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QUESTION 1 #

Which of the following are the default ports that must be configured for Splunk Enterprise Security to function?

A. SplunkWeb (8088), Splunk Management (8089), KV Store (8000)
B. SplunkWeb (8397), Splunk Management (8877), KV Store (8350)
C. SplunkWeb (8043), Splunk Management (8088), KV Store (8191)
D. SplunkWeb (8000), Splunk Management (8089), KV Store (8191)
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 2 #

Which setting is used in indexes.conf to specify alternate locations for accelerated storage?

A. thawedPath
B. tstatsHomePath
C. summaryHomePath
D. warmToColdScript
Correct Answer: B
Reference: https://docs.splunk.com/Documentation/Splunk/8.0.2/Knowledge/Acceleratedatamodels

QUESTION 3 #

Which of the following would allow an add-on to be automatically imported into Splunk Enterprise Security?

A. A prefix of CIM_
B. A suffix of .spl
C. A prefix of TECH_
D. A prefix of Splunk_TA_
Correct Answer: D
Reference: https://dev.splunk.com/enterprise/docs/developapps/enterprisesecurity/planintegrationes/

QUESTION 4 #

Adaptive response action history is stored in which index?

A. cim_modactions
B. modular_history
C. cim_adaptiveactions
D. modular_action_history
Correct Answer: A
Reference: https://docs.splunk.com/Documentation/ES/6.1.0/Install/Indexes

QUESTION 5 #

Which component normalizes events?

A. SA-CIM.
B. SA-Notable.
C. ES application.
D. Technology add-on.
Correct Answer: A
Reference: https://docs.splunk.com/Documentation/CIM/4.15.0/User/ UsetheCIMtonormalizedataatsearchtime

QUESTION 6 #

To which of the following should the ES application be uploaded?

A. The indexer.
B. The KV Store.
C. The search head.
D. The dedicated forwarder.
Correct Answer: C
Reference: https://docs.splunk.com/Documentation/ES/6.1.0/Install/InstallEnterpriseSecuritySHC

QUESTION 7 #

Which of the following is part of tuning correlation searches for a new ES installation?

A. Configuring correlation permissions.
B. Configuring correlation adaptive responses.
C. Configuring correlation notable event index.
D. Configuring correlation result storage.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8 #

What is the bar across the bottom of any ES window?

A. The Investigator Workbench.
B. The Investigation Bar.
C. The Compliance Bar.
D. The Analyst Bar.
Correct Answer: B
Reference: https://docs.splunk.com/Documentation/ES/6.4.1/User/Startaninvestigation

QUESTION 9 #

Which of the following is a key feature of a glass table?

A. Rigidity.
B. Customization.
C. Interactive investigations.
D. Strong data for later retrieval.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10 #

Which columns in the Assets lookup are used to identify an asset in an event?

A. src, DVC, dest
B. cidr, port, netbios, saml
C. IP, mac, DNS, nt_host
D. host, hostname, URL, address
Correct Answer: C
Reference: https://docs.splunk.com/Documentation/ES/6.4.1/Admin/Formatassetoridentitylist

QUESTION 11 #

Which of the following is an adaptive action that is configured by default for ES?

A. Create a new asset
B. Create notable event
C. Create investigation
D. Create a new correlation search
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 12 #

An administrator is asked to configure a “Nslookup” adaptive response actions that appear as a selectable option in the notable event\’s action menu when an analyst is working in the Incident Review dashboard.

next, What steps would the administrator take to configure this option?

A. Configure -> Content Management -> Type: Correlation Search -> Notable -> Nslookup
B. Configure -> Type: Correlation Search -> Notable -> Recommended Actions -> Nslookup
C. Configure -> Content Management -> Type: Correlation Search -> Notable -> Next Steps -> Nslookup
D. Configure -> Content Management -> Type: Correlation Search -> Notable -> Recommended Actions > Nslookup
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 13 #

Which of the following is a way to test for a properly normalized data model?

A. Use Audit -> Normalization Audit and check the Errors panel.
B. Run a | data model search, compare results to the CIM documentation for the data model.
C. Run a | load job search, look at tag values and compare them to known tags based on the encoding.
D. Run a | data model search and compare the results to the list of data models in the ES normalization guide.
Correct Answer: B
Reference: https://docs.splunk.com/Documentation/CIM/4.15.0/User/ UsetheCIMtonormalizedataatsearchtime

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QUESTION 1 #

What is a benefit of Session Manager?
A. It centralizes the management of remote gateways.
B. It provides SIP application interoperability across multi-vendor equipment.
C. It provides traditional analog trunking to the edge devices.
D. It de-centralizes management of phones and users enterprise-wide.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2 #

A technician is adding 1100 users to an Avaya Aura solution. There is only bandwidth for 30kbps calls per user.
Which audio codec will provide the highest fidelity that the network will support?
A. G.722
B. H.264
C. G.711
D. G.729
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3 #

The account team is concerned about limitations associated with analog licenses that you have included in your solution
design.
Which two characteristics of analog licenses would you share with the account team? (Choose two.)
A. It is possible to uplift an analog license to a Core suite license.
B. Analog users will get all benefits of a Core license user; the only difference Is the device.
C. Analog license users can coexist in the same Communication Manager with Mobility and Collaboration users.
D. The percentage of analog licenses, within a solution, cannot exceed 60% of the total number of licenses.
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 4 #

