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Exam Code: 70-532
Exam Name: Developing Microsoft Azure Solutions
Q&As: 188

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QUESTION 5
You need to choose an Azure storage service solution.
Which solution should you choose?
A. Queue storage
B. Blob storage
C. File storage
D. Table storage
70-532 exam Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 6
You need to deploy the FileProcessor.exe program.
How should you update the project configuration file for the program? To answer, select the appropriate
option or options in the answer area.
Hot Area:
70-532 dumps

Correct Answer:
70-532 dumps

QUESTION 7
You need to configure role instances.
Which size should you specify for the VM?
A. Use Small for Off-Peak mode.
B. Use Large for On-Peak mode.
C. Use Extra Large for On-Peak mode.
D. Use Extra Small for Off-Peak mode.
70-532 dumps Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 8
You need to insert markup at line SD22 to install the software that generates PDF documents.
How should you complete the relevant markup? To answer, drag the appropriate code segments to the
correct locations. Each code segment may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to
drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.
Select and Place:
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70-532 dumps

QUESTION: 9
Scenario: AGEX Inc.
Please read this scenario prior to answering the question AGEX is a large, global commodities trading company which has been growing rapidly through a series of acquisitions. Each new business is performing well in its markets. However, the lack of
integration between headquarters and the business units has increasingly caused problems in the handling of customer and financial information. The inability to share information across businesses has resulted in lost opportunities to “leverage the synergies” that had been intended when the businesses were acquired. At present, each business unit maintains its own applications. Despite an earlier initiative to install a common application to manage customer, products, supplier, and inventory information, each business unit has different ways of defining each of these core elements and has customized the common application to the point where the ability to exchange information is difficult, costly, and error-prone. As a result, AGEX has begun implementing a single Enterprise Resource Planning (ERP) system to consolidate information from several applications that exist across the lines of business.The Corporate Board is concerned that the new ERP system must be able to manage and safeguard customer information in a manner that meets or exceeds the legal requirements of the countries in which the company operates. This will be an increasingly important capability as the company expands its online services offered to clients and trading partners. The CIO has formed an Enterprise Architecture department, and one of the primary goals in its charter is to coordinate efforts between the ERP implementation team and the business unit personnel who will be involved in the migration process. The CIO has also formed a cross- functional Architecture Review Board to oversee and govern the
architecture. After reviewing the available alternatives, and based on recommendations from the ERP vendor, AGEX has selected TOGAF 9 as the basis for its Enterprise
 70-532 pdf Architecture program. The CIO has endorsed this choice with the full support of top management. Refer to the AGEX Inc. Scenario You are serving as the Chief Architect.
As part of the process for establishing the Enterprise Architecture department, you have decided to create a set of principles to guide the activities. You have been asked to recommend the best approach for this work. Based on TOGAF 9, which of the following is the best answer?
A. You define a set of principles that support the preferred best practices embodied in the Enterprise Architecture department charter. You publish the principles on the corporate intranet to ensure widespread acceptance and compliance. You then schedule regular periodic Compliance Assessments with individual business units to check that they have made satisfactory progress toward meeting the objectives and conditions embodied in the principles.
B. You gather information from credible industry sources in the commodities business. Based on that, you assess current trends and apply that to defining a set of principles that embody best practices. You select architecture principles that do not conflict with each other and that should be stable. You ensure that all the principles are realistic and avoid including principles that are obvious.
C. You examine the mission statements for AGEX and each of its businesses, together with the corporate value statements. Based on that, you define a set of principles and review with the CIO. When developing the principles you ensure that they actively promote the alignment of IT with the business strategies and initiatives of AGEX. You then seek the endorsement of the CIO and senior management.
D. You examine the mission statements for AGEX and each of its businesses, together with the corporate value statements. Based on that, you work with the Architecture Review Board to define the principles. When developing the principles you ensure that they actively promote the alignment of IT with the AGEX business strategies. You then run a series of reviews with all the relevant stakeholders, including senior management,ensuring their support.
Answer: D

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Exam Code: 70-414
Exam Name: Implementing an Advanced Server Infrastructure
Q&As: 243

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QUESTION NO: 38
You need to recommend a solution that manages the security events. The solution must meet the technical requirements.
Which configuration should you include in the recommendation?
A. Object access auditing by using a Group Policy object (GPO)
B. Event rules by using System Center 2012 Operations Manager
C. Event forwarding by using Event Viewer
D. Audit Collection Services (ACS) by using System Center 2012
70-414 exam Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 39.You are planning the delegation for the virtualization environment. The delegation must meet the
visualization requirements.
Which user role profile should you select for Group2?
A. Administrators
B. Read-Only Administrator
C. Self-Service User

D. Delegated Administrator
Answer: A
Explanation:
70-414 dumps

QUESTION NO: 40
You need to recommend a solution that resolves the current file server issue. The solution must meet the business requirements.
What should you include in the recommendation?
A. BranchCache in hosted cache mode
B. BranchCache in distributed cache mode
C. A storage pool
D. Distributed File System (DFS)
70-414 dumps Answer: D
Explanation:
Course 20414a-ENG-Trainer handbook.
Scenarios for Using DFS
By using from DFS-N and DFS Replication, your organization can benefit from several implementation
scenarios including:
– Sharing files across branch offices
– Data collection
– Data distribution
Sharing Files Across Branch Offices
Organizations with multiple physical offices tend to share files or collaborate between offices.
You can use DFS Replication to replicate files between these offices, or from branch offices to a hub site.
This form of replication helps reduce wide area network (WAN) traffic, and provides high availability
should a WAN link or a server fail.
DFS Replication ensures that when changes are made to a file, the changes are replicated to all other
sites by using delta replication.
QUESTION NO: 41.
You need to recommend a solution for managing updates.The solution must meet the technical requirements.
What should you include in the recommendation?
A. A System Center 2012 Configuration Manager management point in the main office and a WSUS

downstream server in each office
B. A System Center 2012 Configuration Manager software update point in the main office and a System
Center 2012 Configuration Manager distribution point in each office
C. A System Center 2012 Configuration Manager management point in the main office and a System
Center 2012 Configuration Manager distribution point in each office
D. A WSUS upstream server in the main office and a WSUS downstream server in each office
Answer: B
Explanation:
70-414 dumps

QUESTION NO: 42.You are planning the deployment of System Center 2012 Virtual Machine Manager (VMM). You need to
identify which additional System Center 2012 product is required to meet the virtualization requirements.
What should you include in the recommendation?
A. App Controller
B. Operations Manager
C. Configuration Manager
D. Service Manager
70-414 pdf 
Answer: B
Explanation:
70-414 dumps

QUESTION NO: 43
You work as a system engineer for BlueWell Inc. Which of the following documents will help you to
describe the detailed plans, procedures, and schedules to guide the transition process
A. Configuration management plan
B. Transition plan
C. Systems engineering management plan (SEMP)
D. Acquisition plan
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 44
Which of the following policies describes the national policy on the secure electronic messaging
service
A. NSTISSP No. 11
B. NSTISSP No. 7
C. NSTISSP No. 6
D. NSTISSP No. 101
70-414 vce 
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 45
Which of the following is a subset discipline of Corporate Governance focused on information
security systems and their performance and risk management
A. Computer Misuse Act
B. Clinger-Cohen Act
C. ISG
D. Lanham Act
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 46
Which of the following principles are defined by the IATF model Each correct answer represents a
complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. The degree to which the security of the system, as it is defined, designed, and implemented,
meets the security needs.
B. The problem space is defined by the customer’s mission or business needs.
C. The systems engineer and information systems security engineer define the solution space,
which is driven by the problem space.
D. Always keep the problem and solution spaces separate.
70-414 exam 
Answer: B,C,D
QUESTION NO: 47
Which of the following cooperative programs carried out by NIST conducts research to advance
the nation’s technology infrastructure
A. Manufacturing Extension Partnership
B. NIST Laboratories
C. Baldrige National Quality Program
D. Advanced Technology Program
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 48
Which of the following persons in an organization is responsible for rejecting or accepting the
residual risk for a system
A. System Owner
B. Information Systems Security Officer (ISSO)
C. Designated Approving Authority (DAA)
D. Chief Information Security Officer (CISO)
70-414 dumps 
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 49
Which of the following assessment methodologies defines a six-step technical security evaluation
A. FITSAF
B. OCTAVE
C. FIPS 102
D. DITSCAP
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 50
What are the subordinate tasks of the Implement and Validate Assigned IA Control phase in the
DIACAP process Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Conduct activities related to the disposition of the system data and objects.
B. Combine validation results in DIACAP scorecard.
C. Conduct validation activities.
D. Execute and update IA implementation plan.
70-414 pdf 
Answer: B,C,D
QUESTION NO: 51
Which of the following memorandums reminds the Federal agencies that it is required by law and
policy to establish clear privacy policies for Web activities and to comply with those policies
A. OMB M-01-08
B. OMB M-03-19
C. OMB M-00-07
D. OMB M-00-13
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 52
Lisa is the project manager of the SQL project for her company. She has completed the risk
response planning with her project team and is now ready to update the risk register to reflect the
risk response. Which of the following statements best describes the level of detail Lisa should
include with the risk responses she has created
A. The level of detail must define exactly the risk response for each identified risk.
B. The level of detail is set of project risk governance.
C. The level of detail is set by historical information.
D. The level of detail should correspond with the priority ranking.
70-414 vce 
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 53
You work as a security manager for BlueWell Inc. You are going through the NIST SP 800-37 C&A
methodology, which is based on four well defined phases. In which of the following phases of
NIST SP 800-37 C&A methodology does the security categorization occur
A. Continuous Monitoring
B. Initiation
C. Security Certification
D. Security Accreditation
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 54
You work as a systems engineer for BlueWell Inc. You are working on translating system
requirements into detailed function criteria. Which of the following diagrams will help you to show
all of the function requirements and their groupings in one diagram
A. Activity diagram
B. Functional flow block diagram (FFBD)
C. Functional hierarchy diagram
D. Timeline analysis diagram
70-414 exam 
Answer: C

