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QUESTION 1 A customer has the UCMv2 installed in their IP Office 500 V2. They are using one-X® Portal for 25 of their users. In this scenario, what is the maximum voicemail ports supported on the Voicemail Pro? A. 30 B. 20 C. 25 D. 40 Correct Answer: B References: https://downloads.avaya.com/css/P8/documents/101005065 Page: 9
QUESTION 2 As of Avaya IP Office Release 10 software, which type of license can be used? A. ADI B. PLDS C. Windows D. Linux Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 3 Which two methods are voicemails to email with the Voicemail Pro? (Choose two.) A. Outlook B. MAPI C. SNMP D. SMTP E. TAPI Correct Answer: BD References: https://downloads.avaya.com/css/P8/documents/100174760 Page: 57
QUESTION 4 If no Music-on-Hold source is selected, what will a caller hear when a user places them on hold? A. a double bleep tone B. silence C. ringing D. an automated voice saying “Please Hold” Correct Answer: A References: https://downloads.avaya.com/css/P8/documents/100119917
QUESTION 5 Which Application is used to upgrade IP Office Server Edition? A. Manager B. Web Manager C. System Status D. Linux command line Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 6 A customer has two main receptionists using SoftConsole; however, when they are on a break or at lunch, there are four back office workers that can open the SoftConsole on their PC to take calls to cover these periods. How many licenses are required for this to work? A. 8 B. 6 C. 2 D. 4 Correct Answer: D References: http://www.ipofficeinfo.com/pdf/softconsoleinstall_en.pdf Page: 9
QUESTION 7 A customer has requested that all users should be prevented from dialing international numbers. What is the quickest way to apply the short code to the system\\’s short codes? A. Apply the short code to the ARS table. B. Apply the short code to a user right. C. Apply the short code to all external lines. D. Apply the short code to each user individually. Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 8 A user at a remote IP Office site calls in to discuss a voicemail issue. You launch the Manager program to see your multi-site IP Office network, but only your local IP Office appears. What is causing this problem? A. The Unit/Broadcast address is 255.255.255.255. B. No SCN users are available. C. The remotes are doing a reboot. D. Your login is not correct. Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 9 Which method will avoid corruption of the data on the SD card when removing the SD card from the IP Office? A. Dial the shutdown short code to shut down the card before removing the SD card. B. Use the Manager application to shut down the card before removing the SD card. C. Use System Monitor to shut down the card before removing the SD card. D. Pull out the card. Special shutdown is not required. Correct Answer: B References: https://www.manualslib.com/manual/824589/Avaya-Ip-Office-Essential-Edition.html?page=92
QUESTION 10 The Debug level is set to Verbose for creating log files to help with fault finding on which application? A. Avaya Equinox Client B. Media Manager C. one-X® Portal Client D. VM Pro Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 11 When creating a Short Code that is to connect to a Start point on Modules in the Voicemail Pro, which Short Code feature should you use? A. Voicemail Call B. Voicemail Off C. Voicemail On D. Voicemail Node Correct Answer: D References: https://downloads.avaya.com/elmodocs2/ip_office/R4.1/Short_Codes.pdf
QUESTION 12 What does “IMAP support” mean in the IP Office UMS service? A. A user can see/listen to voicemail messages via Web browser. B. A user can receive voicemail messages only using MS Outlook. C. All messages are forwarded to a user e-mail account and deleted on their telephone. D. A user can receive voicemail messages to their Outlook, Outlook Express and/or Lotus Notes programs running on their PC. E. A new message is sent to a user e-mail account. The user can listen to it by dialing their telephone number. Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 13 A customer has given six employees the ability to hot-desk for when they come into the office. When they log off, their calls will go to their voicemail boxes. Employees want to retrieve their voicemail while out of the office. How should you set up DDI/DID to achieve this? A. DDI/DID to their Login code B. DDI/DID number to their Extension C. DDI/DID to the short code feature “Voicemail Collect” D. DDI/DID to a Voicemail module “Recording” Correct Answer: C
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QUESTION 1 The SIP-enabled AACC Communication Control Toolkit integrates the agents and supervisors within the SIP environment to offer features. Which application programming interface type is used to publish the CCT functions? A. Microsoft .NET B. Open Database Connectivity (ODBC) C. Open Computing Language (OpenGL) D. Simple Direct Media Layer Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 2 Media Servers are needed in a SIP-enabled AACC Which deployment allows the co-resident installation of Voice and Multimedia Contact Center with Media Server? A. Physical Mid-Range Server B. Physical Entry-Level Server C. VMware Mid-Range Server D. VMware High-End Server Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 3 A Contact Center manager knows that a modern agent Interface which can deliver all of the relevant customer information, creates a better customer experience. Which two agent interfaces are supported with AACC Release 7.1? (Choose two) A. Avaya IXTM Workplace B. Avaya Agent Desktop a C. Avaya IXTM Workspaces D. Avaya one-X Agent Desktop Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 4 During the discovery conversation with South Travel Stores, they said they want to leave a chat message for the experts if they are not available. Which component would the sales person offer South Travel Stores? A. Co-browse Snap-In B. Multimedia Messaging C. Messaging (AAM) D. Context Store Snap-In Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 5 Which three attributes describe the right context of a customer journey experience? (Choose three.) A. Specific Report focused B. Single Channel driven C. Seamless D. Personalized E. Intelligent Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 6 When upgrading existing AACC Systems, which Avaya Engagement AACC package is available? A. Agent Greeting B. Instant Message C. Resilience D. Geographic Node Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 7 Which group offers the AACC Callback Request solution that leverages AACC scripting and web services, as well\\’as the outbound capability of AACC? A. Avaya technical staff B. Avaya Development team C. Avaya Support D. Avaya Professional Services Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 8 Refer to the exhibit.
