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QUESTION NO: 1
Which three permissions can be set at the project level? (Choose three.)
A. planning
B. project and personal dashboards
C. work items
D. process (saving project area changes)
Answer: B,C,D Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 2
What are two classes of work items defined by IBM Rational Team Concert? (Choose two.)
A. archived work item
B. execution work item
C. linked work item
D. master work item
E. plan work item
Answer: B,E Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 3
A company is following the Scrum process template, building a product with multiple releases. What would they use to track the major goals for a specific product release?
A. Product Backlog
B. Release Backlog
C. Release Plan
D. Project Plan
Answer: B Explanation: QUESTION NO: 4
Attribute customization: Which is NOT part of the default categories?
A. Default Values
B. External Values
C. Calculated Values
D. Validates
Answer: B Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 5
A customer expects a work item with an appropriate planned for attribute to show on a team’s iteration plan. Why is the work item most likely missing from the plan view?
A. The work item owner is unassigned.
B. The work item owner is not part of the team owning the plan.
C. The work item Filed Against category is not owned by the team owning the plan.
D. The work item due date is set to a date after the iteration’s end date.
Answer: C Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 6
Which statement is true about Editor Presentations?
A. Editor Presentations can only be customized using the Web interface.
B. Editor Presentations can only be customized using the RTC Eclipse client.
C. The same Editor Presentation modifications can be performed using the Web interface or the RTC Eclipse client.
D. You cannot perform all available customizations in the Web interface, so you must use the RTC Eclipse client to perform some of the customizations.
Answer: D Explanation: QUESTION NO: 7
What are three elements of a process template configuration? (Choose three.)
A. work item types
B. build definitions
C. planning
D. dashboard
Answer: A,C,D Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 8
Which area of activity within a project typically has its own schedule, deliverables, teams, and process?
A. iteration
B. timeline
C. release
D. plan
Answer: B Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 9
The progress bar in an iteration plan fills vertically when all work items are what?
A. estimated
B. complete
C. on schedule
D. active
Answer: A Explanation: QUESTION NO: 10
Roles can be defined at which levels?
A. project only
B. project and team area
C. team only
D. timelines, teams, and projects
Answer: B Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 11
What are two purposes of work item Discussion sections? (Choose two.)
A. to add comments about the work item
B. to notify the reader that a file has been attached to the work item
C. to move the work item to the resolved state
D. to associate a work item with a Release
Answer: A,B Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 12
How do you apply a process template?
A. File >Import > Plug-ins and Fragments and then File > New > Project referencing the imported process template
B. File > Import > Process Template and then File > New > Project Area referencing the imported process template
C. File > Import > File System and then File > New > Project Area referencing the imported file system
D. File > Export > Process Template and then File > New > Project referencing the imported process template
Answer: B

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QUESTION 1
What is a primary competitive advantage of Rulerunner Service?
A. Actions only return TRUE or FALSE.
B. It is decoupled from Taskmaster so it can be used with other applications.
C. It is the only capture product with claims of being rule driven.
D. It is open source.

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 2
Which of the following is TRUE?
A. Taskmaster Server pushes work to machines dedicated to a specific task.
B. Taskmaster clients ask Taskmaster server if there is any work to be done.
C. Only one Taskmaster client may perform a given Task.
D. Batch routing depends on the Taskmaster server configuration.

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 3
The two main databases serviced by Taskmaster Server are called:
A. Alpha and Beta.
B. Test and Production.
C. Maintenance and Security.
D. Admin and Engine.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 4
“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – 2 IBM 000-M93: Practice Exam A different workflow must be used when .
A. images come from different sources
B. there is more than one verify operator involved
C. the underlying data structure for the batch is different
D. there is a mult-processor Rulerunner station involved

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 5
Document Separator Sheets are an example of using which types of Page Identification?
A. Position and OCR.
B. OCR and Pattern Match.
C. Pattern Match and Intellocate.
D. Barcodes and Position.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 6
Quattro is:
A. an alternative to using VMWare clients.

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QUESTION NO: 1

With workload management, an Administrator can set aside S-Blades to be used exclusively with a given database?
A. 1
B. 2
C. all

D. 0
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 2
Which of the following is TRUE about the GROOM TABLE command?
A. You must first run the nzstop command as the nz user from the host command line.
B. GROOM can materialize the results of previous ALTER TABLE ADD/DROP column commands.
C. The table being groomed will be locked exclusively during the groom operation.
D. GROOM is an administrative command that must be run by a DBA.
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 3
Which of the following statements about Netezza privileges is NOT true?
A. Privileges are additiveou cannot remove a privilege from a user who has been granted that privilege as a member of a group.
B. Object owners automatically have full access to their objects.
C. Users with privileges on an object can pass that object to others by default.
D. By default, newly created objects have no privileges associated with them.
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 4

