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QUESTION 1
The Add-On Builder creates Splunk Apps that start with what?
A. DA
B. SA
C. TA
D. App
Correct Answer: C
Reference: https://dev.splunk.com/enterprise/docs/developapps/enterprisesecurity/abouttheessolution/

QUESTION 2
Which of the following features can the Add-on Builder configure in a new add-on?
A. Expire data.
B. Normalize data.
C. Summarize data.
D. Translate data.
Correct Answer: B
Reference: https://docs.splunk.com/Documentation/AddonBuilder/3.0.1/UserGuide/Overview

QUESTION 3
Where is the Add-On Builder available from?
A. GitHub
B. SplunkBase
C. www.splunk.com
D. The ES installation package
Correct Answer: B
Reference: https://docs.splunk.com/Documentation/AddonBuilder/3.0.1/UserGuide/Installation

QUESTION 4
What does the Security Posture dashboard display?
A. Active investigations and their status.
B. A high-level overview of notable events.
C. Current threats being tracked by the SOC.
D. A display of the status of security tools.
Correct Answer: B
The Security Posture dashboard is designed to provide high-level insight into the notable events across all domains of
your deployment, suitable for display in a Security Operations Center (SOC). This dashboard shows all events from the
past 24 hours, along with the trends over the past 24 hours, and provides real-time event information and updates.
Reference: https://docs.splunk.com/Documentation/ES/6.1.0/User/SecurityPosturedashboard

QUESTION 5
An administrator is provisioning one search head prior to installing ES. What are the reference minimum requirements
for OS, CPU, and RAM for that machine?
A. OS: 32 bit, RAM: 16 MB, CPU: 12 cores
B. OS: 64 bit, RAM: 32 MB, CPU: 12 cores
C. OS: 64 bit, RAM: 12 MB, CPU: 16 cores
D. OS: 64 bit, RAM: 32 MB, CPU: 16 cores
Correct Answer: C
Reference: https://docs.splunk.com/Documentation/Splunk/8.0.2/Capacity/Referencehardware


QUESTION 6
Which argument to the | stats command restricts the search to summarized data only?
A. summaries=t
B. summaries=all
C. summariesonly=t
D. summariesonly=all
Correct Answer: C
Reference: https://docs.splunk.com/Documentation/Splunk/8.0.2/Knowledge/Acceleratedatamodels

QUESTION 7
Which column in the Asset or Identity list is combined with event security to make a notable event\\’s urgency?
A. VIP
B. Priority
C. Importance
D. Criticality
Correct Answer: B
Reference: https://docs.splunk.com/Documentation/ES/6.1.0/User/Howurgencyisassigned


QUESTION 8
What are the steps to add a new column to the Notable Event table in the Incident Review dashboard?
A. Configure -> Incident Management -> Notable Event Statuses
B. Configure -> Content Management -> Type: Correlation Search
C. Configure -> Incident Management -> Incident Review Settings -> Event Management
D. Configure -> Incident Management -> Incident Review Settings -> Table Attributes
Correct Answer: C
Reference: https://docs.splunk.com/Documentation/ES/6.1.0/Admin/Customizenotables


QUESTION 9
After installing Enterprise Security, the distributed configuration management tool can be used to create which app to
configure indexers?
A. Splunk_DS_ForIndexers.spl
B. Splunk_ES_ForIndexers.spl
C. Splunk_SA_ForIndexers.spl
D. Splunk_TA_ForIndexers.spl
Correct Answer: D
Reference: https://docs.splunk.com/Documentation/ES/6.1.0/Install/InstallTechnologyAdd-ons

QUESTION 10
An administrator is asked to configure a “Nslookup” adaptive response action so that it appears as a selectable option
in the notable event\\’s action menu when an analyst is working in the Incident Review dashboard. What steps would the
administrator take to configure this option?
A. Configure -> Content Management -> Type: Correlation Search -> Notable -> Nslookup
B. Configure -> Type: Correlation Search -> Notable -> Recommended Actions -> Nslookup
C. Configure -> Content Management -> Type: Correlation Search -> Notable -> Next Steps -> Nslookup
D. Configure -> Content Management -> Type: Correlation Search -> Notable -> Recommended Actions -> Nslookup
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 11
Which data model populated the panels on the Risk Analysis dashboard?
A. Risk
B. Audit
C. Domain analysis
D. Threat intelligence
Correct Answer: A
Reference: https://docs.splunk.com/Documentation/ES/6.1.0/User/RiskAnalysis#Dashboard_panels

QUESTION 12
Where is it possible to export content, such as correlation searches, from ES?
A. Content exporter
B. Configure -> Content Management
C. Export content dashboard
D. Settings Menu -> ES -> Export
Correct Answer: B
Reference: https://docs.splunk.com/Documentation/ES/6.1.0/Admin/Export

QUESTION 13
Which of the following threat intelligence types can ES download? (Choose all that apply)
A. Text
B. STIX/TAXII
C. VulnScanSPL
D. SplunkEnterpriseThreatGenerator
Correct Answer: B
Reference: https://docs.splunk.com/Documentation/ES/6.1.0/Admin/Downloadthreatfeed

