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1. When designing an Avaya Aura solution, what are two design requirements that require the installation of a G430 or G450 Gateway? (Choose two.)

A. DSP resources
B. TDM trunks
C. T.38 Fax
D. SIP devices

2. You are trying to determine how many Basic and Mainstream licenses are needed to support a proposal for Avaya IX Messaging. Which feature requires a Mainstream license?

A. Multiple greetings
B. Full synchronization with 0365 email applications
C. Distribution lists
D. Multiple Telephone User Interfaces (TUIs)

3. A customer has provided the following requirements for a basic telephone user: Two line appearances
Basic telephony 3 rings then cover to voice mail”; No shared line appearances Cheapest telephone Possible low power requirements Which telephone-type would be a good choice for the basic user?

A. 9611G
B. 9641
C. J129
D. J179

4. A customer has a single size with 2,500 users. They want a solution that provides hardware redundancy. The failure of a single component should not be service-impacting. Given these parameters, what would satisfy their request?

A. Communication Manager Duplex
B. Communication Manager S8300
C. Communication Manager Simplex with Survivable Core
D. Communication Manager Simplex with Survivable Remote

5. The adoption of Avaya Aura(g) Media Server by the Communications Manager (AAMS-CM) provides many of the resource capabilities of the H.323 Media Gateways (MG), but it is not always a direct replacement. With Avaya Aura and Communications Manager (CM) 8.1, both AAMS-CM and MGs are sold as media resource options, since AAMS-CM can support more channels per instance than either H.323 media gateway.

When would AAMS-CM be deployed, instead of a media gateway?

A. If the deployment is supporting third-party digital stations
B. If the users require using T.38 fax
C. If there are multiple Instances supporting one Communications Manager
D. If the deployment is using a G722 codec for ad hoc conferencing

6. A customer is interested in deploying geo-redundant System Managers. Which two requirements would they need to know? (Choose two.)

A. Both servers must be on the same IP subnet.
B. The two servers must have the same version of the software,
C. The two servers can reach each other on the network.
D. Both servers must have the same IP address.

7. You have a customer who requires both SIP Trunking and Remote Workers. After examining the features needed overall, you have determined that 700 Core Suite licenses are required. You still need to quote SBCE licenses, in addition to the entitlements included with Core Suite licenses, to support a total of 120 PSTN SIP trunks and 330 remote workers.

The customer has agreed to a 3 remote worker users to 1 session access basis- How many additional standard and advanced a la carte SBCE licenses are needed? (Choose two.)

A. 30 SBCE Standard Licenses
B. 20 SBCE Standard Licenses
C. 10 SBCE Advanced Licenses
D. 20 SBCE Advanced Licenses

8. A customer with an Avaya Aura Platform requires survivable remote capabilities at their new branch location. The new branch location must also support five analog telephones and two Tl trunks. What will address these requirements?

A. Communication Manager and Session Manager on Appliance Virtualization platform with local data switch
B. Communication Manager on Appliance Virtualization platform with local data switch
C. G430 with embedded S8300 with needed media modules
D. G450 with embedded S8300 with needed media modules

9. Your customer is expanding their communications infrastructure. They want to protect their investment In existing equipment. They currently have two Avaya G450 gateways. What is the maximum number of Digital Signaling Processor (DSP) resources that the two Avaya G450 will support?

A. 640
B. 360
C. 960
D. 1200

10. You are explaining to your customer that Avaya Aura Media Server (AAMS) has been adopted by the Communication Manager, but Is not a direct replacement for media gateways. Which two capabilities are supported by the Avaya Aura Media Server? (Choose two.)

A. TDM interfaces for digital, analog stations, and trunks
B. V.150.1 (Modem-over-IP)
C. Virtualization
D. Basic media resource capabilities

11. You are designing a Communication Manager (CM) 8 solution with centralized ISDN trunks at the main site and two remote gateway locations. Each remote location will be connected to the main server via a dedicated, point-to-point WAN service. Main – CM 8.1 duplex pair with 2-G450s and 250 IP stations

Remote 1 – S8300E LSP/G450 with 125 IP stations
Remote 2 – S8300E LSP/G430 with 30 IP stations.

