Javacexam IT Certification Prep, 100% Guaranteed Pass - Javacexam.com

Pass your next Citrix, Microsoft MCITP, Oracle, PMI certification exam using guaranteed training questions from Javacexam - Verified by Javacexam experts

Oracle 1Z0-574 Study Guide, Latest Oracle 1Z0-574 Exam Dumps Online Sale

Welcome to download the newest Examwind EX200 dumps:

Important Info — Oracle 1Z0-574 new study guide are designed to help you pass the exam in a short time.Everything you need can be found in the new version Oracle 1Z0-574 exam dumps.Visit Flydumps.com to get more valid information.

QUESTION 21
Service Oriented Integration (SOI) exposes capabilities from existing source systems. Which statement best describes the Impact SOI has on existing source systems?
A. Because SOI exposes only existing capabilities, any new required functionality will be implemented by modifying the existing source systems.
B. No modifications to existing source systems are allowed because SOA Services expose all the necessary capabilities from the source systems.
C. Modifications to existing source systems should be avoided, but may be necessary to support SOA Service creation.
D. To support SOA Service connectivity, modifications will be required for the existing source systems incorporated into the SOI architecture.

Correct Answer: C Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Some minor modifications may be required to support connectivity, but requiring extensive modifications
defeats a major reason for integration.

It must be noted that creating a SOA Service from existing assets generally requires a good deal more
than just adding a standards-based interface, i.e. simply service enabling existing assets is insufficient.
The SOA Service needs to expose process, functionality, and data that is usable in a broader context than
the source of the capability was designed to meet. Therefore, creating a SOA Service usually entails some
amount of aggregation, transformation, or expansion of existing capabilities provided by the source
systems. This requires a SOA Services layer between the existing assets and the consumers as illustrated
in the figure.
Note: The primary goal of service-oriented integration is to better leverage existing systems within the IT environment by applying service-oriented principles. Ultimately, the goal is to enable the assembly of composite applications, with little or no custom coding, that include capabilities sourced from existing systems. Composite applications are applications that pull together data, functionality, and process from multiple existing sources to solve a business problem or create new business value. Service-oriented integration is the mechanism to expose existing sources of data, functionality, and process so that those sources can be readily consumed by a composite application. Service construction includes creating entirely new SOA Services and also exposing existing assets as SOA Services. References:
QUESTION 22
IT Strategies from Oracle (ITSO) Includes multiple Enterprise Technology Strategies. Why are there multiple Enterprise Technology Strategies within ITSO?
A. Each enterprise Technology Strategy documents the architecture for a particular Oracle product.
B. Each Enterprise Technology Strategy provides Oracle product details that are important to the technology strategy.
C. An Enterprise Technology Strategy provides detailed guidance on deploying the oracle products that are important to the technology strategy.
D. Each Enterprise technology Strategy provides a reference architecture and practical guidance to achieve success with specific new technology.
E. Each Enterprise Technology Strategy provides industry-vertical reference architecture and practical guidance.

Correct Answer: D Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: IT Strategies from Oracle (ITSO) is a series of documentation and supporting material designed to enable organizations to develop an architecture-centric approach to enterprise-class IT initiatives. ITSO presents successful technology strategies and solution designs by defining universally adopted architecture concepts, principles, guidelines, standards, and patterns.
ITSO is made up of three primary elements Oracle Reference Architecture (ORA), Enterprise Technology Strategies (ETS) and Enterprise Solution Designs (ESD).
Enterprise Technology Strategies (ETS) offer valuable guidance on the adoption of horizontal technologies for the enterprise. They explain how to successfully execute on a strategy by addressing concerns pertaining to architecture, technology, engineering, strategy, and governance. An organization can use this material to measure their maturity, develop their strategy, and achieve greater levels of adoption and success. In addition, each ETS extends the Oracle Reference Architecture by adding the unique capabilities and components provided by that particular technology. It offers a horizontal technology-based perspective of ORA.
References:
QUESTION 23
The Mediation Layer in the Logical View of the Service-Oriented Integration architecture provides several capabilities. Which of the following are capabilities provided by the Mediation Layer?
A. enrichment – adding data elements to a data entity to give the entity increased Information
B. routing – sending the client request to the appropriate provider (s) based on some criteria
C. message transformation – converting the request message format to a different message form, appropriate for the provider
D. choreography – defining the messages that flow back and forth between systems that are participating in a business process
E. protocol mediation – converting a client request from one protocol to a different protocol used by provider

Correct Answer: BCE Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The Mediation Layer provides loose coupling for the entire architecture. It decouples the layers of the
architecture as well as decoupling external users of the layers from the specific layers in the architecture.
The key capabilities in this layer include:

*
Routing – Routing provides the ability to send the client request to the appropriate provider based on
some criteria. The routing may even include sending the client request to multiple providers. This capability
facilitates location transparency, versioning, scalability, partitioning, request pipelining, SLA management,
etc.
*
Protocol Mediation – Protocol mediation is the ability to handle a client request using one protocol (e.g.
WS*, JMS, REST) with a provider using a different protocol. This provides protocol decoupling between the
provider and the consumer.
Message Transformation – Message transformation allows a client request using one message format to
be handled by a provider that expects a different message format. This provides message format
decoupling between the provider and the consumer.
*
Discovery – Discovery is the mechanism by which a client finds a provider of a particular SOA Service.
Discovery can occur at design time or runtime.
*
Monitoring – Monitoring captures runtime information about the messages flowing through the mediation
layer. Since the mediation layer is an intermediary for message traffic, it provides a centralized monitoring
capability.
*
Policy Enforcement – Policy enforcement provides consistent application of policies (e.g. WS-
SecurityPolicy) across all messages flowing through the mediation layer. Since the mediation layer is an
intermediary for message traffic, it provides a centralized policy enforcement capability.

References:
QUESTION 24
Which one of the following types of access control should be used when access to a resource is dependent upon specific qualities of the user, for example, membership status, frequency of purchases, or level of certification?
A. role-based access control
B. rule-based access control
C. discretionary access control
D. content-dependent access control
E. attribute-based access control
Correct Answer: C Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Content dependent access control involves restricting access to content, such as documents and emails,
based on embedded keywords or certain assigned metadata. It works by inspecting the content and
applying rules to determine if access is permitted. This approach is taken by many Data Loss Prevention
solutions. It is possible to combine content dependent access control with role-based access control in
order to restrict access to content by established roles.

References:

QUESTION 25
BPM and SOA are frequently combined to provide greater business value than either technology provides independently. Which statements are true with regard to combining the BPM Technology Perspective and SOA Technology Perspective?
A. A Business Process may invoke a SOA Services to perform specific tasks within the process flow.
B. A Business Process may be exposed as a SOA Service.
C. When combining SOA and BPM, all the tasks within a Business Process are accomplished via Services.
D. A Business Process may invoke an SOA Service, but an SOA Service cannot invoke a Business Process.
E. Every business Process is exposed as a SOA Service.

Correct Answer: ABD Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

Note E: BPM processes and sub-processes can (but are not required) themselves be exposed as SOA Services. This enables processes to be composed of SOA Services that are implemented as processes. It can be beneficial in two ways. First, it improves reuse of lower level system-centric processes (i.e. service orchestrations), and second, it offers a standard interface mechanism with which to invoke all types of business processes.
Note: BPM and SOA are often used together, as they both support a closer alignment between business and IT, and they both promote agility. BPM targets alignment and agility at the process level, while SOA applies more at the activity level. Hence, business processes and SOA Services can represent business constructs, providing a mapping between the things business does and the way IT helps get it done. The convergence of BPM and SOA generally happens via process decomposition. That is when business processes are modeled as, (i.e. decomposed into), activities. All automated activities must be backed by some form of executable code or function call. These functions, if they are deemed worthy, can be engineered as SOA Services following service-oriented design principles. Agility at the process level is attained by changing the process model. Agility at the service level is achieved by deploying services that are loosely coupled and independently managed.
QUESTION 26
Which of the following interactions does not occur as part of a web-based single sign-on scenario?
A. A gateway, deployed In the Web Server, intercepts requests destined for protected resource
B. The user is prompted for login credentials when a protected resource is accessed and the user has not (recently) logged In.
C. Credentials are passed to the application for validation.
D. Authorization checks are optionally performed before the user is permitted access to the application.
E. A cookie is returned, which is used to permit access to other protected resources in that domain

Correct Answer: C Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The application does not handle the validation.

QUESTION 27
Which are the major categories of ORA Engineering capabilities?
A. Integrated Development
B. Asset Management
C. Event Processing
D. Service Engineering

Correct Answer: AB Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The broad categories that define ORA Engineering are:

*
Integrated development
This covers a wide range of engineering capabilities required to model, design and build solutions. These
capabilities go beyond simple editing and include advanced capabilities to support round-trip engineering,
integrated testing, deployment, and asset management.
*
Asset Management
Asset Management deals with the visibility, management and governance of assets and asset metadata. It
covers the capabilities required to effectively manage enterprise assets.
*
Quality Management
Quality Management capabilities ensure that the developed solution meets the enterprise standards and
pass the exit criteria. Quality Management covers testing, defect management, and continuous integration.
*
Deployment Management
Deployment Management deals with building, packaging, migration, and deployment of assets.
References:
QUESTION 28
Enterprise Architecture consists of Business Architecture, Application Architecture, Information, Architecture and Technical Architecture (BAIT). Which statement best describes Oracle Reference Architecture (ORA) in the context of BAIT?
A. ORA addresses all four (Business, Application, Information, and Technical) equally.
B. ORA is primarily focused on the Technical Architecture, with some content on the other three aspects-of BAIT.
C. ORA has content applicable to the Technical Architecture only.
D. ORA is primarily focused on the Business Architecture, with some content on the other three aspects of BAIT
E. ORA is primarily focused on the information Architecture, with some limited content on the other three aspects of BAIT.
F. ORA has content applicable to Information Architecture only.

Correct Answer: A Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: Oracle Reference Architecture(ORA) defines a detailed and consistent reference architecture for developing and integrating solutions based on current technologies from Oracle and other vendors. The reference architecture offers architecture views, principles, and guidance based on recommendations from technical experts across Oracle. It covers a broad spectrum of concerns pertaining to technology architecture, including middleware, database, hardware, processes, and services.