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QUESTION 1
Which user mapping method could be used to discover user IDs in an environment with multiple Windows domain
controllers?
A. Active Directory monitoring
B. Windows session monitoring
C. Windows client probing
D. domain controller monitoring
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 2
Which operations are allowed when working with App-ID application tags?
A. Predefined tags may be deleted.
B. Predefined tags may be augmented by custom tags.
C. Predefined tags may be modified.
D. Predefined tags may be updated by WildFire dynamic updates.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3

PCNSA exam questions-q3

Given the topology, which zone type should interface E1/1 be configured with?
A. Tap
B. Tunnel
C. Virtual Wire
D. Layer3
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
Which two features can be used to tag a username so that it is included in a dynamic user group? (Choose two.)
A. XML API
B. log forwarding auto-tagging
C. GlobalProtect agent
D. User-ID Windows-based agent
Correct Answer: AB


QUESTION 5
Which statement is true regarding a Prevention Posture Assessment?
A. The Security Policy Adoption Heatmap component filters the information by device groups, serial numbers, zones,
areas of architecture, and other categories
B. It provides a set of questionnaires that help uncover security risk prevention gaps across all areas of network and
security architecture
C. It provides a percentage of adoption for each assessment area
D. It performs over 200 security checks on Panorama/firewall for the assessment
Correct Answer: B
Reference: https://docs.paloaltonetworks.com/best-practices/8-1/data-center-best-practices/data-center-best-practicesecurity-policy/use-palo-alto-networks-assessment-and-review-tools

QUESTION 6
Based on the screenshot, what is the purpose of the Included Groups?

PCNSA exam questions-q6

A. They are groups that are imported from RADIUS authentication servers.
B. They are the only groups visible based on the firewall\\’s credentials.
C. They contain only the users you allow to manage the firewall.
D. They are used to map users to groups.
Correct Answer: D
Reference: https://docs.paloaltonetworks.com/pan-os/9-1/pan-os-admin/user-id/map-users-to-groups.html


QUESTION 7
Which link in the web interface enables a security administrator to view the security policy rules that match new
application signatures?
A. Review Apps
B. Review App Matches
C. Pre-analyze
D. Review Policies
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8
Which type of security policy rule will match traffic that flows between the Outside zone and inside zone, but would not
match traffic that flows within the zones?
A. global
B. intrazone
C. interzone
D. universal
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9
Match the Palo Alto Networks Security Operating Platform architecture to its description.

PCNSA exam questions-q9

QUESTION 10
Which prevention technique will prevent attacks based on packet count?
A. zone protection profile
B. URL filtering profile
C. antivirus profile
D. vulnerability profile
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
Order the steps needed to create a new security zone with a Palo Alto Networks firewall.
Select and Place:

PCNSA exam questions-q11

 Correct Answer:

PCNSA exam questions-q11-2

QUESTION 12
Based on the screenshot what is the purpose of the included groups?
A. They are only groups visible based on the firewall\\’s credentials.
B. They are used to map usernames to group names.
C. They contain only the users you allow to manage the firewall.
D. They are groups that are imported from RADIUS authentication servers.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 13
Arrange the correct order that the URL classifications are processed within the system.
Select and Place:

PCNSA exam questions-q13

Correct Answer:

PCNSA exam questions-q13-2

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QUESTION 1
Which one of the following is defined as the process of distributing incorrect Internet Protocol (IP) addresses/names with
the intent of diverting traffic?
A. Network aliasing
B. Domain Name Server (DNS) poisoning
C. Reverse Address Resolution Protocol (ARP)
D. Port scanning
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 2
An organization hires a tester to do a wireless penetration test. Previous reports indicate that the last test did not contain
management or control packets in the submitted traces. Which of the following is the most likely reason for lack of
management or control packets?
A. The wireless card was not turned on.
B. The wrong network card drivers were in use by Wireshark.
C. On Linux and Mac OS X, only 802.11 headers are received in promiscuous mode.
D. Certain operating systems and adapters do not collect the management or control packets.
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 3
The following exploit code is extracted from what kind of attack?

ceh-001 exam questions-q3

A. Remote password cracking attack
B. SQL Injection
C. Distributed Denial of Service
D. Cross Site Scripting
E. Buffer Overflow
Correct Answer: E


QUESTION 4
You are attempting to crack LM Manager hashed from Windows 2000 SAM file. You will be using LM Brute force
hacking tool for decryption.
What encryption algorithm will you be decrypting?
A. MD4
B. DES
C. SHA
D. SSL
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
Which statement best describes a server type under an N-tier architecture?
A. A group of servers at a specific layer
B. A single server with a specific role
C. A group of servers with a unique role
D. A single server at a specific layer
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 6
When Nmap performs a ping sweep, which of the following sets of requests does it send to the target device?
A. ICMP ECHO_REQUEST and TCP SYN
B. ICMP ECHO_REQUEST and TCP ACK
C. ICMP ECHO_REPLY and TFP RST
D. ICMP ECHO_REPLY and TCP FIN
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 7
Peter extracts the SIDs list from Windows 2000 Server machine using the hacking tool “SIDExtractor”. Here is the
the output of the SIDs:

ceh-001 exam questions-q7

From the above list identify the user account with System Administrator privileges.
A. John
B. Rebecca
C. Sheela
D. Shawn
E. Somia
F. Chang
G. Micah
Correct Answer: F

