more than just Office products in the cloud. It’s a full identity management solution with Exchange Server, Sharepoint, and Skype for Business integration. Office 365 represents a way to move your business off of bare metal servers in a closet in order to support a geographically dispersed and mobile workforce.

Q: From a learner perspective, what did you keep in mind when creating this course?

That Microsoft focuses its certifications on PowerShell and feature exploration but users want to know how to get the basics done. In this course, I focus on explaining how to get common tasks done in Office 365 while keeping in line with the certification objectives.

Q: Any out-of-the-box tips for learners on how to get the most out of your Microsoft Office 365: Identities and Requirements 70-346 course?

Don’t be afraid to try everything we cover in the course, up to and including the integration with on-premise Active Directory. There are myriad ways to test out the features and functions outside of your organization’s production environment and with minimal resources required.

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Pass4itusre Latest and Most Accurate Cisco 200-105 Dumps Exam Q&As(42-63)

QUESTION 42
Which commands are required to properly configure a router to run OSPF and to add network 192.168.16.0/24 to OSPF area 0? (Choose two.)
A. Router(config)# router ospf 0
B. Router(config)# router ospf 1
C. Router(config)# router ospf area 0
D. Router(config-router)# network 192.168.16.0 0.0.0.255 0
E. Router(config-router)# network 192.168.16.0 0.0.0.255 area 0
F. Router(config-router)# network 192.168.16.0 255.255.255.0 area 0
200-105 exam Correct Answer: BE
Explanation/Reference:
In the router ospf
Command, the ranges from 1 to 65535 so o is an invalid number – B is correct but A is not correct. To configure OSPF, we need a wildcard in the andquot;network” stat

QUESTION 43
Which statement is true, as relates to classful or classless routing?
A. Classful routing protocols send the subnet mask in routing updates.
B. RIPv1 and OSPF are classless routing protocols.
C. Automatic summarization at classful boundaries can cause problems on discontiguous subnets.
D. EIGRP and OSPF are classful routing protocols and summarize routes by default.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: RIPv1, RIPv2, IGRP, and EIGRP all auto-summarize classful boundaries by default (OSPF do

QUESTION 44
What does a router do if it has no EIGRP feasible successor route to a destination network and the successor route to that destination network is in active status?
A. It routes all traffic that is addressed to the destination network to the interface indicated in the routing table.
B. It sends a copy of its neighbor table to all adjacent routers.
C. It sends a multicast query packet to all adjacent neighbors requesting available routing paths to the destination network.
D. It broadcasts Hello packets to all routers in the network to re-establish neighbor adjacencies.
200-105 dumps Correct Answer: C
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 45
Which statement about named ACLs is true?
A. They support standard and extended ACLs.
B. They are used to filter usernames and passwords for Telnet and SSH.
C. They are used to filter Layer 7 traffic.
D. They support standard ACLs only.
E. They are used to rate limit traffic destined to targeted networks.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation/Reference:
Named Access Control Lists (ACLs) allows standard and extended ACLs to be given names instead of numbers. Unlike in numbered Access Control Lists (ACLs), we can edit Named Access Control Lists. Anoth

QUESTION 46
What does the frame-relay interface-dlci command configure?
A. local DLCI on the subinterface
B. remote DLCI on the main interface
C. remote DCLI on the subinterface
D. local DLCI on the main interface
200-105 pdf Correct Answer: A
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 47
Peter is your new Security Administrator. On his first working day, he is very nervous and enters the wrong password three times. His account is locked. What can be done to unlock Peter’s account? Give the BEST answer.
A. It is not possible to unlock Peter’s account. You have to install the firewall once again or abstain from Peter’s help.
B. You can unlock Peter’s account by using the command fwm unlock_admin -u Peter on the Security Gateway.
C. You can unlock Peter’s account by using the command fwm lock_admin -u Peter on the Security Management Server.
D. You can unlock Peter’s account by using the command fwm unlock_admin -u Peter on the Security Management Server
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 48
Where can you find the Check Point’s SNMP MIB file?
A. $CPDIR/lib/snmp/chkpt.mib
B. There is no specific MIB file for Check Point products.
C. $FWDIR/conf/snmp.mib
D. It is obtained only by request from the TAC.
200-105 vce Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 49
You want to generate a cpinfo file via CLI on a system running GAiA. This will take about 40 minutes since the log files are also needed. What action do you need to take regarding timeout?
A. Log in as Administrator, set the timeout to one hour with the command idle 60 and start cpinfo.
B. Log in as the default user expert and start cpinfo.
C. No action is needed because cpshell has a timeout of one hour by default.
D. Log in as admin, switch to expert mode, set the timeout to one hour with the command, idle 60, then start cpinfo.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 50
Many companies have defined more than one administrator. To increase security, only one administrator should be able to install a Rule Base on a specific Firewall. How do you configure this?
A. Define a permission profile in SmartDashboard with read/write privileges, but restrict it to all other firewalls by placing them in the Policy Targets field. Then, an administrator with this permission profile cannot install a policy on any Firewall not listed here.
B. Put the one administrator in an Administrator group and configure this group in the specific Firewall object in Advanced > Permission to Install.
C. Right-click on the object representing the specific administrator, and select that Firewall in Policy Targets.
D. In the object General Properties representing the specific Firewall, go to the Software Blades product list and select Firewall. Right-click in the menu, select Administrator to Install to define only this
  administrator.
200-105 exam Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 51
What is the officially accepted diagnostic tool for IP Appliance Support?
A. ipsoinfo
B. cpinfo
C. uag-diag
D. CST
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 52
ALL of the following options are provided by the SecurePlatform sysconfig utility, EXCEPT:
A. Export setup
B. Time & Date
C. DHCP Server configuration
D. GUI Clients
200-105 dumps Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 53
Which of the following options is available with the GAiA cpconfig utility?
A. Time & Date
B. GUI Clients
C. DHCP Server configuration
D. Export setup
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 54
Which command would provide the most comprehensive diagnostic information to Check Point Technical Support?
A. cpstat – date.cpstat.txt
B. fw cpinfo
C. cpinfo -o date.cpinfo.txt
D. diag