QUESTION 29
Which of the following statements are true?
A. (OWCS) provides components for reverse proxy, personalization, customization, social computing, and analytics.
B. Oracle WebCenter (OWC) provides the Resource Tier of the Oracle Reference Architecture User Interaction.
C. Oracle HTTP Server (OHS) provides the standard communication protocols (for example, HTTP) between the Client Tier and the Service Tier as well as the Message Security between the Client Tier and Service Tier.
D. Oracle Meta Data Services (OMDS) stores customization, personalization, and other metadata in a repository
E. Oracle WebLogic Suite (OWLS) is used in Oracle Reference Architecture User Interaction to enable Ontology languages for the Semantic Web

Correct Answer: BD Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
B: Oracle WebCenter (OWC) – provides the foundation for delivering a modern user experience for Oracle Fusion Middleware as well as Oracle Fusion Applications. OWC is composed of four main components as illustrated in the figure:

D: Oracle Meta Data Services (OMDS) – stores customization, personalization, and other metadata in a repository. The repository can either be stored in a database or in file-based storage.
QUESTION 30
The Oracle Reference Architecture (ORA) includes the concept of Technology Perspectives. Which statements are true concerning ORA and Technology Perspectives?
A. Each Technology Perspective focuses on a particular set of products and technology.
B. A Technology Perspectiveincludesboth reference architecture views as well as practical guidance and approaches for successfully implementing the changes required to embrace the products and technology.
C. The Technology Perspectives can be used individually or in combinations, for example, SOA with BI.
D. The Technology Perspectives can be used individually or in combinations. When used in combinations, the SOA Technology Perspective must be included.
E. Each Technology Perspective is part of ORA and is part of an Enterprise Technology Strategy; i.e. a Technology Perspective is the connection between ORA and an Enterprise Technology.

Correct Answer: ACDE Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: Technology perspectives extend the core material by adding the unique capabilities, components, standards, and approaches that a specific technology strategy offers.(A) SOA, BPM, EPM/BI, and EDA are examples of perspectives for ORA. Each technology strategy presents unique requirements to architecture that includes specific capabilities, principles, components, technologies, standards, etc. Rather than create another reference architecture for each strategy, ORA was designed to be extensible to incorporate new computing strategies as they emerge in the industry.
In order to present the reference architecture in the most effective manner, each new technology strategy adds a perspective to ORA. This enables the reference architecture to evolve holistically. New computing strategies extend the core material, providing further insight and detail as needed. A perspective extends the ORA core collateral by providing views, principles, patterns, and guidelines that are significant to that technology domain yet cohesive with the overall ORA. The perspective includes:
*
A foundation document describing the terms, concepts, standards, principles, etc. that are important to the ETS.

*
An infrastructure document that defines a reference architecture built using the technologies pertinent to the ETS.
References:
QUESTION 31
Oracle Web Services Manager uses an agent-based approach to providing Web Services security. Where are these agents deployed?
A. In any IPv4 of Later network firewall
B. In the Oracle WebLogic Server Web Service request Interceptors
C. In the Oracle Service Bus proxy pipeline
D. In the Oracle Access Manager web gate
E. In the Oracle WebLogic Server access gate

Correct Answer: D Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
You use the Web Services Manager Control Console to define Oracle Web Services Manager components
such as server agents. The server agent acts as an enforcement point for security policies.

Point your browser to the Web Services Manager Control Console and log in using your single sign-on
user name and password.
The Web Services Manager Control Console is accessed with a URL of the form:
http://<hostname>:port_number/ccore

QUESTION 32
Your company has decided to create an Enterprise Architecture following. The Open Group Architecture Framework (TOGAF). Which option best describes how the IT Strategies from Oracle (ITSO) library of material relates to this TOGAF-based Initiative?
A. ITSO has minimal applicability because TOGAF is a complete architecture framework.
B. The ITSO material can be used as reference material within the TOGAF approach.
C. The TOGAF approach will need to be modified (customized) to incorporate the ITSO material.
D. The ITSO material will need to be adapted to the TOGAF approach.
E. TOGAF and ITSO are mutually exclusive. One or the other must be chosen as the basis for the company’s Enterprise Architecture.

Correct Answer: A Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: The ITSO, and, being part of it, the Oracle Reference Architecture is not an Architecture Framework. For this, many solutions are already available, of which TOGAF andOracle’s Enterprise Architecture Framework (OEAF) are good examples. The ORA can be perfectly integrated in any of the currently available frameworks.
Note: The IT Strategies from Oracle give you a whole library of whitepapers, not only to develop a Reference Architecture for your own, by adapting the ORA to your needs, but it also focuses on the surrounding Enterprise Technology Strategies and Enterprise Solution Designs. In other words, ITSO covers both the horizontal technology perspectives (SOA, BPM, EDA, etc.), but also the vertical business perspectives (Utilities, Government, etc.).Now, in case you think that this is all about Oracle Technology products, you might be surprised: the whole ITSO / Oracle Reference Architecture is Vendor-Neutral. It is only scoped to Oracle’s product portfolio. Now, one might ask themselves: what technology product area’s doesn’t Oracle have products for, so that shouldn’t be too much of an issue as far as completeness is concerned.ITSO can help you organizing complex product landscapes, by means of a holistic approach to technology adoption. By covering the technology as a whole, you can reduce risk and become more in control of your IT solutions.
QUESTION 33
Which of the following are strategies for alert management with Oracle Enterprise Manager?
A. controlling the volume of alerts
B. removing unwanted alerts
C. centralized filtering of alerts
D. automating fix for common alerts

Correct Answer: BD Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
B: New in Enterprise Manager 10g Release 5 (10.2.0.5)
Alert Management Enhancements: Administrators can better manage their log-based alerts (e.g., alert log
alerts) by setting duration-based notification rules that clear such alerts on a periodic basis, or by using
new EMCLI verbs that support bulk clearing of such alerts.

D: New in Enterprise Manager 10g Release 5 (10.2.0.5)
Alert Management Enhancements: On-demand evaluation of alerts allow administrators to quickly verify
whether the fixes implemented for alerts result in clearing of the alert.

Note: Advanced alert management
QUESTION 34
Which of the following token profiles is not included in the WS-Security standard as a standard type of identity token?
A. XACML token profile
B. SAML token profile
C. username token profile
D. Kerberos token profile
E. X.500 token profile

Correct Answer: A Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
TheWS-Securityspecification allows a variety of signature formats, encryption algorithms and multiple trust domains, and is open to various security token models, such as:
*
X.509 certificates (not E)

*
Kerberos tickets (not D) *UserID/Password credential (not C)

*
SAML Assertions (not B) *custom-defined tokens.
Note: WS-Security (Web Services Security, short WSS) is a flexible and feature-rich extension to SOAP to apply security to web services. It is a member of the WS-* family of web service specifications and was published by OASIS.
QUESTION 35
Which of the following is NOT defined as a primary ORA computing foundation component?
A. Distributed Computing
B. Utility Computing
C. Grid Computing
D. Caching

Correct Answer: D Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: Primary ORA computing foundation components: Distributed Computing On-Demand Computing Utility Computing Grid Computing Cloud Computing Elastic Computing Virtualization
References:
QUESTION 36
Which of the following capabilities are provided by containers?
A. Transaction Support
B. Security Support
C. Thread Management
D. Business Processes

Correct Answer: ABC Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Containers provide several capabilities that include the following:
Transaction Support (A)
Security Support (B)

Scalability and Performance Thread Management (C) Data and Code Integrity Centralized Configuration Connection and Session Management Abstraction
References:
QUESTION 37
Which of the following Oracle products provides a comprehensive Integrated Development Environment (IDE)?
A. Oracle Enterprise Pack for Eclipse
B. Oracle JDeveloper
C. Oracle Service Registry
D. Enterprise Manager

Correct Answer: AB Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
A: Oracle Enterprise Pack for Eclipse is a free set of certified plug-ins, enabling WebLogic developers to support Java EE and Web Service standards. Oracle Enterprise Pack for Eclipse supports development with technologies including Database, Java SE, Java EE, Web Services, XML, Spring Framework and Oracle Fusion Middleware.
B: Oracle JDeveloper is a free integrated development environment that simplifies the development of Java-based SOA applications and user interfaces with support for the full development life cycle.
Incorrect answers
Oracle Service Registry and Enterprise Manager are not development tools.

QUESTION 38
Which of the following statements best describes how the deployment supports closed-loop governance?
A. The Metadata Repository is integrated with the operational systems to link operational metrics to the assets to ensure that the assets perform asintended.
B. The Metadata Repositories deployed in each environment are chained to share asset usage information.
C. A closed-loop governance framework is deployed on a clustered server to monitor the governance activities.
D. Production systems are integrated to the developer desktops to validate the requirements against the implemented code.

Correct Answer: BC Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
SOA Software’s Policy Manager and Service Manager combine to form a comprehensive closed-loop SOA
Governance solution.

Closed loop means:

*
Defining and managing actionable policies in a governance solution at design-time

*
Enforcing these policies via deep integration with a management solution at run-time

*
Auditing that these policies are being enforced

*
Using industry standards (WS-Policy, WS-MEX) where appropriate for information exchange Closed loop infrastructure enables demand and Value Management

*
Collect performance, usage and exception statistics at run-time

*
Track these statistics via the governance solution

*
Use live, audited information to drive value-based decisions about the effectiveness of different services and organizations

*
Provide developers with up to the minute information about a service in runtime to inform their decisions about which services to use

*
Manage supply and demand to ensure maximum efficiency and benefit from SOA

The products share a common registry and metadata repository to ensure seamless integration and offer active governance. Closed-loop governance will:

*
Ensure defined policies are enforced ** When you define a policy for a service you have to KNOW categorically that it is being enforced ** Generate audit trails for run-time and design-time policy compliance

*
Measure the real-world value of SOA ** Not just theoretical value ** How many applications are using each service, and how much are they using it ** NOT how many applications have asked to use a certain capacity of each service

*
Manage, monitor and control relationships between consumers and providers ** Enforced contracts ** Capacity planning Change management
The diagram below shows the relationships between SOA governance, security and management, demonstrating how SOA Policy Management forms a closed loop of policy, metrics, and audit.

http://www.soa.com/images/img_closed_loop.gif
QUESTION 39
Which of the following are common uses of an Attribute Service?
A. to maintain metadata pertaining to audit log entries and attestation reports
B. to acquire data that are necessary to make access-control decisions
C. to securely supply personally identifiable information to applications
D. to determine which security policy is assigned to a Web Service

Correct Answer: BC Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The Attribute Service(AS) retrieves user information from an attribute store. The AS retrieves user
information associated with a user from variety of authoritative identity stores including, but not limited to,
LDAP and database stores.