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Exam Code: 070-461
Exam Name: Querying Microsoft SQL Server 2012
Q&As: 164

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Question No : 10 You create a stored procedure that will update multiple tables within a transaction.
You need to ensure that if the stored procedure raises a run-time error, the entire
transaction is terminated and rolled back.
Which Transact-SQL statement should you include at the beginning of the stored
procedure?
A. SET XACT_ABORT ON
B. SET ARITHABORT ON
C. TRY
D. BEGIN
E. SET ARITHABORT OFF
F. SET XACT_ABORT OFF
070-461 exam 
Answer: A
Question No : 11 Your database contains two tables named DomesticSalesOrders and
InternationalSalesOrders. Both tables contain more than 100 million rows. Each table has a
Primary Key column named SalesOrderId. The data in the two tables is distinct from one
another.
Business users want a report that includes aggregate information about the total number of
global sales and total sales amounts.
You need to ensure that your query executes in the minimum possible time.
Which query should you use?
A. SELECT COUNT(*) AS NumberOfSales, SUM(SalesAmount) AS TotalSalesAmount
FROM (
SELECT SalesOrderId, SalesAmount
FROM DomesticSalesOrders
UNION ALL
SELECT SalesOrderId, SalesAmount
FROM InternationalSalesOrders
) AS p
B. SELECT COUNT(*) AS NumberOfSales, SUM(SalesAmount) AS TotalSalesAmount
FROM (
SELECT SalesOrderId, SalesAmount
FROM DomesticSalesOrders
UNION
SELECT SalesOrderId, SalesAmount
FROM InternationalSalesOrders
) AS p
C. SELECT COUNT(*) AS NumberOfSales, SUM(SalesAmount) AS TotalSalesAmount
FROM DomesticSalesOrders
UNION
SELECT COUNT(*) AS NumberOfSales, SUM(SalesAmount) AS TotalSalesAmount
FROM InternationalSalesOrders
D. SELECT COUNT(*) AS NumberOfSales, SUM(SalesAmount) AS TotalSalesAmount
FROM DomesticSalesOrders
UNION ALL
SELECT COUNT(*) AS NumberOfSales, SUM(SalesAmount) AS TotalSalesAmount
FROM InternationalSalesOrders
Answer: A
Question No : 12 You are a database developer at an independent software vendor. You create stored
procedures that contain proprietary code.
You need to protect the code from being viewed by your customers.
Which stored procedure option should you use?
A. ENCRYPTBYKEY
B. ENCRYPTION
C. ENCRYPTBYPASSPHRASE
D. ENCRYPTBYCERT
070-461 dumps 
Answer: B
Question No : 13 You use a Microsoft SQL Server 2012 database.
You want to create a table to store Microsoft Word documents.
You need to ensure that the documents must only be accessible via Transact-SQL queries.
Which Transact-SQL statement should you use?
A. CREATE TABLE DocumentStore
(
[Id] INT NOT NULL PRIMARY KEY,
[Document] VARBINARY(MAX) NULL
)
GO
B. CREATE TABLE DocumentStore
(
[Id] hierarchyid,
[Document] NVARCHAR NOT NULL
)
GO
C. CREATE TABLE DocumentStore AS FileTable
D. CREATE TABLE DocumentStore
(
[Id] [uniqueidentifier] ROWGUIDCOL NOT NULL UNIQUE,
[Document] VARBINARY(MAX) FILESTREAM NULL
)
GO
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 14
The BEST description of the purpose of Service Operation is?
A. To design and build processes that will meet business needs
B. To deliver and support IT Services at agreed levels to business users and customers
C. To decide how IT will engage with suppliers during the Service Management Lifecycle
D. To proactively prevent all outages to IT Services
070-461 pdf 
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 15
Which of the following is NOT an aim of the Change Management process?
A. Overall business risk is optimized
B. Standardized methods and procedures are used for efficient and prompt handling of all
Changes
C. All budgets and expenditures are accounted for
D. All changes to Service Assets and Configuration Items (CIs) are recorded in the Configuration
Management system
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 16
How does Problem Management work with Change Management?
A. By installing changes to fix problems
B. By negotiating with Incident Management for changes in IT for Problem resolution
C. By issuing RFCs for permanent solutions
D. By working with users to change their IT configurations
070-461 vce 
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 17
Which of the following statements is CORRECT?
A. The CMS is part of the Configuration Management Data Base (CMDB)
B. The Configuration Management System (CMS) is part of the Known Error Data Base (KEDB)
C. The Service Knowledge Management System (SKMS) is part of the CMS
D. The KEDB and the CMS form part of the larger SKMS
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 18
Understanding customer usage of services and how this varies over the Business Lifecycle is part
of which process?
A. Service Portfolio Management
B. Service Level Management
C. Component Capacity Management
D. Demand Management
070-461 exam 
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 19
Which is NOT a purpose of Service Transition?
A. Ensure that a service can be managed, operated and supported.
B. Provide quality knowledge of Change, Release and Deployment Mgmt.
C. Plan and manage the capacity and resource requirements to manage a release.
D. Provide training and certification in project management.
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 20
Which of the following is the BEST definition of an Incident?
A. Loss of ability to operate to specification, or to deliver the required output
B. A change of state which has significance for the management of a Configuration Item or IT
Service
C. A warning that a threshold has been reached, something has changed, or a failure has
occurred
D. An unplanned interruption to an IT service or reduction in the quality of an IT service
070-461 dumps 
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 21
The BEST description of the guidance provided by Service Design is?
A. The design and development of new services
B. The design and development of service improvements
C. The design and development of services and service management processes
D. The day-to-day operation and support of services
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 22
How many times should each stage of the Plan, Do, Check, Act (PDCA) cycle be visited?
A. Each stage should be carried out once in the order Plan-Do-Check-Act
B. There should be a single Plan and Do,then Check and Act should be carried out multiple times
to implement Continual Improvement
C. The entire cycle should be repeated multiple times to implement Continual Improvement
D. There should be a single Plan,then the Do-Check-Act cycle should be repeated multiple times
to implement Continual Improvement
070-461 pdf 
Answer: C

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Exam Code: 70-740
Exam Name: Installation, Storage, and Compute with Windows Server 2016
Updated: Aug 27, 2017
Q&As: 162

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QUESTION 1
What type of analysis would NOT normally be completed when optimising PS data
services?
A. Evaluating traffic volume thresholds.
B. Evaluating UE transmit power thresholds.
C. Evaluating downlink transmit power thresholds.
D. Evaluating the delay for the CELLFACH to CELLDCH transition.
70-740 exam Answer: B
QUESTION 2
Which RLC mode should be used for NRT traffic?
A. AM.
B. UM.
C. TrM.
D. FM.
Answer: A
QUESTION 3
How is the SHO area optimised?
A. By adding neighbours for Inter-system handovers.
B. By fine-tuning the HC and PC control parameters.
C. By increasing the TX Power and LNA gain.
D. By adjusting cell dominance areas.
70-740 dumps Answer: D
QUESTION 4
What is the CORRECT order of the major phases in the ISHO process?
A. Compressed mode, event or periodical measurement reporting, threshold comparison.
B. Event or periodical measurement reporting, compressed mode, threshold comparison.
C. Initial triggering, compressed mode, event measurement reporting, threshold
comparison.
D. Initial triggering, compressed mode, periodical measurement reporting, threshold
comparison.
Answer: D
QUESTION 5
The Dedicated Traffic Channel (DTCH):

A. is a point to multipoint channel.
B. exists only in uplink.
C. exists only in downlink.
D. is used to transfer user information.
70-740 pdf Answer: D
QUESTION 6
The GSM – WCDMA handover process for voice, from measurements triggering to
complete handover, takes:
A. 7-10 seconds.
B. 0.02-0.04 of a second.
C. 2-5 seconds.
D. 0.2-0.4 of a second.
Answer: C
QUESTION 7
When applying the free space propagation loss formula both for GSM900 and WCDMA,
what APPROXIMATELY is the propagation loss difference between the systems, if the
distance from the BTS is 1500 meters? (Use frequency 2100 MHz for WCDMA.)
A. 5.5 dB.
B. 7.4 dB.
C. 1.3 dB.
D. 13.4 dB.
70-740 vce Answer: B
QUESTION 8
Pilot pollution can be observed from:
A. nodeB TX and RX statistics from OSS.
B. field measurements.
C. nodeB statistics from Iub.
D. RNC handover statistics.
Answer: B
QUESTION 9
What is the CORRECT coding sequence in a DL transmission?
A. First channalisation then scrambling.
B. First scrambling then rate matching.

