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QUESTION 21
What requirements apply to shared storage on an HA Server Pool?
A. Each server in the pool must have a connection to the shared storage, using NFS, ISCSI or a SAN Either ext3 or OCFS2 should be used to format the shared file system.
B. Each server in the pool must have a connection to the shared storage, using NFS, (SCSI or a SAN. Either gfs or OCFS2 should be used to format the shared file system.
C. t least one server in the pool must have a connection to the shared storage, using iSCSI or a SAN. Either ext3 or OCFS2 should be used to format the shared file system.
D. Each server in the pool must have a connection to the shared storage, using iSCSI or a SAN. Only OCFS2 should be used to format the shared file system when using iSCSI or a SAN.
E. Each server in the pool must have a connection to the shared storage, using NFS, iSCSI or a SAN. Only OCFS2 should be used to format the shared file system when using iSCSI or a SAN.
Correct Answer: E Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 22
In a paravirtualized environment, which answer best describes the drivers that are used in domO and the guest to communicate block I/O requests?
A. A blkback driver is used in dom0, and a blkfront driver is used in the guest.
B. A native device driver is used in dom0, and a blkback driver is used in the guest.
C. A blkfront driver is used in dom0, and a native device driver is used in the guest.
D. A blkfront driver is used in dom0, and a blkbck driver is used in the guest.
E. Native drivers are used in both dom0 and the guest.
Correct Answer: A Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 23
In Oracle VM 2.2.x, what directory will the root repository be symbolically linked to on each Oracle VM Server attached to a storage pool?
A. /OVS3
B. /var/ovs/mount/root
C. /var/ovs/mount/OVSROOT

D. /OVSROOT
E. /var/OVS
F. /opt/ovs
Correct Answer: E Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The /OVS directory is the cluster root and is a symbolic link mounted to the /var/ovs/mount/uuid directory. For example, the mount command might display something similar to: # mount example.com:/OVS on /var/ovs/mount/F4135C096045458195057412169071E5 type nfs (rw,addr=192.168.2.20) And the ls command might display something similar to: # ls -l /OVS lrwxrwxrwx 1 root root 47 Sep 18 16:15 /OVS -> /var/ovs/mount/F4135C096045458195057412169071E5
QUESTION 24
During installation of Oracle VM Manager to a new Oracle Enterprise Linux server, the installer fails with a message indicating that there is insufficient swap space.
What is the cause for this error?
A. The installer has determined that the Oracle application server’s (OC4J) minimum requirement for swap space has not been met.
B. The installer has determined that the Oracle Database XE server’s minimum requirement for swap space has not been met.
C. The installer has determined that there is insufficient swap space to unpack the installer into the /var subdirectory.
D. The installer has determined that the swap space recognized by the system has been incorrectly formatted to use TMPFS instead of SWAPFS.
Correct Answer: B Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 25
In a paravirtualized environment, which answer best describes the drivers that are used in domO and the guest to communicate network I/O requests?
A. A netback driver is used in dom0, and a netfront driver is used in the guest.
B. A native device driver is used in dom0, and a netback driver is used in the guest.
C. A netfront driver is used in dom0, and a native device driver is used in the guest.
D. A netfront driver is used in dom0, and a blkbck driver is used in the guest.
E. Native drivers are used in both dom0 and the guest.
Correct Answer: A Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
http://mokumsolutions.com/chapter-2-oracle-vm-x86-reference-design-and-architectural- introduction
QUESTION 26
The Oracle VM administrator is having issues shutting down a virtual machine. Which log file will best help troubleshoot whether the shutdown command is being successfully executed on the target server?
A. /var/log/ovs-agent/ovs_performance.log
B. /var/log/ovs-agent/ovs_operation.log
C. /var/log/xen/xend.log
D. /var/log/xen/xend-debug.log
Correct Answer: C Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 27
Oracle VM Server 2.2 consists of which two software components?
A. Oracle Database XE
B. Oracle Enterprise Linux 5.3
C. Xen Hypervisor
D. Oracle Containers for Java (OC4J)
E. Oracle WebLogic Server (WLS)