AACC routes contacts based on business logic to any SIP addressable endpoint. Which statement about AACC Voice Contact is true? A. It Is anchored In the Media Processing Platform. B. It Is anchored In the G450. C. It Is anchored In the Media Server. D. It Is anchored in the Session Manager. Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 9 A Contact Center manager wants a fast First Call Resolution, and has requested a Skype for Business client software on Avaya Agent Desktop. Which statement describes what the Avaya support department needs be prepared to tell the manager? A. Different Presence client software are supported on Avaya Agent Desktop. B. Agent Desktop does not support co-resident Skype for Business client software. C. Microsoft Lync Server are not supported. D. Microsoft Skype Server are not supported. Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 10 An IT manager wants a Callback offer leveraging AACC scripting and Web services, as well as the outbound capability of AACC. What Is this solution called? A. Call Completion No Reply (CCNR) B. Call Back Assist (CBA) C. Call Back Request (CBR) D. Call Completion Busy Subscriber (CCBS) Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 11 A customer needs an application that is provided free of charge and allows them to reduce the time required to develop and maintain scripts, workflows, and applications in the Avaya Aura Contact Center. Which application will meet the customer\\’s requirements? A. Avaya Control Manager B. Avaya one-X Agent Desktop C. Avaya Agent Desktop D. Avaya Contact Center Orchestration Designer Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 12 A finance director wants a solution that both answers Inbound calls during peak call times to avoid poor customer experience, and minimizes costs for additional agents. Which solution meets these customer requirements? A. Avaya IX TM Workplace B. Avaya Callback Assist C. Avaya IX TMM Workspaces D. Avaya Agent Desktop Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 13 A design specialist prepares for a customer meeting, and knows that data on the customer, their Industry, and the possible competition, will need to be collected. Which additional information is also needed? A. The salaries of the executives In the meeting B. The design diagram for discussion with customer C. The Avaya solutions and services Avaya could offer D. The model numbers of the existing contact center equipment Correct Answer: D
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QUESTION 4 What does the Security Posture dashboard display? A. Active investigations and their status. B. A high-level overview of notable events. C. Current threats being tracked by the SOC. D. A display of the status of security tools. Correct Answer: B The Security Posture dashboard is designed to provide high-level insight into the notable events across all domains of your deployment, suitable for display in a Security Operations Center (SOC). This dashboard shows all events from the past 24 hours, along with the trends over the past 24 hours, and provides real-time event information and updates. Reference: https://docs.splunk.com/Documentation/ES/6.1.0/User/SecurityPosturedashboard
QUESTION 5 An administrator is provisioning one search head prior to installing ES. What are the reference minimum requirements for OS, CPU, and RAM for that machine? A. OS: 32 bit, RAM: 16 MB, CPU: 12 cores B. OS: 64 bit, RAM: 32 MB, CPU: 12 cores C. OS: 64 bit, RAM: 12 MB, CPU: 16 cores D. OS: 64 bit, RAM: 32 MB, CPU: 16 cores Correct Answer: C Reference: https://docs.splunk.com/Documentation/Splunk/8.0.2/Capacity/Referencehardware
QUESTION 8 What are the steps to add a new column to the Notable Event table in the Incident Review dashboard? A. Configure -> Incident Management -> Notable Event Statuses B. Configure -> Content Management -> Type: Correlation Search C. Configure -> Incident Management -> Incident Review Settings -> Event Management D. Configure -> Incident Management -> Incident Review Settings -> Table Attributes Correct Answer: C Reference: https://docs.splunk.com/Documentation/ES/6.1.0/Admin/Customizenotables
QUESTION 9 After installing Enterprise Security, the distributed configuration management tool can be used to create which app to configure indexers? A. Splunk_DS_ForIndexers.spl B. Splunk_ES_ForIndexers.spl C. Splunk_SA_ForIndexers.spl D. Splunk_TA_ForIndexers.spl Correct Answer: D Reference: https://docs.splunk.com/Documentation/ES/6.1.0/Install/InstallTechnologyAdd-ons
QUESTION 10 An administrator is asked to configure a “Nslookup” adaptive response action so that it appears as a selectable option in the notable event\\’s action menu when an analyst is working in the Incident Review dashboard. What steps would the administrator take to configure this option? A. Configure -> Content Management -> Type: Correlation Search -> Notable -> Nslookup B. Configure -> Type: Correlation Search -> Notable -> Recommended Actions -> Nslookup C. Configure -> Content Management -> Type: Correlation Search -> Notable -> Next Steps -> Nslookup D. Configure -> Content Management -> Type: Correlation Search -> Notable -> Recommended Actions -> Nslookup Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 12 Where is it possible to export content, such as correlation searches, from ES? A. Content exporter B. Configure -> Content Management C. Export content dashboard D. Settings Menu -> ES -> Export Correct Answer: B Reference: https://docs.splunk.com/Documentation/ES/6.1.0/Admin/Export