QUESTION 8
The intrusion detection system at a software development company suddenly generates multiple alerts regarding
attacks against the company\\’s external webserver, VPN concentrator, and DNS servers. What should the security
team do to determine which alerts to check first?
A. Investigate based on the maintenance schedule of the affected systems.
B. Investigate based on the service level agreements of the systems.
C. Investigate based on the potential effect of the incident.
D. Investigate based on the order that the alerts arrived in.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 9
A tester is attempting to capture and analyze the traffic on a given network and realizes that the network has several
switches. What could be used to successfully sniff the traffic on this switched network? (Choose three.)
A. ARP spoofing
B. MAC duplication
C. MAC flooding
D. SYN flood
E. Reverse smurf attack
F. ARP broadcasting
Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 10
In an attempt to secure his 802.11b wireless network, Ulf decides to use a strategic antenna positioning. He places the
antenna for the access points near the center of the building. For those access points near the outer edge of the
building he uses semi- directional antennas that face towards the building\\’s center. There is a large parking lot and
outlying filed surrounding the building that extends out half a mile around the building. Ulf figures that with this and his
placement of antennas, his wireless network will be safe from attack.
Which of the following statements is true?
A. With the 300 feet limit of a wireless signal, Ulf\\’s network is safe.
B. Wireless signals can be detected from miles away, Ulf\\’s network is not safe.
C. Ulf\\’s network will be safe but only of he doesn\\’t switch to 802.11a.
D. Ulf\\’s network will not be safe until he also enables WEP.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 11
What is the main reason the use of a stored biometric is vulnerable to an attack?
A. The digital representation of the biometric might not be unique, even if the physical characteristic is unique.
B. Authentication using a stored biometric compares a copy to a copy instead of the original to a copy.
C. A stored biometric is no longer “something you are” and instead becomes “something you have”.
D. A stored biometric can be stolen and used by an attacker to impersonate the individual identified by the biometric.
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 12
How does an operating system protect the passwords used for account logins?
A. The operating system performs a one-way hash of the passwords.
B. The operating system stores the passwords in a secret file that users cannot find.
C. The operating system encrypts the passwords, and decrypts them when needed.
D. The operating system stores all passwords in a protected segment of non-volatile memory.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 13
In which location, SAM hash passwords are stored in Windows 7?
A. c:\windows\system32\config\SAM
B. c:\winnt\system32\machine\SAM
C. c:\windows\etc\drivers\SAM
D. c:\windows\config\etc\SAM
Correct Answer: A

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QUESTION 1
At Maximum Processing Capacity, how many messages per minute (combined email and voice) can Avaya IXTM
Messaging successfully process without loss of data, regardless of the number of users?
A. 5000
B. 4000
C. 3000
D. 2000
Correct Answer: B
https://downloads.avaya.com/css/P8/documents/101047702


QUESTION 2
What is the Avaya IXTM message bandwidth required for inbound and for outbound traffic?
A. 64 kbps bandwidth for inbound, and another 64 kbps for outbound traffic
B. 15 kbps bandwidth for inbound, and another 15 kbps for outbound traffic
C. 10 kbps bandwidth for inbound, and another 10 kbps for outbound traffic
D. 30 kbps bandwidth for inbound, and another 30 kbps for outbound traffic
Correct Answer: B
https://downloads.avaya.com/css/P8/documents/101047702


QUESTION 3
What are three deployment configuration considerations for the installation of Avaya IXTM Messaging? (Choose three.)
A. Network or mapped drives are not supported.
B. Network or mapped drives are supported.
C. An Avaya IXTM Messaging server may be installed on the root drive.
D. The drives may be a physical drive, or a single drive with partitions.
E. An Avaya IXTM Messaging server only be installed on the root drive.
Correct Answer: ADE
https://downloads.avaya.com/css/P8/documents/101065045

QUESTION 4
While doing a backup of the Avaya IXMessaging solution, which three folders must be chosen? (Choose three.)
A. UC\DB
B. UC\DBCom
C. UC\Licenses
D. UC\Messages
E. UC\Prompts
Correct Answer: ABD


QUESTION 5
When the Primary server becomes unavailable, it will stop updating the time stamps on the copied license files that exist
on the Secondary server and the Consolidated server. To stop the expiration of the copied license files, within how
many days must the Primary server be recovered?
A. 30
B. 28
C. 14
D. 10
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 6
In Avaya IXTM Messaging High Availability, VSN is designed to support up to how many SIP ports?
A. 100
B. 120
C. 150
D. 220
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
Which three statements about license management in Avaya IXTM Messaging High Availability are true? (Choose
three.)
A. The other servers (Secondary Server, Consolidated server, Mobilink Server, etc.) will maintain their individual license,
which allows them to maintain full functionality.
B. The Primary voice server will hold the license, and becomes the primary holder of the license.
C. The license file will be copied to all voice servers by Mobilink.
D. The license files on other servers (Secondary Server, Consolidated server, Mobilink Server etc) are time stamped,
and expire after a certain period of time.
E. The license files on other servers (Secondary Server, Consolidated server, Mobilink Server etc) are permanent, and
do not expire.
Correct Answer: ACD