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QUESTION NO: 1
Which of the following Oracle products provides a comprehensive Integrated Development Environment (IDE)?
A. Oracle Enterprise Pack for Eclipse
B. Oracle JDeveloper
C. Oracle Service Registry
D. Enterprise Manager
Answer: A,B Explanation: A: Oracle Enterprise Pack for Eclipse is a free set of certified plug-ins, enabling WebLogic developers to support Java EE and Web Service standards. Oracle Enterprise Pack for Eclipse supports development with technologies including Database, Java SE, Java EE, Web Services, XML, Spring Framework and Oracle Fusion Middleware.
B: Oracle JDeveloper is a free integrated development environment that simplifies the development of Java-based SOA applications and user interfaces with support for the full development life cycle.
Incorrect answers
Oracle Service Registry and Enterprise Manager are not development tools.
QUESTION NO: 2
Which of the following statements best describes how the deployment supports closed-loop governance?
A. The Metadata Repository is integrated with the operational systems to link operational metrics to the assets to ensure that the assets perform asintended.
B. The Metadata Repositories deployed in each environment are chained to share asset usage information.
C. A closed-loop governance framework is deployed on a clustered server to monitor the governance activities.
D. Production systems are integrated to the developer desktops to validate the requirements against the implemented code.
Answer: B,C Explanation: SOA Software’s Policy Manager and Service Manager combine to form a comprehensive closed-loop SOA Governance solution.
Closed loop means:
*
Defining and managing actionable policies in a governance solution at design-time

*
Enforcing these policies via deep integration with a management solution at run-time

*
Auditing that these policies are being enforced

*
Using industry standards (WS-Policy, WS-MEX) where appropriate for information exchange Closed loop infrastructure enables demand and Value Management

*
Collect performance, usage and exception statistics at run-time

*
Track these statistics via the governance solution

*
Use live, audited information to drive value-based decisions about the effectiveness of different services and organizations

*
Provide developers with up to the minute information about a service in runtime to inform their decisions about which services to use

*
Manage supply and demand to ensure maximum efficiency and benefit from SOA

The products share a common registry and metadata repository to ensure seamless integration and offer active governance. Closed-loop governance will:

*
Ensure defined policies are enforced ** When you define a policy for a service you have to KNOW categorically that it is being enforced ** Generate audit trails for run-time and design-time policy compliance

*
Measure the real-world value of SOA ** Not just theoretical value ** How many applications are using each service, and how much are they using it ** NOT how many applications have asked to use a certain capacity of each service

*
Manage, monitor and control relationships between consumers and providers ** Enforced contracts ** Capacity planning Change management
The diagram below shows the relationships between SOA governance, security and management, demonstrating how SOA Policy Management forms a closed loop of policy, metrics, and audit.

http://www.soa.com/images/img_closed_loop.gif

QUESTION NO: 3
Which of the following are common uses of an Attribute Service?
A. to maintain metadata pertaining to audit log entries and attestation reports
B. to acquire data that are necessary to make access-control decisions
C. to securely supply personally identifiable information to applications
D. to determine which security policy is assigned to a Web Service
Answer: B,C Explanation: The Attribute Service(AS) retrieves user information from an attribute store. The AS retrieves user information associated with a user from variety of authoritative identity stores including, but not limited to, LDAP and database stores.

QUESTION NO: 4
Conventional Management and Monitoring tools focus and produce metrics on which one of the
following?
A. holistically across heterogeneous systems
B. metrics that measure individual resources
C. metrics that focus on understanding the relationship and Interactions between component
D. metrics that capture the combined behavior of several components interacting with the shared component
Answer: B
Explanation: Conventional tools tend to focus and produce metrics on individual resources which
is
inadequate for an agile shared services computing environment.

Note:
A metric is a unit of measurement used to report the health of the system that is
captured from the monitored infrastructure components. Metrics from all monitored
infrastructure components are stored and aggregated in the Management Repository,
providing administrators with a rich source of diagnostic information and trend
analysis data.

Reference: Oracle Reference Architecture,Management and Monitoring, Release 3.0
QUESTION NO: 5
Which of the following statements are true about perimeter security?
A. Though it is often associated with network security, it also applies to physical security measures as fences and locked doors.
B. It is most effective when there is only one perimeter. For example, when inner perimetersare established, they reduce the effectiveness of outer perimeters.
C. The Demilitarized Zone (DMZ) is the most protected zone of the network, which should be reserved for only the most sensitive data.
D. Connections should not be permitted to span more than one perimeter or firewall.
E. Perimeter security can be a component of a defense-in-depth strategy.
F. Perimeter security is most effective for protection against insider threats.
Answer: A,D,E
Explanation: A: Your inner perimeter consists of the doors, windows and walls of your building(s).
Protecting your inner perimeter is usually accomplished with locks, keys and alarm systems.