C. First scrambling then channalisation.
D. First scrambling then convolutional.
70-740 exam Answer: A
QUESTION 10
Which one of the following parameters does NOT have an influence on UL traffic
capacity?
A. RACH process.
B. Power control algorithm.
C. Active set size.
D. S-criteria.
Answer: D
QUESTION 11
What happens in the UE when compressed mode is in operation?
A. Transmission and reception are halted for a short time in order to perform
measurements on the other frequencies.
B. Transmission is halted for a short time in order to perform measurements on the other
frequencies.
C. Transmission and reception continue normally while the UE measures the other
frequencies.
D. Reception is halted for a short time in order to perform measurements on the other
frequencies.
70-740 dumps Answer: A
QUESTION 12
What is “little i”?
A. The interference ratio from neighbouring cells to own cell.
B. The inter-working between 2G and 3G system.
C. The interference margin of own cell.
D. The inter-system handover margin.
Answer: A
QUESTION 13
Which one of the following statements is CORRECT when the CPICH pilot power is too
low in one cell?
A. CPICH pilot power has no effect on Soft handovers.
B. Soft handovers are delayed.

C. Soft handovers are happening earlier.
D. Soft handovers are not working.
70-740 pdf Answer: C
QUESTION 14
For what purpose are the raw counters usually used?
A. To monitor system level performance
B. To monitor end user performance
C. To record the throughput
D. To troubleshoot cell specific issues
Answer: D
QUESTION 15
For the CELLFACH state, which one of the following statements is NOT true?
A. The UE is enabled to transmit uplink control messages and may also be able to
transmit small data packets on the RACH.
B. Listens to the PCH transport channel (via allocated PICH) for the decoding of paging
and notification messages sent by the RAN.
C. A cell update procedure is used to report to the RNC, when the UE executes cell
re-selection.
D. The location of the UE is known on cell level in RNC.
70-740 vce Answer: B
QUESTION 16
The RadioBearerSetup message:
A. is sent in uplink.
B. is sent in downlink.
C. can replace the RRCConnectionSetup to speed up the call set-up.
D. is the downlink answer to the RadioBearerRequest.
Answer: B
QUESTION 17
If the coverage area of the site with 12.2 kbps voice services and 141.9 dB path loss is
17.5 km2, what is the cell radius assuming that the site has 3 sectors (k factor for site area
is 2.2)?
A. 2.2 km.
B. 2.8 km.
C. 3.3 k

D. 1.6 km.
70-740 exam Answer: B
QUESTION 18
For the use of a shared antenna line between GSM and WCDMA, what is needed?
A. Diplexer or triplexer.
B. Same output power both GSM and WCDMA.
C. Coupler or splitter.
D. One shared BTS for GSM and WCDMA.
Answer: A
QUESTION 19
Which one of the following channels does NOT have an influence on DL coverage?
A. PRACH.
B. BCCH.
C. PCH.
D. SCH.
70-740 dumps Answer: A
QUESTION 20
In the call-setup phase, on which transport channel is the RRCConnectionSetup
message sent?
A. BCH.
B. RACH.
C. CCCH.
D. FACH.
Answer: D
QUESTION 21
Which one of the following is the CORRECT range for Routing Area?
A. 0 – 63.
B. 0 – 127.
C. 0 -15.
D.0 – 255.
70-740 pdf Answer: D

QUESTION 22
In a cell reselection, UE neighbour measurements can be seen:
A. always at the same time for all cells.
B. always at different time for all cells.
C. only for three best cells at the same time.
D. depending on parameter settings of measurements of different cell types.
Answer: D
QUESTION 23
Considering 1 site (3 cells) with 1 only one carrier per cell, how many traffic hardware
channels are needed if in the site the active users are: 1.8 voice, 0.7 CS64, 0.7 PS64 and 1
PS384 and knowing that for each connection the following hardware channels apply: 1
for voice, 4 for CS64, 4 for PS64 and 16 for PS384 are needed?
A. 24
B. 4
C. 37
D. 13
70-740 vce Answer: A
QUESTION 24
For proper cell (re)selection UE needs which one of the following parameter settings?
A. Spreading codes.
B. Location area identifications.
C. Scrambling codes.
D. CPICH TX levels.
Answer: C
QUESTION 25
Inter-system handover parameter settings at the 3G-coverage border should be evaluated
at a level of:
A. cell and RNC.
B. site and RNC.
C. cell and site.
D. site and MSC.
70-740 exam Answer: A
QUESTION 26
Which one of the following statements regarding physical channel and power control

pairs is NOT true?
A. S-CCPCH has inner loop power control.
B. PRACH uses open loop power control.
C. FACH and PCH do not have inner loop power control.
D. DCH utilizes fast power control.
Answer: A

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Exam Code: 70-475
Exam Name: Designing and Implementing Big Data Analytics Solutions
Updated: Aug 13, 2017
Q&As: 42

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QUESTION 1
What is a Global User as defined in eTrust Admin?
A. A user login on a specific machine.
B. An individual employee identifier in a company.
C. The user login common to all UNIX machines in a company.
D. A common user login on all machines in a company’s network.
70-475 exam Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 2
Which component of eTrust Access Control keeps track of bypass access permissions?
A. Watchdog
B. Bookkeeper
C. SEOS Agent
D. eTrust Syscall
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 3
What is the primary task of a TCL script in eTrust SSO?
A. Assist with debugging
B. Generate eTrust SSO tickets
C. Provide instructions for logging a user into a specific application
D. Specify options that control the communication between the eTrust SSO server and clients
70-475 dumps Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 4
Which two does the TERMINAL class provide? (Choose two.)
A. The ability to control login events
B. Permissions for remote administration
C. The ability to control root access for the terminal
D. The ability to define hosts used in the TCP class
Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 5
Which two statements are true concerning centralized management of multiple eTrust Access Control
servers using the PMDB architecture? (Choose two.)
A. PMDB is a recommended replacement for NIS.
B. The PMDB architecture provides a hot backup capability.
C. The master and sub-PMDBs can reside on the same physical server.
D. All servers being centrally managed in this architecture must have the same policies.
E. Each eTrust Access Control server can be administered locally if the PMDB server goes down.
70-475 pdf Correct Answer: CE
QUESTION 6
Where are SSO login scripts stored?
A. On the SSO Broker
B. On the SSO Server
C. On the target system
D. On the SSO client PC
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 7
What does a role represent in eTrust Admin?
A. A job function
B. The machines on which a Global User has accounts
C. The department with which an employee is associated
D. The specific rights granted to an eTrust security administrator
70-475 vce Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 8
All items in eTrust Access Control can be broadly classified into which two categories? (Choose two.)
A. File
B. Process
C. Program
D. Accessor
E. Resource
Correct Answer: DE
QUESTION 9
The scope of an eTrust Admin Administrator can be limited to which groups?
A. Any arbitrary group of users
B. Specified Native OS Groups
C. Specified eTrust Admin User Groups
D. Specified eTrust Admin Directory Groups
70-475 exam Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 10
How does the Universal Feed Option submit changes to eTrust Admin?
A. Through the etautil utility
B. Through the workflow engine
C. Through the Delegated Admin interface
D. Through the SPML Provisioning Service Poinit (PSP)
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 11
Which three database types are supported within an eTrust SiteMinder environment? (Choose three.)
A. User Store
B. Token Data
C. Policy Store
D. Resource Store
70-475 dumps E. Accounting Logs

QUESTION 12. The abbreviation “VSWR” stands for .
A. Variable Signal Wave Radio
B. Voltage Strength Wire Ratio
C. Very Strong Wave Radio
D. Voltage Standing Wave Ratio
Answer: D
QUESTION  13. What is the proper resistance of an ESD wrist strap?
A. 1 ohm (O)
B. 1 Mega ohm (MO)
C. 10 O
D. 1 MO
70-475 pdf Answer: B
QUESTION  14. In OMT, what view shows the RUs installed in the GSM cabinet?
A. System View
B. Radio view
C. MO View
D. Cabinet View
Answer: D
QUESTION 15. What could a flashing green LED indicate in an MRU?
A. Fault is localized
B. Wait, activity in progress
C. Battery Power depleted
D. None of the above
70-475 vce Answer: B
QUESTION 16. What common LED indicators are in the CDU, PSU, BFU, and dTRU?
A. RBS Fault