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QUESTION 1 Which user mapping method could be used to discover user IDs in an environment with multiple Windows domain controllers? A. Active Directory monitoring B. Windows session monitoring C. Windows client probing D. domain controller monitoring Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 2 Which operations are allowed when working with App-ID application tags? A. Predefined tags may be deleted. B. Predefined tags may be augmented by custom tags. C. Predefined tags may be modified. D. Predefined tags may be updated by WildFire dynamic updates. Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 3
Given the topology, which zone type should interface E1/1 be configured with? A. Tap B. Tunnel C. Virtual Wire D. Layer3 Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 4 Which two features can be used to tag a username so that it is included in a dynamic user group? (Choose two.) A. XML API B. log forwarding auto-tagging C. GlobalProtect agent D. User-ID Windows-based agent Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 5 Which statement is true regarding a Prevention Posture Assessment? A. The Security Policy Adoption Heatmap component filters the information by device groups, serial numbers, zones, areas of architecture, and other categories B. It provides a set of questionnaires that help uncover security risk prevention gaps across all areas of network and security architecture C. It provides a percentage of adoption for each assessment area D. It performs over 200 security checks on Panorama/firewall for the assessment Correct Answer: B Reference: https://docs.paloaltonetworks.com/best-practices/8-1/data-center-best-practices/data-center-best-practicesecurity-policy/use-palo-alto-networks-assessment-and-review-tools
QUESTION 6 Based on the screenshot, what is the purpose of the Included Groups?
A. They are groups that are imported from RADIUS authentication servers. B. They are the only groups visible based on the firewall\\’s credentials. C. They contain only the users you allow to manage the firewall. D. They are used to map users to groups. Correct Answer: D Reference: https://docs.paloaltonetworks.com/pan-os/9-1/pan-os-admin/user-id/map-users-to-groups.html
QUESTION 7 Which link in the web interface enables a security administrator to view the security policy rules that match new application signatures? A. Review Apps B. Review App Matches C. Pre-analyze D. Review Policies Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 8 Which type of security policy rule will match traffic that flows between the Outside zone and inside zone, but would not match traffic that flows within the zones? A. global B. intrazone C. interzone D. universal Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 9 Match the Palo Alto Networks Security Operating Platform architecture to its description.
QUESTION 10 Which prevention technique will prevent attacks based on packet count? A. zone protection profile B. URL filtering profile C. antivirus profile D. vulnerability profile Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 11 Order the steps needed to create a new security zone with a Palo Alto Networks firewall. Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 12 Based on the screenshot what is the purpose of the included groups? A. They are only groups visible based on the firewall\\’s credentials. B. They are used to map usernames to group names. C. They contain only the users you allow to manage the firewall. D. They are groups that are imported from RADIUS authentication servers. Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 13 Arrange the correct order that the URL classifications are processed within the system. Select and Place:
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QUESTION 1 Which one of the following is defined as the process of distributing incorrect Internet Protocol (IP) addresses/names with the intent of diverting traffic? A. Network aliasing B. Domain Name Server (DNS) poisoning C. Reverse Address Resolution Protocol (ARP) D. Port scanning Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 2 An organization hires a tester to do a wireless penetration test. Previous reports indicate that the last test did not contain management or control packets in the submitted traces. Which of the following is the most likely reason for lack of management or control packets? A. The wireless card was not turned on. B. The wrong network card drivers were in use by Wireshark. C. On Linux and Mac OS X, only 802.11 headers are received in promiscuous mode. D. Certain operating systems and adapters do not collect the management or control packets. Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 3 The following exploit code is extracted from what kind of attack?