To ensure that no one site Is overwhelmed by CM traffic, what is the recommended number of network regions required for this design?

A. 7 regions: 1 at the main, 1 at each remote site, 1 for each site\\’s IP telephones, and one for the virtual network region
B. 4 regions: 1 at the main, 1 at each remote site, and 1 for the virtual network region
C. 3 regions: 1 at the main, and 1 at each remote site
D. 6 regions: 1 at the main, 1 at each remote site, and 1 virtual network region for each site

12. You are recommending the WAN link requirement per branch for a multi-location customer. The customer estimates the branch Inter-office communication use rate over the WAN to be one trunk per 20 branch users, and there are 460 users at each branch.

You assume that after all header compressions have been applied, there is a 30% protocol overhead, and the G.729 codec being used provides 7.2 kbps. How much bandwidth is needed for voice traffic on the WAN link for each branch?

A. 187.2 Kbps
B. 115.9 Kbps
C. 165.6 Kbps
D. 215.3 Kbps

13. You are reviewing a design done by another engineer, and want to be sure there is enough Touch Tone Receiver (TTR) resources. Which component of the design uses TTR resources?

A. H.323 endpoints
B. SIP endpoints
C. Analog endpoints
D. SIP trunks

Post correct answer:

1	2	3	4	5	6	7	8	9	10	11	12	13
C	C	D	A	B	A	C	A	A	CD	C	B	C

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Learn Splunk SPLK-3002 Dumps With Actual Questions

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! The correct answer is at the end of the question.

QUESTION 1 #

After a notable event has been closed, how long will the metadata for that event remain in the KV Store by default?

A. 6 months.
B. 9 months.
C. 1 year.
D. 3 months.

By default, notable event metadata is archived after six months to keep the KV store from growing too large.
Reference: https://docs.splunk.com/Documentation/ITSI/4.10.2/EA/TrimNECollections

QUESTION 2 #

For which ITSI function is it a best practice to use a 15-30 minute time buffer?

A. Correlation searches.
B. Adaptive thresholding.
C. Maintenance windows
D. Anomaly detection.

It\\’s a best practice to schedule maintenance windows with a 15- to 30-minute time buffer before and after you start and stop your maintenance work. This gives the system an opportunity to catch up with the maintenance state and reduces the chances of ITSI generating false positives during maintenance operations.

Reference: https://docs.splunk.com/Documentation/ITSI/4.10.2/Configure/AboutMW

QUESTION 3 #

Which of the following accurately describes base searches used for KPIs in a service?

A. Base searches can be used for multiple services.
B. A base search can only be used by its service and all dependent services.
C. All the metrics in a base search are used by one service.
D. All the KPIs in service use the same base search.

KPI base searches let you share a search definition across multiple KPIs in IT Service Intelligence (ITSI). Create base
searches to consolidate multiple similar KPIs, reduce search load, and improve search performance.

Reference: https://docs.splunk.com/Documentation/ITSI/4.10.2/SI/BaseSearch

QUESTION 4 #

What is an episode?

A. A workflow task.
B. A deep dive.
C. A notable event group.
D. A notable event.

It\\’s a deduplicated group of notable events occurring as part of a larger sequence or an incident or period considered in isolation.

Reference: https://docs.splunk.com/Documentation/ITSI/4.10.2/EA/EpisodeOverview

QUESTION 5 #

There are two departments using ITSI. Finance and Sales. Analysts in each department should not be allowed to see
each other\\’s services. What are the role configuration steps required to accomplish this?