D: E: Defense in depth is a security strategy in which multiple, independent, and mutually reinforcing security controls are leveraged to secure an IT environment. Defense in depth should be applied so that a combination of firewalls, intrusion detection and prevention, user management, authentication, authorization, and encryption mechanisms are employed across tiers and network zones. Defense in depth is compatible with perimeter security in that network perimeters (or more generically, protection zones) can make up part of the defense in depth strategy.
Reference: Oracle Reference Architecture,Security, Release 3.1

QUESTION NO: 6
Which three primary components form IT Strategies from Oracle (ITSO)?
A. Enterprise Technology Strategies
B. Maximum Availability Architecture
C. Enterprise Solution Designs
D. Oracle Reference Architecture
E. Oracle Enterprise Architecture Framework
F. Oracle Unified Method
Answer: A,C,D
Explanation: ITSO is made up of three primary elements.
Enterprise Technology Strategies (ETS)
Enterprise Solution Designs (ESD)
Oracle Reference Architecture (ORA)

Reference: IT Strategies from Oracle, An Overview, Release 3.0

QUESTION NO: 7
Which of the following are the implications of the architecture principle, “Asset-centric approach must be applied to engineering processes”?
A. The development Infrastructure must support asset-centric engineering.
B. Assets must be associated with meaningful metadata that can be used to discover and interpret the assets.
C. Solutions developed must beintegrated and tested early and often.
D. Existing assets must be reused to fulfill whole or part functionality when available.
Answer: B Explanation: The underlying core principle of ORA Engineering is asset sharing and enterprise development through an integrated asset management approach. Most organizations use a Software Configuration Management (SCM) or Version Control System (VCS) for managing the code and configuration assets. These tools are great for managing the versioning of assets produced but they don’t maintain the metadata of the assets. Without metadata assets are not organized in context and it is hard to discover them. ORA recommends an asset-centric engineering process, where an Asset Manager is used to address the challenges posed by the traditional approaches. The Asset Manager is typically an enterprise-scoped Metadata Repository working in concert with SCMs and other types of asset repositories.
Reference: Oracle Reference Architecture,Software Engineering, Release 3.0
QUESTION NO: 8
What shortcomings of the Version Control Systems drive the need for a Metadata Repository?
A. Version Control Systems are not easily searchable.
B. Version Control Systems lack robust metadata that allows developers to determine relevance.
C. Version Control Systems don’t provide the level of consumer tracking and reporting necessary to support software reuse.
D. Version Control Systems do not allow the asset versions to be rolled back to a previousstate
Answer: B Explanation: The underlying core principle of ORA Engineering is asset sharing and enterprise development through an integrated asset management approach. Most organizations use a Software Configuration Management (SCM) or Version Control System (VCS) for managing the code and configuration assets. These tools are great for managing the versioning of assets produced but they don’t maintain the metadata of the assets. Without metadata assets are not organized in context and it is hard to discover them. ORA recommends an asset-centric engineering process, where an Asset Manager is used to address the challenges posed by the traditional approaches. The Asset Manager is typically an enterprise-scoped Metadata Repository working in concert with SCMs and other types of asset repositories.
Reference: Oracle Reference Architecture,Software Engineering, Release 3.0

QUESTION NO: 9
Which of the following are true statements about the benefits of standardizing on a common security framework?
A. Security requirements no longer need to be specified for eachindividual application; the framework will automatically determine what security needs to be applied.
B. A common set of security services and information can be used across the organization, promoting Infrastructure reuseand minimizing inconsistencies.
C. Secure application integrationis made easier via standardization on a preferred subset of technologies and options.
D. Administration and auditing are improved due to rationalization and standardization of identities, attributes, roles, policies, and so on.
E. Interoperability amid federation are easier to achieve via the adoption of common security and technology standards.
Answer: A,B,E
Explanation: In order to provide security in a consistent manner, a common set of infrastructure,

e.g. a security framework, must be used. The purpose of this framework is to rationalize security across the enterprise by:
*
Establishing a master set of security data that reflect the policies, IT resources, participants and their attributes across the entire domain of security