QUESTION 8
In High Availability architecture, what is the maximum number of ports that are supported on Avaya IXTM Messaging
10.8?
A. 2,600
B. 2,200
C. 2,400
D. 2,800
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
If SR140 fax port licenses are present, how many FAX channels are supported by Avaya IX,M Messaging?
A. 48 ports per voice server, 120 max/solution
B. 24 ports per voice server, 120 max/solution
C. 24 ports per voice server, 60 max/solution
D. 48 ports per voice server, 60 max/solution
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 10
In Avaya IXTM Messaging, which service provides unified messaging synchronization to Google through Gmail API,
Office365 using EWS link, any IMAP4 compliant email application?
A. Message Networking
B. IIS Web Service
C. Content sync engine
D. Transcription
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 11
Which two statements about Avaya IXTM Messaging integration with a third party PBX are true? (Choose two.)
A. The number of PBXs are limited by the license.
B. In multi-PBX/multi-node, PBX with MWI with SIP and with CTI are supported.
C. Integration of multiple PBXs is only supported if the PBXs support same type of MWI integration.
D. In multi-PBX/multi-node, all PBXs/nodes can use any trunk type for integration.
E. It is recommended that all PBXs/nodes use SIP trunks for integration.
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 12
How many users are supported on Avaya IXTMMessaging 10.8 SingleServer?
A. 4,200
B. 4,500
C. 4,600
D. 4,800
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 13
Which three field settings does the consolidated server have the ability to change? (Choose three.)
A. Company
B. SIP Settings
C. Mailbox Settings
D. Feature Group
E. PBX Settings
Correct Answer: BCE

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QUESTION 1
For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No. NOTE: Each correct
selection is worth one point.

dp-900 exam questions-q1

QUESTION 2
Match the types of data to the appropriate Azure data services.To answer, drag the appropriate data types from the column on the left to its service on the right. Each data type may be
used once, more than once, or not at all.
NOTE: Each correct match is worth one point.

dp-900 exam questions-q2

QUESTION 3
You have an application that runs on Windows and requires across to a mapped drive.
Which Azure service should you use?
A. Azure Cosmos DB
B. Azure Table storage
C. Azure Files
D. Azure Blob Storage
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
To complete the sentence, select the appropriate option in the answer area.

dp-900 exam questions-q4

QUESTION 5
Which storage solution supports role-based access control (RBAC) at the file and folder level?
A. Azure Disk Storage
B. Azure Data Lake Storage
C. Azure Blob storage
D. Azure Queue storage
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 6
Match the Azure data factory components to the appropriate descriptions.
To answer, drag the appropriate component from the column on the left to its description on the right. Each component
may be used once, more than once, or not at all.
NOTE: Each correct match is worth one point.
Select and Place:

dp-900 exam questions-q6

Correct Answer:

dp-900 exam questions-q6-2

QUESTION 7
Which statement is an example of Data Definition Language (DDL)?
A. SELECT
B. JOIN
C. MERGE
D. CREATE
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 8
To complete the sentence, select the appropriate option in the answer area.
Hot Area:

dp-900 exam questions-q8

QUESTION 9
You are reviewing the data model shown in the following exhibit.

dp-900 exam questions-q9

Use the drop-down menus to select the answer choice that completes each statement based on the information
presented in the graphic. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point
Hot Area:

dp-900 exam questions-q9-2

QUESTION 10
What should you use to build a Microsoft Power BI paginated report?
A. Power BI report Builder
B. Power BI Desktop
C. Charticulator
D. the Power BI service
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 11
To complete the sentence select the appropriate option in the answer area.

dp-900 exam questions-q11

 QUESTION 12
For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No. NOTE: Each correct
selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

dp-900 exam questions-q12

 QUESTION 13
Match the Azure Data Lake Storage terms to the appropriate levels in the hierarchy.
To answer, drag the appropriate term from the column on the left to its level on the right. Each term may be used once,
more than once, or not at all.
NOTE: Each correct match is worth one point.
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QUESTION 1
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com.
Some user accounts in the domain have the P.O. Box attribute set.
You plan to remove the value of the P.O. Box attribute for all of the users by using Ldifde.
You have a user named User1 who is located in the Users container.
How should you configure the LDIF file to remove the value of the P.O. Box attribute for User1? To answer, select the
appropriate options in the answer area.
Hot Area:

70-742 exam questions-q1

Correct Answer:

70-742 exam questions-q1-2

QUESTION 2
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that use the same scenario. For you convenience, the scenario is
repeated in each question. Each question presents a different goal and answer choices, but the text of the scenario is
exactly the same in each question in this series.
Start of repeated scenario.
You work for a company named Contoso, Ltd.
The network contains an Active Directory forest named contoso.com. A forest trust exists between contoso.com and an
Active Directory forest named adatum.com.
The contoso.com forest contains the objects configured as shown in the following table.

70-742 exam questions-q2

Group1 and Group2 contain only user accounts.
Contoso hires a new remote user named User3. User3 will work from home and will use a computer named Computer3
that runs Windows 10. Computer3 is currently in a workgroup.
An administrator named Admin1 is a member of the Domain Admins group in the contoso.com domain.
From Active Directory Users and Computers, you create an organizational unit (OU) named OU1 in the contoso.com
domain, and then you create a contact named Contact1 in OU1.
An administrator of the adatum.com domain runs the Set-ADUser cmdlet to configure a user named User1 to have a
user logon name of [email protected]
End of repeated scenario.
You need to ensure that User2 can add Group4 as a member of Group5.
What should you modify?
A. the group scope of Group5
B. the Managed By settings of Group4
C. the group scope of Group4
D. the Managed By settings of Group5
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while
others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear in the review screen.
Your network contains an Active Directory forest named contoso.com.
You need to identify which server is the schema master.
Solution: From Windows PowerShell, you run Get-ADDomainController –Discover –Service 2.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B
This command gets a global catalog in the current forest using Discovery.
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/powershell/module/addsadministration/getaddomaincontroller?view=win10-ps