QUESTION 40
Conventional Management and Monitoring tools focus and produce metrics on which one of the following?
A. holistically across heterogeneous systems
B. metrics that measure individual resources
C. metrics that focus on understanding the relationship and Interactions between component
D. metrics that capture the combined behavior of several components interacting with the shared component

Correct Answer: B Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Conventional tools tend to focus and produce metrics on individual resources which is inadequate for an
agile shared services computing environment.

Note:
A metric is a unit of measurement used to report the health of the system that is captured from the
monitored infrastructure components. Metrics from all monitored infrastructure components are stored and
aggregated in the Management Repository, providing administrators with a rich source of diagnostic
information and trend analysis data.

References:

Our material on our site Oracle 1Z0-574 is exam-oriented,keeping in view the candidates requirements and level of understanding. Oracle 1Z0-574 materials are in the most popular and easy-to-use PDF version. You can use it on any devices with you anywhere.

Welcome to download the newest Examwind EX200 dumps: http://www.examwind.com/EX200.html

EMC E20-594 Exam Collection, Provide Latest EMC E20-594 Dumps PDF With Low Price

Oracle 1Z0-574 Exam Practice PDF, Free Download Real Oracle 1Z0-574 Preparation Materials Are Based On The Real Exam

Need The Newest Oracle 1Z0-574 Exam Dumps? Why not try Oracle 1Z0-574 vce or pdf exam dumps? You can get all the new Oracle 1Z0-574 exam questions and answers you need, we ensure high pass rate and money back guarantee.

QUESTION 1
Which of the following are ORA Engineering logical categories?
A. Integrated Development Environment
B. Quality Manager
C. Asset Manager
D. Monitoring and Management

Correct Answer: AB Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: The Engineering logical view shows the logical components of the Engineering environment and show how they are connected to each other. T The primary logical categories as shown are: *Modeler *Integrated Development Environment (IDE) *Quality Manager *Deployment Manager *Metadata Repository *Asset Repository
References:

QUESTION 2
Which of the following options best describes the concept of data-driven testing?
A. Data-driven testing is a strategy used to perform load testing.
B. Data-driven testing is used to perform functional tests by iterating through data sets in a databank.
C. Data-driven testing uses a single predefined data set to perform repeated testing.
D. Data-driven testing uses database triggers to initiate and run test cases.

Correct Answer: B Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
One of the best ways to perform functional testing is through data-driven testing, in which a databank is
created to cover the various functional use cases and is used to drive the testing. This requires the ability
to iterate through a list of data sets in the databank, substitute them for the input values, and run the tests.

References:

QUESTION 3
As part of a company-wide IT Initiative to simplify and rationalize the technology and products used you have been tasked with defining an Enterprise Architecture. The Enterprise Architecture will be used to communicate the desired future state where redundant, deprecated, and undesired technology and products have been eliminated. Oracle products will be included. In the Enterprise Architecture, it will be products from other vendors, including products that directly compete with Oracle products.
Which option best describes how IT Strategies from Oracle (ITSO) material can be used while creating the Enterprise Architecture?
A. The ITSO material cannot be used because ITSO applies to Oracle products only.
B. The ITSO material can be used without modification because it has no Oracle product dependencies.
C. The ITSO material can be used as reference material but will require customization to reflect specific products selected by the company.
D. The Oracle Reference Architecture component of ITSO can be readily applied, but the Rest of ITSO cannot, because of product dependencies.
E. The Oracle Reference Architecture component of ITSO cannot be applied due to pre dependencies, but the rest of ITSO can be applied.
F. The ITSO material is not applicable to rationalization of IT asset

Correct Answer: C Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: IT Strategies from Oracle (ITSO) is a series of documentation and supporting collateral designed to enable organizations to develop an architecture-centric approach to enterprise-class IT initiatives. ITSO presents successful technology strategies and solution designs by defining universally adopted architecture concepts, principles, guidelines, standards, and patterns.
ITSO is made up of three primary elements:
*
Oracle Reference Architecture (ORA) defines a detailed and consistent architecture for developing and integrating solutions based on Oracle technologies. The reference architecture offers architecture principles and guidance based on recommendations from technical experts across Oracle. It covers a broad spectrum of concerns pertaining to technology architecture, including middleware, database, hardware, processes, and services.

*
Enterprise Technology Strategies (ETS) offer valuable guidance on the adoption of horizontal technologies for the enterprise.They explain how to successfully execute on a strategy by addressing concerns pertaining to architecture, technology, engineering, strategy, and governance. An organization can use this material to measure their maturity, develop their strategy, and achieve greater levels of success and adoption. In addition, each ETS extends the Oracle Reference Architecture by adding the unique capabilities and components provided by that particular technology. It offers a horizontal technology-based perspective of ORA.

*
Enterprise Solution Designs (ESD) are industry specific solution perspectives based on ORA. They define the high level business processes and functions, and the software capabilities in an underlying technology infrastructure that are required to build enterprise-wide industry solutions. ESDs also map the relevant application and technology products against solutions to illustrate how capabilities in Oracle’s complete integrated stack can best meet the business, technical and quality of service requirements within a particular industry.

References:

QUESTION 4
The three common goals of Information security are known as the CIA triad. CIA stands for:
A. Confidentiality, Integrity and Auditing
B. Confidentiality, Integrity and Availability
C. Confidentiality, Integrity and Access Control
D. Confidentiality, Integrity and Authentication
E. Confidentiality,Integrity and Authorization

Correct Answer: B Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
For over twenty years, information security has held confidentiality, integrity and availability (known as the
CIA triad) to be the core principles of information security. There is continuous debate about extending this
classic trio.

Note:
Confidentiality is the term used to prevent the disclosure of information to unauthorized individuals or
systems.

In information security, integrity means that data cannot be modified undetectably. For any information system to serve its purpose, the information must be available when it is needed.

QUESTION 5
Which statements best describe how architecture principles are used within the Oracle Reference Architecture (ORA)?
A. The architecture principles for Oracle products are identified whenever an Oracle product incorporated into the architecture.
B. ORA uses multiple architecturalviews where each view has its own architecture principles.
C. ORA documents describe the architectural principles upon which the architecture is based.
D. Architecture principles provide recommendations (based on industry best practices) that should be followed.
E. Architecture principles are rules that must be followedin order to comply with the documented architecture.

Correct Answer: C Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: The purpose of ORA is to provide a reference architecture for designing, building, and integrating solutions based on modern technology from Oracle and other vendors. The reference architecture offers architecture principles and guidance based on recommendations from Oracle product development architects and field experts. Information provided by ORA gives architects an understanding of how to design solutions for the Oracle environment and best leverage its capabilities.
Note:Oracle Reference Architecture (ORA) defines a detailed and consistent architecture for developing and integrating solutions based on Oracle technologies. The reference architecture offers architecture principles and guidance based on recommendations from technical experts across Oracle. It covers a broad spectrum of concerns pertaining to technology architecture, including middleware, database, hardware, processes, and services.
References:

QUESTION 6
Which statement best describes the relationship between a SOA Service and service Infrastructure?
A. Service infrastructure is a primary part of an SOA Service.
B. Service Infrastructure exposes the Service Interface and may satisfy some capabilities of the Service Implementation.
C. Service infrastructure fulfills the Service Contract.
D. A SOA Service depends on the service infrastructure to satisfy some required capabilities.
E. A SOA Service uses the service infrastructure to generate the Service Interface.

Correct Answer: B Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The Service Infrastructure side typically provides the Service enablement capabilities for the
implementation. These capabilities may include, exposing the interface as a Web Service, handling SLA
enforcement, security, data formatting, and others. Service infrastructure should be utilized when possible,
as it reduces the burden on Service providers, from an implementation standpoint.

References:

QUESTION 7
Which WebCenter product Improves efficiency and productivity by enabling users to connect with others, regardless of their location, via web and voice conferencing, instant messaging, presence, and chat rooms?
A. Oracle WebCenter Intelligent Collaboration
B. Oracle WebCenter Anywhere
C. Oracle WebCenter Real-Time Collaboration
D. Oracle WebCenter Spaces

Correct Answer: C Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: Oracle WebCenter Real-Time Collaboration improves efficiency and productivity by enabling users to connect and collaborate with others via instant messaging, presence, chat rooms, and web and voice conferencing. It complements other Enterprise 2.0 services available in Oracle WebCenter by offering real-time collaboration capabilities to users who require direct interaction and immediate response.
QUESTION 8
Bottom-up service Identification analyzes existing systems to Identify SOA Services. Top-down service identification analyzes business processes to identify SOA services.
Which statement best describes the relationship between top down and bottom-up service identification in Service-Oriented Integration?
A. Only a bottom up approach shouldbe used because the goal of SOIis to provide SOA Services exposing existing systems.
B. Only a top-down approach should be used because the goal of SOI is composite application assembly.
C. A bottom-up approach should be used to identify which SOA Services are built; then a top-down approach should be used to determine which SOA Services are used by each composite application.
D. A top-down approach should be used to determine the needed SOA Services; then a bottom-up approach should be used to determine how existing source systems can meet the requirements top-down approach should be used by business, and a bottom-up approach should be used by IT.Theoverlap between the SOA Services Identified by the two methods are the ones that should

Correct Answer: D Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Note: There are three schools of thought around “how to build an Enterprise Service Oriented Architecture.” They are:
*
Top down – central group decides everything and the dev teams adopt them.

*
Bottom up – central group provides a directory and dev teams make whatever services they want. Dev teams go to the directory to find services they can use.

*
Middle out – central group provides key elements of the interface, including numbering schemes, message exchange patterns, standard communication mechanisms, and monitoring infrastructure, and encourages the dev teams to use it to build services that can be shared.

QUESTION 9
Which of the following are the key drivers for Grid computing?
A. Improved server utilization – Grid computing allows companies to lower costs through the efficient use of resources.
B. Better agility and flexibility – Businesses experience constant change and the underlying IT Infrastructure should be agile enough to support that kind of change.
C. OpEx model – Enterprises require pay-as-you-go services to reduce the dependency on capital expenditure and take advantage of the benefits of operational expenditure.
D. Lower Initial cost-There is a need to reduce the Initial investment at the cost of an increased operational cost.