*
Mapping organizational structures, computing resources, and users to roles in a way that clearly depicts access privileges for the organization

*
Maintaining fine-grained access rules based on roles that have been established for the organization

*
Propagating the master security data to individual applications and systems that enforce security (A)

*
Detecting changes to security data residing on systems that have not been propagated from the master source of record, and sending alerts regarding these inconsistencies

*
Providing common security services, such as authentication, authorization, credential mapping, auditing, etc. that solutions can leverage going forward in place of custom-developed and proprietary functions (B)

*
Facilitating interoperability between systems and trust between security domains by acting as a trusted authority and brokering credentials as needed(E)

*
Centrally managing security policies for SOA Service interactions
The security framework should provide these types of capabilities as a value-add to the existing infrastructure. The intent is not to discard the capabilities built into current applications, but rather to provide a common foundation that enhances security across the enterprise. Security enforcement can still be performed locally, but security data should be modeled and managed holistically.
Incorrect:
C: Not a main goal.
D: Ease of administration and auditing is not a main goal here.
Reference: Oracle Reference Architecture,Security, Release 3.1, 4.1.1 Purpose of a Security Framework

QUESTION NO: 10
You are developing an Integration component that uses customer data. The source system defines customer data in a different format than expected. Which of the following options best describes how you would develop the component?
A. Create an object representation of customer data and use itin the component.
B. Externalize the data transformation by mapping the source data format to a canonical data format.
C. The data formats are different, so it is not possible to develop the component.
D. Write data from the source system into a database and read it back in the expected format.
Answer: A Explanation:
Note: It is quite common to encounter use cases that require transformation of information from one format to another, especially in the area of enterprise integration. Source systems and target systems may use very different representations of data and in some cases, a canonical data model might be used as a common intermediate format. In some cases, the transformation is a simple field-to-field mapping whereas in other cases it is a complex manipulation and conversion of data. It should be possible to visually map the source and target representations with the ability to enrich the elements to support both simple and complex data transformations.
QUESTION NO: 11
The Service-Oriented Integration (SOI) architecture includes an event-handling capability as illustrated and described in the Process View. Which statement best describes the rationale for including event handling in the SOI architecture?
A. Event-Driven Architecture (EDA) is a subset of SOI, so including event handling provides the EDA part of SOI.
B. The event-handling capability allows arbitrarily complex events to be handled by the architecture; i.e. Complex Event Handling (CEP) is part of the SOI architecture.
C. AH other interactions within the architecture are upper layers calling lower layers. The event- handling capability allows a Connectivity Service to call a Business Service, thus providing the ability to lower layers to call upper layers in the architecture.
D. The event-handling capability allows a back-end system that is included in the SOI to initiate action because something important has occurred within the back-end system.
E. By employing a publish-and-subscriber message approach, the event-handling capacity allows the SOI architecture to handle high-volume message traffic because publish-and-subscribe handles higher message volumes than request-response.
Answer: D Explanation:
Note:
Events allow one system (event emitter) to notify other systems (event sink) that
something of interest has changed. There are two broad categories of event types:

*
Business Event – A business event is an event that is of business relevance and would be readily understood by a business person.

*
Technical Event – A technical event is an event that is relevant to IT but not directly relevant to the business.
As illustrated by the figure below, in this architecture all events are routed to the Business Process Layer and the appropriate business processes are executed for that event. Essentially this is a mechanism for a lower level in the architecture stack, the Connectivity Layer, to initiate actions that might include interactions with all other levels in the architecture. This is essential since the generated event will likely be backend system specific; therefore it is likely that the data must be normalized and some amount of custom logic may be required to convert the event into an event that is backend system agnostic.