B. Operational
C. Fault
D. B and C
Answer: D
QUESTION 17. How many T1s can one DXU-21 support?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
70-475 exam Answer: D
QUESTION 18. An ESD wrist strap must always be used when handling or installing .
A. a DXU
B. printed circuit boards
C. TRU/dTRU
D. All of the above
Answer: D
QUESTION 19. Bends to RF cables (coaxial) should be a minimum of ten (10) times the cable diameter.
A. RLSTC:CELL=12002B, STATE=HALTED;
B. RLSTC:SITE=12002,STATE=HALTED;
C. RLSTP:CELL=12002B, HALTED;
D. RLSTP:CELL=12002B, STATE=HALTED;
70-475 dumps Answer: A
QUESTION 20. The abbreviation “COD” stands for .
A. Command Document
B. Command Description
C. Command On Demand

D. None of the above
Answer: B
QUESTION 21. In OMT, the System View shows:
A. BSC, PCM link, Alarm Inlets, RBS, OMT, ISP, and ESB
B. BTS, PCM link, Alarm Inlets, RBS, OMT, IDB, and ESI
C. BSC, PCM link, Alarm Inlets, RBS, OMT, IDB, and ETS
D. BSC, PCM link, Alarm Inlets, RBS, OMT, IDB, and ESB
70-475 pdf Answer: D
QUESTION 22. If VSWR supervision is disabled in the IDB, an alarm is sent to the BSC if the level reaches .
A. 1.8
B. 2.2
C. 2.8
D. The alarm is not sent to the BSC
Answer: D
QUESTION 23. What type of RU is a fan?
A. MCRU
B. DDMRU
C. Subordinate
D. Passive
70-475 vce Answer: D
QUESTION 24. The abbreviation “TRU” stands for .
A. Transmitter Unit
B. Transceiver Unit
C. Transmitting Replaceable Unit
D. None of the above
Answer: B

QUESTION 25. Why should you use the ESD wrist strap when handling RUs?
A. to avoid an electrical shock to you
B. To ensure good contact is made
C. To avoid a static charge, which can damage electronic components
D. Both B and C
70-475 exam Answer: C
QUESTION 26. The abbreviation “CF” stands for:
A. Central Frequency
B. Cabinet Function
C. Cellular Frequency
D. Central Function
Answer: D
QUESTION 27. Which of the following will cause a “VSWR” Limits Exceeded?
A. Faulty TRU-CDU TX cable
B. Loose PSU connection
C. Loose G703 cable connection
D. Unplugged optic cable
70-475 dumps Answer: A
QUESTION 28. What is the acceptable DC voltage range of the PSUs at 59 to 87
A. 25.4 to 27.7
B. 26.5 to 27.5
C. 26.9 to 27.7
D. 24.7 to 27.3
Answer: C
QUESTION 29. The abbreviation “ACCU” stands for .

A. Automatic Cable Connection Unit
B. Automatic Cabinet Connection Unit
C. Alternating Current Control Unit
D. Automatic Transceiver Connection Converter Unit
70-475 pdf Answer: C

QUESTION 30. Which of the following statements describes the Component type of workflow?
A. A workflow that drives software and automated processes without human intervention
B. Can be thought of as one of the goals in a business production process.
C. Can automate a labour-intensive business process for the moment but can integrate new automation
processes as they appear.
D. All of the above
Answer: D
QUESTION 31. In the Interstage BPM Client Architecture, which of the following UI components presents a list of
processes, process definitions, and work items?
A. Organizer
B. Overview
C. Process/process definition viewer/editor
D. Activity detail view
70-475 vce Answer: A
QUESTION 32. Which of the following correctly describes the ‘No Reassignment Mode’ of operation for Interstage
BPM ?
A. In this mode anyone who is a current assignee for the activity or a process owner can reassign the
activity to a new set of users
B. In this mode only a process owner can reassign an activity to a different set of user/s
C. In this mode, reassignment is completely disabled
D. In this mode, resassignemt is disabled only for those users who are not process owners
Answer: C

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Exam Code: 070-413
Exam Name: Designing and Implementing a Server Infrastructure
Updated: Aug 03, 2017
Q&As: 206

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Question No : 32  The power draw from a three-phase UPS is measured using a true RMS voltmeter. The
meter reads 10 kW as well as 10 kVA.
Why are the watts and volt-amps the same?
A. The RMS voltage is 208 VAC.
B. The three-phases are balanced.
C. The power factor is equal to one.
D. Each of the three-phases are synchronized.
070-413 exam 
Answer: C

Question No : 33  In three-phase power, by how many degrees are the three basic power waveforms offset?
A. 60
B. 90
C. 120
D. 180
Answer: C

Question No : 34  What is the function of a circuit breaker?
A. To distribute power from the UPS to critical loads
B. To filter harmonics caused by non-power factor corrected computer loads
C. To protect electrical equipment from damage caused by overload or short circuit
D. To balance the loads in the data center to prevent stray currents on the ground wire
070-413 dumps Answer: C
Question No : 35  Which UPS topology switches to batteries and turns on the inverter when the utility fails?
A. Rotary
B. Standby
C. Delta conversion
D. Double conversion
Answer: B

Question No : 36  Which two UPS topologies are used for UPS systems that supply at least 50 kW? (Choose
two.)
A. Standby
B. Standby – ferro
C. Delta conversion online
D. Double conversion online
070-413 pdf 
Answer: C,D

Question No : 37  What are two advantages of the line interactive UPS? (Choose two.)
A. High reliability
B. High efficiency
C. High frequency control
D. Optimized for 10 kW and above
Answer: A,B

Question No : 38  Which UPS topology uses a transfer switch between the primary power source and the
inverter?
A. Standby
B. High speed relay
C. Delta conversion online
D. Double conversion online
070-413 vce 
Answer: A

Question No : 39  Which UPS topology is most commonly used to protect small business and departmental
servers where voltage regulation is required?
A. Standby
B. Line interactive
C. High-speed relay
D. Delta conversion online
Answer: B

Question No : 40  What is the primary purpose of a UPS?
A. To remove transients from the power path
B. To detect and report power factor problems
C. To provide battery backup power should the utility fail
D. To convert from three-phase power to Single-phase power
070-413 exam 
Answer: C

Question No : 41  What is the main function of a UPS?
A. To provide battery back-up power to IT equipment
B. To regulate the voltage of power going to the racks
C. To distribute power from the transformer to the racks
D. To supply diesel-generated power when the utility is out
Answer: A

Question No : 42  What is a function of a transformer in a line interactive UPS?
A. To increase the power factor as the load increases
B. To increase harmonics by stepping down the output
C. To regulate output voltage as the input voltage varies
D. To provide low impedance for switched mode power supplies
070-413 dumps 
Answer: C

Question No : 43  Which component of a line interactive UPS increases its battery life?
A. Dual mains input
B. Voltage regulating transformer
C. Low impedance DC disconnect
D. High impedance battery charge circuit
Answer: B

Question No : 44  How long is the transfer to battery time for a double conversion online UPS?
A. 0 ms (0 cycles)
B. 8 ms (0.5 cycles)
C. 16 ms (1 cycle)
D. 500 ms (30 cycles)
070-413 pdf 
Answer: A

Question No : 45  What are two key characteristics of a UPS? (Choose two.)
A. It tests voltages on IT equipment.
B. It safeguards data in the event of a power loss.
C. It measures energy consumption of IT equipment.
D. It transfers IT equipment from utility to battery power.
Answer: B,D

Question No : 46  Which two characteristics do all static UPS topologies share? (Choose two.)
A. A battery
B. An inverter
C. A transfer switch
D. A single-phase input
070-413 vce 
Answer: A,B

Question No : 47
What is the primary difference between double conversion and delta conversion UPS
systems?
A. Double conversion UPSs require a 1.3X generator oversizing. Delta conversion UPSs
require a 3X generator oversizing.
B. Double conversion UPSs are practical in size ranges from 0 – 20 kW. Delta conversion
UPSs are practical in size ranges of 20 kW to 1 MW.
C. In a double conversion UPS, 100% of the power is converted from AC to DC and then
again from DC to AC. In a delta conversion UPS, only the difference between input and
output power is converted.
D. In a double conversion UPS, the transformer has a special ferro-resonant capability,
which provides limited voltage regulation and output waveform shaping. In a delta
conversion UPS, a standard transformer is used.
Answer: C

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Exam Code: 070-489
Exam Name: Developing Microsoft SharePoint Server 2013 Advanced Solutions
Updated: Jul 23, 2017
Q&As: 97

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QUESTION 10
You need to implement the social maintenance tool.
How should you complete the relevant code? (To answer, select the appropriate option from each
dropdown list in the answer area.)