A. itoa_finance_admin, inherited from itoa_admin; itoa_sales_admin, inherited from itoa_team_admin;
itoa_finance_analyst, inherited from itoa_analyst; itoa_sales_analyst, inherited from itoa_analyst.
B. itoa_finance_admin, inherited from itoa_admin; itoa_sales_admin, inherited from itoa_team_admin;
itoa_finance_analyst, inherited from itoa_team_analyst; itoa_sales_analyst, inherited from itoa_team_analyst.
C. itoa_finance_admin, inherited from itoa_admin; itoa_sales_admin, inherited from itoa_team_admin;
itoa_finance_analyst, inherited from itoa_analyst; itoa_sales_analyst, inherited from itoa_team_analyst.
D. itoa_finance_admin, inherited from itoa_team_admin; itoa_sales_admin, inherited from itoa_team_admin;
itoa_finance_analyst, inherited from itoa_analyst; itoa_sales_analyst, inherited from itoa_analyst.

QUESTION 6 #

What effects does the KPI importance weight of 11 have on the overall health score of a service?

A. At least 10% of the KPIs will go critical.
B. Importance weight is unused for health scoring.
C. The service will go critical.
D. It is a minimum health indicator KPI.

Reference: https://docs.splunk.com/Documentation/ITSI/4.10.2/SI/KPIImportance#:~:text=ITSI%
20considers%20KPIs%20that%20have,other%20KPIs%20in%20the%20service

QUESTION 7 #

Which of the following describes entities? (Choose all that apply.)

A. Entities must be IT devices, such as routers and switches, and must be identified by either IP value, hostname, or
mac address.
B. An abstract (pseudo/logical) entity can be used to split by for a KPI, although no entity rules or filtering can be used to limit data to a specific service.
C. Multiple entities can share the same alias value but must have different role values.
D. To automatically restrict the KPI to only the entities in a particular service, select “Filter to Entities in
Service”

Reference: https://docs.splunk.com/Documentation/ITSI/4.10.2/SI/KPIfilter

QUESTION 8 #

In Episode Review, what is the result of clicking an episode\\’s Acknowledge button?

A. Assign the current user as owner.
B. Change status from New to Acknowledged.
C. Change status from New to In Progress and assign the current user as owner.
D. Change status from New to Acknowledged and assign the current user as owner.

When an episode warrants investigation, the analyst acknowledges the episode, which moves the status from New to In Progress.

Reference: https://docs.splunk.com/Documentation/ITSI/4.10.2/EA/EpisodeOverview

QUESTION 9 #

Which of the following describes enabling smart mode for an aggregation policy?

A. Configure –andgt; Policies –andgt; Smart Mode –andgt; Enable, select “fields”, click “Save”
B. Enable grouping in Notable Event Review, select “Smart Mode”, select “fields”, and click “Save”
C. Edit the aggregation policy, enable smart mode, select fields to analyze, click “Save”
D. Edit the notable event view, enable smart mode, select “fields”, and click “Save”

1. From the ITSI main menu, click Configuration > Notable Event Aggregation Policies.
2. Select a custom policy or the Default Policy.
3. Under Smart Mode grouping, enable Smart Mode.
4. Click Select fields. A dialog displays the fields found in your notable events from the last 24 hours.

Reference:
https://docs.splunk.com/Documentation/ITSI/4.10.2/EA/SmartMode

QUESTION 10 #

What is the default importance value for dependent services’ health scores?

A. 11
B. 1
C. Unassigned
D. 10

By default, impacting service health scores have an importance value of 11.

Reference:
https://docs.splunk.com/Documentation/ITSI/4.10.2/SI/Dependencies

QUESTION 11 #

Which scenario would benefit most by implementing ITSI?

A. Monitoring of business services functionality.
B. Monitoring of system hardware.
C. Monitoring of system process statuses.
D. Monitoring of retail sales metrics.

Reference: https://docs.splunk.com/Documentation/ITSI/4.10.2/SI/AboutSI

QUESTION 12 #

When changing a service template, which of the following will be added to linked services by default?

A. Thresholds.
B. Entity Rules.
C. New KPIs.
D. Health score.

Link multiple services to a service template to manage them collectively in IT Service Intelligence (ITSI). A service can
only be linked to one service template at a time.

When you link a service to a service template, any existing KPIs in the
service are preserved and KPIs in the template is added to the service. You can choose to append, replace, or keep
entity rules.