You are explaining to your customer that Avaya Aura Media Server (AAMS) has been adopted by the Communication
Manager, but Is not a direct replacement for media gateways.
Which two capabilities are supported by the Avaya Aura Media Server? (Choose two.)
A. TDM interfaces for digital, analog stations and trunks
B. V.150.1 (Modem-over-IP)
C. Virtualization
D. Basic media resource capabilities
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 5 #

Which change was made to EC500, to provide a CS1000 Mobile-X-like feature experience?
A. You can now put the call on hold before dialing a feature access code.
B. You can now dial a feature access code without putting the call on hold.
C. You can now enter a feature access code before receiving a call.
D. You must now enter feature access codes before you put a call on hold.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6 #

A customer wants to ensure that their remote workers who access the Avaya core are authenticated by the Avaya
Session Border Controller for Enterprise (SBCE).
What is the recommended location for the SBCE?
A. On the same virtual instance with Session Manager
B. In the Internet Service Provider network
C. Behind the firewall in the customer’s enterprise
D. In the customer\’s DMZ
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7 #

To support 2000 users, the customer wants an Avaya Session Border Controller for Enterprise (SBCE) with encryption for
SIP trunking. They have agreed to use one session for every five users’ sizing models.
How many licenses does this customer need?
A. 2,000 standard and 2,000 advanced licenses
B. 400 standard and 400 advanced licenses
C. 400 standard licenses
D. 2,000 standard licenses
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8 #

A customer has a branch location with the following requirements:
24 H.323 Endpoints 30 SIP Endpoints 1 DS-1 for PSTN trunking 15 Analog Ports Survivability for all endpoints in the event
of WAN fail
What is the least cost gateway solution that meets all of these requirements?
A. G450 Media Gateway with S8300
B. G450 Media Gateway
C. G430 Media Gateway
D. G430 Media Gateway with S8300
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 9 #

A Sales Engineer is designing an Avaya Aura 8.x solution where 900 video users are being added. There is enough
bandwidth for all users to establish video calls at 6 Mbps.
Which video codec will provide the best video quality that the network will support?
A. H.264
B. H.263
C. H.261
D. H.262
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 10 #

You have a customer who requires both SIP Trunking and Remote Workers. After examining the features needed
overall, you have determined that 700 Core Suite licenses are required. You still need to quote SBCE licenses, in
addition to the entitlements included with Core Suite licenses, to support a total of 120 PSTN SIP trunks and 330 remote
workers. The customer has agreed to a 3 remote worker users to 1 session access basis- How many additional
standard and advanced a la carte SBCE licenses are needed? (Choose two.)
A. 30 SBCE Standard Licenses
B. 20 SBCE Standard Licenses
C. 10 SBCE Advanced Licenses
D. 20 SBCE Advanced Licenses
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 11 #

You are designing an addition to a customer\’s existing Avaya Aura system. The addition will include 575 IP sets, of
which 200 will also use Avaya Equinox for the Desktop, 175 will use Desktop P2P Video, and 25 of them will also need
Extension to Cellular (EC500). There are 75 other new users who will use Avaya Equinox for iOS as their only UC Client
or endpoint. The customer does not want a la carte licensing for applications not covered by Core Suite, and will
purchase other Avaya Aura Suites as required.
How many Core Suite licenses are needed for the addition?
A. 675
B. 650
C. 625
D. 575
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 12 #

You are adding 1400 users to an existing Avaya Aura communication core- The customer wants the same services for
alt users, but with this expansion there Is not enough bandwidth for audio and video calls for all.
If the bandwidth parameter Is set lower than the minimum video requirement, what will happen to users Initiating audio
and video calls?
A. Audio calls will connect but video calls will not initiate.
B. Audio and video calls will connect for some users.
C. Audio and video calls will connect for all users.
D. Audio calls will connect and video calls will connect as audio calls.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 13 #

A customer is interested in deploying geo-redundant System Managers. Which two requirements would they need to
know? (Choose two.)
A. Both servers must be on the same IP subnet.
B. The two servers must have the same version of the software.
C. The two servers can reach each other on the network.
D. Both servers must have the same IP address.
Correct Answer: A

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QUESTION 1
What is a limitation of searches generated by workflow actions?
A. Searches generated by workflow action cannot use macros.
B. Searches generated by workflow actions must be less than 256 characters long.
C. Searches generated by workflow action must run in the same app as the workflow action.
D. Searches generated by workflow action run with the same permissions as the user running them.
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 2
Select this in the fields sidebar to automatically pipe you search results to the rare command
A. events with this field
B. rare values
C. top values by time
D. top values
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 3
Which of the following searches show a valid use of macro? (Select all that apply)
A. index=main source=mySource oldField=* |\\’makeMyField(oldField)\\’| table _time newField
B. index=main source=mySource oldField=* | stats if(\\’makeMyField(oldField)\\’) | table _time newField
C. index=main source=mySource oldField=* | eval newField=\\’makeMyField(oldField)\\’| table _time newField
D. index=main source=mySource oldField=* | “\\’newField(\\’makeMyField(oldField)\\’)\\'” | table _time newField
Correct Answer: AB
Reference: https://answers.splunk.com/answers/574643/field-showing-an-additional-and-not-visible-value-1.html

QUESTION 4
A data model can consist of what three types of datasets?
A. Pivot, searches, and events.
B. Pivot, events, and transactions.
C. Searches, transactions, and pivot.
D. Events, searches, and transactions.
Correct Answer: D
Reference: https://docs.splunk.com/Splexicon:Datamodeldataset