Correct Answer: ABD Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: Using a grid computing architecture, organizations can quickly and easily create a large-scale computing infrastructure from inexpensive, off-the-shelf components (D). Other benefits of grid computing include
*
Quick response to volatile business needs (B)

*
Real-time responsiveness to dynamic workloads

*
Predictable IT service levels

*
Reduced costs as a result of improved efficiency and smarter capacity planning (A) Note: One way to think about grid computing is as the virtualization and pooling of IT resources– compute power, storage, network capacity, and so on–into a single set of shared services thatcan be provisioned or distributed, andthen redistributed as needed. As workloads fluctuate during the course of a month, week, or even through a single day, the grid computing infrastructure analyzes the demand for resources in real time and adjusts the supply accordingly.

Grid computing operates on three basic technology principles: Standardize hardware and software components to reduce incompatibility and simplify configuration and deployment; virtualize IT resources by pooling hardware and software into shared resources; and automate systems management, including resource provisioning and monitoring.
Grid computing operates on these technology principles:
*
Standardization.

*
Virtualization.

*
Automation.

References:
QUESTION 10
Which of the following statements are true about an end-to-end security strategy?
A. End-to-end security and point-to-point security are virtually identical strategies proposed by different security vendors.
B. End-to-end security strives to protect data at rest, even in temporary queues.
C. End-to-end security often involves some form of message-level protection.
D. When end-to-end security is enabled. Point-to-point transport-level encryption should be disabledin order to avoid cryptography conflicts between layers.
E. End to-end security is highly beneficial for distributed computing environments where many point- point connections and intermediaries exist, because it offers seamless data protection.

Correct Answer: BCE Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
B:End to end security is an information-centric perspective of security where information is protected
throughout the entire computing environment. That is, from the points where system interactions originate,
through all points of integration, processing, and persistence.
End to end security is often associated with the secure transmission, processing, and storage of data,
where at no time are data unprotected Note:
For a typical web-based application, end to end security generally begins at the client/browser, and ends at
the application database and all external dependencies of the application.

A common challenge in providing end to end security is finding a suitable way to secure data in all states
and points along the processing path that does not interfere with any transmission, routing, processing,
and storage functions that need to occur along the way. Sensitive data will usually need to be decrypted at
certain points in order for processing or message routing to occur.

QUESTION 11
Conceptually, the ORA model of a “modern UI” defines which three layers from the following list?
A. Unified User Interface layer provides the control and visual elements that define the interaction that the user has with the system.
B. Integration layer provides connectors to simplify and standardize Interaction with back-end -terns.
C. Device Management layer provides transformation and transcoding to support a wide variety of devices.
D. Browser Mediation layer adapts output to conform to the standards and capabilities of each browser type.
E. User Interface Services layer provides reusable functions specialized to the needs of the end
F.     Access and Incorporation layer provides the capability to Incorporate data and functionality from any number of back-end systems into the user interface.

Correct Answer: AEF Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: Note:

A: The Unified User Interface layer provides the control and visual elements that define the interaction the user has with the system. This layer separates the way the user interacts with the system from the underlying functionality provided by the system. This has many advantages including allowing different display devices to be supported via control and visual elements specialized for the device since, for example, mobile devices do not have nearly the screen real estate of a desktop computer.
E: The User Interface Services layer provides a set of functionality that can be used and reused in a variety of ways to deliver various user interfaces specialized to the needs of the end user. This illustrates that the underlying functionality is separated from the visual and control elements built into the user interface. The services provided by this layer may come from a variety of sources located anywhere that is network accessible.
F: The Access and Incorporation layer provides the capability to incorporate data and functionality from any number of backend systems into the user interface. Generally, there are two types of backend systems that need be incorporated into the user interface: systems that are designed for use with user interface
(e.g. LDAP, dedicated database) and systems that are not (e.g. legacy applications). The former type systems can be access directly by the user interface architecture. Ideally the latter type should be accessed via a robust integration architecture rather than relying on point-to-point integrations. This distinction is the reason that the term “incorporation” is used in this Conceptual View instead of the term “integration.” A suitable integration architecture is described in the ORA Service-Oriented Integration document.
References:
QUESTION 12
A longer term goal of Service-Oriented Integration (SOI) is to enable composite applications that are assembled from SOA Services. Which statement best describes the relationship between composite application assembly and SOA Service engineering?
A. Composite application assembly and SOA Service engineering are separate, decoupled efforts without any meaningful Interaction.
B. All SOA Service engineering must be completed prior to any composite application assembly.
C. Composite application assembly uses service contracts created by SOA Service engineering and generates requirements that are Inputs to SOA Service engineering.
D. SOA Service engineering creates SOA Services following sound engineering principles, while composite application assembly uses SOA Services based on WSPL interfaces.

Correct Answer: C Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

The Oracle Service Engineering Framework is an engineering approach for delivering projects within an SOA environment The Service Engineering Framework addresses activities at both the program and project scope to consider the requirements of the business outside of the scope of a single project. Topics covered at the program scope include:
*
SOA Requirements Management – Provides a process for harvesting requirements in a manner that naturally facilitates service identification and discovery.

*
Service Identification & Discovery – Establishes the procedures around identifying Service candidates, as well as discovering reuse candidates from the existing Service catalog. Takes the process from identification and discovery, through the justification processes required to determine if an existing Service can be viable for reuse in the proposed manner, or if the proposed Service Candidate should be realized as a shared Service.

*
Service Release Planning – Provides the groundwork necessary for planning for project and Service deliveries within an SOA

Topics covered at the project scope include:

*
Service Definition –

*
Service Design –

*
Service Implementation – Provides the guidelines for effectively and efficiently developing shared Services.

*
Service Testing –

*
Service Deployment – Defines the guidelines and practices that need to be considered when deploying Services into a shared environment.

*
Service OA&M –

Note: The primary goal of service-oriented integration is to better leverage existing systemwithin the IT environment by applying service-oriented principles. Ultimately, the goal is to enable the assembly of composite applications, with little or no custom coding, that include capabilities sourced from existing systems. Composite applications are applications that pull together data, functionality, and process from multiple existing sources to solve a business problem or create new business value. Service-oriented integration is the mechanism to expose existing sources of data, functionality, and process so that those sources can be readily consumed by a composite application
QUESTION 13
What are the benefits of the browser over traditional user Interfaces (for example, client-server GUI)?
A. HTML provides a richer interface for end users.
B. Development, maintenance, and support costs are reduced.
C. The browser simplifies application deployment compared to dedicated client server GUI applications.
D. There is more variety among browsers than among client-server GUIs.
E. The browser provides a richer graphical environment than client-server GUIs.
F. Browsers can support more diverse devices than dedicated client-server GUI application.

Correct Answer: BCF Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 14
Which of the following is not an objective or function of the WS-Trust standard?
A. to enable applications to construct trusted SOAP message exchanges
B. to synchronize Identities across security domains
C. to exchange tokens in order to overcome differencesin supported technology between service consumers and service providers
D. to exchange tokensin order to mapidentities supplied by service consumers with identities supported by service providers

Correct Answer: A Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: Oracle STS leverages the WS-Trust standard protocol to manage token exchange between the Web Service Client (WSC) and the Web Service Provider (WSP) (not C). WS-Trust provides a standard way to send security token requests to any Security Token Service (STS) (not D). This specification can be used to manage token transformation when crossing the various security boundaries of the information system (not B).
References:
QUESTION 15
There are various network topologies that can be used when deploying the Service-Oriented Integration architecture. One deployment option includes three networks: production network, services network and maintenance network. Which statement best describes the uses of these three networks?
A. The production networkisused for all production network traffic. The services networks is used to deploy and configure SOA Services. The maintenance network is used by the operations team to manage the infrastructure.
B. The production network provides connectivity to applications and client access to the Mediation Layer. The services network provides connectivity between the Mediation Layer and the SOA Services. The maintenance network is used by the operations team to manage the infrastructure.
C. The production network provides connectivity to applications and client access to the Mediation Layer-The services networks is used to deploy and configure SOA Services. The maintenance network is used by the operations team to manage the infrastructure.
D. The production network is used for all production network traffic. The services network provides connectivity between the Mediation Layer and the SOA Services. The maintenance network is by the operations team to manage the infrastructure.
E. The production network is used for all production network traffic. The services networks is used to deploy and configure SOA Services. The maintenance network is trusted network, providing administrator access to all hardware and software.

Correct Answer: B Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: Note: Mediation can be broadly defined as resolving the differences between two or more systems in order to integrate them seamlessly. A typical IT architecture has a variety of systems and components that are fundamentally different. A better alternative to embedding the mediation logic into each of these systems would be to provide the mediation capability in the SOA infrastructure.
References:
QUESTION 16
Which four components of the following list should be found in the client tier of the Logical view of the Oracle Reference Architecture User Interaction?
A. Personalization
B. Communication services
C. State management
D. Customization
E. Collaboration
F. Syndication
G. Controller
H. Rendering

Correct Answer: BCGH Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The Client Tier is hosted on the display device. As mentioned above, this may be a browser or an thick
client specific to the display device.

Regardless of the choice for the Client Tier, there are standard capabilities provided by this tier in the
architecture:
Controller: The Controller accepts input from the user and performs actions based on that input. State
Management: The State Management component is responsible for maintaining the current state of the
user interface.
Rendering: The Rendering component is responsible for delivering a view of the interface suitable for the
end user.
Communication Services: The Communication Services provide the means to access Service Tier
capabilities.

Note: Security Container, Data Management and Composition can also be included here.

References:

QUESTION 17
Which statement best describes the relationship between Oracle Reference Architecture (ORA) and the Oracle products?
A. ORA describes the architecture built in to the Oracle products.
B. ORA describes the architecture underlying the Oracle Fusion Applications.
C. ORA describes a product-agnostic architecture and then maps the Oracle products onto the architecture.
D. ORA describes an architecture thatis exclusively based on Oracle products.

Correct Answer: C Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The Oracle Reference Architecture is Applicable to heterogeneous environments. It is independent of
specific products or version.

QUESTION 18
Interface elements are an important part of modular programming for UI. Which of the following statements is true with regard to Interface elements?
A. Interface elements are always provided as proprietary packages of widgets from device vendors and third parties.
B. There is a wide variety of interface elements that can be developed once and used repeatedly in various user-interface designs.
C. Interface elements are highly standardized and, once developed for one device, they are sufficiently portable to be reused on other devices without modification.
D. Interface elements implement application-specific functionality and are therefore rarely reusable across multiple applications.