070-489

070-489

QUESTION 11
You need to notify Windows phone users about the new Windows phone app.
Which three actions should you perform in sequence? (To answer, move the appropriate actions
from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
Select and Place:
070-489

070-489

Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Note:
* A device channel panel is a container that can be used on a master page or page layout when
you want specific content to render based on the alias of a given device channel, or set of
channels. For example, you may have a web part or control that you want revealed only on the
desktop view of the site, and not on any mobile device. The device channel panel can enable you
to encapsulate this web part in code, and enable you to render it only through a designated device
channel.
* From scenario:
You create a Windows Phone app. When users access the site by using a Windows phone, a
message must appear on every page of the mobile site. The message must notify users that they
can download the Windows Phone app to their phone. The HTML that contains the message
must render only to the Windows phones.

070-489

070-489

Correct Answer:
070-489

Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

Testlet 1
Topic 3, Contoso Ltd
Background
Contoso Ltd. is a global real estate company. You are hired to replace the company’s existing
ASP.NET website at http://www.contoso.com with a new SharePoint 2013 public-facing
website. The site will display data about the company and information about residential
properties that the individual agents in the company are selling. You have SharePoint Server
environments for development, staging, and production.
Search
The website has the following requirements:
Site visitors must be able to search for documents that are located
anywhere on the site.
When site visitors search for real estate properties, they must see
information about a property.
When a visitor searches for the word Guidelines, a PDF document named
Real Estate Guidelines must appear at the top of the search results.
Search Engine Optimization
The company wants to ensure that the website displays prominently in Internet search results
when people search for real estate.
The website has the following requirements:
Internet search engines must properly rank pages so that the more popular
pages on the site appear first in the Internet search engine results.
SharePoint must generate the sitemap.xml and robots.txt files that are used
by Internet search engines.
When an Internet search engine crawls the site, the search engine must recognize that the
following URLs display information about different agents:
http://www.contoso.com/FindAnAgent?agentName=JohnDoe&officeId =
Sacramento
http://www.contoso.com/FindAnAgent?agentName=JohnDoe&officeId =
Houston
The search engine must recognize that the following URLs display the same information about
the same agent:
http://www.contoso.com/FindAnAgent?
agentName=JohnDoe&officeId=Sacramento
http://www.contoso.com/FindAnAgent?agentName=JohnDoe&officeId =
Sacramento8icerts=true
Managed Metadata Service (MMS)
The MMS must include three term sets named Offices, Cities, and Features.
Offices Term Set
The Offices term set has the following requirements:
The Offices term set must be a child of the group named Navigation.
The Offices term set must be configured to use friendly URLs in the
Offices sub-site.
The name for each new office must be added to the Offices term set
programmatically.
The left navigation pane for the Offices page on the website must use the
terms in the Offices term set.
When the company opens a new office, a link for each new office must
display in the left navigation pane.
Cities Term Set
The Cities term set has the following requirements:
The Cities term set must contain a list that contains the names of major
metropolitan areas.
Many of the cities that are included in the Offices term set may also
appear in the Cities term set, but the term sets may not be identical.
If a city is required in both term sets, it must first be added to the Offices
term set before it can be added to the Cities term set.
If a term is changed in the Offices term set, it must automatically change
in the Cities term set.
The term Dallas must have a term ID of {b6ell481-3445-413c-9da0-
bl5ae5d5cbd4}.
Features Term Set
You have an Excel file that contains a list of possible features for each property. The Features
term set has the following requirements:
The Features term set must contain the terms that describe details about
each property, such as whether the building is a single family house or a
condominium.
The list of possible features must be programmatically imported from the
Excel file into the term store in each server environment.
Web Application
The Internet Information Services (IIS) website contains a folder named _ConfigurationFiles.
The web application has the following requirements:
Anonymous access must be enabled on the web application.
Internet search engines must index the site.
Internet search engines must not index the files in the _ConfigurationFiles
folder.
Site Collections and Content
The web application includes the following three site collections.
Board Member Site Collection
The Board Member site collection is only accessible to the board members so that they can view
private company information.
The Board Member site collection has the following requirements:
Only board members can log in to the site collection.
A page within the site collection must display a list of all the board
members.
The website must be located at http://www.contoso.com/sites/board.
Internet Site Collection
Anonymous access is enabled on the Internet site collection. The Internet site collection has the
following requirements:
The site collection must include a sub-site named Offices.
The URL of the Offices sub-site is http://www.contoso.com/Offices.
Each office must have its own page on the site.
The pages for each office must have the same style and structure.
Each office page must contain a Content Search Web Part that displays a
listing of all the properties that are being sold by agents in the office.
The Content Search Web Part must use a custom display template named
Real Estate Property to render search results when site visitors search for a
property.
The target page for terms in the Office term set must point to a page
named Office.aspx that is in the Pages library of the Offices sub-site.
The site must contain an About Us section that contains a Content Search
Web Part that lists the members of the board of directors for the company.
Each member of the board must have a page that contains biographical
information about that board member.
The list of board members must be available in the Board Member site
collection.
Site visitors must be able to view information about individual agents,
including their contact information, certifications, and picture.
When agents visit the Internet site collection, the agents may add
information about each of the real estate properties that they are selling.
The agents must be able to tag real estate properties according to their
features.
Real estate agents must enter real estate property information into a web
form that is used specifically for data collection.
The web form must collect the following information:
The property address.
Up to five pictures of the property.
The selling price.
The number of bedrooms and bathrooms.
The name of the real estate agent.
Tags that will further describe the property.
Agent Site Collection
The Agent site collection is in the same web application and is accessible only to agents. The
Agent site collection has the following requirements:
The site collection must include a site that contains instructions for real
estate agents that tells them how to add property information to the
website.
The website must be located at http://www.contoso.com/sites/agents.
A Web Part must use the .NET client-side object model (CS0M) to
retrieve all of the terms from only the Features term set.
Page Layouts and Web Parts
Page Layouts
You must create the following page layouts: About Us, Biography With Image, Biography No
Image, and Office.
The page layouts have the following requirements:
The About Us page layout must include a field to which the user may add
Web Parts.
The Biography With Image and Biography No Image page layouts must
display biographical information about the board of directors.
You must create a content type named Biography. Biography With Image
and Biography No Image page layouts must use the Biography content
type.
The Office page layout must display information for each office and must
use the fields that that are defined in the Elements.xml file.
Web Parts
The Agent Web Part has the following requirements:
The Web Part must display information about an individual agent.
The Web Part must display information that is based on query string
parameters.
The URL of the page that hosts the Web Part must be
http://www.contoso.com/FindAnAgent.
The following table lists the query string parameters and the way that each parameter must be
used by the Web Part.

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Vendor: Microsoft
Exam Code: 70-741
Exam Name: Networking with Windows Server 2016
Certification Provider: Microsoft
Total Questions: 48 Q&A
Updated on: Jul 05, 2017

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1.Mark works as a Network Administrator for Company Inc. The company has a Windows-based network.
The California branch of Company has been divided into two buildings in the same campus. The company
wants to interconnect these two buildings for proper communication among all the departments.
Which of the following network types should Mark use to accomplish the task?
A. MAN
B. WAN
C. LAN
D. CAN
Answer: D
70-741 pdf Explanation:
A campus area network (CAN) is a computer network that interconnects local area networks throughout a
limited geographical area, such as a university campus, a corporate campus, or a military base. It could
be considered a metropolitan area network that is specific to a campus setting. A campus area network is,
therefore, larger than a local area network but smaller than a wide area network. The term is sometimes
used to refer to university campuses, while the term corporate area network is used to refer to corporate
campuses instead. Although not considered a wide area network, a CAN extends the reach of each local
area network within the campus area of an organization. In a CAN, the buildings of a university or
corporate campus are interconnected using the same types of hardware and networking technologies that
one would use in a LAN. In addition, all of the components, including switches, routers, and cabling, as
well as wireless connection points, are owned and maintained by the organization.
Answer option C is incorrect. Local Area Network (LAN) represents a network that covers a very close
geographic area, such as a floor of a building, a building itself, or a campus environment. LAN is a
high-speed network that connects computers, printers, and other network devices together. The media
types used in LANs include Ethernet, Fast Ethernet (FE), Gigabit Ethernet (GE), Token Ring, and FDDI. A
LAN may include servers, workstations, hubs, bridges, switches, routers, gateways, firewalls, etc.
Answer option A is incorrect. A Metropolitan Area Network (MAN) is a network that interconnects users
with computer resources in a geographic area or region larger than that covered by even a large Local
Area Network (LAN) but smaller than the area covered by a Wide Area Network (WAN). The term is
applied to the interconnection of networks in a city into a single larger network (which may then also offer
efficient connection to a wide area network). It is also used to mean the interconnection of several local
area networks by bridging them with backbone lines. The latter usage is also sometimes referred to as a
campus network. A MAN usually interconnects a number of local area networks (LANs) using a
high-capacity backbone technology, such as fiber-optical links, and provides up-link services to wide area
networks and the Internet. Examples of metropolitan area networks of various sizes can be found in the
metropolitan areas of London, England; Lodz, Poland; and Geneva, Switzerland. Large universities also
sometimes use the term to describe their networks. A recent trend is the installation of wireless MANs.
Answer option B is incorrect. A wide area network (WAN) is a geographically dispersed
telecommunications network. The term distinguishes a broader telecommunication structure from a local
area network (LAN). A wide area network may be privately owned or rented, but the term usually
connotes the inclusion of public (shared user) networks. An intermediate form of network in terms of
geography is a metropolitan area network (MAN). A wide area network is also defined as a network of
networks, as it interconnects LANs over a wide geographical area.