QUESTION 5
Which of the following about reports is/are true?
A. Reports are knowledge objects.
B. Reports can be scheduled.
C. Reports can run a script.
D. All of the above.
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 6
Which search would limit an “alert” tag to the “host” field?
A. tag=alert
B. host::tag::alert
C. tag==alert
D. tag::host=alert
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7
These allow you to categorize events based on search terms. Select your answer.
A. Groups
B. Event Types
C. Macros
D. Tags
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8
Selected fields are displayed ______each event in the search results.
A. below
B. interesting fields
C. other fields
D. above
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 9
In the following eval statement, what is the value of description if the status is 503?
index=main | eval description=case(status==200, “OK”, status==404, “Not found”, status==500, “Internal Server Error”)
A. The description field would contain no value.
B. The description field would contain the value 0.
C. The description field would contain the value “Internal Server Error”.
D. This statement would produce an error in Splunk because it is incomplete.
Correct Answer: C
Reference: https://docs.splunk.com/Documentation/Splunk/8.1.1/SearchReference/ConditionalFunctions

QUESTION 10
When extracting fields, we may choose to use our own regular expressions
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 11
which of the following are valid options with the chart command
A. useother
B. usenull
C. fillfield
D. usefiled
Correct Answer: AB


QUESTION 12
The time range specified for a historical search defines the ____________ .——questionable on ans
A. Amount of data shown on the timeline as data streams in
B. Amount of data fetched from index matching that time range
C. Time range for the static results
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 13
Data model are composed of one or more of which of the fo-owing datasets? (select all that apply.)
A. Events datasets
B. Search datasets
C. Transaction datasets
D. Any child of event, transaction, and search datasets
Correct Answer: ABC
Reference: https://docs.splunk.com/Documentation/Splunk/8.0.3/Knowledge/Aboutdatamodels

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QUESTION 1
Refer to the Scenario:
Bittersweet Coffee Company (BCC).

37820X exam questions-q1

Your initial bid response has been designed to meet only the customer\\’s stated needs from the RFP. Which feature
brings added value to your solution without incurring any additional cost to the customer?
A. On demand call recording and reporting for any user
B. HTML based call accounting reports
C. Meet-me audio conferencing
D. Centralized management of wired network switches
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 2
Refer to the exhibit.

37820X exam questions-q2

You have just finished your discovery conversation with a multi-location, midsize customer. What would you do to use
the generic functional UCandC architecture shown in the exhibit?
A. Create a version of this diagram for each location.
B. Add the specific product names for components in your solution.
C. Cross out functionality not requested by the customer.
D. Add In quantities for each of the components in your solution.
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 3
In an IP Office environment, which one can be run on the Vantage device?
A. Vantage Connect Client
B. Avaya IXTM Workplace Client
C. Avaya Equinox Attendant
D. IP Office Web Client
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 4
You have just completed a series of discovery conversations with a customer. To summarize the results of your
conversations, what would you create to show each of the customer contacts you met with?
A. A design diagram for each person
B. An architectural diagram for each person
C. A single architectural diagram
D. A single design diagram
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 5
Refer to the Scenario: HandH Ticket.

37820X exam questions-q5

The HandH Ticket company wants to replace their DEFINITY systems with a solution for which they can easily obtain
parts and maintenance. The customer contact wants to know why they should migrate to IP Office”* and not Avaya
Aura? In addition to telling them that this solution was purpose-built to support midsize enterprises with up to 3000
users, what else would you tell them?
A. IP Office Includes built-in apps such as voicemail, audio and web collaboration, mobility, IM and Presence.
B. The IP Office can be virtualized in either a Nutanix or a VMware environment.
C. IP Office integrates with a multi-channel contact center solution that can migrate to Avaya Aura Contact Center.
D. IP Office uses many of the same components and applications such as SBCE and System Manager.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6
You are speaking with a customer who has a large multi-site enterprise, and limited IT staff to support a new
communications system. They like the idea of housing the primary call control in a reliable data center, but do not have
such an environment. In their business today. Local survivability is critical as reliable communications is a core function
of their business. Based on these factors, which IP OfficeTM deployment model would meet the customer
requirements?
A. Private Cloud
B. Public Cloud
C. Hybrid Cloud
D. On-Premise
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 7
Web Traveling.com is using Outlook with an Exchange server. You have proposed that the customer use
the Outlook plug-In.
What does this plug-In do for the users at Web Travellng.com?
A. It adds Avaya IX Workplace Client functionality to the Outlook window.
B. It adds Outlook access to the Avaya IX Workplace Client for IP Office.
C. it adds Outlook access to the one-X Portal desktop.
D. it adds a subset of one-X Portal functionality to the Outlook window.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8
Which agent application uses the Communication Control Toolkit (CCT) function in Avaya Contact Center Select
(ACCS)?
A. one-X Agent
B. Avaya Communicator
C. Avaya Agent Desktop
D. Agent Desktop Display
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 9
One of the security enhancements in the Powered By IP 0ffice offer is SIP Registrar Hardening that
enables Better control to allow SIP clients to register using a whitelist and blacklist.
To which platform is this functionality relevant?
A. SCN IP500 V2
B. Expansion IP500 V2
C. Linux servers
D. CentOS servers
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10
Refer to the Scenario: IT-FAC.