Which of the following statements can be used to create a temporary table?
A. SELECT INTO #TEMPTABLE col1, col2 FROM MYTABLE;
B. CREATE TEMP TABLE AS TEMPTABLE SELECT col1, col2 FROM MYTABLE;
C. CREATE TEMPORARY TABLE MYTABLE SAMEAS MYOTHERTABLE;
D. None of the above.
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 5
Is it CORRECT that if a table is distributed randomly, ZoneMaps are not used?
A. ZoneMaps are not used at all.
B. ZoneMaps are used in the exact same way as in any other distribution.
C. ZoneMaps are used only when statistics are not up to date.
D. None of the above.
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 6
Which of the following statements about external tables is NOT accurate?
A. Querying external tables is about the same speed as querying normal tables.
B. Loading data via external tables is about the same speed as using the native nzload utility.
C. External tables can be used to load remote data files via an ODBC or JDBC connection.
D. External tables can be used to load or unload data from Netezza.
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 7

Which of the following is NOT true of the GENERATE STATISTICS command?
A. The only difference between EXPRESS and FULL statistics is how dispersion is calculated.
B. The user can specify whether FULL or EXPRESS statistics are calculated.
C. ZoneMaps are disabled for the duration of the GENERATE STATISTICS command.
D. It requires specific permissions.
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 8
Which of the following options best completes this statement? When a query is compiled, .
A. exactly one snippet is generated representing the entire query
B. one snippet is generated for each join within the query
C. the number of snippets generated depends on a number of factors, including the complexity of the query
D. one snippet is generated for each TB of data scanned
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 9
Which of the following is MOST TRUE of how Netezza stores data?
A. Netezza is a columnar database.
B. Netezza is a row-based database.
C. Netezza uses a form of columnar compression, but stores data in a row-based format.
D. Netezza stores data in a format determined by ZoneMaps.
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 10

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QUESTION NO: 1
Which CREATE DATABASE attributes are required?
A. The database name.
B. The database name and the redo log file name.
C. The database name and the table space name.
D. The database name and the temporary table space name.
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 2
Which statement is true for database users and groups?
A. All users must belong to admin group.
B. Creation of users and groups is not allowed.
C. Users and groups are local and tied to a particular database.
D. Users and groups are global and not tied to a particular database.
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 3
What is the maximum number of columns you can choose as organizing keys for clustered base table?

A. 1
B. 2
C. 4
D. 8
Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 4

Which two characteristics describe the materialized view on TwinFin. (Choose two.)
A. Materialized views can contain aggregates.
B. Materialized views can contain a HAVING clause.
C. Materialized views can contain a WHERE clause.
D. Materialized views can contain an ORDER BY clause.
E. Materialized views can reference only one base table in the FROM clause.
Answer: D,E
QUESTION NO: 5
Which statement is true regarding any database user?
A. The user has a table space defined.
B. The user can be assigned to more than one group.
C. The user must have a corresponding host account.
D. The user can be removed from the default PUBLIC group.
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 6
When working with sequences, which of the following statements will always be
true?

A. One-up numbers are generated.
B. Integers (whole numbers) are generated.
C. The first value generated is the number 1.
D. The sequence number assigned will be unique across all tables and databases.
Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 7
When are zonemaps initially created for a table?
A. nzbackup
B. nzreclaim
C. CREATE TABLE
D. ALTER TABLE ADD ZONEMAPS
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 8
Columns in a table may be zonemapped. How are those columns chosen?
A. They are automatically selected by the system.
B. They are based on the same columns as the table’s distribution key.
C. They are added via the ALTER TABLE ADD INDEX(column_name) statement.
D. They are added via the ALTER TABLE ADD ZONEMAP(column_name) statement.
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 9
Which clause CANNOT be used with a CREATE VIEW statement?
A. SUM ()
B. GROUP BY
C. ORDER BY
D. OUTER JOIN
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 10
What is a characteristic of a column that is based on the TIMESTAMP datatype?
A. It includes a date portion.
B. It includes a timezone offset.
C. The value is reevaluated each time the row is selected.
D. The value is initially assigned when the row is first created. Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 11
When creating a table, you can specify a column constraint for each individual column of either “NULL” or “NOT NULL”. When column values are later evaluated within a query statement, which of these is true?
A. 0 is equal to null, the empty string ( ” ) is equal to null.
B. 0 is equal to null, the empty string ( ” ) is not equal to null.
C. 0 is not equal to null, the empty string ( ” ) is equal to null.
D. 0 is not equal to null, the empty string ( ” ) is not equal to null.
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 12
After performing a GROOM on a clustered base table, which statement is true?
A. The table is redistributed on the ORGANIZE ON clause.
B. The table is reorganized on the ORGANIZE ON clause.
C. The table is reorganized on the DISTRIBUTE ON clause.
D. The table is redistributed on the DISTRIBUTE ON clause.
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 13
Which two statistical data points are automatically updated when performing an INSERT on a table? (Choose two.)
A. The number of rows in the table.
B. The column histogram statistics.
C. The number of NULLs in each column.
D. The number of unique values in each column.
E. The minimum and maximum column value information (excluding text columns).
Answer: A,E
QUESTION NO: 14
Using a date column as a distribution key may distribute rows evenly across dataslices, why is this a poor choice of a distribution key?
A. Queries on the table will invoke compression.
B. Queries on date range may involve processing skew.
C. Queries on date range will utilize only host processing.
D. Queries on the table will invoke compression on the date columns.
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 15
Why should you avoid using Boolean data types as a distribution key for a table ?
A. Table will not join.
B. Table will not broadcast.
C. Table is likely to be skewed.
D. Table is likely to be evenly spread across data slices.
Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 16
Which statement about the TwinFin Groom feature is true?
A. GROOM TABLE requires space to make a complete copy of the table.
B. GROOM TABLE only operates on tables that include an ORGANIZE ON clause.
C. GROOM TABLE prevents nzload from adding data while GROOM is in progress.
D. GROOM TABLE allows UPDATE, DELETE, and INSERT operations to occur while GROOM is in progress.
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 17
What should be considered when you are asked to select the distribution key columns for a very large fact table?
A. As many columns as possible.
B. Columns that contain many nulls.
C. Columns that contain few unique values.
D. Columns used to join to other large tables.
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 18
What is the raw user data space available on a TwinFin 24?
A. 24TB
B. 48TB
C. 64TB
D. 100TB
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 19
What is the TwinFin host Linux file that must be modified to adjust optimizer settings permanently?
A. /nz/data/postgresql.conf
B. /nz/data/config/system.cfg
C. /nz/kit/sys/initTopology.cfg
D. /nz/kit/log/sysmgr/sysmgr.log
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 20
Click on the exhibit.