2.Which of the following organizations offers technical assistance to the developing countries in the field

of telecommunications and regulates international radio and telecommunications?
A. ISO
B. ANSI
C. ITU-T
D. IEEE
E. W3C
Answer: C
70-741 exam Explanation:
The International Telecommunication Union (ITU) is an organization established to standardize and
regulate international radio and telecommunications. Its main tasks include standardization, allocation of
the radio spectrum, and organizing interconnection arrangements between different countries to allow
international phone calls. ITU sets standards for global telecom networks. The ITU’s telecommunications
division (ITU-T) produces more than 200 standard recommendations each year in the converging areas of
telecommunications, information technology, consumer electronics, broadcasting and multimedia
communications.
ITU was streamlined into the following three sectors:
ITU-D (Telecommunication Development)
ITU-R (Radio communication)
ITU-T (Telecommunication Standardization)
Answer option B is incorrect. ANSI (American National Standards Institute) is the primary organization for
fostering the development of technology standards in the United States. ANSI works with industry groups
and is the U.S. member of the International Organization for Standardization (ISO) and the International
Electro-technical Commission (IEC). Long-established computer standards from ANSI include the
American Standard Code for Information Interchange (ASCII) and the Small Computer System Interface
(SCSI).
Answer option D is incorrect. The Institute of Electrical and Electronic Engineers (IEEE) is a society of
technical professionals. It promotes the development and application of electro-technology and allied
sciences. IEEE develops communications and network standards, among other activities. The
organization publishes number of journals, has many local chapters, and societies in specialized areas.
Answer option A is incorrect. The International Organization for Standardization, widely known as ISO, is
an international-standard-setting body composed of representatives from various national standards
organizations. Founded on 23 February 1947, the organization promulgates worldwide proprietary
industrial and commercial standards. It has its headquarters in Geneva, Switzerland. While ISO defines
itself as a non-governmental organization, its ability to set standards that often become law, either through
treaties or national standards, makes it more powerful than most non-governmental organizations. In
practice, ISO acts as a consortium with strong links to governments.
Answer option E is incorrect. The World Wide Web Consortium (W3C) is an international industry
consortium that develops common standards for the World Wide Web to promote its evolution and
interoperability. It was founded in October 1994 by Tim Berners-Lee, the inventor of the Web, at the
Massachusetts Institute of Technology, Laboratory for Computer Science [MIT/LCS] in collaboration with
CERN, where the Web had originated, with support from DARPA and the European Commission.


3 .Which of the following is used to publish frequently updated works such as blog entries, news
headlines, audio, and video on the Web sites?

A. Podcast
B. ActiveX
C. RSS
D. Digital certificate
Answer: C
70-741 pdf Explanation:
RSS (most commonly translated as “Really Simple Syndication” but sometimes “Rich Site Summary”) is a
family of Web feed formats used to publish frequently updated works such as blog entries, news headlines,
audio, and video in a standardized format. An RSS document (which is called a “feed”, “Web feed”, or
“channel”) includes full or summarized text, plus metadata such as publishing dates and authorship. Web
feeds benefit publishers by letting them syndicate content automatically. They benefit readers who want to
subscribe to timely updates from favored Web sites or to aggregate feeds from many sites into one place.
RSS feeds can be read using software called an “RSS reader”, “feed reader”, or “aggregator”, which can
be Web-based, desktop-based, or mobile-device-based. A standardized XML
file format allows the information to be published once and viewed by many different programs. The user
subscribes to a feed by entering into the reader the feed’s URI – often referred to informally as a “URL”
(Uniform Resource Locator), although technically the two terms are not exactly synonymous – or by
clicking an RSS icon in a browser that initiates the subscription process. The RSS reader checks the
user’s subscribed feeds regularly for new work, downloads any updates that it finds, and provides a user
interface to monitor and read the feeds.
Answer option A is incorrect. A podcast (or netcast) is a series of digital media files (either audio or video)
that are released episodically and often downloaded through web syndication. The mode of delivery
differentiates podcasting from other means of accessing media files over the Internet, such as direct
download, or streamed webcasting.
Answer option B is incorrect. ActiveX is a framework for defining reusable software components that
perform a particular function or a set of functions in Microsoft Windows in a way that is independent of the
programming language used to implement them. A software application can then be composed from one
or more of these components in order to provide its functionality. Many Microsoft Windows applications –
including many of those from Microsoft itself, such as Internet Explorer, Microsoft Office, Microsoft Visual
Studio, and Windows Media Player use ActiveX controls to build their feature-set and also encapsulate
their own functionality as ActiveX controls which can then be embedded into other applications. Internet
Explorer also allows embedding ActiveX controls onto web pages.
Answer option D is incorrect. A digital certificate is an electronic ‘credit card’ that establishes an
individual’s credentials when doing business or other transactions on the Web. It is issued by a
certification authority (CA). It contains the name, a serial number, expiration dates, a copy of the
certificate holder’s public key (used for encrypting messages and digital signatures), and the digital
signature of the certificate-issuing authority so that a recipient can verify that the certificate is real. Some
digital certificates conform to a standard, X.509. Digital certificates can be kept in registries so that
authenticating users can look up other users’ public keys.


4.You work as a Security Administrator for Net Perfect Inc. The company has a Windows-based network.
The employees use Internet Explorer for Internet surfing. You want to block access to the vulnerable sites
from the internal network of the company. To accomplish the task, you need to configure some security

settings for Internet Explorer.
Which of the following features of Internet Explorer do you need to configure?
A. Pop-up blocker
B. InPrivate Browsing
C. Content Advisor
D. Internet Explorer Compatibility Evaluator
Answer: C
70-741 dumps Explanation:
Content Advisor is a feature of Internet Explorer that allows an administrator to control the Internet
contents that can be viewed on a single computer. Before configuring the Content Advisor, it needs to be
enabled. When it is enabled, Internet Explorer first checks whether the website meets the specified
criteria or not. A user can adjust the content rating settings to reflect the appropriate level of content in the
areas of language, sex, nudity, and violence. He can also create a list of websites that are always
viewable or never viewable regardless of the contents.
Answer option D is incorrect. The Internet Explorer Compatibility Evaluator (IECE) allows a user to
determine whether a Web site or Web application will run properly in a new version of Internet Explorer
such as Windows Internet Explorer 7. IECE works by enabling compatibility logging in Internet Explorer,
parsing logged issues, and creating a log file for uploading to the ACT Log Processing Service. A user can
view the compatibility issues located by IECE as a report with the help of the Application Compatibility
Manager.
Answer option B is incorrect. InPrivate Browsing is a feature of Internet Explorer 8. When this feature is
active, Internet Explorer does not store history, cookies, temporary Internet files, or other data, thus
protecting privacy of the user while using Internet Explorer 8. InPrivate Browsing can be activated by
pressing Ctrl+Shift+P. This feature is quite helpful when a user does not want to leave any trace of his
Web browsing activity such as, e-mailing at an Internet cafe or shopping for a gift.
Answer option A is incorrect. Pop-up blocker is a feature of Internet Explorer (IE) 7+. It enables users to
block most pop-ups while they are surfing the Internet on their computers. Users can choose the level of
blocking. They can either block all pop-up windows or allow pop-ups they want to see. By default, the
pop-up blocker is enabled in IE 7+. While the pop-up blocker is enabled, a user can see the blocked
pop-ups by clicking the IE 7+ information bar.

The Microsoft 70-741 dumps Networking with Windows Server 2016 exam is one of the most challenging exam by Microsoft. This exam requires a lot of preparation and studying to earn a good kill4exam 70-741 pdf passing score. Hence, we at Pass4itsure have established a team of highly qualified experts on this subject to create the best studying material for you.