37820X exam questions-q10

IT-FAC Is very concerned about reliability since they need the ability to always make calls and receive calls. They are
not as concerned about reliability of messaging and other forms of collaboration. Based on the above information, what
Is required in the IP Office solution to provide backup for their SIP trunks and Session Border Controller for Enterprise
(SBCE)?
A. Add an E1 or T1 line with a combo card.
B. Add a second Portwell SBCE to provide High Availability (HA).
C. Add Plain Old Telephone Service (POTS) lines and analog modules to the IP500 V2.
D. Duplicate all of the SIP trunks, add another Portwell SBCE and High Availability (HA. licenses.
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 11
With the Avaya J100 Series IXTM IP phones, which feature requires PoE Class 2?
A. The JBM24/JEM24 button module
B. The color display
C. The J100 wireless module
D. The built-in volume boost
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 12
You are working with a customer to migrate them to an Avaya Midsize solution with IP OfficeTM. They have nine
existing analog trunks that each cost $40 per month. You want to determine If It would be cost effective to go to digital
trunking using a T1/E1 at a cost of $400 per month. Although the analog monthly line charges are less, what else would
need to be taken Into consideration to look at the total cost difference?
A. Analog devices, such as a classic fax machine, attached to the IP Office require analog trunks.
B. Digital trunking requires an SBCE for security.
C. The cost for nine analog trunk ports versus a single digital trunk port.
D. Digital trunking needs VCM channels and analog trunks do not  Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 13
With Avaya Equinox Meetings Online, what is the maximum number of live broadcast viewers for a Pro VMR version?
A. 500 viewers
B. 50 viewers
C. 25 viewers
D. 100 viewers
Correct Answer: A

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QUESTION 1
What predefined drilldown tokens are available specifically for trellis layouts? (Select all that apply.)
A. trellis.Xaxis
B. trellis.Yaxis
C. trellis.name
D. trellis.value
Correct Answer: CD
Reference: https://docs.splunk.com/Documentation/Splunk/8.1.2/Viz/VisualizationTrellis


QUESTION 2
Which of the following are valid parent elements for the event action shown below? (Select all that apply.)
sourcetype=$click.value|s$
A.
B.
C.
D.
Correct Answer: AC


QUESTION 3
Given a dashboard with a Simple XML extension in myApp, what is the XML reference for the file myJS.js located in
myOtherApp in the location shown below?
$SPLUNK_HOME/etc/apps/myOtherApp/appserver/static/javascript/
A.
B.
C.
D.
Correct Answer: A
Reference: https://dev.splunk.com/enterprise/docs/developapps/visualizedata/usewebframework/modifydashboards/

QUESTION 4
Using Splunk Web to modify config settings for a shared object, a revised config file with those changes is placed in
which directory?
A. $SPLUNK_HOME/etc/apps/myApp/local
B. $SPLUNK_HOME/etc/system/default/
C. $SPLUNK_HOME/etc/system/local
D. $SPLUNK_HOME/etc/apps/myApp/default
Correct Answer: A
Reference: https://docs.splunk.com/Documentation/Splunk/8.1.2/Admin/Howtoeditaconfigurationfile


QUESTION 5
Which of the following are characteristics of an add-on? (Select all that apply.)
A. Requires navigation file.
B. Occupies a unique namespace within Splunk.
C. Can depend on add-ons for correct operation.
D. Contains technology or components not intended for reuse by other apps.
Correct Answer: AD


QUESTION 6
For a KV store, a lookup stanza in the transforms.conf file must contain which of the following? (Select all that apply.)
A. collection
B. fields_list
C. external_type
D. internal_type
Correct Answer: AB
Reference: https://docs.splunk.com/Documentation/Splunk/8.1.2/Knowledge/ConfigureKVstorelookups

QUESTION 7
Which HTTP Event Collector (HEC) endpoint should be used to collect data in the following format? {“message”:”Hello
World”, “foo”:”bar”, “pony”:”buttercup”}
A. data/inputs/http/Splunk Certified Developer
B. services/collector/raw
C. services/collector
D. data/inputs/http
Correct Answer: B
Reference: https://docs.splunk.com/Documentation/Splunk/8.1.2/Data/HECExamples


QUESTION 8
Which of the following search commands can be used to perform statistical queries on indexed fields in TSIDX files?
A. stats
B. tstats
C. tscollect
D. transaction
Correct Answer: B
Reference: https://docs.splunk.com/Documentation/Splunk/8.1.2/SearchReference/Tstats


QUESTION 9
The response message from a successful Splunk REST call includes an element. What is contained in an element?
A. A dictionary of elements.
B. Metadata encapsulating the element.
C. A response code indicating success or failure.
D. An individual element in an collection.
Correct Answer: B
Reference: https://docs.splunk.com/Documentation/Splunk/8.1.2/RESTUM/RESTusing

QUESTION 10
Which Splunk REST endpoint is used to create a KV store collection?
A. /storage/collections
B. /storage/kvstore/create
C. /storage/collections/config
D. /storage/kvstore/collections
Correct Answer: A
Reference: https://dev.splunk.com/enterprise/docs/developapps/manageknowledge/kvstore/usetherestapitomanagekv/


QUESTION 11
Which of the following ensures that quotation marks surround the value referenced by the token?
A. $token_name|s$
B. “$token_name$”
C. ($token_name$)
D. \”$token_name$\”
Correct Answer: A
Reference: https://docs.splunk.com/Documentation/Splunk/8.1.2/Viz/tokens