A. Remote password cracking attack B. SQL Injection C. Distributed Denial of Service D. Cross Site Scripting E. Buffer Overflow Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 4 You are attempting to crack LM Manager hashed from Windows 2000 SAM file. You will be using LM Brute force hacking tool for decryption. What encryption algorithm will you be decrypting? A. MD4 B. DES C. SHA D. SSL Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 5 Which statement best describes a server type under an N-tier architecture? A. A group of servers at a specific layer B. A single server with a specific role C. A group of servers with a unique role D. A single server at a specific layer Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 6 When Nmap performs a ping sweep, which of the following sets of requests does it send to the target device? A. ICMP ECHO_REQUEST and TCP SYN B. ICMP ECHO_REQUEST and TCP ACK C. ICMP ECHO_REPLY and TFP RST D. ICMP ECHO_REPLY and TCP FIN Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 7 Peter extracts the SIDs list from Windows 2000 Server machine using the hacking tool “SIDExtractor”. Here is the the output of the SIDs:
From the above list identify the user account with System Administrator privileges. A. John B. Rebecca C. Sheela D. Shawn E. Somia F. Chang G. Micah Correct Answer: F
QUESTION 8 The intrusion detection system at a software development company suddenly generates multiple alerts regarding attacks against the company\\’s external webserver, VPN concentrator, and DNS servers. What should the security team do to determine which alerts to check first? A. Investigate based on the maintenance schedule of the affected systems. B. Investigate based on the service level agreements of the systems. C. Investigate based on the potential effect of the incident. D. Investigate based on the order that the alerts arrived in. Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 9 A tester is attempting to capture and analyze the traffic on a given network and realizes that the network has several switches. What could be used to successfully sniff the traffic on this switched network? (Choose three.) A. ARP spoofing B. MAC duplication C. MAC flooding D. SYN flood E. Reverse smurf attack F. ARP broadcasting Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 10 In an attempt to secure his 802.11b wireless network, Ulf decides to use a strategic antenna positioning. He places the antenna for the access points near the center of the building. For those access points near the outer edge of the building he uses semi- directional antennas that face towards the building\\’s center. There is a large parking lot and outlying filed surrounding the building that extends out half a mile around the building. Ulf figures that with this and his placement of antennas, his wireless network will be safe from attack. Which of the following statements is true? A. With the 300 feet limit of a wireless signal, Ulf\\’s network is safe. B. Wireless signals can be detected from miles away, Ulf\\’s network is not safe. C. Ulf\\’s network will be safe but only of he doesn\\’t switch to 802.11a. D. Ulf\\’s network will not be safe until he also enables WEP. Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 11 What is the main reason the use of a stored biometric is vulnerable to an attack? A. The digital representation of the biometric might not be unique, even if the physical characteristic is unique. B. Authentication using a stored biometric compares a copy to a copy instead of the original to a copy. C. A stored biometric is no longer “something you are” and instead becomes “something you have”. D. A stored biometric can be stolen and used by an attacker to impersonate the individual identified by the biometric. Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 12 How does an operating system protect the passwords used for account logins? A. The operating system performs a one-way hash of the passwords. B. The operating system stores the passwords in a secret file that users cannot find. C. The operating system encrypts the passwords, and decrypts them when needed. D. The operating system stores all passwords in a protected segment of non-volatile memory. Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 13 In which location, SAM hash passwords are stored in Windows 7? A. c:\windows\system32\config\SAM B. c:\winnt\system32\machine\SAM C. c:\windows\etc\drivers\SAM D. c:\windows\config\etc\SAM Correct Answer: A
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QUESTION 1 At Maximum Processing Capacity, how many messages per minute (combined email and voice) can Avaya IXTM Messaging successfully process without loss of data, regardless of the number of users? A. 5000 B. 4000 C. 3000 D. 2000 Correct Answer: B https://downloads.avaya.com/css/P8/documents/101047702
QUESTION 2 What is the Avaya IXTM message bandwidth required for inbound and for outbound traffic? A. 64 kbps bandwidth for inbound, and another 64 kbps for outbound traffic B. 15 kbps bandwidth for inbound, and another 15 kbps for outbound traffic C. 10 kbps bandwidth for inbound, and another 10 kbps for outbound traffic D. 30 kbps bandwidth for inbound, and another 30 kbps for outbound traffic Correct Answer: B https://downloads.avaya.com/css/P8/documents/101047702
QUESTION 3 What are three deployment configuration considerations for the installation of Avaya IXTM Messaging? (Choose three.) A. Network or mapped drives are not supported. B. Network or mapped drives are supported. C. An Avaya IXTM Messaging server may be installed on the root drive. D. The drives may be a physical drive, or a single drive with partitions. E. An Avaya IXTM Messaging server only be installed on the root drive. Correct Answer: ADE https://downloads.avaya.com/css/P8/documents/101065045
QUESTION 4 While doing a backup of the Avaya IXMessaging solution, which three folders must be chosen? (Choose three.) A. UC\DB B. UC\DBCom C. UC\Licenses D. UC\Messages E. UC\Prompts Correct Answer: ABD