Given the following query:
SELECT * FROM TableA, TableB WHERE TableA.c_custkey = TableB.o_custkey;

What type of join processing will occur when the query is executed?

A. Collocation hash join processing
B. Distributed hash join processing
C. Broadcast sort merge join processing
D. Replication sort merge join processing Answer: A

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Question No : 1
A developer needs to create a user-defined function that will return a list of employees who work in a particular department. Which statement will successfully create a function that meets this objective?
A. CREATE FUNCTION dept_employees (deptno CHAR(3)) RETURNS TABLE LANGUAGE SQL READS SQL DATA RETURN SELECT empno, lastname AS l_name, firstnme AS f_name FROM employee WHERE employee.workdept = dept_employees.deptno
B. CREATE FUNCTION dept_employees (deptno CHAR(3)) RETURNS TABLE DYNAMIC RESULT SETS 1 LANGUAGE SQL READS SQL DATA DECLARE emp_info CURSOR WITH RETURN FOR SELECT empno, lastname AS l_name, firstnme AS f_name FROM employee WHERE employee.workdept = dept_employees.deptno OPEN emp_info; RETURN
C. CREATE FUNCTION dept_employees (deptno CHAR(3)) RETURNS TABLE (empno CHAR(6), l_name VARCHAR(15), f_name VARCHAR(12)) LANGUAGE SQL READS SQL DATA RETURN SELECT empno, lastname AS l_name, firstnme AS f_name FROM employee WHERE employee.workdept = dept_employees.deptno
D. CREATE FUNCTION dept_employees (deptno CHAR(3)) RETURNS TABLE (empno CHAR(6), l_name VARCHAR(15), f_name VARCHAR(12)) DYNAMIC RESULT SETS 1 LANGUAGE SQL READS SQL DATA DECLARE emp_info CURSOR WITH RETURN FOR SELECT empno, lastname AS l_name, firstnme AS f_name FROM employee WHERE employee.workdept = dept_employees.deptno OPEN emp_info; RETURN
Answer: C
Explanation:
Question No : 2
In the function shown below:

Which statement can be used to invoke the function above?
A. SELECT * FROM TABLE(fcn1(‘B01’))
B. SELECT TABLE(fcn1(‘B01’)) FROM SYSIBM.SYSDUMMY1
C. SELECT * FROM fcn1(‘B01’)
D. SELECT fcn1(‘B01’) FROM SYSIBM.SYSDUMMY1
Answer: A
Explanation:
Question No : 3
Which statement correctly describes characteristics of external functions?
A. External functions cannot return tables.
B. All cursors opened within an external function should stay open until the database is quiesced.
C. Scratchpads can be used to allocate dynamic memory required for multiple function invocations.
D. Transactions can be terminated within external functions.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Question No : 4
Click the Exhibit button.
Referring to the exhibit, how many rows will be returned by the SQL query shown below? SELECT * FROM TABLE(getnumemployee(21?) AS dSELECT * FROM TABLE(getnumemployee(?21?) AS d

A. 0
B. 1
C. 7
D. 10
Answer: C
Explanation:
Question No : 5
Which three optional clauses can be used when creating an external function? (Choose three.)

A. SCRATCHPAD
B. NOTEPAD
C. LANGUAGE
D. EXTERNAL NAME
E. DATABASEINFO
Answer: A,C,D
Explanation:
Question No : 6
Which statement is permitted within a scalar user-defined function body?
A. COMMIT
B. INSERT
C. SIGNAL
D. LOOP
Answer: C
Explanation: Question No : 7
Click the Exhibit button.