QUESTION 12
Which of the following formats are valid for a Splunk REST URI?
A. host:port/endpoint
B. scheme://host/servicesNS/*/
C. $SPLUNK HOME/services/endpoint
D. scheme://host:port/services/endpoint
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 13
There is a global search named “global_search” defined on a form as shown below:
index-_internal source-*splunkd.log | stats count by component, log_level
Which of the following would be a valid post-processing search? (Select all that apply.)
A. | tstats count
B. sourcetype=mysourcetype
C. stats sum(count) AS count by log level
D. search log_level=error | stats sum(count) AS count by component
Correct Answer: CD
Reference: https://docs.splunk.com/Documentation/Splunk/8.1.2/Viz/Savedsearches

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QUESTION 1
A customer has the UCMv2 installed in their IP Office 500 V2. They are using one-X® Portal for 25 of their users.
In this scenario, what is the maximum voicemail ports supported on the Voicemail Pro?
A. 30
B. 20
C. 25
D. 40
Correct Answer: B
References: https://downloads.avaya.com/css/P8/documents/101005065 Page: 9


QUESTION 2
As of Avaya IP Office Release 10 software, which type of license can be used?
A. ADI
B. PLDS
C. Windows
D. Linux
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 3
Which two methods are voicemails to email with the Voicemail Pro? (Choose two.)
A. Outlook
B. MAPI
C. SNMP
D. SMTP
E. TAPI
Correct Answer: BD
References: https://downloads.avaya.com/css/P8/documents/100174760 Page: 57

QUESTION 4
If no Music-on-Hold source is selected, what will a caller hear when a user places them on hold?
A. a double bleep tone
B. silence
C. ringing
D. an automated voice saying “Please Hold”
Correct Answer: A
References: https://downloads.avaya.com/css/P8/documents/100119917


QUESTION 5
Which Application is used to upgrade IP Office Server Edition?
A. Manager
B. Web Manager
C. System Status
D. Linux command line
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 6
A customer has two main receptionists using SoftConsole; however, when they are on a break or at lunch, there are
four back office workers that can open the SoftConsole on their PC to take calls to cover these periods.
How many licenses are required for this to work?
A. 8
B. 6
C. 2
D. 4
Correct Answer: D
References: http://www.ipofficeinfo.com/pdf/softconsoleinstall_en.pdf Page: 9

QUESTION 7
A customer has requested that all users should be prevented from dialing international numbers. What is the quickest
way to apply the short code to the system\\’s short codes?
A. Apply the short code to the ARS table.
B. Apply the short code to a user right.
C. Apply the short code to all external lines.
D. Apply the short code to each user individually.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8
A user at a remote IP Office site calls in to discuss a voicemail issue. You launch the Manager program to see your
multi-site IP Office network, but only your local IP Office appears.
What is causing this problem?
A. The Unit/Broadcast address is 255.255.255.255.
B. No SCN users are available.
C. The remotes are doing a reboot.
D. Your login is not correct.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9
Which method will avoid corruption of the data on the SD card when removing the SD card from the IP Office?
A. Dial the shutdown short code to shut down the card before removing the SD card.
B. Use the Manager application to shut down the card before removing the SD card.
C. Use System Monitor to shut down the card before removing the SD card.
D. Pull out the card. Special shutdown is not required.
Correct Answer: B
References: https://www.manualslib.com/manual/824589/Avaya-Ip-Office-Essential-Edition.html?page=92

QUESTION 10
The Debug level is set to Verbose for creating log files to help with fault finding on which application?
A. Avaya Equinox Client
B. Media Manager
C. one-X® Portal Client
D. VM Pro
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 11
When creating a Short Code that is to connect to a Start point on Modules in the Voicemail Pro, which Short Code
feature should you use?
A. Voicemail Call
B. Voicemail Off
C. Voicemail On
D. Voicemail Node
Correct Answer: D
References: https://downloads.avaya.com/elmodocs2/ip_office/R4.1/Short_Codes.pdf

QUESTION 12
What does “IMAP support” mean in the IP Office UMS service?
A. A user can see/listen to voicemail messages via Web browser.
B. A user can receive voicemail messages only using MS Outlook.
C. All messages are forwarded to a user e-mail account and deleted on their telephone.
D. A user can receive voicemail messages to their Outlook, Outlook Express and/or Lotus Notes programs running on
their PC.
E. A new message is sent to a user e-mail account. The user can listen to it by dialing their telephone number.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 13
A customer has given six employees the ability to hot-desk for when they come into the office. When they log off, their
calls will go to their voicemail boxes. Employees want to retrieve their voicemail while out of the office.
How should you set up DDI/DID to achieve this?
A. DDI/DID to their Login code
B. DDI/DID number to their Extension
C. DDI/DID to the short code feature “Voicemail Collect”
D. DDI/DID to a Voicemail module “Recording”
Correct Answer: C