QUESTION 5 When the Primary server becomes unavailable, it will stop updating the time stamps on the copied license files that exist on the Secondary server and the Consolidated server. To stop the expiration of the copied license files, within how many days must the Primary server be recovered? A. 30 B. 28 C. 14 D. 10 Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 6 In Avaya IXTM Messaging High Availability, VSN is designed to support up to how many SIP ports? A. 100 B. 120 C. 150 D. 220 Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 7 Which three statements about license management in Avaya IXTM Messaging High Availability are true? (Choose three.) A. The other servers (Secondary Server, Consolidated server, Mobilink Server, etc.) will maintain their individual license, which allows them to maintain full functionality. B. The Primary voice server will hold the license, and becomes the primary holder of the license. C. The license file will be copied to all voice servers by Mobilink. D. The license files on other servers (Secondary Server, Consolidated server, Mobilink Server etc) are time stamped, and expire after a certain period of time. E. The license files on other servers (Secondary Server, Consolidated server, Mobilink Server etc) are permanent, and do not expire. Correct Answer: ACD
QUESTION 8 In High Availability architecture, what is the maximum number of ports that are supported on Avaya IXTM Messaging 10.8? A. 2,600 B. 2,200 C. 2,400 D. 2,800 Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 9 If SR140 fax port licenses are present, how many FAX channels are supported by Avaya IX,M Messaging? A. 48 ports per voice server, 120 max/solution B. 24 ports per voice server, 120 max/solution C. 24 ports per voice server, 60 max/solution D. 48 ports per voice server, 60 max/solution Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 10 In Avaya IXTM Messaging, which service provides unified messaging synchronization to Google through Gmail API, Office365 using EWS link, any IMAP4 compliant email application? A. Message Networking B. IIS Web Service C. Content sync engine D. Transcription Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 11 Which two statements about Avaya IXTM Messaging integration with a third party PBX are true? (Choose two.) A. The number of PBXs are limited by the license. B. In multi-PBX/multi-node, PBX with MWI with SIP and with CTI are supported. C. Integration of multiple PBXs is only supported if the PBXs support same type of MWI integration. D. In multi-PBX/multi-node, all PBXs/nodes can use any trunk type for integration. E. It is recommended that all PBXs/nodes use SIP trunks for integration. Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 12 How many users are supported on Avaya IXTMMessaging 10.8 SingleServer? A. 4,200 B. 4,500 C. 4,600 D. 4,800 Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 13 Which three field settings does the consolidated server have the ability to change? (Choose three.) A. Company B. SIP Settings C. Mailbox Settings D. Feature Group E. PBX Settings Correct Answer: BCE
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QUESTION 1 For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
QUESTION 2 Match the types of data to the appropriate Azure data services.To answer, drag the appropriate data types from the column on the left to its service on the right. Each data type may be used once, more than once, or not at all. NOTE: Each correct match is worth one point.
QUESTION 3 You have an application that runs on Windows and requires across to a mapped drive. Which Azure service should you use? A. Azure Cosmos DB B. Azure Table storage C. Azure Files D. Azure Blob Storage Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 4 To complete the sentence, select the appropriate option in the answer area.
QUESTION 5 Which storage solution supports role-based access control (RBAC) at the file and folder level? A. Azure Disk Storage B. Azure Data Lake Storage C. Azure Blob storage D. Azure Queue storage Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 6 Match the Azure data factory components to the appropriate descriptions. To answer, drag the appropriate component from the column on the left to its description on the right. Each component may be used once, more than once, or not at all. NOTE: Each correct match is worth one point. Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 7 Which statement is an example of Data Definition Language (DDL)? A. SELECT B. JOIN C. MERGE D. CREATE Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 8 To complete the sentence, select the appropriate option in the answer area. Hot Area:
QUESTION 9 You are reviewing the data model shown in the following exhibit.
Use the drop-down menus to select the answer choice that completes each statement based on the information presented in the graphic. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point Hot Area:
QUESTION 10 What should you use to build a Microsoft Power BI paginated report? A. Power BI report Builder B. Power BI Desktop C. Charticulator D. the Power BI service Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 11 To complete the sentence select the appropriate option in the answer area.
QUESTION 12 For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Hot Area:
QUESTION 13 Match the Azure Data Lake Storage terms to the appropriate levels in the hierarchy. To answer, drag the appropriate term from the column on the left to its level on the right. Each term may be used once, more than once, or not at all. NOTE: Each correct match is worth one point. Select and Place:
Reason for selection:
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QUESTION 1 Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. Some user accounts in the domain have the P.O. Box attribute set. You plan to remove the value of the P.O. Box attribute for all of the users by using Ldifde. You have a user named User1 who is located in the Users container. How should you configure the LDIF file to remove the value of the P.O. Box attribute for User1? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area. Hot Area:
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 2 Note: This question is part of a series of questions that use the same scenario. For you convenience, the scenario is repeated in each question. Each question presents a different goal and answer choices, but the text of the scenario is exactly the same in each question in this series. Start of repeated scenario. You work for a company named Contoso, Ltd. The network contains an Active Directory forest named contoso.com. A forest trust exists between contoso.com and an Active Directory forest named adatum.com. The contoso.com forest contains the objects configured as shown in the following table.