Reference: Oracle Reference Architecture, Service-Oriented Integration, Release 3.0
QUESTION NO: 12
Service-Oriented Integration is based on creating a catalogue of SOA Services that expose existing capabilities from back-end systems. Which statement best describes how an SOA Service relates to the existing back-end systems?
A. Each SOA Service exposes the functionality from only a single back-end system to ensure the decoupling of SOA Services.
B. An SOA Service should expose the low-level interface of the back-end system to ensure that all back-end system capabilities are fully exposed.
C. An SOA Service should expose higher-level business capabilities by encapsulating the lower level Interfaces of the back-end systems.
D. Each SOA Service should expose only one isolated capability of the back-end systems to ensure isolation between SOA Service calls in composite applications.
E. All access to a back end system should be through a single SOA Service to ensure the back- end system will net become overloaded by service requests.
F. An SOA Service should connect to at least two back-end systems; otherwise the SOA Service is just duplicating the existing interface to the back-end system.
Answer: C Explanation: The primary purpose of the Business layer in the architecture is to define and automate the business processes external to, and independent of, the specific backend systems used in the organization. This isolates the business process from backend system changes,
and conversely, isolates the backend systems from business process changes.
De-coupling the business processes from the backend systems simplifies changes and
maintenance for business processes and backend systems.
The Business layer generally provides the greatest and most measurable business value.

Reference: Oracle Reference Architecture, Service-Oriented Integration, Release 3.0
QUESTION NO: 13
You need to redesign your application to improve performance. The potential solution requires the data to be kept in memory for faster access. The in-memory data requires full support for SQL with BI queries and there is no need to scale out further. Which Oracle product would you choose to implement your solution?
A. Oracle Coherence
B. Oracle TimesTen
C. Oracle TUXEDO
D. Oracle VM
Answer: B Explanation: Oracle TimesTen In-Memory Database (TimesTen) is a full-featured, memory-optimized, relational database with persistence and recoverability. It provides applications with the instant responsiveness and very high throughput required by database-intensive applications. Deployed in the application tier, TimesTen operates on databases that fit entirely in physical memory (RAM). Applications access the TimesTen database using standard SQL interfaces. For customers with existing application data residing on the Oracle Database, TimesTen is deployed as an in-memory cache database with automatic data synchronization between TimesTen and the Oracle Database.

QUESTION NO: 14
Which of the following statements about asset-centric engineering is true?
A. Project assets are maintained at each individual project level in an asset-centric engineering.
B. Asset-centric engineering promotes an integrated asset management approach in which assets are shared across the enterprise.
C. Asset-centric engineering uses multiple enterprise repositories to store and maintain the assets.
D. Asset-centric engineering requires that everything related to the assets,including metadata and payload, should be stored in the same repository.
Answer: D Explanation: The underlying core principle of ORA Engineering is asset sharing and enterprise development through an integrated asset management approach. Most organizations use a Software Configuration Management (SCM) or Version Control System (VCS) for managing the code and configuration assets. These tools are great for managing the versioning of assets produced but they don’t maintain the metadata of the assets. Without metadata assets are not organized in context and it is hard to discover them. ORA recommends an asset-centric engineering process, where an Asset Manager is used to address the challenges posed by the traditional approaches. The Asset Manager is typically an enterprise-scoped Metadata Repository working in concert with SCMs and other types of asset repositories.
Reference: Oracle Reference Architecture,Software Engineering, Release 3.0

QUESTION NO: 15
Which statements are true with regard to authorization checks being done in the Mediation Layer?
A. Performing authorization checksin the Mediation Layer provides a centralized approach to securing SOA Services.
B. Performing authorization checks in the Mediation Layer requires that all secured SOA Services be accessed via the same protocol.
C. Performing authorization checks in the Mediation Layer requires that all secured SOA Services be accessed only via the Mediation Layer.
D. Performing authorization checks in the Mediation Layer eliminates the need for role-based authentication.
E. Performing authorization checks in the Mediation Layer requires that user authentication be based on username and password.
Answer: A,D Explanation: Mediation is a key component in the overall architecture providing the decoupling between consumers and providers.
A: Although not always required, leveraging the authorization capability within the Mediation Layer provides a centralized approach to securing SOA Services.
Note: In addition to run time Service endpoint discovery, SOA infrastructure can provide additional value by acting as an intermediary and mediator between consumers and providers. For example, intermediaries can bridge the technology gaps between the two parties. Among their many capabilities are:
*
Translate (map) security credentials between different users/groups/roles or between different credential types

*
Translate, or transform request and response messages

*
Accept requests via one transport or protocol and forward them on using a different transport or protocol (not B)