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QUESTION 1
The SIP-enabled AACC Communication Control Toolkit integrates the agents and supervisors within the SIP
environment to offer features.
Which application programming interface type is used to publish the CCT functions?
A. Microsoft .NET
B. Open Database Connectivity (ODBC)
C. Open Computing Language (OpenGL)
D. Simple Direct Media Layer
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 2
Media Servers are needed in a SIP-enabled AACC
Which deployment allows the co-resident installation of Voice and Multimedia Contact Center with Media Server?
A. Physical Mid-Range Server
B. Physical Entry-Level Server
C. VMware Mid-Range Server
D. VMware High-End Server
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 3
A Contact Center manager knows that a modern agent Interface which can deliver all of the relevant customer
information, creates a better customer experience.
Which two agent interfaces are supported with AACC Release 7.1? (Choose two)
A. Avaya IXTM Workplace
B. Avaya Agent Desktop a
C. Avaya IXTM Workspaces
D. Avaya one-X Agent Desktop
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 4
During the discovery conversation with South Travel Stores, they said they want to leave a chat message for the experts
if they are not available.
Which component would the sales person offer South Travel Stores?
A. Co-browse Snap-In
B. Multimedia Messaging
C. Messaging (AAM)
D. Context Store Snap-In
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 5
Which three attributes describe the right context of a customer journey experience? (Choose three.)
A. Specific Report focused
B. Single Channel driven
C. Seamless
D. Personalized
E. Intelligent
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 6
When upgrading existing AACC Systems, which Avaya Engagement AACC package is available?
A. Agent Greeting
B. Instant Message
C. Resilience
D. Geographic Node
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7
Which group offers the AACC Callback Request solution that leverages AACC scripting and web services, as well\\’as
the outbound capability of AACC?
A. Avaya technical staff
B. Avaya Development team
C. Avaya Support
D. Avaya Professional Services
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8
Refer to the exhibit.

33810x exam questions-q8

AACC routes contacts based on business logic to any SIP addressable endpoint. Which statement about AACC Voice
Contact is true?
A. It Is anchored In the Media Processing Platform.
B. It Is anchored In the G450.
C. It Is anchored In the Media Server.
D. It Is anchored in the Session Manager.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 9
A Contact Center manager wants a fast First Call Resolution, and has requested a Skype for Business client software
on Avaya Agent Desktop.
Which statement describes what the Avaya support department needs be prepared to tell the manager?
A. Different Presence client software are supported on Avaya Agent Desktop.
B. Agent Desktop does not support co-resident Skype for Business client software.
C. Microsoft Lync Server are not supported.
D. Microsoft Skype Server are not supported.
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 10
An IT manager wants a Callback offer leveraging AACC scripting and Web services, as well as the outbound capability
of AACC.
What Is this solution called?
A. Call Completion No Reply (CCNR)
B. Call Back Assist (CBA)
C. Call Back Request (CBR)
D. Call Completion Busy Subscriber (CCBS)
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 11
A customer needs an application that is provided free of charge and allows them to reduce the time required to develop
and maintain scripts, workflows, and applications in the Avaya Aura Contact Center.
Which application will meet the customer\\’s requirements?
A. Avaya Control Manager
B. Avaya one-X Agent Desktop
C. Avaya Agent Desktop
D. Avaya Contact Center Orchestration Designer
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12
A finance director wants a solution that both answers Inbound calls during peak call times to avoid poor customer
experience, and minimizes costs for additional agents.
Which solution meets these customer requirements?
A. Avaya IX TM Workplace
B. Avaya Callback Assist
C. Avaya IX TMM Workspaces
D. Avaya Agent Desktop
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 13
A design specialist prepares for a customer meeting, and knows that data on the customer, their Industry, and the
possible competition, will need to be collected.
Which additional information is also needed?
A. The salaries of the executives In the meeting
B. The design diagram for discussion with customer
C. The Avaya solutions and services Avaya could offer
D. The model numbers of the existing contact center equipment
Correct Answer: D

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QUESTION 1
The Add-On Builder creates Splunk Apps that start with what?
A. DA
B. SA
C. TA
D. App
Correct Answer: C
Reference: https://dev.splunk.com/enterprise/docs/developapps/enterprisesecurity/abouttheessolution/

QUESTION 2
Which of the following features can the Add-on Builder configure in a new add-on?
A. Expire data.
B. Normalize data.
C. Summarize data.
D. Translate data.
Correct Answer: B
Reference: https://docs.splunk.com/Documentation/AddonBuilder/3.0.1/UserGuide/Overview

QUESTION 3
Where is the Add-On Builder available from?
A. GitHub
B. SplunkBase
C. www.splunk.com
D. The ES installation package
Correct Answer: B
Reference: https://docs.splunk.com/Documentation/AddonBuilder/3.0.1/UserGuide/Installation

QUESTION 4
What does the Security Posture dashboard display?
A. Active investigations and their status.
B. A high-level overview of notable events.
C. Current threats being tracked by the SOC.
D. A display of the status of security tools.
Correct Answer: B
The Security Posture dashboard is designed to provide high-level insight into the notable events across all domains of
your deployment, suitable for display in a Security Operations Center (SOC). This dashboard shows all events from the
past 24 hours, along with the trends over the past 24 hours, and provides real-time event information and updates.
Reference: https://docs.splunk.com/Documentation/ES/6.1.0/User/SecurityPosturedashboard

QUESTION 5
An administrator is provisioning one search head prior to installing ES. What are the reference minimum requirements
for OS, CPU, and RAM for that machine?
A. OS: 32 bit, RAM: 16 MB, CPU: 12 cores
B. OS: 64 bit, RAM: 32 MB, CPU: 12 cores
C. OS: 64 bit, RAM: 12 MB, CPU: 16 cores
D. OS: 64 bit, RAM: 32 MB, CPU: 16 cores
Correct Answer: C
Reference: https://docs.splunk.com/Documentation/Splunk/8.0.2/Capacity/Referencehardware