Group1 and Group2 contain only user accounts. Contoso hires a new remote user named User3. User3 will work from home and will use a computer named Computer3 that runs Windows 10. Computer3 is currently in a workgroup. An administrator named Admin1 is a member of the Domain Admins group in the contoso.com domain. From Active Directory Users and Computers, you create an organizational unit (OU) named OU1 in the contoso.com domain, and then you create a contact named Contact1 in OU1. An administrator of the adatum.com domain runs the Set-ADUser cmdlet to configure a user named User1 to have a user logon name of [email protected] End of repeated scenario. You need to ensure that User2 can add Group4 as a member of Group5. What should you modify? A. the group scope of Group5 B. the Managed By settings of Group4 C. the group scope of Group4 D. the Managed By settings of Group5 Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 3 Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution. After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen. Your network contains an Active Directory forest named contoso.com. You need to identify which server is the schema master. Solution: From Windows PowerShell, you run Get-ADDomainController –Discover –Service 2. Does this meet the goal? A. Yes B. No Correct Answer: B This command gets a global catalog in the current forest using Discovery. References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/powershell/module/addsadministration/getaddomaincontroller?view=win10-ps
QUESTION 4 You have an Active Directory Rights Management Services (AD RMS) server named RMS1. Multiple documents are protected by using RMS1. RMS1 fails and cannot be recovered. You install the AD RMS server role on a new server named RMS2. You restore the AD RMS database from RMS1 to RMS2. Users report that they fail to open the protected documents and to protect new documents. You need to ensure that the users can access the protected content. What should you do? A. From Active Directory Rights Management, update the Service Connection Point (SCP) for RMS1. B. From DNS, create an alias (CNAME) record for RMS2. C. From DNS, modify the service location (SRV) record for RMS1. D. From RMS2, register a service principal name (SPN) in Active Directory. Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 5 Your network contains an Active Directory forest named contoso.com Your company plans to hire 500 temporary employees for a project that will last 90 days. You create a new user account for each employee. An organizational unit (OU) named Temp contains the user accounts for the employees. You need to prevent the new users from accessing any of the resources in the domain after 90 days. What should you do? A. Run the Get-ADUser cmdlet and pipe the output to the Set-ADUser cmdlet. B. Create a group that contains all of the users in the Temp OU. Create a Password Setting object (PSO) for the new group. C. Create a Group Policy object (GPO) and link the GPO to the Temp OU. Modify the Password Policy settings of the GPO. D. Run the GET-ADOrganizationalUnit cmdlet and pipe the output to the Set-Date cmdlet. Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 6 You have an enterprise certification authority (CA) named ContosoCA. Recovery agents are configured for ContosoCA. You duplicate the User certificate template and name it Cont_User. You plan to issue the certificates based on Cont_User to provide users with the ability to encrypt email messages and files. You need to ensure that the recovery agents can access any user-encrypted files and email messages if the users lose their certificate. What should you do? A. Modify the Recovery Agents settings for ContosoCA. B. Issue a certificate based on a key recovery agent certificate. C. Modify the Request Handling settings for Cont_User. D. On ContosoCA, configure the Key Recovery Agent template as a certificate template to issue. Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 7 Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a member server named Server1 and a domain controller named DC1. Both servers run Windows Server 2016. Server1 is used to perform administrative tasks, including managing Group Polices. After maintenance is performed on DC1, you open a Group Policy object (GPO) from Server1 as shown in the exhibit.
You need to be able to view all of the Administrative Templates settings in GPO1. What should you do? A. From File Explorer, copy the administrative templates from \\contoso.com\SYSVOL\contoso.com\Policies to the PolicyDefinitions folder on Server1. B. From File Explorer, delete \\contoso.com\SYSVOL\contoso.com\Policies\PolicyDefinitions. C. From File Explorer, delete the PolicyDefinitions folder from Server1. D. From Group Policy Management, configure WMI Filtering for GPO1. Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 8 Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains three servers named Server1, Server2, and Server3 that run Windows Server 2016. Server1 has IP Address Management (IPAM) installed. Server2 and Server3 have the DHCP Server role installed and have several DHCP scopes configured. The IPAM server retrieves data from Server2 and Server3. A domain user named User1 is a member of the groups shown in the following table.
On Server1, you create a security policy for User1. The policy grants the IPAM DHCP Scope Administrator Role with the \Global access scope to the user. Which actions can User1 perform? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area. Hot Area:
Correct Answer:
User1 is using Server Manager, not IPAM to perform the administration. Therefore, only the “DHCP Administrators” permission on Server2 and the “DHCP Users” permissions on Server3 are applied. The permissions granted through membership of the “IPAM DHCP Scope Administrator Role” are not applied when the user is not using the IPAM console.