A user-defined function was created using the statement shown in the exhibit. Which additional option can be added to the CREATE FUNCTION statement to tell the optimizer that the function does not always return the same results for a given argument value?
A. NO EXTERNAL ACTION
B. NOT FENCED
C. NOT DETERMINISTIC

D. STATIC DISPATCH
Answer: C
Explanation:
Question No : 8
Given the following SQL: Which statement is incorrect?

A. The procedure declaration requires the DYNAMIC RESULT SETS 1 clause in order to return a result set.
B. The cursor declaration requires the WITH RETURN TO CLIENT clause in order to return a result set.
C. The cursor declaration requires the WITH RETURN TO CALLER clause in order to return a result set.
D. The cursor declaration requires the WITH RETURN clause in order to return a result set.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Question No : 9
Given the following SQL:

Which of the following statements is true?
A. The procedure declaration requires the DYNAMIC RESULT SETS 1 clause in order to return a result set.
B. The cursor declaration requires WITH RETURN TO CLIENT clause in order to return a result set.
C. The cursor declaration requires WITH RETURN TO CALLER clause in order to return a result set.
D. The cursor declaration requires WITH RETURN clause in order to return a result set.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Question No : 10
In the stored procedure below:

What will the value of the P_ID parameter be if the procedure is invoked and a value of 2 is specified for the START_VALUE parameter?

A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer: C
Explanation:
Question No : 11
Which procedure demonstrates the correct use of dynamic SQL?
A. CREATE PROCEDURE update_count1 (IN new_count INTEGER, IN item_code
INTEGER)
BEGIN
DECLARE v_dynSQL VARCHAR(200);
SET v_dynSQL = ‘UPDATE stock SET quantity_on_hand=? WHERE item_number=?’;
PREPARE v_stmt1 FROM v_dynSQL;
EXECUTE v_stmt1 USING new_count, item_code;
END

B. CREATE PROCEDURE update_count2 (IN tab_name VARCHAR(128), IN new_count
INTEGER, IN item_code INTEGER)
BEGIN
DECLARE v_dynSQL VARCHAR(200);
SET v_dynSQL = ‘UPDATE ? SET quantity_on_hand=? WHERE item_number=?’;
PREPARE v_stmt1 FROM v_dynSQL;
EXECUTE v_stmt1 USING tab_name, new_count, item_code;
END

C. CREATE PROCEDURE update_count4 (IN tab_name VARCHAR(128), IN col_name1
VARCHAR(128), IN col_name2 VARCHAR(128), IN
new_count INTEGER, IN item_code INTEGER)
BEGIN
DECLARE v_dynSQL VARCHAR(200);
SET v_dynSQL = ‘UPDATE ? SET ?=? WHERE ?=?’;
PREPARE v_stmt1 FROM v_dynSQL;
EXECUTE v_stmt1 USING tab_name, col_name1, new_count, col_name2, item_code;
END

D. CREATE PROCEDURE update_count5 (IN new_count INTEGER, IN item_code
INTEGER)
BEGIN
DECLARE v_dynSQL VARCHAR(200);
DECLARE v_col_name VARCHAR(128);
SET v_col_name = ‘item_number’;
SET v_dynSQL = ‘UPDATE stock SET quantity_on_hand=? WHERE ?=?’;
PREPARE v_stmt1 FROM v_dynSQL;
EXECUTE v_stmt1 USING new_count, v_col_name, item_code;
END

Answer: A
Explanation:
Question No : 12
A developer wants to code the following statements in an SQL procedure:

What order must these statements be coded in?

A. 1, 2, 3, 4
B. 2, 4, 3, 1
C. 3, 4, 2, 1
D. 4, 3, 2, 1
Answer: B
Explanation:
Question No : 13
What is a reason to use SQL procedures in DB2?
A. to use different programming languages
B. to reduce code sharing
C. to move business logic rules into the database
D. to eliminate the need for testing
Answer: C
Explanation:
Question No : 14
Which SQL procedure declaration is coded correctly?
A. CREATE PROCEDURE myproc(IN salary DOUBLE, OUT commission DOUBLE)
BEGIN
DECLARE EXIT HANDLER FOR SQLEXCEPTION
SET commission = 0;
DECLARE my_cur CURSOR FOR SELECT * FROM employee;
DECLARE a DOUBLE;
SET a = .06 * salary;
SET commission = a;
END

B. CREATE PROCEDURE myproc(IN salary DOUBLE, OUT commission DOUBLE)
BEGIN
DECLARE EXIT HANDLER FOR SQLEXCEPTION
SET commission = 0;
DECLARE a DOUBLE;
DECLARE my_cur CURSOR FOR SELECT * FROM employee;
SET a = .06 * salary;
SET commission = a;
END

C. CREATE PROCEDURE myproc(IN salary DOUBLE, OUT commission DOUBLE)
BEGIN
DECLARE a DOUBLE;
DECLARE EXIT HANDLER FOR SQLEXCEPTION
SET commission = 0;
DECLARE my_cur CURSOR FOR SELECT * FROM employee;
SET a = .06 * salary;
SET commission = a;
END