QUESTION 6
Which argument to the | stats command restricts the search to summarized data only?
A. summaries=t
B. summaries=all
C. summariesonly=t
D. summariesonly=all
Correct Answer: C
Reference: https://docs.splunk.com/Documentation/Splunk/8.0.2/Knowledge/Acceleratedatamodels

QUESTION 7
Which column in the Asset or Identity list is combined with event security to make a notable event\\’s urgency?
A. VIP
B. Priority
C. Importance
D. Criticality
Correct Answer: B
Reference: https://docs.splunk.com/Documentation/ES/6.1.0/User/Howurgencyisassigned


QUESTION 8
What are the steps to add a new column to the Notable Event table in the Incident Review dashboard?
A. Configure -> Incident Management -> Notable Event Statuses
B. Configure -> Content Management -> Type: Correlation Search
C. Configure -> Incident Management -> Incident Review Settings -> Event Management
D. Configure -> Incident Management -> Incident Review Settings -> Table Attributes
Correct Answer: C
Reference: https://docs.splunk.com/Documentation/ES/6.1.0/Admin/Customizenotables


QUESTION 9
After installing Enterprise Security, the distributed configuration management tool can be used to create which app to
configure indexers?
A. Splunk_DS_ForIndexers.spl
B. Splunk_ES_ForIndexers.spl
C. Splunk_SA_ForIndexers.spl
D. Splunk_TA_ForIndexers.spl
Correct Answer: D
Reference: https://docs.splunk.com/Documentation/ES/6.1.0/Install/InstallTechnologyAdd-ons

QUESTION 10
An administrator is asked to configure a “Nslookup” adaptive response action so that it appears as a selectable option
in the notable event\\’s action menu when an analyst is working in the Incident Review dashboard. What steps would the
administrator take to configure this option?
A. Configure -> Content Management -> Type: Correlation Search -> Notable -> Nslookup
B. Configure -> Type: Correlation Search -> Notable -> Recommended Actions -> Nslookup
C. Configure -> Content Management -> Type: Correlation Search -> Notable -> Next Steps -> Nslookup
D. Configure -> Content Management -> Type: Correlation Search -> Notable -> Recommended Actions -> Nslookup
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 11
Which data model populated the panels on the Risk Analysis dashboard?
A. Risk
B. Audit
C. Domain analysis
D. Threat intelligence
Correct Answer: A
Reference: https://docs.splunk.com/Documentation/ES/6.1.0/User/RiskAnalysis#Dashboard_panels

QUESTION 12
Where is it possible to export content, such as correlation searches, from ES?
A. Content exporter
B. Configure -> Content Management
C. Export content dashboard
D. Settings Menu -> ES -> Export
Correct Answer: B
Reference: https://docs.splunk.com/Documentation/ES/6.1.0/Admin/Export

QUESTION 13
Which of the following threat intelligence types can ES download? (Choose all that apply)
A. Text
B. STIX/TAXII
C. VulnScanSPL
D. SplunkEnterpriseThreatGenerator
Correct Answer: B
Reference: https://docs.splunk.com/Documentation/ES/6.1.0/Admin/Downloadthreatfeed

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QUESTION 1
Which user mapping method could be used to discover user IDs in an environment with multiple Windows domain
controllers?
A. Active Directory monitoring
B. Windows session monitoring
C. Windows client probing
D. domain controller monitoring
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 2
Which operations are allowed when working with App-ID application tags?
A. Predefined tags may be deleted.
B. Predefined tags may be augmented by custom tags.
C. Predefined tags may be modified.
D. Predefined tags may be updated by WildFire dynamic updates.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3

PCNSA exam questions-q3

Given the topology, which zone type should interface E1/1 be configured with?
A. Tap
B. Tunnel
C. Virtual Wire
D. Layer3
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
Which two features can be used to tag a username so that it is included in a dynamic user group? (Choose two.)
A. XML API
B. log forwarding auto-tagging
C. GlobalProtect agent
D. User-ID Windows-based agent
Correct Answer: AB


QUESTION 5
Which statement is true regarding a Prevention Posture Assessment?
A. The Security Policy Adoption Heatmap component filters the information by device groups, serial numbers, zones,
areas of architecture, and other categories
B. It provides a set of questionnaires that help uncover security risk prevention gaps across all areas of network and
security architecture
C. It provides a percentage of adoption for each assessment area
D. It performs over 200 security checks on Panorama/firewall for the assessment
Correct Answer: B
Reference: https://docs.paloaltonetworks.com/best-practices/8-1/data-center-best-practices/data-center-best-practicesecurity-policy/use-palo-alto-networks-assessment-and-review-tools

QUESTION 6
Based on the screenshot, what is the purpose of the Included Groups?

PCNSA exam questions-q6

A. They are groups that are imported from RADIUS authentication servers.
B. They are the only groups visible based on the firewall\\’s credentials.
C. They contain only the users you allow to manage the firewall.
D. They are used to map users to groups.
Correct Answer: D
Reference: https://docs.paloaltonetworks.com/pan-os/9-1/pan-os-admin/user-id/map-users-to-groups.html


QUESTION 7
Which link in the web interface enables a security administrator to view the security policy rules that match new
application signatures?
A. Review Apps
B. Review App Matches
C. Pre-analyze
D. Review Policies
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8
Which type of security policy rule will match traffic that flows between the Outside zone and inside zone, but would not
match traffic that flows within the zones?
A. global
B. intrazone
C. interzone
D. universal
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9
Match the Palo Alto Networks Security Operating Platform architecture to its description.