*
Route messages based on content within the request message (Content-based routing)

*
Route messages based on security policies

*
Add or remove security measures such as encryption and certificates

*
Invoke multiple Service providers as part of a single Service request

*
Audit and/or log requests

*
Deny requests based on access policies (SLAs, Usage Agreements)

*
Capture response time metrics and usage metrics

*
Monitor and report on error conditions
Reference: Oracle Reference Architecture, Service-Oriented Integration, Release 3.0

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QUESTION 1
What is the purpose of the use “command” In the CLI?
A. Use a specified server pool as the default for all commands requiring a server pool argument.
B. Use a specified virtual machine name as the default for all commands requiring a virtual machine argument.
C. Use a specified user name as the default for all commands requiring a user name argument.
D. Use a specified server name as the default for all commands requiring a server argument.
E. Use a specified group name as the default for all commands requiring a group argument.
Correct Answer: A Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 2
What component of Oracle VM Product is specifically responsible for the automatic failover process?
A. OCFS2
B. Server Pool Master
C. Oracle Clusterware
D. utility server
E. virtual machine server
Correct Answer: B Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
http://docs.oracle.com/cd/E11081_01/doc/doc.21/e10898/ha.htm To enable HA, you must first make sure all Virtual Machine Servers in the server pool:
Use the same shared storage.
Are in the same OCFS2 or NFS cluster.
Are Oracle VM Server Release 2.1.2 or above.
Have the same cluster root, which is a specially designated shared storage used for heatbeating in the cluster. For example, the cluster root might be example.com:/OVS for an NFS cluster, or /dev/sdd6 for an OCFS2 cluster. The heartbeat file would be located at example.com:/OVS/.server_pool_hb for an NFS cluster. There is no heartbeat file for an OCFS2 cluster as one is in-built in the file system.
Have the cluster root mounted at /OVS. All other storage may be mounted at the standard location of / OVS/uuid.
Have moved any /OVS mount points (set in FSTAB for Releases 2.1 or 2.1.1) to the /etc/ovs/repositories file. All storage, even that mounted at /OVS, must be maintained in the /etc/ovs/repositories file. You can move the mount points to the /etc/ovs/repositories file with the following command:
# /usr/lib/ovs/ovs-cluster-check –alter-fstab
Have a shared cluster root at /OVS, and not local, using clustered OCFS2 on SAN, or ISCSI storage, or NFS on NAS. The default local storage is OCFS2, and is not supported with HA.
QUESTION 3
A low priority guest is using up more of the physical network traffic than desired. Select the two valid
network QoS settings for restricting outbound network traffic?
A. [max_rate=lMb/s]
B. [[email protected]]
C. [rate=250Kb/s]
D. [max_rate=unlimited]
E. [rate=250Rb/s, max rate=1Mb/s]
Correct Answer: BC Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 4
What two steps would best harden an Oracle VM Server installation?
A. Avoid installing additional software in dom0.
B. Enable firewalling in dom0.
C. Install virus checking software in dom0.
D. Use Trusted Computing Modules for Xen0.
E. Do not share physical network cards between hosts that are on a different subnet.
Correct Answer: AE Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 5
Networking is not working for several guests on a particular host. Which two commands can help troubleshoot the networking?
A. xm list -1 will show all of the network interfaces for all of the virtual machines, which can be used to see which bridge is having problems.
B. config_network.py -l will show which network interfaces are in use, and which are having problems.
C. brctl show will show the status of each bridge, and which VIFs are connected to it. This canthen be used to determine which bridge is having problems.
D. System-config-network will list the virtual interfaces, which can be inspected to see which are having problems.
E. ifconfig -a will show a list of all network interfaces and their current status, which will help determine which bridge is having problems.
Correct Answer: CE Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 6
What is the effect of running a server pool restores?
A. When you restore a server pool, all the data stored in the Oracle VM Manager database Isdeleted, and the data in the server pool master and virtual machine servers is used to restock the database.
B. When you restore a server pool, all servers are removed from the pool, and the data in the database is removed, restoring the server pool to its initial state.
C. When you restore a server pool, all the data stored in the server pool master will be deleted, and will be synchronized with the latest information from the Oracle VM Manager database. The server pool master is responsible for updating the individual Oracle VM servers’ agent databases.
D. When you restore a server pool, a signal is sent out to each server in the pool, which responds with the current state of all of the virtual machines it hosts. This data is used to restore the data in the Oracle VM database.
Correct Answer: C Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 7
Which three are part of the JeOS toolkit?
A. Linux command to customize the JeOS images and create the template
B. JeOS license file
C. Enterprise Linux JeOS images to use for the System.img
D. Microsoft Windows JeOS images to use for the System.img
E. Template reconfiguration scripts
F. Red Hat Enterprise Linux JeOS images to use for the System.img
Correct Answer: ABE Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Linux command is available to customize the JeOS images and for creating the template you will get a script which will allow to create the template so that template reconfiguration scripts will be the right answer and a license file should be there. So the correct 3 options I specified there.
QUESTION 8
Which statement best describes the pricing metric for Oracle VM configurations?
A. Oracle VM Server support contract is purchased for each server. Oracle VM Manager is included at no charge.
B. Oracle VM Server license and support contract is purchased for each server. Oracle VM Manager is included at no charge.
C. Oracle VM Server license and support contract is purchased for each server. Oracle VM Manager license and support contract is purchased for each server.
D. Oracle VM Server license and support contract is purchased for each server. Oracle VM Manager license and support contract is purchased for one server.
E. Oracle VM Server support contract is purchased for each server. Oracle VM Manager support is purchased for one server.
Correct Answer: B Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 9
A virtual machine is copied onto portable media and transferred to another machine In a different server pool. The virtual machine is then run on the new host, but it falls to boot. What are two potential problems?
A. The virtual machine was not exported properly using the Oracle VM Manager.
B. The virtual machine configuration file needs to be changed to update the new paths to its virtualdisks.
C. The virtual machine configuration file lists bridges that do not exist on the new host.
D. The virtual machine has not been registered with Oracle VM yet.
Correct Answer: AD Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 10
Which disk protocol is the default disk type for disks in a paravirtualized guest?