D. CREATE PROCEDURE myproc(IN salary DOUBLE, OUT commission DOUBLE)
BEGIN
DECLARE a DOUBLE;
DECLARE my_cur CURSOR FOR SELECT * FROM employee;
DECLARE EXIT HANDLER FOR SQLEXCEPTION
SET commission = 0;
SET a = .06 * salary;
SET commission = a;
END

Answer: D
Explanation:
Question No : 15
The CREATE PROCEDURE statement shown below was executed against a database
called MYDB.
CREATE PROCEDURE myschema.proc1(IN p1 INTEGER, OUT p2 CHAR(4), OUT p3 SMALLINT)
BEGIN
SET p2 = ‘abc’;
END
Which two CREATE PROCEDURE statements, when executed against the same database, will succeed? (Choose two.)
A. CREATE PROCEDURE myschema.proc1(IN p1 CHAR(4), OUT p2 INTEGER)
BEGIN
SET p2 = 123;
END

B. CREATE PROCEDURE myschema.proc1(IN p1 INTEGER, OUT p2 CHAR(4), OUT p3
CHAR(4))
BEGIN
SET p2 = ‘abc’;
END

C. CREATE PROCEDURE myschema.proc1(IN p1 CHAR(4), OUT p2 INTEGER, OUT p3
SMALLINT)
BEGIN
SET p2 = 123;
END

D. CREATE PROCEDURE otherschema.proc1(IN p1 CHAR(4), OUT p2 CHAR(4), OUT p3
CHAR(4))
BEGIN
SET p2 = ‘abc’;
END

E. CREATE PROCEDURE myschema.proc1(IN p1 NUMBER, OUT p2 NUMBER, OUT p3
NUMBER)
BEGIN
SET p2 = ‘abc’;
END

Answer: A,D
Explanation:
Question No : 16
If this statement was used to create an SQL procedure named P_EXIT:

What will the return status be?

A. 10
B. 20
C. 99
D. NULL
Answer: C
Explanation:
Question No : 17
The CREATE OR REPLACE PROCEDURE statement is similar semantically to which of the following combined statements?
A. DROP and CREATE PROCEDURE
B. ALTER and CREATE PROCEDURE
C. UPDATE and CREATE PROCEDURE
D. DROP and ALTER PROCEDURE
Answer: A
Explanation:
Question No : 18
Given the two SQL procedures shown below:

What is the expected output if procedure S1 is invoked with the value 1 provided for parameter V1?

A. NULL
B. 2
C. 5
D. 7
Answer: D
Explanation:
Question No : 19
Which CREATE PROCEDURE statement option should be used if you plan on issuing a DECLARE GLOBAL TEMPORARY TABLE statement from within the SQL procedure body?

A. CONTAINS SQL
B. READS SQL DATA
C. MODIFIES SQL DATA
D. LANGUAGE SQL
Answer: C
Explanation: Question No : 20
Click on the Exhibit button.

Referring to the exhibit, what is the OUT_PHONENUMBERS result set when the SQL
procedure is invoked by the call statement shown below?
CALL find_customers(ARRAY[?16-305-3745?
?05-416-4565?
?16-305-3746?
‘905-414-4566′],
?16??)

A. [?16-305-3745??05-416-4565? ?16-305-3746’]
B. [?16-305-3745??05-416-4565? ?16-305-3746? ‘905-414-4566’]

C. [?05-416-4565? ‘905-414-4566’]
D. [?16-305-3745? ?16-305-3746[?16-305-3745? ?16-305-3746?
Answer: D
Explanation:
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QUESTION NO: 1
Which attributes must be defined as query fields for a query to be available to a correlation alert?
A. Text and Boolean
B. Numeric and Text
C. Date and Count
D. Boolean and Numeric
Answer: C Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 2
How does Application End User Translation determine the correct application user?
A. Uses Client MAC Address to determine Client IP.
B. Imports LDAP and matches Client IP address with Application User name.
C. Guesses the correct application user by comparing session time to / from the database server.
D. Integrates with Enterprise Business Application to deterministically capture application user name.
Answer: D Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 3
Which sizing statement is correct?
A. Sizing the number of aggregators required is based directly on database server PVU counts.
B. When sizing the number of collectors for a Data-Level Access Control (S-GATE), special sizing considerations are required for performancereasons.
C. When sizing the number of physical collectors for a Data Activity Monitoring, you need to calculate sizing based on the number of virtualappliances plus 50%.
D. When sizing the number of virtual collectors for a Data Activity Monitoring, you need to calculate sizing based on the number of physicalappliances plus 300%.