QUESTION 4
You have an Active Directory Rights Management Services (AD RMS) server named RMS1.
Multiple documents are protected by using RMS1.
RMS1 fails and cannot be recovered.
You install the AD RMS server role on a new server named RMS2.
You restore the AD RMS database from RMS1 to RMS2.
Users report that they fail to open the protected documents and to protect new documents.
You need to ensure that the users can access the protected content.
What should you do?
A. From Active Directory Rights Management, update the Service Connection Point (SCP) for RMS1.
B. From DNS, create an alias (CNAME) record for RMS2.
C. From DNS, modify the service location (SRV) record for RMS1.
D. From RMS2, register a service principal name (SPN) in Active Directory.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
Your network contains an Active Directory forest named contoso.com
Your company plans to hire 500 temporary employees for a project that will last 90 days.
You create a new user account for each employee. An organizational unit (OU) named Temp contains the user
accounts for the employees.
You need to prevent the new users from accessing any of the resources in the domain after 90 days.
What should you do?
A. Run the Get-ADUser cmdlet and pipe the output to the Set-ADUser cmdlet.
B. Create a group that contains all of the users in the Temp OU. Create a Password Setting object (PSO) for the new
group.
C. Create a Group Policy object (GPO) and link the GPO to the Temp OU. Modify the Password Policy settings of the
GPO.
D. Run the GET-ADOrganizationalUnit cmdlet and pipe the output to the Set-Date cmdlet.
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 6
You have an enterprise certification authority (CA) named ContosoCA. Recovery agents are configured for ContosoCA.
You duplicate the User certificate template and name it Cont_User. You plan to issue the certificates based on
Cont_User to provide users with the ability to encrypt email messages and files.
You need to ensure that the recovery agents can access any user-encrypted files and email messages if the users lose
their certificate.
What should you do?
A. Modify the Recovery Agents settings for ContosoCA.
B. Issue a certificate based on a key recovery agent certificate.
C. Modify the Request Handling settings for Cont_User.
D. On ContosoCA, configure the Key Recovery Agent template as a certificate template to issue.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a member server named
Server1 and a domain controller named DC1. Both servers run Windows Server 2016. Server1 is used to perform
administrative tasks, including managing Group Polices.
After maintenance is performed on DC1, you open a Group Policy object (GPO) from Server1 as shown in the exhibit.

70-742 exam questions-q7

You need to be able to view all of the Administrative Templates settings in GPO1. What should you do?
A. From File Explorer, copy the administrative templates from \\contoso.com\SYSVOL\contoso.com\Policies to the
PolicyDefinitions folder on Server1.
B. From File Explorer, delete \\contoso.com\SYSVOL\contoso.com\Policies\PolicyDefinitions.
C. From File Explorer, delete the PolicyDefinitions folder from Server1.
D. From Group Policy Management, configure WMI Filtering for GPO1.
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 8
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains three servers named
Server1, Server2, and Server3 that run Windows Server 2016.
Server1 has IP Address Management (IPAM) installed. Server2 and Server3 have the DHCP Server role installed and
have several DHCP scopes configured. The IPAM server retrieves data from Server2 and Server3.
A domain user named User1 is a member of the groups shown in the following table.

70-742 exam questions-q8

On Server1, you create a security policy for User1. The policy grants the IPAM DHCP Scope Administrator Role with the
\Global access scope to the user. Which actions can User1 perform? To answer, select the appropriate options in the
answer area.
Hot Area:

70-742 exam questions-q8-2

 Correct Answer:

70-742 exam questions-q8-3

User1 is using Server Manager, not IPAM to perform the administration. Therefore, only the “DHCP Administrators”
permission on Server2 and the “DHCP Users” permissions on Server3 are applied. The permissions granted through
membership of the “IPAM DHCP Scope Administrator Role” are not applied when the user is not using the IPAM
console.

QUESTION 9
HOTSPOT
Your network contains an Active Directory forest named contoso.com. They connect to the forest by using ldp.exe and
receive the output as shown in the following exhibit.

70-742 exam questions-q9

Use drop-down menus to select the answer choice that completes each statement based on the information presented
in the graphic. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

70-742 exam questions-q9-2

Correct Answer:

70-742 exam questions-q9-3

QUESTION 10
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. All the accounts of the users in the sales
department are in an organizational unit (OU) named SalesOU.
An application named App1 is deployed to the user accounts in SalesOU by using a Group Policy object (GPO) named
Sales GPO.
You need to set the registry value of \HKEY_CURRENT_USER\Software\App1\Collaboration to 0.
Solution: You add a computer preference that has a Create action.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11
Your network contains an enterprise root certification authority (CA) named CA1.
Multiple computers on the network successfully enroll for certificates that will expire in one year. The certificates are
based on a template named Secure_Computer. The template uses schema version 2.
You need to ensure that new certificates based on Secure_Computer are valid for three years.
What should you do?
A. Modify the Validity period for the certificate template.
B. Instruct users to request certificates by running the certreq.exe command.
C. Instruct users to request certificates by using the Certificates console.
D. Modify the Validity period for the root CA certificate.
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 12
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that use the same or similar answer choices. An answer choice may
be correct for more than one question in the series. Each question is independent of the other questions in this series.
Information and details provided in a question apply only to that question.
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com.
The domain contains a domain controller named DC1 that runs Windows Server 2016.
You need to create a snapshot of the Active Directory database on DC1.
Which tool should you use?
A. Dsadd quota
B. Dsmod
C. Active Directory Administrative Center
D. Dsacls
E. Dsmain
F. Active Directory Users and Computers
G. Ntdsutil
H. Group Policy Management Console
Correct Answer: G