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FLYDUMPS give you complete info about Microsoft 70-412 vce is based on 55 questions which aim to target the practical abilities of candidates. These questions must be answered in the allotted time of 90 minutes. No additional time is allotted to the candidates and they are not allowed to consult any helping material during exam time. This certification is only held in English. http://www.pass4itsure.com/70-412.html

  70-412 VCE
QUESTION 1 
Your company recently deployed a new Active Directory forest named contoso.com. The first domain controller in the forest runs Windows Server 2012 R2. 
You need to identify the time-to-live (TTL) value for domain referrals to the NETLOGON and SYSVOL shared folders. 
Which tool should you use? 
A. Ultrasound 
B. Replmon 
C. Dfsdiag 
D. Frsutil 
Correct Answer: C Explanation 

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: 
What does DFSDiag do? 
dfsdiag /testreferral: 
Perform specific tests, depending on the type of referral being used. 

* For Sysvol and Netlogon referrals perform the validation for Domain referrals and that it's TTL has the 
default value (900s). 
Etc. 


QUESTION 2 
Your network contains two Active Directory forests named contoso.com and adatum.com. Contoso.com contains one domain. Adatum.com contains a child domain named child.adatum.- com. 
Contoso.com has a one-way forest trust to adatum.com. Selective authentication is enabled on the forest trust. 
Several user accounts are migrated from child.adatum.com to adatum.com. Users report that after the migration, they fail to access resources in contoso.com. The users suc- cessfully accessed the resources in contoso.com before the accounts were migrated. 
You need to ensure that the migrated users can access the resources in contoso.com. 
What should you do? 
A. Replace the existing forest trust with an external trust. 
B. Run netdom and specify the /quarantine attribute. 
C. Disable SID filtering on the existing forest trust. 
D. Disable selective authentication on the existing forest trust. 
Correct Answer: C Explanation 

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: Security Considerations for Trusts Need to gain access to the resources in contoso.com 
Disabling SID Filter Quarantining on External Trusts Although it reduces the security of your forest (and is therefore not recommended), you can dis- able SID filter quarantining for an external trust by using the Netdom.exe tool. You should con- sider disabling SID filter quarantining only in the following situations: 
* Users have been migrated to the trusted domain with their SID histories preserved, and you want to grant 
them access to resources in the trusting domain based on the SID history attribute. 
Etc. 

Incorrect: not B. Enables administrators to manage Active Directory domains and trust relationships from the command prompt, /quarantine Sets or clears the domain quarantine not D. Selective authentication over a forest trust restricts access to only those users in a trusted forest who have been explicitly given authentication permissions to computer objects (resource computers) that reside in the trusting forest 
 

QUESTION 3 
Your network contains an Active Directory forest named adatum.com. The forest contains a sin- gle domain. The domain contains four servers. The servers are configured as shown in the fol- lowing table. 

You need to update the schema to support a domain controller that will run Windows Server 2012 R2. On which server should you run adprep.exe? 
A. Server1 
B. DC3 
C. DC2 

D. DC1 Correct Answer: B 
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: 
Upgrade Domain Controllers to Windows Server 2012 R2 and Windows Server 2012 

You can use adprep.exe on domain controllers that run 64-bit versions of Windows Server 2008 or 
Windows Server 2008 R2 to upgrade to Windows Server 2012. You cannot upgrade domain controllers 
that run Windows Server 2003 or 32-bit versions of Windows Server 2008. To re- place them, install 
domain controllers that run a later version of Windows Server in the domain, and then remove the domain 
controllers that Windows Server 2003. 

  70-412 VCE

QUESTION 4 
Your network contains an Active Directory forest named contoso.com. The forest contains three domains. All domain controllers run Windows Server 2012 R2. 
The forest has a two-way realm trust to a Kerberos realm named adatum.com. 
You discover that users in adatum.com can only access resources in the root domain of contoso.- com. 
You need to ensure that the adatum.com users can access the resources in all of the domains in the forest. 
What should you do in the forest? 
A. Delete the realm trust and create a forest trust. 
B. Delete the realm trust and create three external trusts. 
C. Modify the incoming realm trust. 
D. Modify the outgoing realm trust. 
Correct Answer: D Explanation 

Explanation/Reference:
* 
A one-way, outgoing realm trust allows resources in your Windows Server domain (the do- main that you are logged on to at the time that you run the New Trust Wizard) to be accessed by users in the Kerberos realm. 

* 
You can establish a realm trust between any non-Windows Kerberos version 5 (V5) realm and an Active Directory domain. This trust relationship allows cross-platform interoperability with security services that are based on other versions of the Kerberos V5 protocol, for example, UNIX and MIT implementations. Realm trusts can switch from nontransitive to transitive and back. Realm trusts can also be either one-way or two-way. 


Reference: Create a One-Way, Outgoing, Realm Trust 
QUESTION 5 
Your network contains an Active Directory forest named contoso.com. The forest contains two domains named contoso.com and childl.contoso.com. The domains contain three domain con- trollers. 
The domain controllers are configured as shown in the following table. 

You need to ensure that the KDC support for claims, compound authentication, and kerberos ar- moring setting is enforced in the child1.contoso.com domain. 
Which two actions should you perform? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.) 
A. Upgrade DC1 to Windows Server 2012 R2. 
B. Upgrade DC11 to Windows Server 2012 R2. 
C. Raise the domain functional level of childl.contoso.com. 
D. Raise the domain functional level of contoso.com. 
E. Raise the forest functional level of contoso.com. 
Correct Answer: AE Explanation 

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: 
The root domain in the forest must be at Windows Server 2012 level. First upgrade DC1 to this level (A), 
then raise the contoso.com domain functional level to Windows Server 2012 (E). 

* (A) To support resources that use claims-based access control, the principal's domains will need to be running one of the following: / All Windows Server 2012 domain controllers / Sufficient Windows Server 2012 domain controllers to handle all the Windows 8 device au- thentication requests / Sufficient Windows Server 2012 domain controllers to handle all the Windows Server 2012 re- source protocol transition requests to support non-Windows 8 devices 
Reference: What's New in Kerberos Authentication http://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/hh831747.aspx. 
QUESTION 6 
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. All domain controllers run Windows Server 2012 R2. The domain contains two domain controllers. 
The domain controllers are configured as shown in the following table. 

You configure a user named User1 as a delegated administrator of DC10. 
You need to ensure that User1 can log on to DC10 if the network link between the Main site and the Branch site fails. 
What should you do? 
A. Add User1 to the Domain Admins group. 
B. On DC10, modify the User Rights Assignment in Local Policies. 
C. Run repadmin and specify the /prp parameter. 
D. On DC10, run ntdsutil and configure the settings in the Roles context. 
Correct Answer: C Explanation 

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: 
repadmin /prp will allow the password caching of the local administrator to the RODC. This command lists 
and modifies the Password Replication Policy (PRP) for read-only domain controllers (RODCs). 

QUESTION 7 
Your company has offices in Montreal, New York, and Amsterdam. The network contains an Active Directory forest named contoso.com. An Active Directory site exists for each office. All of the sites connect to each other by using the DEFAULTIPSITELINK site link. 
You need to ensure that only between 20:00 and 08:00, the domain controllers in the Montreal office replicate the Active Directory changes to the domain controllers in the Amsterdam office. 
The solution must ensure that the domain controllers in the Montreal and the New York offices can replicate the Active Directory changes any time of day. 
What should you do? 
A. Create a new site link that contains Montreal and Amsterdam. Remove Amsterdam from DE-FAULTIPSITE1INK. Modify the schedule of DEFAULTIPSITE1INK. 
B. Create a new site link that contains Montreal and Amsterdam. Create a new site link bridge. Modify the schedule of DEFAU LTIPSITE1INK. 
C. Create a new site link that contains Montreal and Amsterdam. Remove Amsterdam from DE-FAULTIPSITELINK. Modify the schedule of the new site link. 
D. Create a new site link that contains Montreal and Amsterdam. Create a new site link bridge. Modify the schedule of the new site link. 
Correct Answer: C Explanation 

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: 
Very Smartly reworded with same 3 offices. In the exam correct answer is "Create a new site link that 
contains Newyork to Montreal. Remove Montreal from DEFAULTIPSITE1INK.Mod- ify the schedule of the 
new site link". 

Reference: How Active Directory Replication Topology Works http://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ 
cc755994(v=ws.10).aspx 

QUESTION 8 
Your network contains two Web servers named Server1 and Server2. Both servers run Windows Server 
2012 R2. 

Server1 and Server2 are nodes in a Network Load Balancing (NLB) cluster. The NLB cluster contains an 
application named App1 that is accessed by using the URL http://app1.contoso.com. 
You plan to perform maintenance on Server1. 

You need to ensure that all new connections to App1 are directed to Server2. The solution must not 
disconnect the existing connections to Server1. 
What should you run? 