Answer: B Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 4
A customer is deploying InfoSphere Guardium for Data Activity Monitoring (DAM) & Data Level Access Control (DLAC). They are not sure where to locate their collector appliances with respect to the database server that needs to be monitored & protected. Which response is correct?
A. The collectors can be located anywhere on the network.
B. The collectors should be located in the same data center the database servers they monitor & protect reside.
C. The S-TAP must reside in the same data center the databases servers are at but the collectors can be anywhere.
D. The collectors and aggregators need to reside in the same location regardless of were the database servers reside.
Answer: B Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 5
Which statement represents redundancy/contingency options on collectors?
A. Collectors can automatically fail over between aggregators.
B. Collectors can be configured with dual management ethernet ports.
C. Collector databases can be configured to perform real time synch with other collectors.
D. Collectors can be configured with a heartbeat allowing fail over between two collectors.
Answer: B Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 6
Which Guardium appliance cannot be a standalone unit?
A. S-TAP
B. Collector

C. Aggregator
D. Central manager
Answer: D Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 7
When building a Virtual Appliance there memory recommendations (RAM) that need to be taken into account. What is the present maximum memory limit for such an appliance in Giga Bytes (GB)?
A. There is no maximum limit
B. Maximum 16 GB of memory
C. Maximum 18 GB of memory
D. Maximum 24 GB of memory
Answer: B Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 8
Guardium GUI can be customized to meet a number of unique customer requirements. What should be done In order to add one tab (or pane) at the highest level?
A. Select the “i” icon and then “Add Pane”.
B. Select “Quick Start” and then “Add Pane”.
C. Select “tools -> customize GUI” from the admin console.
D. Select “Customize -> Add Pane” in the upper right hand portion of the GUI.
Answer: D Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 9
Which command sets the eth0 network IP address to 192.168.1.54?
A. store network ip 0 192.168.1.54

B. store network resolver 1 192.168.1.54
C. store network interface ip 192.168.1.54
D. store network routes static 192.168.1.54
Answer: C Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 10
Which statement will create an inspection engine for an Oracle database on host 10.10.9.57?
A. grdapi create_stap_inspection_engine stapHost=10.10.9.57 protocol=Sybase portMin=4200 portMax=4200 client=0.0.0.0/0.0.0.0 ktapDbPort=4200
B. grdapi create_stap_inspection_engine stapHost=10.10.9.57 protocol=Oracle portMin=1521 portMax=1521 dbInstallDir=/usr/lib/oracle procName=/usr/lib/oracle/app/oracle/product/10.2.0/server/bin/oracle client=0.0.0.0/0.0.0.0 ktapDbPort=1521
C. grdapi create_stap_inspection_engine stapHost=10.10.9.59 protocol=Oracle portMin=1521 portMax=1521 dbInstallDir=/usr/lib/oracle procName=/usr/lib/oracle/app/oracle/product/10.2.0/server/bin/oracle client=0.0.0.0/0.0.0.0 ktapDbPort=1521
D. grdapi create_stap_inspection_engine stapHost=10.10.9.57 protocol=DB2 portMin=50001 portMax=50001 dbInstallDir=/home/db2inst2 procName=/home/db2inst2/sqllib/adm/db2sysc client=0.0.0.0/0.0.0.0 db2SharedMemAdjustment=20 db2SharedMemClientPosition=61440 db2SharedMemSize=131072 ktapDbPort=50001
Answer: B Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 11
How can you find the help documents within the Guardium GUI?
A. by selecting the “about” link in the upper right hand of the screen
B. by selecting the “?” to the right of the Portal Map icon
C. by selecting the “tools-> help” from the admin console
D. by selecting the magnifying glass icon in the upper right hand of the screen
Answer: B Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 12
There are various considerations when sizing the number of appliances required to support a customer environment.
What represents the BASIC unit of measurement used to calculate the initial number of Collectors required for a scope of Data Activity Monitoring (DAM) in a Mainframe environment?
A. VU (Value Unit)
B. NTV (Network Traffic Volume)
C. DTA (Database Traffic Volume)
D. TSA (Technical Specification Assumptions)
Answer: A

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QUESTION NO: 1

Which function is unique to the DS8000 within the following IBM disk storage products: DS8000, XIV, Storwize V7000?
A. Native encryption
B. Support for SSDs
C. Support for large form factor drives
D. Support for native Fibre Channel connections
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 2
Which tool can a customer use without assistance to determine whether a mixture of different disk types, in conjunction with Easy Tier, could improve performance on a DS8000?
A. Disk Magic
B. Capacity Magic
C. Pre-Sales Advisor
D. Storage Tier Advisor
Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 3
Which of the following statements about remote replication on the D38000 is true?
A. Global Copy does not provide consistency
B. Global Mirror has a maximum of 256 volumes
C. Metro Mirror’s longest supported distance is 100 kilometers
D. Metro/Global Mirror can only be used for z/OS data
Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 4
What is the set of databases where objects can be accessed by sending SNMP get or set requests?
A. SNMP MIB
B. SNMPDTB
C. SNMP SET/GET
D. SNMP notifications
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 5
Which of the following statements regarding the DSS000 Metro Mirror consistency group function is true?
A. Metro Mirror consistency groups are not required to maintain data consistency across devices in a disaster situation.
B. Simply enabling the Metro Mirror consistency group function on a PPRC path will provide consistency for all devices in this LSS.
C. The consistency group functionality requires external automation such as Tivoli Storage Productivity Center V5.x or GDPS to work correctly.
D. A Metro Mirror consistency group must be contained within a single primary disk subsystem.
Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 6
What is the standard topology for volume relationships in a DS8000 Global Mirror environment?
A. Volume 1 is in a Global Mirror relationship with Volume 2.
B. Volume 1 is in a Global Copy relationship with Volume 2. Volume 2 is in a FlashCopy relationship with Volume 3. Volume 1 and Volume 2 are also defined in the Global Mirror session.
C. Volume 1 is in a Global Copy relationship with Volume 2. Volume 2 is in a FlashCopy relationship with Volume 3. Volume 1 is also defined in a Global Mirror session.
D. Volume 1 is in a Metro Mirror relationship with Volume 2. Volume 2 is in a FlashCopy relationship with Volume 3.

Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 7
A D38870 administrator would access the GUI using:
A. The POWER7 controller
B. A browser
C. Only the HMC
D. A thick client
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 8
A customer wants to be sure that all the volumes and LUNs associated with a program are copied at a consistent point in time.
Which disaster recovery function does the DS8000 support that this customer wishes to focus on?
A. Consistency Groups
B. Global Copy
C. FlashCopy Manager
D. Volume Copy
Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 9
Which of the following is true regarding Extent Pools on a D38000?
A. A Fixed Block LUN can span multiple Extent Pools.
B. A Fixed Block LUN can have extents from separate ranks within the same Extent Pool.
C. A Count Key Data Volume can span multiple Extent Pools.

D. A Count Key Data Volume cannot have extents from separate ranks within the same Extent Pool.
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 10
A customer wants to place some HDDs in a DS8870. The customer also wants to enable Easy Tier with SSD for all HDDs, but wants to minimize the amount of SSDs purchased.
Which option would be valid?
A. SSDs come in half drive sets (8 drives). Purchasing a single half drive set, if configured properly, would enable all the HDDs to be in an Easy Tier pool at the lowest cost.
B. SDDs come in full drive sets (16 drives). Purchasing a single full drive set, if configured properly, would enable all the HDDs to be in an Easy Tier pool at the lowest cost.
C. IBM never recommends less than 50% of the configured drives be SSD, so the customer should match the number of HDDs with the same number of SSDs.
D. IBM recommends a 2:1 ratio of HDDs to SSDs, so the customer should purchase half the number of SSDs compared to the number of HDDs purchased.
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 11
When I/O Priority Manager is enabled, each volume in a D38800 is assigned to a performance group at the time of the volume creation.
What action will the DS8800 take to ensure that the most important volumes as defined to I/O Priority Manager receive the highest level of system resources available?
A. delay I/Os with lower performance policies
B. invoke Easy Tier for higher performance policy I/Os
C. move volumes with higher performance policy I/Os to faster disks or SSDS
D. allocate additional cache for volumes with higher performance policies
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 12

What statement is correct regarding DS8870 Remote Pair FlashCopy?
A. D38700 Remote PairFlashCopyis initiated using IP network links between the data centers.
B. Using DS8870 Remote PairFlashCopydoes not require any existing Metro Mirror license.
C. With DS8870 Remote Pair FlashCopy, the local FlashCopy target is a Metro Mirror source.
D. DS8870 Remote Pair FlashCopy is a separate feature code, which must be included on the system order.
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 13
The output of what tool is used as input to Disk Magic to most accurately model a Windows host that will be used with an IBM D38000?
A. Jetstress
B. Perimon
C. IOSTAT
D. NMON
Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 14
On the DS8870, which of the following drive options is a valid Easy Tier hybrid pool?
A. SLO and eMLO SSDs
B. eMLO SSDs and 5,400 RPM drives
C. 7,200 RPM drives
D. 15,000 RPM and 7,200 RPM drives
Answer: D QUESTION NO: 15
A potential DS8OIJO customer would like to understand the size of the non-volatile storage (NVS) as compared to the overall size of the DS8000 processor memory.
Which technical feedback to the customer is correct?
A. NVS size is 4 GB for all cache sizes up to 64 GB. and 16 GB for all overall cache sizes over 64 GB
B. NVS size is a part of the SARC algorithm and adapts automatically depending on the actual workload of the customer
C. NVS size can be adjusted according to customer demand using the CLI
D. NVS size is 1/32 scale (in minimum 1 GB) of the overall processor memory
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 16
As the result of a performance sizing a D38870 system configuration must include 96 x 600 GB 10000 rpm SAS drives, and only 32 GB cache.
Which DS8870 system version should to be offered?
A. DS8870 business class configuration including 4 core processors
B. DS8870 enterprise class configuration including 2 core processors
C. DS8870 enterprise class configuration including 4 core processors
D. DS8870 business class configuration including 2 core processors
Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 17
A customer is looking to open a new data center and has asked about raised floor requirements to accommodate cabling for the DS8870.