QUESTION 13
Your network contains two network domains sales.fabrikam.com, and contoso.com,
You recently added a site named Europe.
The forest contains four users who are members of the groups shown in the following table.

70-742 exam questions-q13

You need to create a Group Policy object (GPO) named GP01 and to link GPO1 to the Europe site.
Which users can perform each task? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area. NOTE: Each correct
selection is worth one point
Hot Area:

70-742 exam questions-q13-2

 Correct Answer:

70-742 exam questions-q13-3

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QUESTION 1
What is the SOLR database for?
A. Used for full-text search and enables powerful matching capabilities
B. Writes data to the database and full-text search
C. Serves GUI responsible to transfer request to the DLE server
D. Enables powerful matching capabilities and writes data to the database
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 2
fwssd is a child process of which of the following Check Point daemons?
A. fwd
B. cpwd
C. fwm
D. cpd
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 3
From SecureXL perspective, what are the tree paths of traffic flow:
A. Initial Path; Medium Path; Accelerated Path
B. Layer Path; Blade Path; Rule Path
C. Firewall Path; Accept Path; Drop Path
D. Firewall Path; Accelerated Path; Medium Path
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4
When Dynamic Dispatcher is enabled, connections are assigned dynamically with the exception of:
A. Threat Emulation
B. HTTPS
C. QOS
D. VoIP
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 5
Which of the SecureXL templates are enabled by default on Security Gateway?
A. Accept
B. Drop
C. NAT
D. None
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 6
SandBlast offers businesses flexibility in implementation based on their individual business needs. What is an option for
deployment of Check Point SandBlast Zero-Day Protection?
A. Smart Cloud Service
B. Any Cloud Service
C. Threat Agent Service
D. Public Cloud Service
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 7
What state is the Management HA when both members have different policies/databases?
A. Synchronized
B. Never been synchronized
C. Lagging
D. Collision
Correct Answer: D
Reference: click here 

QUESTION 8
Fill in the blank: Identity Awareness AD-Query is using the Microsoft _______________ API to learn users from AD.
A. WMI
B. Eventvwr
C. XML
D. Services.msc
Correct Answer: A
Reference: click here 


QUESTION 9
Which command would you use to set the network interfaces\\’ affinity in Manual mode?
A. sim affinity -m
B. sim affinity -l
C. sim affinity -a
D. sim affinity -s
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 10
Fill in the blanks. There are ________ types of software containers: ___________.
A. Three; security management, Security Gateway, and endpoint security
B. Three; Security Gateway, endpoint security, and gateway management
C. Two; security management and endpoint security
D. Two; endpoint security and Security Gateway
Correct Answer: A
Reference: click here

QUESTION 11
What will SmartEvent automatically define as events?
A. Firewall
B. VPN
C. IPS
D. HTTPS
Correct Answer: C
Reference: click here 


QUESTION 12
What are the available options for downloading Check Point hotfixes in Gaia WebUI (CPUSE)?
A. Manually, Scheduled, Automatic
B. Manually, Automatic, Disabled
C. Manually, Scheduled, Disabled
D. Manually, Scheduled, Enabled
Correct Answer: A
Reference: click here 


QUESTION 13
Vanessa is a firewall administrator in her company. Her company is using Check Point firewall on a central and several
remote locations which are managed centrally by R77.30 Security Management Server. On central location is installed
R77.30 Gateway on Open server. Remote locations are using Check Point UTM-1570 series appliances with R75.30
and some of them are using a UTM-1-Edge-X or Edge-W with the latest available firmware. She is in process of migrating to
R80.
What can cause Vanessa unnecessary problems, if she didn\\’t checks all requirements for migration to R80?
A. Missing an installed R77.20 Add-on on Security Management Server
B. Unsupported firmware on UTM-1 Edge-W appliance
C. Unsupported version on UTM-1 570 series appliance
D. Unsupported appliances on remote locations
Correct Answer: A

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  • What is the Cisco CCNP Enterprise Certification
  • How do I pass its 350-401 exam?
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You must pass two exams to become a CCNP corporate certification. A core exam and a corporate centralized exam of your choice are necessary. Each exam for this certification will give you an expert certification, which is the best way to identify a person’s achievements. Core 350-401 exam measures knowledge of enterprise infrastructure, dual-stack (IPv 4 and IPv 6) architecture.