Correct Answer: BC Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Interface element that a computer user interacts with, and is also known as a control or Widget. Examples:
Windows, Pointer, Text Box, Button, Hyperlink, Drop-down list, List box, Combo box, Check Box, Radio
button, Cycle button, Datagrid

QUESTION 19
Identify the true statements in the following list.
A. The core components of the ORA UI Logical view are grouped into the client tier and the server tier.
B. The components of the ORA UI Logical view are model, view, and controller.
C. The core components of the ORA UI Logical view are grouped into thedisplaytier and theresourcestier.
D. In addition to the core components, the Logical view also includes security, communication protocols, and development tools.

Correct Answer: AD Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The Logical View of the architecture describes the various layers in the architecture. Each layer
encapsulates specific capabilities for the overall architecture. Upper layers in the architecture leverage the
capabilities provided by the lower layers.
The Client Tier is hosted on the display device.
The Service Tier hosts the capabilities that satisfy the requirements of the end user.

QUESTION 20
Where are the components of the client tier of the ORA UI logical architecture hosted?
A. on the transcoding engine
B. on the web server
C. on the display device
D. some components on the web server and some on the display device

Correct Answer: C Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: The Client Tier is hosted on the display device, this may be a browser or an thick client specific to the display device References:

Flydumps only provides Oracle 1Z0-574 Practice Exams with highest quality for the candidates,because all Oracle 1Z0-574 questions are written by most experienced experts who are really responsible.

Oracle 1Z0-599 Exam Download, High Pass Rate Oracle 1Z0-599 Study Guides For Download

Important Info: These new valid Oracle 1Z0-599 exam questions were updated in recent days by Flydumps,please visit our website to get the full version of new Oracle 1Z0-599 exam dumps with free version of new VCE Player,you can pass the exam easily by training it!

QUESTION 1
You deploy more than one application to the same WebLogic container. The security is set on JavaEE level and all deployed JavaEE applications use the same security roles. What is your recommendation for an architecture with those requirement
A. Combine all applications into a single one.
B. Define global roles on the WebLogic Domain level.
C. Use Ms Active Directory to keep the roles there.
D. Use Oracle Identity and Access Management solution to simplify the management.
E. Keep role mapping in the external WebLogic Role Mapped developed for that solution.

Correct Answer: B Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Note:
* Types of Security Roles: Global Roles and Scoped Roles
There are two types of security roles in WebLogic Server:

/ A global security role can be used in any security policy. Oracle provides several default global roles that
you can use out of the box to secure your WebLogic resource

/ A scoped role can be used only in policies that are defined for a specific instance of a WebLogic resource
(such as a method on an EJB or a branch of a JNDI tree). You might never need to use scoped roles. They
are provided for their flexibility and are an extra feature for advanced customers.

Incorrect:
Not E: Role mapping is the process whereby principals (users or groups) are dynamically mapped to
security roles at runtime. In WebLogic Server, a Role Mapping provider determines what security roles
apply to the principals stored a subject when the subject is attempting to perform an operation on a
WebLogic resource. Because this operation usually involves gaining access to the WebLogic resource,
Role Mapping providers are typically used with Authorization providers.
QUESTION 2
When your WebLogic Server solution needs to be scaled out with additional capacity and you don’t want to add additional hardware, which three techniques should you us?
A. Assign more than one managed server to a physical hardware that allows better CPU utilization.
B. Assign more than one application to one managed server to better utilize threads within a single JVM process.
C. Assign the same application to more than one managed server to load balance requests between servers.
D. Assign the same heap size to the managed server across the cluster for easier control of memory footprint
E. Create a virtualized environment with hypervisor for an easier solution
Correct Answer: BDE Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 3
A highly available WebLogic cluster in UNIX is configured for automatic server migration. Node Managed is configured on both machines to start managed servers.
How should you simulate a managed server failure to test whether automatic server migration is working?
A. Shut down the managed server from the WebLogic console.
B. Shut down the managed server using the WLST command through Node Manager.
C. Run “kill -9” once to kill the managed server process.
D. Run “kill -9” to kill the managed server process, and run “kill -9” one more time if the managed server is restarting.

Correct Answer: A Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Note:
*
It is recommended that you shutdown WebLogic Server instances through the Administration Console.

*
If automatic server migration is enabled, the servers are required to contact the cluster leader and renew their leases periodically. Servers will shut themselves down if they are unable to renew their leases. The failed servers will then be automatically migrated to the machines in the majority partition.
QUESTION 4
A customer claims that while redeploying a web application in the production system all their customers are having to log in again. What do you recommend?
A. Sessions can’t be preserved when redeploying applications. The customer needs to consider redeployment during late nights when the traffic is low.
B. Change the flag responsible for the development mode of their environment. In the production mode, all sessions are preserved while redeploying application.
C. Change Hotspot to JRockit. Sessions can’t be preserved on HotSpot when redeploying application.
D. Use flag -version when redeploying the application. This will switch on the Side By Side deployment feature and preserve existing sessions.
E. Open a service request with Oracle Support. This is unexpected behavior. Sessions are preserved without any extra settings.

Correct Answer: D Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Restrictions on Production Redeployment Updates
WebLogic Server can host a maximum of two different versions of an application at one time.
Note:
* When you redeploy a new version of an application, you cannot change: An application’s deployment targets
An application’s security model
A Web application’s persistent store settings
To change any of the above features, you must first undeploy the active version of the application.
Incorrect:
*
(not A)
Production redeployment enables you to update and redeploy an application in a production environment
without stopping the application or otherwise interrupting the application’s availability to clients. Production
redeployment saves you the trouble of scheduling application downtime, setting up redundant servers to
host new application versions, manually managing client access to multiple application versions, and
manually retiring older versions of an application.
*
(not C) Not dependant on whether the application is JRockit or Hotspot.
*
(not E)
The production redeployment strategy is supported for:

Standalone Web Application (WAR) modules and enterprise applications (EARs) whose clients access the application via a Web application (HTTP).
Enterprise applications that are accessed by inbound JMS messages from a global JMS destination, or from inbound JCA requests.
All types of Web Services, including conversational and reliable Web Services, but not 8.x Web Services.
Production redeployment is not supported for:
Standalone EJB or RAR modules. If you attempt to use production redeployment with such modules, WebLogic Server rejects the redeployment request. To redeploy such modules, remove their version identifiers and explicitly redeploy the modules.
Applications that use JTS drivers. For more information on JDBC application module limitations, see JDBC Application Module Limitations in Configuring and Managing JDBC Data Sources for Oracle WebLogic Server.
Applications that obtain JDBC data sources via the DriverManager API; in order to use production redeployment, an application must instead use JNDI to look up data sources.
Applications that include EJB 1.1 container-managed persistence (CMP) EJBs. To use production redeployment with applications that include CMP EJBs, use EJB 2.x CMP instead of EJB 1.1 CMP.
Reference: Reference; Deploying Applications to Oracle WebLogic Server 12c, Redeploying Applications in a Production Environment
QUESTION 5
A common approach to solve application performance issues is to add more hardware. Which two reasons describe why this alone does not always solve performance problems?
A. There may be a bottleneck in the application that additional hardware would not solve.
B. Adding more hardware is costly and time consuming.
C. Adding hardware at the application layer may place additional load on an already overloaded database, network appliance, or storage system.
D. Adding more hardware may introduce new configuration requirements that need to be tested.

Correct Answer: AC Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 6
A customer has a critical, performance-sensitive web application that connects to a multinode Oracle RAC database. Which feature of WebLogic can provide significant performance benefit?
A. The Web Session Affinity feature of Active GridLink for RAC
B. WebLogic Clustering
C. The Transaction Affinity feature of Active GridLink for RAC
D. Coherence*Web Session Replication
Correct Answer: C Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
XA Affinity and Failover When accessed within a global transaction, the member data source from which the JDBC connection was obtained is pinned to the global transaction for the life of the transaction. This ensures that all database operations performed on connections obtained from the Multi Data Source, for a particular transaction, all execute on the same RAC instance. XA affinity results in improved performance and is even a requirement for older versions of RAC, such as prior to 11g. The XA failover is also supported by the Multi Data Source and transaction manager implementations. If a pinned RAC instance suffers a failure, then a global transaction can complete utilizing a different RAC instance using a connection obtained one of the other member data sources.
Reference: Oracle WebLogic Server Active GridLink for Oracle Real Application Clusters(RAC)
QUESTION 7
A customer needs to implement a Highly Available solution for JMS that has a primary data center and a backup. Which three steps would you perform when designing your solution?
A. Store Transaction Logs in a database and use Database stores for JMS to make replication between sites easier.
B. Use file based Transaction Logs and JMS stores and implement a separate replication solution for files in addition to database in case database replication fails.
C. Implement Oracle RAC at each site to provide a highly available solution within each datacenter.
D. Configure Whole Server Migration to migrate WebLogic Managed Servers from the primary to the secondary site.
E. Configure Automatic Service Migration for JMS high availability within a datacenter.

Correct Answer: ACE Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Note:

QUESTION 8
Which WebLogic optimization allows one non-XA resource to participate in a distributed transaction?
A. enabling Pinned to Thread
B. enabling Logging Last Resource
C. increasing the Statement cache size
D. setting the statement cache type to LRU
E. setting the initial and maximum capacity to the same number

Correct Answer: A Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
XA Affinity and Failover When accessed within a global transaction, the member data source from which the JDBC connection was obtained is pinned to the global transaction for the life of the transaction. This ensures that all database operations performed on connections obtained from the Multi Data Source, for a particular transaction, all execute on the same RAC instance. XA affinity results in improved performance and is even a requirement for older versions of RAC, such as prior to 11g. The XA failover is also supported by the Multi Data Source and transaction manager implementations. If a pinned RAC instance suffers a failure, then a global transaction can complete utilizing a different RAC instance using a connection obtained one of the other member data sources.
Reference: Oracle WebLogic Server Active GridLink for Oracle Real Application Clusters(RAC)
QUESTION 9
A customer has a Stock Watch application that publishes stock recommendations to different customers and programs. The stock recommendation message should be processed by only one of the JMS Servers in the cluster. Which JMS model should be used?
A. JMS Queue
B. Distributed JMS Queue
C. Uniform Distributed Topic
D. Partitioned Distributed Topic

Correct Answer: A Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
JMS queue
A staging area that contains messages that have been sent and are waiting to be read. Note that, contrary
to what the name queue suggests, messages don’t have to be delivered in the order sent. A JMS queue
only guarantees that each message is processed only once.