Reference: https://docs.splunk.com/Documentation/ITSI/4.10.2/SI/LinkST

Post correct answer:

q1	q2	q3	q4	q5	q6	q7	q8	q9	q10	q11	q12
A	C	A	D	C	D	D	C	A	A	A	B

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# QUESTION 1

Avaya Aura and Call Center Elite together help reduce the total cost of ownership (TCO) with centralization and
consolidation.
Avaya\\’s open architecture provides feature and investment options for any enterprise, and customers can choose from which two options? (Choose two.)

A. Subscription-based payments
B. Cloud Contact Center with AACC
C. Managed Private or Hybrid Networks
D. Cloud Storage Box

# QUESTION 2

Avaya Survey Assist is a multi-purpose application that allows you to easily create automated voice and SMS surveys. It
supports full integration into the Avaya Experience Portal (AEP) and Proactive Outreach Manager (POM) for voice and
SMS transactions.

Which two are current deployment options for Avaya Survey Assist? (Choose two.)

A. Upgradable Single Box
B. Cluster Mode
C. Geo-redundancy
D. Single Box

# QUESTION 3

Avaya enabled the automated installation of the Avaya OneCloudTM ReadyNow software. With each ready now
The solution, Avaya is delivering a pre-built golden image that includes the Avaya Virtual Machine applications or
services.

Additionally, which program Is leveraged to automate the implementation of network, firewalls, and security containers?

A. Avaya Update Manager
B. Capacity Planner
C. Avaya Maestro
D. vCenter Manager

# QUESTION 4

A client wants a solution to view live, real-time information, and see the immediate results of their adjustments.
From a migration standpoint, in addition to Avaya Aura? Call Center Elite, which additional application will preserve the
customer investment?

A. Avaya IXTM Workforce Engagement
B. Avaya Intelligent Customer Routing
C. Avaya Call Management System
D. Avaya Aura?Elite Multichannel

# QUESTION 5

Avaya OneCloud IX, H Contact Center is a true, multi-tenant, complete Contact Center solution that provides a simplified cloud experience for operations and agents. A customer needs skill-based call center routing as part of their solution.

Which two IXTM Contact Center bundles offer this feature? (Choose two.)

A. Reporting Bundle
B. Basic Bundle
C. Voice Bundle
D. Advanced Bundle

# QUESTION 6

Based on customer feedback, what was the top priority in 2019 for Contact Center organizations?

A. To increase first contact resolution
B. To increase agent retention
C. To increase self-service usage
D. To increase digital channel usage

# QUESTION 7

An Avaya Aura? Call Center Elite customer wants an application solution with the following requirements:

1. Synchronizes with a desk phone to share the control of telephony and agent features
2. Includes capabilities of integrated video and Instant messaging
3. Increases collaboration
4. Reduces agent talk time and facilitates first call resolution

To meet these requirements, which two applications would you recommend be used in conjunction with Call Center
Elite? (Choose two.)

A. Agent Desktop Displays (ADD)
B. Avaya one-X?Agent
C. Agent Map
D. Avaya Agent for Desktop (AAfD)

# QUESTION 8

Workspaces for Elite with POM Integration can Increase agent productivity by providing a unified desktop for agents to
handle all inbound and outbound voice tasks, and which three types of calls? (Choose three.)

A. Predictive
B. Progressive
C. Performance
D. Proficient
E. Preview

# QUESTION 9

A customer wants to use the Avaya Aura? Media Server (AAMS) because of its advanced multimedia processing
features. Which three statements are true for the AAMS? (Choose three.)

A. AAMS provides Communication Manager IP audio functionality.
B. Pricing is differentiated, so customers will buy AAMS-enabled features unique to each adopter.
C. AAMS is shareable between different adapters.
D. AAMS provides virtualization, high channel density, and no playback announcement limits.
E. Experience Portal will use the AAMS as a media resource.

# QUESTION 10

Which key Avaya Aura Call Center Elite Multichannel (EMC) component sends a signal to Avaya Enablement Services
(AES) to pass the call control and call event Information to Elite Multichannel applications, such as the EMC Desktop?