A. The Set-NlbCluster cmdlet 
B. The Set-NlbClusterNode cmdlet 
C. The Stop-NlbCluster cmdlet 
D. The Stop-NlbClusterNode cmdlet 
Correct Answer: D Explanation 

Explanation/Reference:
The Stop-NlbClusterNode cmdlet stops a node in an NLB cluster. When you use the stop the nodes in the 
cluster, client connections that are already in progress are interrupted. To avoid in- terrupting active 
connections, consider using the -drain parameter, which allows the node to con- tinue servicing active 
connections but disables all new traffic to that node. 

-Drain <SwitchParameter> 
Drains existing traffic before stopping the cluster node. If this parameter is omitted, existing traf- fic will be 
dropped. 

QUESTION 9 
Your network contains two servers named HV1 and HV2. Both servers run Windows Server 2012 R2 and have the Hyper-V server role installed. 
HV1 hosts 25 virtual machines. The virtual machine configuration files and the virtual hard disks are stored in D:\VM. 
You shut down all of the virtual machines on HV1. 
You copy D:\VM to D:\VM on HV2. 
You need to start all of the virtual machines on HV2. You want to achieve this goal by using the minimum amount of administrative effort. 
What should you do? 
A. Run the Import-VMInitialReplication cmdlet. 
B. From HV1, export all virtual machines to D:\VM. Copy D:\VM to D:\VM on HV2 and over- write the existing files. On HV2, run the Import Virtual Machine wizard. 
C. From HV1, export all virtual machines to D:\VM. Copy D:\VM to D:\VM on HV2 and over- write the existing files. On HV2, run the New Virtual Machine wizard. 
D. Run the Import-VM cmdlet. 
Correct Answer: D Explanation 

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: 
Import-VM 
Imports a virtual machine from a file. 
Example 
Imports the virtual machine from its configuration file. The virtual machine is registered in- place, so its files 
are not copied. 

Windows PowerShell 
PS C:\> Import-VM Path 'D:\Test\VirtualMachines\5AE40946-3A98-428E-8C83-081A3C6B- D18C.XML' 

Reference: Import-VM 

QUESTION 10 
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains two member servers named Server1 and Server2. All servers run Windows Server 2012 R2. 
Server1 and Server2 have the Failover Clustering feature installed. The servers are configured as nodes in a failover cluster named Cluster1. Cluster1 contains a cluster disk resource. 
A developer creates an application named App1. App1 is NOT a cluster-aware application. App1 runs as a service. App1 stores date on the cluster disk resource. 
You need to ensure that App1 runs in Cluster1. The solution must minimize development effort. 
Which cmdlet should you run? 
A. Add-ClusterGenericServiceRole 
B. Add-ClusterGenericApplicationRole 
C. Add-ClusterScaleOutFileServerRole 
D. Add-ClusterServerRole 
Correct Answer: B Explanation 

Explanation/Reference:
Add-ClusterGenericApplicationRole Configure high availability for an application that was not originally designed to run in a failover cluster. If you run an application as a Generic Application, the cluster software will start the application, then 
periodically query the operating system to see whether the application appears to be run- ning. If so, it is 
presumed to be online, and will not be restarted or failed over. 

EXAMPLE 1 -Command Prompt: C:\PS> 

Add-ClusterGenericApplicationRole -CommandLine NewApplication.exe 

Name OwnerNode State 

cluster1GenApp node2 Online Description 
This command configures NewApplication.exe as a generic clustered application. A default name will be used for client access and this application requires no storage. 
Ref: Add-ClusterGenericApplicationRole http://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ee460976.aspx 
QUESTION 11 
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. The system properties of Server1 are shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.) 

You need to configure Server1 as an enterprise subordinate certification authority (CA). What should you do first? 
A. Add RAM to the server. 
B. Set the Startup Type of the Certificate Propagation service to Automatic. 
C. Install the Certification Authority Web Enrollment role service. 
D. Join Server1 to the contoso.com domain. 
Correct Answer: D Explanation 

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: Enterprise CAs must be domain members. From the exhibit we see that it is only a 
Workgroup member. 

Note: 
A new CA can be the root CA of a new PKI or subordinate to another in an existing PKI. 
Enterprise subordinate certification authority 
An enterprise subordinate CA must get a CA certificate from an enterprise root CA but can then issue 
certificates to all users and computers in the enterprise. These types of CAs are often used for load 
balancing of an enterprise root CA. 

Enterprise CAs can be used to issue certificates to support such services as digital signatures, Se- cure 
Multipurpose Internet Mail Extensions (S/MIME) secure mail, Secure Sockets Layer (SSL) or Transport 
Layer Security (TLS) secured web access and smart card authentication. Enterprise CAsare used to 
provide certificate services to internal users who have user accounts in the do- main. 

Requiring Active Directory, an Enterprise subordinate CA obtains its certificate from an already existing 
CA. 

These types of CAs are used to provide smart-card-enabled logons by Windows XP and other Windows 
Server 2003 machines. 

After a root certification authority (CA) has been installed, many organizations will install one or more 
subordinate CAs to implement policy restrictions on the public key infrastructure (PKI) and to issue 
certificates to end clients. Using at least one subordinate CA can help protect the root CA from 
unnecessary exposure. If a subordinate CA will be used to issue certificates to users or computers with 
accounts in an Active Directory domain, installing the subordinate CA as an enterprise CA allows you to 
use the client's existing account data in Active Directory Do- main Services (AD DS) to issue and manage 
certificates and to publish certificates to AD DS. Membership in local Administrators, or equivalent, is the 
minimum required to complete this procedure. If this will be an enterprise CA, membership in Domain 
Admins, or equivalent, is the minimum required to complete this procedure. 

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Read More: 200-105 pdf

Exam 70-412: Configuring Advanced Windows Server 2012 Services

 

 

If you’re considering achieving the MCSA Windows Server 2012 certification, you’ll need to pass 3 exams 70-410, 70-411 and 70-412. Having launched our blog today we focus on exam 70-411: Administering Windows Server 2012. This exam proves your knowledge and skills in implementation and management of Microsoft Windows Server 2012’s components like Active Directory domain services, Group Policy, Remote Access and Update Management.

The 70-411 pdf builds upon the fundamental skills demonstrated in the 70-410 exam and proves you can manage the majority of Windows Server 2012’s functions. Remember, you are required to pass all three exams before you are MCSA: Windows Server 2012 certified.

We’ve researched and compiled 10 tips that will help you get you the skills and knowledge to pass the second Microsoft MCSA: Windows Server 2012 certification exam, 70-411.

70-411 PDF

1. Use the Microsoft Virtual Academy

Microsoft’s Virtual Academy is one of the most useful resources Microsoft provides. Watch videos from Microsoft experts, giving you in-depth training and guidance on core Microsoft technologies. There are also online courses aligned to Microsoft exams.

You can find resources for the MCSA: 70-411 pdf here. This takes you through two substantial videos with all the insight into the details of the overview of the exam aims and contents. These videos also point you to, and talk you through the 70-411 exam page on the Microsoft Learning website.

I’d recommend using the Microsoft Virtual Academy to prepare you for your studies. Once you know more about what you’ll be facing, you’ll be better placed to begin your studying and exam preparation.

2. Use a revision guide

A revision guide is a must-have for any exam. It’ll guide you through your studies, highlighting which topics require more focus than others. Study guides often define terms you may not understand and explain theory with a high level of detail.Don’t mess around searching for study guides, here’s our top recommendations. Like the 70-410 exam before it, Microsoft have a really useful official 70-411 exam revision guide called, “Exam Ref 70-411 Administering Windows Server 2012 R2 (MCSA)”. If you used Microsoft’s guide for the 70-410, this will continue nicely where the last left off, using a similar style. It is well structured to help you focus on each exam objective and also presents real-world scenarios to put your knowledge into context. And finally, published from Microsoft, you can trust that it contains all the information you need for the exam.

An alternative 70-411 pdf  is William Panek’s MCSA Windows Server 2012 R2 Complete Study Guide: Exams 70-410, 70-411, 70-412. It comes with weight as it’s written by one of Microsoft’s MVPs and covers all the topics in all three of the MCSA: Windows Server 2012 certification exams. This goes into extensive detail to improve your knowledge and prepare you for the 70-411 exam. Other features include hands-on exercises, practice exam questions, electronic flashcards and over two hours of video content. All of this creates a revision guide package that is perfect at improving your Windows Server 2012 knowledge in all the areas in the three exams.

3. Join a forum

Sharing your Microsoft 70-411 exam queries and experiences can help you gain ideas and learn from others in the same position as yourself. Doing this in an online forum is easy, can be a well-earned break from revision and may surprise you in the amount of questions it answers. Take each answer with a pinch of salt – not everyone is an expert.One of the best for Microsoft exams is TechNet’s forums. You can search for specific exam related questions, or look up general technology related queries. You could pose a direct question yourself, or use an existing thread with many responses and answers already available. There are many ways in which an online forum could be helpful to your 70-411 exam studies.

70-411 PDF

Read More: http://microsoft70-534exam.hatenablog.com/

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