A. HD (IDE)
B. SD (SCSI)
C. XVD
D. RAW
Correct Answer: A Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 11
When an Oracle VM server starts, by default how does it map physical NICs to Xen bridges?
A. Each physical NIC is mapped to one or more virtual networks, each of which is assigned a Xen bridge.
B. One Xen bridge will be created for each physical NIC.
C. All physical NICs are mapped to a single Xen bridge.
D. No mapping of physical NICs to Xen bridges is done by default.
E. The first physical NIC is assigned to dom0’s management; a Xen bridge is then created for each of the remaining cards.
Correct Answer: B Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 12
In hardware virtualized environment, which answer best describes the drivers that are used in dom0 and the guest to communicate block I/O requests?
A. QEMU emulation is used in dom0, and a blkfront driver is used in the guest.
B. A native device driver is used in dom0, and QEMU emulation is used in the guest.
C. A blkfront driver is used in dom0, and a blkback driver is used in the guest
D. QEMU emulation is used in dom0, and a native device driver is used in the guest.
E. Native drivers are used in both dom0, and the guest.
Correct Answer: A Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 13
What two steps are required to create a root repository in an Oracle VM server pool?
A. Use the repos.py command with the –new option, along with either a device path or an nfs path.
B. Use the repos.py command with the –new option, along with the UUID assigned to the repository.
C. Use the repos.py command with the–new option, along with the UUID assigned to the repository and a device path.
D. Use the repos.py command with the path. –root option, along with either a device path or an nfs path.
E. Use the repos.py command with the–root option, along with the UUID assigned to the repository.
Correct Answer: AE Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 14
When converting hardware virtualized machine to full PV, the guest falls to boot. What line in vm.cfq is likely leftover from the HVM configuration?
A. vnclisten = ‘0.0.0.0’
B. pae =1
C. builder=’hvm’
D. serial=’pty’
Correct Answer: C Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
My suggestion is to use builder=’hvm’ because it works fine for once I have failed to booting the server but when I made it builder=’hvm’ it booted fine. Another thing is if you use linux os as a mother os then you can leftover this builder=’hvm’ but if you use windows2003 then you have to use builder=’hvm’.
QUESTION 15
In hardware virtualized environment, which answer best describes the drivers that are used in dom0 and the guest to communicate network I/O requests?
A. QEMU emulation is used in dom0, and a netfront driver is used in the guest.
B. A native device driver is used in dom0, and QEMU emulation is used in the guest.
C. A netfront driver is used in dom0, and a netback driver is used in the guest.
D. QEMU emulation is used in dom0, and a native device driver is used in the guest.
E. Native drivers are used in both dom0 and the guest
Correct Answer: C Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 16
When using NFS, what technology is used to control locking on the NFS mount?
A. Oracle VM uses the same DLM (distributed lock manager) for NFS as it does for OCFS2 partitions.
B. The standard NFS drivers are sufficient to properly lock files in an NFS repository.
C. Oracle VM ships with the IO-EMU drivers, which provide proper locking for files on an NFS repository.
D. Oracle VM ships with a DM-NFS server, which runs on the master pool server and handles distributed file locking for an NFS repository.
Correct Answer: A Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 17
When crating a repository on an iSCSI LUN, how should the LUN be formatted?
A. The LUN should be formatted with ext3 from every participating node in the cluster.
B. The LUN should be formatted with ext3 from a single node in the cluster.
C. The LUN should be formatted with OCFS2 from every participating node in the cluster.
D. The LUN should be partitioned, and then formatted with OCFS2 from every participating node in the cluster.
E. The LUN should be formatted with OCFS2 from a single node in the cluster.
Correct Answer: E Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