QUESTION 9 HOTSPOT Your network contains an Active Directory forest named contoso.com. They connect to the forest by using ldp.exe and receive the output as shown in the following exhibit.
Use drop-down menus to select the answer choice that completes each statement based on the information presented in the graphic. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Hot Area:
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 10 Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. All the accounts of the users in the sales department are in an organizational unit (OU) named SalesOU. An application named App1 is deployed to the user accounts in SalesOU by using a Group Policy object (GPO) named Sales GPO. You need to set the registry value of \HKEY_CURRENT_USER\Software\App1\Collaboration to 0. Solution: You add a computer preference that has a Create action. Does this meet the goal? A. Yes B. No Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 11 Your network contains an enterprise root certification authority (CA) named CA1. Multiple computers on the network successfully enroll for certificates that will expire in one year. The certificates are based on a template named Secure_Computer. The template uses schema version 2. You need to ensure that new certificates based on Secure_Computer are valid for three years. What should you do? A. Modify the Validity period for the certificate template. B. Instruct users to request certificates by running the certreq.exe command. C. Instruct users to request certificates by using the Certificates console. D. Modify the Validity period for the root CA certificate. Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 12 Note: This question is part of a series of questions that use the same or similar answer choices. An answer choice may be correct for more than one question in the series. Each question is independent of the other questions in this series. Information and details provided in a question apply only to that question. Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a domain controller named DC1 that runs Windows Server 2016. You need to create a snapshot of the Active Directory database on DC1. Which tool should you use? A. Dsadd quota B. Dsmod C. Active Directory Administrative Center D. Dsacls E. Dsmain F. Active Directory Users and Computers G. Ntdsutil H. Group Policy Management Console Correct Answer: G
QUESTION 13 Your network contains two network domains sales.fabrikam.com, and contoso.com, You recently added a site named Europe. The forest contains four users who are members of the groups shown in the following table.
You need to create a Group Policy object (GPO) named GP01 and to link GPO1 to the Europe site. Which users can perform each task? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point Hot Area:
Correct Answer:
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QUESTION 1 What is the SOLR database for? A. Used for full-text search and enables powerful matching capabilities B. Writes data to the database and full-text search C. Serves GUI responsible to transfer request to the DLE server D. Enables powerful matching capabilities and writes data to the database Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 2 fwssd is a child process of which of the following Check Point daemons? A. fwd B. cpwd C. fwm D. cpd Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 3 From SecureXL perspective, what are the tree paths of traffic flow: A. Initial Path; Medium Path; Accelerated Path B. Layer Path; Blade Path; Rule Path C. Firewall Path; Accept Path; Drop Path D. Firewall Path; Accelerated Path; Medium Path Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 4 When Dynamic Dispatcher is enabled, connections are assigned dynamically with the exception of: A. Threat Emulation B. HTTPS C. QOS D. VoIP Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 5 Which of the SecureXL templates are enabled by default on Security Gateway? A. Accept B. Drop C. NAT D. None Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 6 SandBlast offers businesses flexibility in implementation based on their individual business needs. What is an option for deployment of Check Point SandBlast Zero-Day Protection? A. Smart Cloud Service B. Any Cloud Service C. Threat Agent Service D. Public Cloud Service Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 7 What state is the Management HA when both members have different policies/databases? A. Synchronized B. Never been synchronized C. Lagging D. Collision Correct Answer: D Reference: click here
QUESTION 8 Fill in the blank: Identity Awareness AD-Query is using the Microsoft _______________ API to learn users from AD. A. WMI B. Eventvwr C. XML D. Services.msc Correct Answer: A Reference: click here
QUESTION 9 Which command would you use to set the network interfaces\\’ affinity in Manual mode? A. sim affinity -m B. sim affinity -l C. sim affinity -a D. sim affinity -s Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 10 Fill in the blanks. There are ________ types of software containers: ___________. A. Three; security management, Security Gateway, and endpoint security B. Three; Security Gateway, endpoint security, and gateway management C. Two; security management and endpoint security D. Two; endpoint security and Security Gateway Correct Answer: A Reference: click here
QUESTION 11 What will SmartEvent automatically define as events? A. Firewall B. VPN C. IPS D. HTTPS Correct Answer: C Reference: click here
QUESTION 12 What are the available options for downloading Check Point hotfixes in Gaia WebUI (CPUSE)? A. Manually, Scheduled, Automatic B. Manually, Automatic, Disabled C. Manually, Scheduled, Disabled D. Manually, Scheduled, Enabled Correct Answer: A Reference: click here
QUESTION 13 Vanessa is a firewall administrator in her company. Her company is using Check Point firewall on a central and several remote locations which are managed centrally by R77.30 Security Management Server. On central location is installed R77.30 Gateway on Open server. Remote locations are using Check Point UTM-1570 series appliances with R75.30 and some of them are using a UTM-1-Edge-X or Edge-W with the latest available firmware. She is in process of migrating to R80. What can cause Vanessa unnecessary problems, if she didn\\’t checks all requirements for migration to R80? A. Missing an installed R77.20 Add-on on Security Management Server B. Unsupported firmware on UTM-1 Edge-W appliance C. Unsupported version on UTM-1 570 series appliance D. Unsupported appliances on remote locations Correct Answer: A
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What is the Cisco CCNP Enterprise Certification
You must pass two exams to become a CCNP corporate certification. A core exam and a corporate centralized exam of your choice are necessary. Each exam for this certification will give you an expert certification, which is the best way to identify a person’s achievements. Core 350-401 exam measures knowledge of enterprise infrastructure, dual-stack (IPv 4 and IPv 6) architecture.