A. XML Service
B. XML Application
C. XML Server
D. XML Client

# QUESTION 11

You are designing a solution for a customer with Avaya IXTM Workforce Engagement and Avaya Contact Recorder
(ACR) in their contact center.

When determining the number of DSP\\’s required for agent recording in an all IP environment using DMCC Call
Recording, what is the recommended ratio used?

A. Number of agents X 5 = DSPs
B. Number of agents X 4 = DSPs
C. Number of agents X 3 = DSPs
D. Number of agents X 2 = DSPs

# QUESTION 12

A customer needs to integrate a network of call centers for better load balancing and optimal agent utilization. They also need to monitor the status of the specified resources and adjust call processing. This would enable the system to
compare the specified skills, identify the skill that provides the best service to a call, and deliver the call to an agent in the skill. If no agents are available in the skill, the call is queued.

Which Avaya Aura Call Center Elite feature would you recommend to this customer?

A. Advanced Call Vectoring
B. Expert Agent Selection
C. Best Service Routing
D. Business Advocate

Correct answer:

Q1	Q2	Q3	Q4	Q5	Q6	Q7	Q8	Q9	Q10	Q11	Q12
C	AC	C	A	AB	A	BD	BCE	ACD	C	A	C

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QUESTION 1

On an endpoint, which method should you use to secure applications against exploits?
A. endpoint-based firewall
B. strong user passwords
C. full-disk encryption
D. software patches

QUESTION 2

Which network analysis tool can be used to record packet captures?
A. Smart IP Scanner
B. Wireshark
C. Angry IP Scanner
D. Netman

QUESTION 3

DRAG-DROP
Match the description with the VPN technology.
Select and Place:

QUESTION 4

Which option is an example of a North-South traffic flow?
A. Lateral movement within a cloud or data center
B. An internal three-tier application
C. Client-server interactions that cross the edge perimeter
D. Traffic between an internal server and internal user

QUESTION 5

An Administrator wants to maximize the use of a network address. The network is 192.168.6.0/24 and there are three
subnets that need to be created that can not overlap. Which subnet would you use for the network with 120 hosts?
Requirements for the three subnets: Subnet 1: 3 host address Subnet 2: 25 host address Subnet 3: 120 host
addresses
A. 192.168.6.168/30
B. 192.168.6.0/25
C. 192.168.6.160/29
D. 192.168.6.128/27

QUESTION 6

In SecOps, what are two of the components included in the identify stage? (Choose two.)
A. Initial Research
B. Change Control
C. Content Engineering
D. Breach Response

QUESTION 7

Which IPsec feature allows device traffic to go directly to the Internet?
A. Split tunneling
B. Diffie-Hellman groups
C. d.Authentication Header (AH)
D. IKE Security Association

QUESTION 8

Which aspect of a SaaS application requires compliance with local organizational security policies?
A. Types of physical storage media used
B. data-at-rest encryption standards
C. Acceptable use of the SaaS application
D. Vulnerability scanning and management

QUESTION 9

Which product from Palo Alto Networks enables organizations to prevent successful cyberattacks as well as simplify
and strengthen security processes?
A. Expedition
B. AutoFocus
C. MineMeld
D. Cortex XDR

QUESTION 10

Which not-for-profit organization maintains the common vulnerability exposure catalog that is available through their
public website?
A. Department of Homeland Security
B. MITRE
C. Office of Cyber Security and Information Assurance
D. Cybersecurity Vulnerability Research Center

QUESTION 11

In the attached network diagram, which device is the switch?

QUESTION 12

DRAG-DROP
Order the OSI model with Layer7 at the top and Layer1 at the bottom.
Select and Place:

QUESTION 13

Which Palo Alto Networks subscription service complements App-ID by enabling you to configure the next-generation
firewall to identify and control access to websites and to protect your organization from websites hosting malware and
phishing pages?
A. Threat Prevention
B. DNS Security
C. WildFire
D. URL Filtering

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PS.

The correct answer is here!

Q10

Q11

Q12

Q13

See picture

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