OCFS2 cluster – quick setup guide


QUESTION 18
What task can an Administrator do that a Manager cannot in Oracle VM Manager?
A. manage server pools
B. manage servers
C. manage resources
D. manage virtual machines
E. create users and groups
F. import resources
Correct Answer: E Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: Oracle VM Manager can manages the server pools, resources, virtual machines and also it can import resources but it cannot create the users and groups.
QUESTION 19
You have a large number of virtual machines that need access to a storage repository. Which answer describes the factors you use to determine your storage repository strategy?
A. Oracle VM 3.x has multiple identical storage repositories. Additional identical repositories can be added as needed. A best practice is to select a medium size for the repository
based on your usage.
B. The way to grow an Oracle VM 3.x storage repository is to add additional space to the rootrepository as needed. A best practice is to only configure additional space when determined it is needed.
C. Oracle VM 3.x has a single fixed storage repository. A best practice is to configure the repository with 30%-40% headroom for growth.
D. The way to grow an Oracle VM 3.x storage repository is to add sub-repositories beneath the root repository. A best practice is to provision one or more larger repositories to avoid the management overhead of numerous sub-repositories.
Correct Answer: A Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: You can use the split technology to split your partitions as a 2 GB space and can define the max size and when needed Oracle VM can automatically add the more storage there and also you can modify the max size of the storage repository.
QUESTION 20
In Oracle 2.2.x under which directory does each repository create a mount point and what is the name of subdirectory?
A. Each repository will create mount point under /OVS, with a directory named using the UUID of the respiratory.
B. Each repository will create a mount point under /var/ovs, In a directory named using the UUID ofthe repository.
C. Each repository will create a mount point under /var/ovs/mount, in a directory named using theUUID of the repository.
D. Each repository will create a mount point under /OVS, with a directory named using a sequencenumber starting at 0.
E. Each repository will create a mount point under /var/ovs, with a directory named using a sequence number starting at 0.
F.     Each repository will create a mount point under /var/ovs/mount, with a directory named using a sequence number starting at 0.
Correct Answer: C Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
http://mokumsolutions.com/chapter-6-oracle-vm-22-san-iscsi-and-nfs-back-end-storage-configurations#The_Oracle_VM_Storage_Stack
[[email protected] ~]# /opt/ovs-agent-latest/utils/repos.py -l [ * ] 0c1efe10-5413-45db-9053-e89c62a2c857 => /dev/sdb1 [[email protected] ~]# mount |grep 857 /dev/sdb1 on /var/ovs/mount/0C1EFE10541345DB9053E89C62A2C857 type ocfs2 (rw,_netdev,heartbeat=local) [[email protected] ~]# ls /OVS iso_pool lost+found publish_pool running_pool seed_pool sharedDisk [[email protected] ~]# ls -l /OVS lrwxrwxrwx 1 root root 47 Eyl 6 10:24 /OVS -> /var/ovs/mount/0C1EFE10541345DB9053E89C62A2C857

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