Incorrect:
Not B: (Only one queue required)

*
A distributed destination is a set of destinations (queues or topics) that are accessible as a single, logical
destination to a client. A distributed destination has the following characteristics:
It is referenced by its own JNDI name.
Members of the set are usually distributed across multiple servers within a cluster, with each destination member belonging to a separate JMS server.

*
A distributed queue is a set of physical JMS queue members. As such, a distributed queue can be used to create a QueueSender, QueueReceiver, and a QueueBrowser. The fact that a distributed queue represents multiple physical queues is mostly transparent to your application.
Not Topic:
JMS topic
A distribution mechanism for publishing messages that are delivered to multiple subscribers.

QUESTION 10
A customer has a critical, performance-sensitive web application that connects to a multimode Oracle RAC database. Which feature of WebLogic can provide signification benefit?
A. The Web Session Affinity feature of Active GridLink for RAC.
B. WebLogic Clustering
C. The Transaction Affinity feature of Active GridLink for RAC
D. Coherence*Web Session Replication

Correct Answer: C Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Active GridLink for Oracle RAC In Oracle WebLogic Server 10.3.4, a single data source implementation has been introduced to support an Oracle RAC cluster. It responds to FAN events to provide Fast Connection Failover (FCF), Runtime Connection Load-Balancing (RCLB), and RAC instance graceful shutdown. XA affinity is supported at the global transaction Id level. The new feature is called WebLogic Active GridLink for RAC; which is implemented as the GridLink data source within WebLogic Server.
Note:
* The WebLogic Server JDBC subsystem has supported Oracle RAC since WLS version 9.0, originally developed for Oracle9i RAC. This support is based on a particular type of data source configuration, called a multi data source. A multi data source is a data source abstraction over one or more individual data sources. It serves JDBC connections from each of the member data sources according to a specified policy. A RAC multi data source configuration requires that each member data source obtain connections to a particular RAC instance.
Reference: How-To: Use Oracle WebLogic Server with a JDBC GridLink Data Source
QUESTION 11
A customer needs to ensure that the number of threads servicing an application does not exceed the number of database connections available to the application. What step must you take to address this situation?
A. Configure a Max Threads Constraint and add your application to the list of applications for the Constraint.
B. Configure a Work Manager with a Maximum Threads Constraint tied to the Connection Pool and configuration your application to use the Work Manager.
C. Configure a Work Manager with a Minimum Threads Constraint tied to the Connection Pool and configure your application to use the Work Manager.
D. Configure a global MaxThreads constraint and target it to the server or clusters where your application is deployed.
E. Configure the startup parameter “-Dwls-maxThreads” to be the same as the number of database connections configured.

Correct Answer: B Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
To manage work in your applications, you define one or more of the following Work Manager components:

Fair Share Request Class:
Response Time Request Class:
Min Threads Constraint:
Max Threads Constraint:
Capacity Constraint
Context Request Class:

Note:

*
max-threads-constraint–This constraint limits the number of concurrent threads executing requests from the constrained work set. The default is unlimited. For example, consider a constraint defined with maximum threads of 10 and shared by 3 entry points. The scheduling logic ensures that not more than 10 threads are executing requests from the three entry points combined. A max-threads-constraint can be defined in terms of a the availability of resource that requests depend upon, such as a connection pool. A max-threads-constraint might, but does not necessarily, prevent a request class from taking its fair share of threads or meeting its response time goal. Once the constraint is reached the server does not schedule requests of this type until the number of concurrent executions falls below the limit. The server then schedules work based on the fair share or response time goal.

*
WebLogic Server prioritizes work and allocates threads based on an execution model that takes into account administrator-defined parameters and actual run-time performance and throughput.

*
WebLogic Server uses a single thread pool, in which all types of work are executed. WebLogic Server
Administrators can configure a set of scheduling guidelines and associate them with one or more applications, or with particular application components.
prioritizes work based on rules you define, and run-time metrics, including the actual time it takes to execute a request and the rate at which requests are entering and leaving the pool.
The common thread pool changes its size automatically to maximize throughput. The queue monitors throughput over time and based on history, determines whether to adjust the thread count. For example, if historical throughput statistics indicate that a higher thread count increased throughput, WebLogic increases the thread count. Similarly, if statistics indicate that fewer threads did not reduce throughput, WebLogic decreases the thread count. This new strategy makes it easier for administrators to allocate processing resources and manage performance, avoiding the effort and complexity involved in configuring, monitoring, and tuning custom executes queues.
Reference: Using Work Managers to Optimize Scheduled Work
QUESTION 12
What are the three steps you should take to tune a JDBC Connection pool in WebLogic from the initial settings in a production environment?
A. Ensure the maximum size is increased to an appropriate setting.
B. Set the minimum and maximum size of the connection pool to the same value.
C. Increase the statement cache size.
D. Add more heap to the JVM.
E. Add more nodes to the cluster.

Correct Answer: ACE Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
A:

*
Troubleshooting Slow Response Time from the Client and Low Database Usage These symptoms are
usually caused by a bottleneck upstream of the database, perhaps in the JDBC connectionpooling. Monitor
the active JDBC connections in the WebLogic Console and watch for excessive waiters and wait times;
increase the pool size, if necessary.
*
Attribute: Maximum Capacity
Maximum number of physical database connections that this connection pool can contain. Different JDBC
Drivers and database servers may limit the number of possible physical connections.

C: Attribute: Statement Cache Size
The algorithm used to maintain the statement cache:

LRU – After the statementCacheSize is met, the Least Recently Used statement is removed when a new statement is used.
Fixed – The first statementCacheSize number of statements is stored and stay fixed in the cache. No new statements are cached unless the cache is manually cleared.
E: If the queue appears starved but adding execute threads does not improve performance, there may be resource contention. Because CPU utilization is low, the threads are probably spending much of their time waiting for some resource, quite often a database connection. Use the JDBC monitoring facilities in the console to check for high levels of waiters or long wait times. Adding connections to the JDBC connection pool may be all that is required to fix the problem.
Note:
* If you had a JDBC connection pool where the Initial Capacity and Maximum Capacity attributes were different, you might want to create a gauge monitor to monitor the maximum and minimum number of connections. By setting the Threshold Low value to be one less than the Initial Capacity, your gauge monitor trapcould monitor the ActiveConnectionsCurrentCount attribute of the JDBCDataSourceRuntime MBean and alert you whenever the number of active connections are less than the Initial Capacity (which might indicate database connectivity problems).
QUESTION 13
You have a durable subscriber, and the subscriber is down or not reachable when the message is produced. Which two options regarding the expiry of these messages are true?
A. after the subscriber is unavailable for 10 minutes
B. when the subscriber is available
C. after the subscriber is unavailable for after an hour
D. are available until the specified time elapses
E. are expired instantly

Correct Answer: BD Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
By default, JMS messages never expire. When applications send messages to queues or topics with durable subscribers, WebLogic must retain the message until it is consumed. This is fine in most point-to-point messaging applications because consumers are constantly consuming messages. Any message sent to a queue will typically be consumed in a relatively short period of time. If the consumers get disconnected, they will usually reconnect as soon as possible and start processing any messages that might have built up in the queue.
D: For durable subscribers to a topic, this is not necessarily true. The messaging system is forced to retain any message that has not been consumed by a durable subscriber, regardless of whether that durable subscriber will ever return. In this case, WebLogic is at the mercy of the durable subscriber to unsubscribe when it no longer wishes to receive the messages. If the durable subscriber logic is flawed in such a way that the subscribers do not unsubscribe properly, the messaging system will start to fill up with messages that may never be delivered. This calls for real caution in using durable subscribers. Fortunately, there is another way to help deal with this problem. Message expiration can be set at the connection factory level. Using a connection factory’s default time-to-live attribute, we can specify the number of milliseconds that WebLogic should retain an undelivered message after it is sent.
QUESTION 14
Identify the two options that can be used to patch WebLogic Server without Incurring application downtime.
A. automated process using the Admin Server
B. automated using JDeveloper
C. manual process with or without Smart Update
D. scripted with WLST
E. automated process using Enterprise Manager 12c

Correct Answer: CD Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Note:
* Rolling Upgrade is the process of upgrading a running WebLogic Server cluster with a patch, maintenance pack, or minor release without shutting down the entire cluster or domain. During the rolling upgrade of a cluster, each server in the cluster is individually upgraded and restarted while the other servers in the cluster continue to host your application.
QUESTION 15
WebLogic 12c, the Maven plug-in has been enhanced with which Maven goal?
A. wls:unzip, wls:install-domain, wls:start-domain, wls:wlst, wls:appc
B. wls:install, wls:install-domain, wls:start-domain, wls:wlst, wls:appc
C. wls:unzip, wls:create-domain, wls:start-domain, wls:wlst, wls:appc
D. wls:install, wls:create-domain, wls:start-server, wls:wlst, wls:appc:
Correct Answer: D Explanation Explanation/Reference:

wls-maven-plugin–Delivered in WebLogic Server 12c, provides enhanced functionality to install, start and stop servers, create domains, execute WLST scripts, and compile and deploy applications.
Reference: Developing Applications for Oracle WebLogic Server, Using the WebLogic Development Maven Plug-In
QUESTION 16
Assume that you would like to clone an existing WebLogic Domain and enable some customizations. What scenario would you choose?
A. In the Enterprise Manager, find the domain to be cloned. Choose “Clone WebLogic Domain” from the context menu. In the graphical wizard, customize and extend the domain if needed. These steps will only clone only the domain configuration. Binaries with deployments are needed to be cloned by operation on the file system.
B. In the Enterprise Manager, find the domain to be cloned. Choose “Clone WebLogic Domain” from the context menu. In the graphical wizard, customize the domain. These steps clone the binaries and domain configuration. If the extension is needed, perform it after cloning in the WebLogic web-based console.
C. In the Enterprise Manager, find the domain to be cloned. Choose “Clone WebLogic Domain” from the context menu. In the graphical wizard, customize and extend the domain if it is needed. These steps clone the binaries and domain configuration.
D. In the Enterprise Manager, find the domain to be cloned. Choose “Clone WebLogic Domain” from the context menu. These steps clone the binaries and domain configuration. If the customization or extension is needed, complete that after cloning in the WebLogic web-based console.
E. In the file system, copy the domain structure of the configuration directory and paste it in the new location. Modify configuration files for address and port. If further customization is needed, open the WebLogic web-based console and perform these modifications.