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QUESTION 1 An engineer must configure interface GigabitEthernet0/0 for VRRP group 10. When the router has the highest priority in the group, it must assume the master role. Which command set must be added to the initial configuration to accomplish this task?
A. vrrp 10 ip 172.16.13.254 vrrp 10 preempt B. standby 10 ip 172.16.13.254 standby 10 priority 120 C. vrrp group 10 ip 172.16.13 254.255.255.255.0 vrrp group 10 priority 120 D. standby 10 ip 172.16.13.254 255.255.255.0 standby 10 preempt Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 2 What are two reasons why broadcast radiation is caused in the virtual machine environment? (Choose two.) A. vSwitch must interrupt the server CPU to process the broadcast packet. B. The Layer 2 domain can be large in virtual machine environments. C. Virtual machines communicate primarily through broadcast mode. D. Communication between vSwitch and network switch is broadcast based. E. Communication between vSwitch and network switch is multicast based. Correct Answer: AD Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/solutions/collateral/data-centervirtualization/net_implementation_white_paper0900aecd806a9c05.html
QUESTION 3 How does SSO work with HSRP to minimize network disruptions? A. It enables HSRP to elect another switch in the group as the active HSRP switch. B. It ensures fast failover in the case of link failure. C. It enables data forwarding along known routes following a switchover, white the routing protocol reconverges. D. It enables HSRP to failover to the standby RP on the same device. Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 4 Refer to the exhibit.
An engineer must establish eBGP peering between router R3 and router R4. Both routers should use their loopback interfaces as the BGP router ID. Which configuration set accomplishes this task?
A. Option A B. Option B C. Option C D. Option D Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 5 Which feature must be configured to allow packet capture over Layer 3 infrastructure\\’? A. VSPAN B. IPSPAN C. RSPAN D. ERSPAN Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 6
Refer to the exhibit. Which level message does the WLC send to the syslog server? A. syslog level errors and less severity messages B. syslog level errors messages C. all syslog levels messages D. syslog level errors and greater severity messages Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 7 Refer to the exhibit.
A client reports being unable to log into the wireless network, which uses PEAPv2. Which two issues appear in the output? (Choose two.) A. There is a problem with the client supplicant. B. The AP has the incorrect RADIUS server address. C. The AP has lost IP connectivity to the authentication server. D. The EAP client timeout value should be increased. E. The authentication server is misconfigured on the controller. F. The authentication server is misconfigured in the WLAN. Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 9 Which configuration restricts the amount of SSH traffic that a router accepts to 100 kbps?
A. Option A B. Option B C. Option C D. Option D Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 10 A network is being migrated from IPV4 to IPV6 using a dual-stack approach. Network management is already 100% IPV6 enabled. In a dual-stack network with two dual-stack NetFlow collections, how many flow exporters are needed per network device in the flexible NetFlow configuration? A. 1 B. 2 C. 4 D. 8 Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 11 Refer to the exhibit.
Refer to the exhibit. Which two commands are needed to allow for full reachability between AS 1000 and AS 2000? (Choose two) A. R1#network 19.168.0.0 mask 255.255.0.0 B. R2#no network 10.0.0.0 255.255.255.0 C. R2#network 19.168.0.0 mask 255.255.0.0 D. R2#network 209.165.201.0 mask 255.255.192.0 E. R1#no network 10.0.0.0 255.255.255.0 Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 12 Refer to the exhibit.
Refer to the exhibit. Which command allows hosts that are connected to FastEthernet0/2 to access the Internet? A. ip nat inside source list 10 interface FastEthernet0/1 overload B. ip nat inside source list 10 interface FastEthernet0/2 overload C. ip nat outside source list 10 interface FastEthernet0/2 overload D. ip nat outside source static 209.165.200.225 10.10.10.0 overload Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 13 A server running Linux is providing support for virtual machines along with DNS and DHCP services for a small business. Which technology does this represent? A. container B. Type 1 hypervisor C. hardware pass-thru D. Type 2 hypervisor Correct Answer: D
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