PCNSA exam questions-q9

QUESTION 10
Which prevention technique will prevent attacks based on packet count?
A. zone protection profile
B. URL filtering profile
C. antivirus profile
D. vulnerability profile
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
Order the steps needed to create a new security zone with a Palo Alto Networks firewall.
Select and Place:

PCNSA exam questions-q11

 Correct Answer:

PCNSA exam questions-q11-2

QUESTION 12
Based on the screenshot what is the purpose of the included groups?
A. They are only groups visible based on the firewall\\’s credentials.
B. They are used to map usernames to group names.
C. They contain only the users you allow to manage the firewall.
D. They are groups that are imported from RADIUS authentication servers.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 13
Arrange the correct order that the URL classifications are processed within the system.
Select and Place:

PCNSA exam questions-q13

Correct Answer:

PCNSA exam questions-q13-2

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QUESTION 1
Which one of the following is defined as the process of distributing incorrect Internet Protocol (IP) addresses/names with
the intent of diverting traffic?
A. Network aliasing
B. Domain Name Server (DNS) poisoning
C. Reverse Address Resolution Protocol (ARP)
D. Port scanning
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 2
An organization hires a tester to do a wireless penetration test. Previous reports indicate that the last test did not contain
management or control packets in the submitted traces. Which of the following is the most likely reason for lack of
management or control packets?
A. The wireless card was not turned on.
B. The wrong network card drivers were in use by Wireshark.
C. On Linux and Mac OS X, only 802.11 headers are received in promiscuous mode.
D. Certain operating systems and adapters do not collect the management or control packets.
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 3
The following exploit code is extracted from what kind of attack?

ceh-001 exam questions-q3

A. Remote password cracking attack
B. SQL Injection
C. Distributed Denial of Service
D. Cross Site Scripting
E. Buffer Overflow
Correct Answer: E


QUESTION 4
You are attempting to crack LM Manager hashed from Windows 2000 SAM file. You will be using LM Brute force
hacking tool for decryption.
What encryption algorithm will you be decrypting?
A. MD4
B. DES
C. SHA
D. SSL
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
Which statement best describes a server type under an N-tier architecture?
A. A group of servers at a specific layer
B. A single server with a specific role
C. A group of servers with a unique role
D. A single server at a specific layer
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 6
When Nmap performs a ping sweep, which of the following sets of requests does it send to the target device?
A. ICMP ECHO_REQUEST and TCP SYN
B. ICMP ECHO_REQUEST and TCP ACK
C. ICMP ECHO_REPLY and TFP RST
D. ICMP ECHO_REPLY and TCP FIN
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 7
Peter extracts the SIDs list from Windows 2000 Server machine using the hacking tool “SIDExtractor”. Here is the
the output of the SIDs:

ceh-001 exam questions-q7

From the above list identify the user account with System Administrator privileges.
A. John
B. Rebecca
C. Sheela
D. Shawn
E. Somia
F. Chang
G. Micah
Correct Answer: F

QUESTION 8
The intrusion detection system at a software development company suddenly generates multiple alerts regarding
attacks against the company\\’s external webserver, VPN concentrator, and DNS servers. What should the security
team do to determine which alerts to check first?
A. Investigate based on the maintenance schedule of the affected systems.
B. Investigate based on the service level agreements of the systems.
C. Investigate based on the potential effect of the incident.
D. Investigate based on the order that the alerts arrived in.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 9
A tester is attempting to capture and analyze the traffic on a given network and realizes that the network has several
switches. What could be used to successfully sniff the traffic on this switched network? (Choose three.)
A. ARP spoofing
B. MAC duplication
C. MAC flooding
D. SYN flood
E. Reverse smurf attack
F. ARP broadcasting
Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 10
In an attempt to secure his 802.11b wireless network, Ulf decides to use a strategic antenna positioning. He places the
antenna for the access points near the center of the building. For those access points near the outer edge of the
building he uses semi- directional antennas that face towards the building\\’s center. There is a large parking lot and
outlying filed surrounding the building that extends out half a mile around the building. Ulf figures that with this and his
placement of antennas, his wireless network will be safe from attack.
Which of the following statements is true?
A. With the 300 feet limit of a wireless signal, Ulf\\’s network is safe.
B. Wireless signals can be detected from miles away, Ulf\\’s network is not safe.
C. Ulf\\’s network will be safe but only of he doesn\\’t switch to 802.11a.
D. Ulf\\’s network will not be safe until he also enables WEP.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 11
What is the main reason the use of a stored biometric is vulnerable to an attack?
A. The digital representation of the biometric might not be unique, even if the physical characteristic is unique.
B. Authentication using a stored biometric compares a copy to a copy instead of the original to a copy.
C. A stored biometric is no longer “something you are” and instead becomes “something you have”.
D. A stored biometric can be stolen and used by an attacker to impersonate the individual identified by the biometric.
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 12
How does an operating system protect the passwords used for account logins?
A. The operating system performs a one-way hash of the passwords.
B. The operating system stores the passwords in a secret file that users cannot find.
C. The operating system encrypts the passwords, and decrypts them when needed.
D. The operating system stores all passwords in a protected segment of non-volatile memory.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 13
In which location, SAM hash passwords are stored in Windows 7?
A. c:\windows\system32\config\SAM
B. c:\winnt\system32\machine\SAM
C. c:\windows\etc\drivers\SAM
D. c:\windows\config\etc\SAM
Correct Answer: A

Conclusion:

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