Correct Answer: C Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
The Clone WebLogic Domain option launches a wizard that enables you to clone a WebLogic Domain from an existing reference domain that is already discovered with Cloud Control. It allows you to clone the Middleware Home and its binaries, and the domain configuration.
* If you selected the Cloning a WebLogic Domain option, the Middleware Provisioning: Domain Configuration page appears. This page contains a set of links to several pages where you can enter the properties that are most likely to be reconfigured like domain name, listen addresses for the administration server and managed servers, Node Manager/Machine configuration, and JDBC data sources.
QUESTION 17
Which three scenarios are true about Domains?
A. Domains can be created using the Configuration Wizard.
B. Domains can be created using WLST.
C. Domain configuration files are located in the WebLogic home directory.
D. Domains can be created based on a domain template.

Correct Answer: A Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
A: a WebLogic domain can be created by using the Configuration Wizard in graphical mode.
B: WLST enables you to create a new domain or update an existing domain
D: A domain template is a JAR file that contains domain configuration documents, applications, security data, startup scripts, and other information needed to create a domain.
QUESTION 18
Identify three components of the WebLogic JMS architecture.
A. JMS Server
B. JMS Module
C. Node Manager
D. Queue Manager
E. Persistent Store

Correct Answer: ABE Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
The major components of the WebLogic JMS Server architecture, as illustrated in the figure below.
*
(A) JMS servers that can host a defined set of modules and any associated persistent storage that reside on a WebLogic Server instance.

*
(B) JMS modules contains configuration resources (such as queues, topics, and connections factories) and are defined by XML documents that conform to the weblogic-jmsmd.xsd schema.

*
Client JMS applications that either produce messages to destinations or consume messages from destinations.

*
JNDI (Java Naming and Directory Interface), which provides a resource lookup facility. JMS resources such as connection factories and destinations are configured with a JNDI name. The runtime implementations of these resources are then bound into JNDI using the given names.

*
(E) WebLogic persistent storage (file store or JDBC-accessible) for storing persistent message data.
The following figure illustrates the WebLogic JMS architecture.

Reference: Understanding WebLogic JMS
QUESTION 19
How can you configure High Availability for interacting with a non-Oracle database using WebLogic?
A. Configure multiple physical data sources and reuse the same JNDI name for each.
B. Use the “compatibility” option of Active GridLink to enable compatibility with non-Oracle databases.
C. Configure a single physical data source for each node in a database cluster and wrap it using Multi Data Source.
D. Configure a Data Source Group that contains a physical connection pool to each node in the database cluster.

Correct Answer: C Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Note:
*
A multi data source can be thought of as a pool of data sources. Multi data sources are best used for failover or load balancing between nodes of a highly available database system, such as redundant databases or Oracle Real Application Clusters (Oracle RAC).

*
(not B) A single GridLink data source provides connectivity between WebLogic Server and an Oracle Database service, which may include multiple Oracle RAC clusters

*
High Availability Storage Solutions
If you have applications that need access to persistent stores that reside on remote machines after the migration of a JMS server or JTA transaction log, then you should implement one of the following highly-available storage solutions:
/ File-based stores (default or custom)–Implement a hardware solution, such as a dual-ported SCSI disk or Storage Area Network (SAN) to make a file store available from shareable disks or remote machines.
/ JDBC-accessible stores–Configure a JDBC store or JDBC TLOG store and use JDBC to access this store, which can be on yet another server. Applications can then take advantage of any high-availability or failover solutions offered by your database vendor. In addition, JDBC stores support GridLink data sources and multi data sources, which provide failover between nodes of a highly available database system, such as Oracle Real Application Clusters (Oracle RAC).
Reference: Oracle Fusion Middleware Configuring Server Environments for Oracle WebLogic Server 12c, High Availability Storage Solutions
QUESTION 20
Which feature is enabled when you start a WebLogic server with the DserverType=wlx option?
A. JDBC
B. JCA
C. JMS
D. EJB
E. Java EE

Correct Answer: A Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
-DserverType={“wls” | “wlx”}
Specifies the Server Type, which determines the set of services that are started in the server runtime.
The default is “wls”, which starts all WebLogic Server services, including EJB, JMS, Connector, Clustering, Deployment, and Management.
The “wlx” option starts a server instance that excludes the following services, making for a lighter weight runtime footprint:
*
(not D) Enterprise JavaBeans (EJB)

*
(not B, not E) Java EE Connecter Architecture (JCA)

*
(not C) Java Message Service (JMS)
Reference: Oracle Fusion Middleware Command Reference for Oracle WebLogic Server , Options for Configuring Deployment Attributes
QUESTION 21
Identify three unique integration features of Spring and WebLogic Server.
A. ability to automatically convert Spring application to JavaEE 6 framework
B. ability to export the WebLogic Container feature to another Spring enabled JavaEE server.
C. ability to extend the WebLogic Server console with some Spring-related pages
D. official support of Spring apps inside WebLogic by Oracle Support
E. support for injection of WebLogic MBeans and Resources into Spring applications

Correct Answer: CDE Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
C: Spring Console Extension. WebLogic provides an Admin Console extension for Spring to provide administrators with visual tools for monitoring the Spring parts of deployed applications (first navigate to WebLogic Admin Console’s Preferences | Extension menu option and and enable spring-console). This Spring console extension is basically a set of pages which are added amongst the normal pages of the standard WebLogic admin console, rather than being a separate console per se. The extension provides a view onto the values of the WebLogic generated Spring MBeans
D: If you have an issue, you use the Oracle Support organisation for help with WebLogic specific problems and any Spring parts to your application are treated just like your own custom code is, from an Oracle Support perspective.
E: WebLogic Injected Spring Beans is a Weblogic feature that is enabled by default.
Reference: WebLogic and Spring
QUESTION 22
An application is using WebLogic JMS Store and Forward to forward messages from a local JMS queue a remote WebLogic JMS destination. You need to determine if the messages are being sent from the local Weblogic Server. Where do you find information and metrics about Store and Forward components in the WebLogic Admin Console?
A. JMS Persistent Store
B. JMS Server
C. JMS Distributed Destination
D. JMS Store and Forward
E. Automatic Service Migration

Correct Answer: A Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Note:
* Persistent messages are saved in the persistent store on the sending side until they are successfully forwarded to and acknowledged by the receiving side.
QUESTION 23
You want to use WLST to view metrics for a running domain. Which command should you issue to navigate through the Mbean hierarchy containing the metrics?
A. runtime ()
B. runtimeMbeanServer ()
C. connectRuntime ()
D. beginRuntime ()
E. serverRuntime ()
Correct Answer: E Explanation Explanation/Reference:

Similar to the configuration information, WebLogic Server runtime MBeans are arranged in a hierarchical data structure. When connected to an Administration Server, you access the runtime MBean hierarchy by entering the serverRuntime or the domainRuntime command. The serverRuntime command places WLST at the root of the server runtime management objects, ServerRuntimeMBean; the domainRuntime command, at the root of the domain-wide runtime management objects, DomainRuntimeMBean.
Reference: WebLogic Scripting Tool, Browsing Runtime MBeans
QUESTION 24
Which two statements are true regarding the WebLogic domain?
A. A WebLogic domain can have more than one Administration server.
B. A WebLogic domain has at least one WebLogic server.
C. A WebLogic domain can have at the most one cluster.
D. A WebLogic domain can cross multiple physical machines.
E. Each WebLogic domain is associated with a different Node Manager.

Correct Answer: BD Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
B: A domain consists of one or more WebLogic Server instances (and their associated resources) that you manage with a single Administration Server.
D: In a domain, server instances other than the Administration Server are referred to as Managed Servers. Managed Servers host the components and associated resources that constitute your applications.
Incorrect:
Not A: Each WebLogic Server domain must have one server instance that acts as the Administration
Server.
Not C: A domain can include multiple WebLogic Server clusters and non-clustered WebLogic Server
instances.

Not E: A Node Manager process is not associated with a specific WebLogic domain but with a machine.
You can use the same Node Manager process to control server instances in any WebLogic Server
domain, as long as the server instances reside on the same machine as the Node Manager process. Node
Manager must run on each computer that hosts WebLogic Server instances–whether Administration
Server or Managed Server–that you want to control with Node Manager.

Reference: Overview of WebLogic Server Domains

QUESTION 25
What does the Fast Connection Failover feature of Active GridLink for RAC provide?
A. instant notification of a RAC node failure so applications never have to retry a transaction that was sent to a node that failed during the transaction
B. near-instant notification of the failure of a RAC node failure that minimizes the possibility connection to a failed node being provided to an application
C. application level notification of a failed RAC node such that an application can retry a transaction if required
D. faster failover for Multi Datasources
E. guaranteed transaction high availability when interacting with an Oracle RAC Database

Correct Answer: B Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
*
WebLogic Server supports Fast Connection Failover, a Oracle feature which provides an application independent method to implement RAC event notifications, such a detection and cleanup of invalid connections, load balancing of available connections, and work redistribution on active RAC instances.

*
A GridLink data source uses Fast Connection Failover and responds to Oracle RAC events using ONS. This ensures that the connection pool in the GridLink data source contains valid connections (including reserved connections) without the need to poll and test connections
QUESTION 26
What are the two proper locations of deployment descriptors files inside of archives deployed to WebLogic?
A. the WEB-INF subdirectory for a WAR file
B. the META-INF subdirectory for an EAR file, or EJB-JAR
C. the DD-INF subdirectory
D. the root of archive
E. any searchable location

Correct Answer: AB Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
A:
*
The WEB-INF directory contains the deployment descriptors for the Web application (web.xml and weblogic.xml) and two subdirectories for storing compiled Java classes and library JAR files.