What is the correct response?
A. D38870 power cables can only be connected under the floor as DS8870 always requires a raised floor for cooling purposes
B. Only a DS8870 with business class cabling can have top exit power cables
C. An RPQ is needed to allow top exit cabling for a DSSSJO with any expansion frames
D. There is a feature which allows power and EC cables to exit from the top of the DSSS7O frames
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 18
A customer has a DS8000 with 100 TB raw capacity’ installed and running in their data center. All storage is for open systems workloads. There is 30 TB of unused capacity’. There are no Advanced Functions installed, but after a presentation from the Business Partner they are interested in using FlashCopy to help reduce their overnight batch window.
How can this function be tested in compliance with the DS8000 licensing rules?
A. All Advanced Function software is loaded so it can be used in test mode for 45 days
B. AFlashCopylicense for 30 TB is needed
C. A FlashCopy license for 100 TB is needed
D. Use the DSEA website to request a temporary’ license
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 19
The exhibit represents a report from Capacity Magic. A customer wants to implement a mixed Open and System z environment. They will be using a combination of SSD, SAS and Nearline SAS drives. System z will require PAV. The NL-SAS drives will be used for FlashCopy targets for Open Systems and for Historical Report Data for z/OS. They wish to use Metro Mirror to replicate the Opens Systems production data to a remote site.

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1.A customer has a small existing SAN storage environment with disk systems from different vendors.This
customer wants to deploy a single system to manage storage and advanced services across new and
existing storage.
What storage solution should be proposed?

A.XIV system
B.Storwize V7000
C.Storwize V3700
D.IBM N6240 filer
Answer: B

2.A customer has asked the technical specialist about security for five hosts connecting via iSCSI to a
newly installed Storwize V7000 system.
Which of the following items should the specialist suggest to the customer?
A.Port-based zoning
B.Direct connections
C.Virtual LAN (VLAN)
D.Storwize V7000
port masking Answer: C

3.Storwize V7000 volume mirroring creates more resilience in which of the following methods?

A.Creates two copies of a storage pool

B.Mirror a volume between two separate Storwize V7000 systems

C.Allows both controller nodes to provide simultaneous read access

D.Migrates volumes between storage pools that have different extent sizes

Answer: D
4.A customer is building a Virtual Desktop Infrastructure (VDI) for several hundred users.Which Storwize V7000 feature would help in avoiding performance impact on peak activity periods?

A.FlashCopy

B.Thin provisioning

C.15,000 rpm drives

D.SSD drives with Easy Tier

Answer: D
5.Which of the following is a competitive advantage of the Storwize V7000 RAID configuration wizard?

A.allows the managed disk to be utilized after the array is formatted

B.provides a simplified user experience in the creation of RAID arrays

C.creation of RAID arrays composed of externally connected physical disk

D.configure RAID levels beyond the capability of competitive storage arrays

Answer: B
6.A customer has asked for the amount of usable storage per storage pool for file based access in a Storwize V7000 Unified configuration. What type of usable storage information does the Capacity Magic tool supply for a Storwize V7000 Unified? A.Amount per storage pool for file access only

B.Amount per storage pool for block access only

C.Amount per storage pool for both file and block access

D.Usable storage is not provided for the Storwize V7000

Unified Answer: C

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QUESTION NO: 1
You added a new field to matching fields of an existing match specification and provisioned all match specification components. Then you ran the job but it failed immediately. The input data size is 2G bytes and the job worked without any issues before you modified. Which one is most likely the cause of the problem?
A. Lack of physical memory.
B. Lack of scratch disk space.
C. The job needs to be re-compiled.
D. The frequency file needs to be re-generated.
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 2
What are the two output fields provided by the COUNTRY rule set? (Choose two)
A. Verified flag field
B. ISO country code field
C. ISO country name field
D. Explicit or default flag field
E. Rejected address reason code
Answer: B,D

QUESTION NO: 3
The output fields available for mapping from the Standardize stage can be classified into three different categories. What are two of these categories? (Choose two)

A. Reject fields
B. Matching fields
C. Duplicate fields
D. Database fields
E. Business Intelligence fields
Answer: B,E
QUESTION NO: 4
What input pattern does the following address produce when standardized by the USADDR rule set? 21 Wingate St Apt 601
A. ^?SU^
B. ^+T^U
C. ^+TU^
D. <+S+U
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 5
Which of the following removes anomalies within the data after the process has determined the proper domain and parsed the data?
A. Address Matching
B. Address Verification
C. Address Certification
D. Address Standardization
Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 6
In the output fields available from the Standardize stage, which two of the following reporting fields are produced from the Standardize stage processing? (Choose two)

A. Input pattern
B. Dropped data
C. Filter condition
D. Rule set name
E. Unhandled pattern
Answer: A,E
QUESTION NO: 7
What is one of the the uses of a pre-processor rule set in standardizing your data?
A. Prepares the data for processing by the investigate stage
B. Prepares the data for processing by domain specific rule sets
C. Rejects the data to a separate link so your job does not need to process bad data
D. Rejects the data to a separate link so domain specific rule sets will ignore unnecessary data
Answer: B
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