Vendor: Cisco
Certifications: CCNP
Exam Code: 350-401
Exam Name: Implementing and Operating Cisco Enterprise Network Core Technologies (ENCOR)

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Cisco CCNP 350-401 practice tests questions answers

QUESTION 1
An engineer must configure interface GigabitEthernet0/0 for VRRP group 10. When the router has the highest priority in
the group, it must assume the master role. Which command set must be added to the initial configuration to accomplish
this task?

javacexam 350-401 exam questions-q1

A. vrrp 10 ip 172.16.13.254 vrrp 10 preempt
B. standby 10 ip 172.16.13.254 standby 10 priority 120
C. vrrp group 10 ip 172.16.13 254.255.255.255.0 vrrp group 10 priority 120
D. standby 10 ip 172.16.13.254 255.255.255.0 standby 10 preempt
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2
What are two reasons why broadcast radiation is caused in the virtual machine environment? (Choose two.)
A. vSwitch must interrupt the server CPU to process the broadcast packet.
B. The Layer 2 domain can be large in virtual machine environments.
C. Virtual machines communicate primarily through broadcast mode.
D. Communication between vSwitch and network switch is broadcast based.
E. Communication between vSwitch and network switch is multicast based.
Correct Answer: AD
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/solutions/collateral/data-centervirtualization/net_implementation_white_paper0900aecd806a9c05.html


QUESTION 3
How does SSO work with HSRP to minimize network disruptions?
A. It enables HSRP to elect another switch in the group as the active HSRP switch.
B. It ensures fast failover in the case of link failure.
C. It enables data forwarding along known routes following a switchover, white the routing protocol reconverges.
D. It enables HSRP to failover to the standby RP on the same device.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4
Refer to the exhibit.

javacexam 350-401 exam questions-q4

An engineer must establish eBGP peering between router R3 and router R4. Both routers should use their loopback
interfaces as the BGP router ID. Which configuration set accomplishes this task?

javacexam 350-401 exam questions-q4-2

A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 5
Which feature must be configured to allow packet capture over Layer 3 infrastructure\\’?
A. VSPAN
B. IPSPAN
C. RSPAN
D. ERSPAN
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6

javacexam 350-401 exam questions-q6

Refer to the exhibit. Which level message does the WLC send to the syslog server?
A. syslog level errors and less severity messages
B. syslog level errors messages
C. all syslog levels messages
D. syslog level errors and greater severity messages
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7
Refer to the exhibit.

javacexam 350-401 exam questions-q7

A client reports being unable to log into the wireless network, which uses PEAPv2. Which two issues appear in the
output? (Choose two.)
A. There is a problem with the client supplicant.
B. The AP has the incorrect RADIUS server address.
C. The AP has lost IP connectivity to the authentication server.
D. The EAP client timeout value should be increased.
E. The authentication server is misconfigured on the controller.
F. The authentication server is misconfigured in the WLAN.
Correct Answer: AD


QUESTION 8
Which PAgP mode combination prevents an Etherchannel from forming?
A. auto/auto
B. desirable/desirable
C. auto/desirable
D. desirable
Correct Answer: A
Reference: https://www.omnisecu.com/cisco-certified-network-associate-ccna/etherchannel-pagp-and-lacp-modes.php

QUESTION 9
Which configuration restricts the amount of SSH traffic that a router accepts to 100 kbps?

javacexam 350-401 exam questions-q9

javacexam 350-401 exam questions-q9-2

A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 10
A network is being migrated from IPV4 to IPV6 using a dual-stack approach. Network management is already 100%
IPV6 enabled.
In a dual-stack network with two dual-stack NetFlow collections, how many flow exporters are needed per network
device in the flexible NetFlow configuration?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 4
D. 8
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11
Refer to the exhibit.

javacexam 350-401 exam questions-q11

Refer to the exhibit. Which two commands are needed to allow for full reachability between AS 1000 and AS 2000?
(Choose two)
A. R1#network 19.168.0.0 mask 255.255.0.0
B. R2#no network 10.0.0.0 255.255.255.0
C. R2#network 19.168.0.0 mask 255.255.0.0
D. R2#network 209.165.201.0 mask 255.255.192.0
E. R1#no network 10.0.0.0 255.255.255.0
Correct Answer: BC


QUESTION 12
Refer to the exhibit.

javacexam 350-401 exam questions-q12

Refer to the exhibit. Which command allows hosts that are connected to FastEthernet0/2 to access the Internet?
A. ip nat inside source list 10 interface FastEthernet0/1 overload
B. ip nat inside source list 10 interface FastEthernet0/2 overload
C. ip nat outside source list 10 interface FastEthernet0/2 overload
D. ip nat outside source static 209.165.200.225 10.10.10.0 overload
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 13
A server running Linux is providing support for virtual machines along with DNS and DHCP services for a small
business. Which technology does this represent?
A. container
B. Type 1 hypervisor
C. hardware pass-thru
D. Type 2 hypervisor
Correct Answer: D

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Real CompTIA N10-007 exam questions and answers 1-13