200-105 pdf Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 55
Which of the following statements accurately describes the command snapshot?
A. snapshot creates a Security Management Server full system-level backup on any OS.
B. snapshot stores only the system-configuration settings on the Gateway.
C. A Gateway snapshot includes configuration settings and Check Point product information from the remote Security Management Server.
D. snapshot creates a full OS-level backup, including network-interface data, Check Point product information, and configuration settings during an upgrade of a SecurePlatform Security Gateway.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 56
How do you recover communications between your Security Management Server and Security Gateway if you lock yourself out through a rule or policy mis-configuration?
A. fw delete [email protected]
B. fw unload policy
C. fwm unloadlocal
D. fw unloadlocal
200-105 vce Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 57
How can you check whether IP forwarding is enabled on an IP Security Appliance?
A. clish -c show routing active enable
B. ipsofwd list
C. cat /proc/sys/net/ipv4/ip_forward
D. echo 1 > /proc/sys/net/ipv4/ip_forward
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 58
Which command allows you to view the contents of an R76 table?
A. fw tab -s <tablename>
B. fw tab -t <tablename>
C. fw tab -x <tablename>
D. fw tab -a <tablename>

200-105 exam Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 59
Which of the following tools is used to generate a Security Gateway R76 configuration report?
A. infoCP
B. cpinfo
C. infoview
D. fw cpinfo
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 60
Which of the following is a CLI command for Security Gateway R76?
A. fw merge
B. fw tab -u
C. fw shutdown
D. fwm policy_print <policyname>
200-105 dumps Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 61
You are the Security Administrator for MegaCorp. A Check Point firewall is installed and in use on a platform using GAiA. You have trouble configuring the speed and duplex settings of your Ethernet interfaces. Which of the following commands can be used in Expert Mode to configure the speed and duplex settings of an Ethernet interface and will survive a reboot? Give the BEST answer.
A. eth_set
B. mii_tool
C. ifconfig -a
D. ethtool
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 62
John has scanned the web server with NMAP. However, he could not gather enough information to help him identify the operating system running on the remote host accurately.
What would you suggest to John to help identify the OS that is being used on the remote web server?
A. Connect to the web server with a browser and look at the web page.
B. Connect to the web server with an FTP client.
C. Telnet to port 8080 on the web server and look at the default page code.
D. Telnet to an open port and grab the banner.
200-105 pdf Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Most people don’t care about changing the banners presented by applications listening to open ports and therefore you should get fairly accurate information when grabbing banners from open ports with, for example, a telnet application.

QUESTION 63
An Nmap scan shows the following open ports, and nmap also reports that the OS guessing results to match too many signatures hence it cannot reliably be identified:
21 ftp
23 telnet
80 http

443 https
What does this suggest ?
A. This is a Windows Domain Controller
B. The host is not firewalled
C. The host is not a Linux or Solaris system
D. The host is not properly patched
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
If the answer was A nmap would guess it, it holds the MS signature database, the host not being firewalled makes no difference. The host is not linux or solaris, well it very well could be. The host is not properly patched? That is the closest; nmaps OS detection architecture is based solely off the TCP ISN issued by the operating systems TCP/IP stack, if the stack is modified to show output from randomized ISN’s or if your using a program to change the ISN then OS detection will fail. If the TCP/IP IP ID’s are modified then os detection could also fail, because the machine would most likely come back as being down.

200-105 dumps

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