*
Web Application – WEB-INF/web.xml ( WEB-INF/weblogic.xml ) The WEB-INF directory is a vital component of your web application. Web application wont run without it.It contains a heirarcy in which you’ll find the necessary configuration information for your web application, and all the class files for your servlets and classes that are called up by your JSPs.
WEB-INF folder contains all the class files for your servlets and classes that are called up by your JSPs
B:
Enterprise Application – META-INF/application.xml (META-INF/weblogic-application.xml) and META-INF/
ejb-jar.xml ( META-INF/weblogic-ejb-jar.xml ) Generally comprises of EJBs. Bussiness Tier of an
application and EJB basically handels the Bussiness logic of application (distributed objects)

META-INF/application.xml containes Mappings and security roles etc.whereas META-INF/ejb- jar.xml containes ejb classes , session beans mapping etc.,
The META-INF directory is related to .jar files, It contains the manifest file which has list of jars.
A context-root setting in application.xml takes precedence over context-root setting in weblogic.xml (The context root of a web application determines which URLs weblogic will delegate to your web application.
Note:
* Deployment descriptors are xml documents that describe runtime behaviour for the deployment unit. The XML file contains information such as the context root of the web application and the mapping of the portable names of an application’s resources to the application Server’s resources
QUESTION 27
You completed the development of a new application and want to create a new domain in a new
environment for functional testing. You want to have the same settings for your new domain as your old
domain, with the option of changing the configuration in the new target environment.
Which two actions should you execute?

A. Use the introspect () command in WLST to gather the configuration information from the original domain.
B. Use pack/unpack to transfer the domain from one machine to another.
C. Create a domain template from the original domain using the Domain Template Builder and use the Configuration Wizard to create a new domain from the template.
D. Use the Admin Console of the original domain to create a domain template from the original domain and use the Configuration Wizard to create a new domain from the template.

Correct Answer: C Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Using the Domain Template Builder to Create Domain Templates
To create a domain, start the Configuration Wizard and choose a domain configuration template.
Reference: Creating and Configuring Domains Using the Configuration Wizard
QUESTION 28
You want to capture WebLogic internal events correlated with JVM events for viewing offline. What three actions must you take to enable this within WebLogic?
A. Run WebLogic in a JRockit JVM and ensure the Flight Recorder is enabled.
B. Configure the WebLogic Diagnostic Framework Event Volume to Low, Medium, or High depending on the type of events you want to capture.
C. Configure the WebLogic Diagnostic Framework bridge to send events to the JRockit Flight Recording.
D. Take a dump from the default recording or create a new recording for the time period you want to capture.

Correct Answer: ABD Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
A: You can enable JFR at runtime to take JRA recordings from the JRockit Management Console. You also have the option of turning off the JFR and recordings at the JRockit JVM level from the java command line using:
$ java -XX:-FlightRecorder
B:

*
In most environments, there is little performance impact when the Diagnostic Volume is set to Low and
the most performance impact if Diagnostic Volume is set to High. The volume of diagnostic data produced
by WebLogic Server needs to be weighed against potential performance loss.
*
WLDF provides the Diagnostic Volume attribute to set the amount of code coverage that is enabled and
the amount of data provided in the events that are generated for the covered code The following code
example sets the volume to Medium:
. . .
connect()
edit()
startEdit()
cd(“Servers/myserver”)
cd(“ServerDiagnosticConfig”)
cd(“myserver”)
cmo.setWLDFDiagnosticVolume(“Medium”)
save()
activate()

D: Integrated with the WebLogic Diagnostic Image and Watch and Notification system
· Enables capture based on system state, event capture during event; no need to replicate · Watch for
stuck thread count, heap size increase, available memory, etc.
· Set up notifications: capture WLDF image
· Diagnostic image capture spurs JFR file generation; JFR file included in diagnostic image · Includes full
JFR data from all event generators

Note:
* WebLogic Diagnostic Framework (WLDF) provides specific integration points with JRockit Mission Control Flight Recorder. WebLogic Server events are propagated to the Flight Recorder for inclusion in a common data set for runtime or post-incident analysis.
Reference: Oracle Fusion Middleware Performance and Tuning for Oracle WebLogic Server, Tuning WebLogic Diagnostic Framework and JRockit Flight Recorder Integration Reference: JRockit Flight Recorder & WebLogic Diagnostic FrameWork (WLDF) Integration
QUESTION 29
You have a domain that was created and configured with WebLogic 10.3.5. You want to upgrade the domain to use WebLogic 12c. Which Oracle tool must you use to upgrade your domain?
A. Oracle WebLogic Domain Upgrade tool
B. Smart Update
C. Smart Upgrade
D. No tool required, just install WebLogic 12c, update the domain to point to the new WebLogic installation and start your domain.
E. JDeveloper

Correct Answer: D Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Note:
You can use the 12.1.1 WebLogic Upgrade Wizard to upgrade domains created in WebLogic Server 8.1.
You can also use the WebLogic Upgrade Wizard to upgrade a WebLogic domain created in WebLogic
Server 9.x or 10.x to 12.1.1, but this is optional.

QUESTION 30
A customer has a development environment that uses the auto-deployment feature. The customer claims the application is not redeployed even if the new version is copied to an application subdirectory. Which two parameters of the configuration should you check?
A. Check if archive file in the compressed version has a new REDEPLOY file.
B. If server was started in the Development Mode. Auto-deployment is not supported in production mode.
C. If the application includes an EJB 3 module. Auto-deployment is not supported for EJBs.
D. You change JVM from HotSpot to JRockit. Auto-deployment is not supported in HotSpot auto deployment.
E. If the domain is a single-server domain. Auto-deployment is not supported in multiserver domains.

Correct Answer: BE Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Auto-deployment is intended for use with a single server target in a development environment.
Note:
*
If auto-deployment is enabled, when an application is copied into the \autodeploy directory of the Administration Server, the Administration Server detects the presence of the new application and deploys it automatically (if the Administration Server is running). If WebLogic Server is not running when you copy the application to the \autodeploy directory, the application is deployed the next time the WebLogic Server Administration Server is started. Auto-deployment deploys only to the Administration Server.

*
Limitations of Auto-Deployment
Auto-deployed applications are very convenient in a development environment, but there are some limitations: There is no configuration in config.xml for an auto-deployed application. Therefore, in the Administration Console, there are no notes or target pages associated with an auto-deployed application because there is no backing configuration for that information.
You cannot associate an auto-deployed application with a deployment plan since auto-deployed applications do not support any configuration operations which would be reflected in a deployment plan.
You cannot set up security policies or roles for auto-deployed applications.
You cannot undeploy or redeploy auto-deployed applications using WebLogic Server tools.
Reference; Developing Applications for Oracle WebLogic Server 12c, Auto-Deploying Applications in Development Domains
QUESTION 31
Which new key architectural element introduced in WebLogic Server l2c should you take advantage of when designing Disaster Recovery Centers with active – passive mode?
A. MAN Clusters, because they would allow you to synchronously replicate state in low latency networks
B. WAN Clusters, because they would allow you to asynchronously replicate state in nonlow latency networks.
C. Transaction Log in the database, because you could avoid synchronizing two replication technologies (database and file)
D. Data Guard, because it is the most effective way to replicate a state across locations
E. GoldenGate, because it is the most effective way to replicate a state across locations

Correct Answer: E Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
*
Oracle GoldenGate Oracle GoldenGate is Oracle’s strategic product for data distribution and data integration. It is a highperformance software application that uses log-based bidirectional data replication for real- time capture, transformation, routing, and delivery of database transactions across heterogeneous systems.

Note:

*
Oracle Active Data Guard Oracle Active Data Guard 11g is an option of Oracle Database Enterprise Edition that extends basic Data Guard functionality. It allows a physical standby database to be open as read-only while changes are applied to it from the primary database. This increases performance and return on investment by offloading ad-hoc queries, Web-based access, reporting, and backups from the primary database while also providing disaster protection.

*
Disaster recovery (DR) procedures ensure rapid recovery or continuation of a technology infrastructure after a natural or human-induced disaster. Oracle WebLogic Server 12c supports advanced disaster recovery and business continuity. Organizations can store transaction logs in an Oracle database instead of a file system, providing a highly available storage mechanism to improve the speed and reliability of disaster recovery operations. This permits them to utilize Oracle Active Data Guard or Oracle GoldenGate replication technology to move DR state information across data centers. Oracle’s enhanced DR architecture enables more effective recovery scenarios. Support for Oracle Exalogic and Oracle Exadata engineered systems ensures tremendous scalability for IT operations of any size.

*
Oracle WebLogic Server 12c places transaction logs on the database tier to improve the speed, reliability and availability of disaster recovery operations.

QUESTION 32
Integration between _______ multidata sources and _____ is defined as the Grid Link for RAC.
A. Oracle WebLogic Server; Oracle Database
B. Oracle WebLogic Server clusters; Oracle Database
C. Oracle WebLogic Server clusters; Oracle Database RAC
D. Oracle OC4J; Oracle Database RAC
E. Oracle WebLogic Server; Oracle OC4J

Correct Answer: C Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
The WebLogic Server JDBC subsystem has supported Oracle RAC since WLS version 8.1 SP5, originally developed for Oracle9i RAC. This support is based on a particular type of data source configuration, called a multi data source. A multi data source is a data source abstraction over one or more individual data sources. It serves JDBC connections from each of the member data sources according to a specified policy2. A RAC multi data source configuration requires that each member data source obtain connections to a particular RAC instance, as illustrated in the following diagram of a three-node RAC cluster configuration.

Reference: Oracle WebLogic Server Active GridLink for Oracle Real Application Clusters(RAC)
QUESTION 33
An application that needs to use a shared library has a deployment descriptor that only specifies the Specification-Version and Extension-Name of the shared library. When the application is deployed, which shared library will be used?
A. The application will go into an ADMIN state and fail to deploy because the Implementation-Version is required.
B. The application will be deployed but the classes in the shared library will not be available.
C. If you are using the WebLogic Admin Console, you will be prompted for the version you want to use; otherwise, the application will fail to deploy.
D. If there are multiple versions of the shared library deployed, WebLogic will use the one with the highest Implementation-Version.
E. If there are multiple versions of the shared library deployed, WebLogic will use the one that was deployed most recently.

Correct Answer: D Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
An internal application may be configured to always use a minimum version of the same library. Applications that require no specific version can be configured to use the latest version of the library.
Note:
* Specification-Version (a manifest Attributes for Java EE Libraries) An optional String value that defines the specification version of the shared Java EE library. Referencing applications can optionally specify a required Specification-Version for a library; if the exact specification version is not available, deployment of the referencing application fails.
The Specification-Version uses the following format:

Flydumps.com helps millions of candidates pass Oracle 1Z0-599 exams and get the certifications.We have tens of thousands of successful stories.Our dumps are reliable,affordable,updated and of really best quality to overcome the difficulties of any IT certifications.Flydumpsrs.com exam dumps are latest updated in highly outclass manner on regular basis and material is released periodically.Latest Oracle 1Z0-599 are available in testing centers with whom we are maintaining our relationship to get latest material.