QUESTION 1
A junior network technician is working in the field and needs to connect to the company/s remote server, however, doing
so will require the junior technician to use the public Internet. Because security is a concern which of the following is the
BEST method to use?
A. Telnet
B. SSH
C. SFTP
D. VNC
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 2
A network engineer planning for wireless connectivity in large office building. Currently, the office building contains both
legacy and newer devices. Which of the following wireless network routers should engineer select for the fastest
throughput for all wireless devices in the office building?
A. 802.11ac
B. 802.11b
C. 802.11g
D. 802.11n
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 3
A client requests a new dynamic address and receives a response from two DHCP servers. Which of the following
addressing information would the client use?
A. The IP addressing information received last
B. The IP addressing information from the highest server MAC address
C. The IP addressing information from the highest server IP address
D. The IP addressing information received first
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4
A company has procured a new office building and started the process of assigning employees to work at that location.
The company has also purchased equipment for the new location. There are 5033 laptops, 6000 monitors, and 857
printers. Which of the following steps is the technician most likely to complete FIRST?
A. Create a rack diagram
B. Create a network baseline
C. Create an inventory database
D. Create a port location diagram
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 5
Two WAPs are positioned with overlapping coverage, but seamless roaming across them is not working. Which of the
following should be checked?
A. WPA should be enabled
B. PKI should be turned off
C. WAP SSIDs are matching
D. WAPs are transmitting on same channel
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 6
Allowing data to be centrally stored and accessed by multiple devices on an isolated subnet is BEST understood as:
A. NAS
B. iSCSI
C. SAN
D. FCoE
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7
Which of the following default ports should be opened on a firewall to allow for SSH and Telnet? (Select TWO)
A. 21
B. 22
C. 23
D. 25
E. 123
F. 443
Correct Answer: BC


QUESTION 8
A network extension needs to be run to a location 500ft(152m) from the nearest switch. Which of the following solutions
would work BEST? (Choose two.)
A. Cat 6 with a repeater placed in the middle of the run
B. Cat 7
C. Crossover cable
D. Fiber-optic cabling
E. Cat 7 with a patch panel placed in the middle of the run
Correct Answer: AD


QUESTION 9
Which of the following is a secure way to connect to a device?
A. RSH
B. TFTP
C. SNMPv2
D. SFTP
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 10
Which of the following is based ENTIRELY on using ICMP packets?
A. Social engineering
B. NMAP
C. Buffer overflow attack D. Smurf attack
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 11
A technician is setting up a branch office on a point-to-point connection. Which of the following IP network blocks is the
MOST efficient use of IP address space for the router connections between the two sites?
A. /24
B. /25
C. /30
D. /32
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 12
Jeff, a technician, is charged with setting up network monitoring for critical devices in the network. It is important the
information be sent securely to the monitoring station. Which of the following protocols will support secure transmission
of the data?
A. SNMP v2
B. VPN
C. SYSLOG
D. SMTP
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 13
Which of the following physical security devices is used to detect unauthorized server room access?
A. Access badge
B. Biometrics
C. Smart card
D. Video surveillance
Correct Answer: D

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In this article, I will explain what the Microsoft Power platform is, what products are there, why it is important, and so on. Microsoft quickly innovates, updates and releases new products and solutions, and you will read a lot about power platforms.

  • What is the Microsoft Power Platform? Quick overview!
  • Four products provided by the Microsoft Power platform
  • Exams included
  • Why is it important?
  • More related resources

What is the Microsoft Power Platform? Quick overview!

It is a series of integrated tools designed to unlock the potential of other Microsoft applications.

“Microsoft Power Platform” is the general term for three Microsoft products: Power BI, Power Apps and Power Automate, Power Virtual Agent. This Microsoft Power platform merges all data into a common data model. It is a set of products provided by Microsoft to develop and build complex business solutions, analyze and graph data visualization, automate business processes, or build virtual agents for communication.

Power Platform has many exciting possibilities and implications, but it is difficult to know where to start or what it can do for your organization. If you want to learn more about the Power platform, or discuss a potential idea, please contact us today.

Four products provided by the Microsoft Power platform

There are four products:

  1. POWER BI – used to analyze data from different data sources
  2. Power Apps – used to build powerful mobile applications for internal use within the organization
  3. Power Automation – used to design automated workflows to reduce manual tasks.
  4. Power Virtual Agent – used to develop flexible chatbots that can communicate with external clients
POWER BI
(Overview 2020)
Power BI is a business analysis tool that allows you to easily connect to data sources, create visualizations, and quickly acquire business intelligence.
Power Apps (Overview 2020)Power Apps is a low-code custom application development method that allows users to quickly create applications in a “point and click” manner. Power Apps is more like a service platform provided by Microsoft’s Power platform. This service enables users to quickly build applications that can run on any modern web browser, such as Chrome, Firefox, etc., as well as native mobile applications using Android, IOS, or Windows.
Power Automate (Overview 2020)Power Automate allows you to create automated workflows between Microsoft services or other third-party applications, so that workers can avoid performing repetitive tasks and save valuable time.
Power Virtual Agent (Overview 2020)Power Virtual Agent is a BOT construction service provided by Microsoft for business users. Using it, users can build virtual chat agents from scratch without writing a line of code. All integration and logic can be implemented in the graphical user interface of the Power Virtual Agent portal.

Exams included

Microsoft Power Platform Exams:

  • MB-600: Microsoft Power Apps + Dynamics 365 Solution Architect
  • PL-900: Microsoft Power Platform Fundamentals

Why is it important?

In this digital age, our dependence on data is very high. The Power platform democratizes data-enabling typical (non-technical) end users to access digital information.

It provides three technologies that enable staff to process more data by themselves without coding knowledge. It does provide an easy way for most users to create, automate, or analyze their data in ways that have never been possible for ordinary workers.

More related resources

Improve your proficiency in Power Platform and learn more about the applications you are interested in:

P.S.

The goal of Javacexam is to provide you with the latest news, tips and best practices in the Microsoft Power Platform. Learn about Power Platform updates!