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QUESTION 1
A user needs to output data from a Unica Campaign flowchart and does not need to utilize the data within the flowchart. This can be done by creating and outputting the data to a:
A. fact table.
B. general table.
C. dimension table.
D. base record table.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 2
A user has added a new Unica Campaign Attribute and would like to make that attribute available to the Cognos reports. To do this, the user needs to:
A. use the Reports SQL generator to update the existing reporting views.
B. use the Reports SQL generator to create new views which include the new attribute.
C. do nothing, once the new column is added the reports model is automatically updated.
D. use the Cognos application administrator to create a new data framework which includes the new attribute.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 3
A specialist is responsible for making sure that Unica Campaign flowcharts run successfully. If an error occurs, the specialist needs to be informed by email. Therefore, the specialist creates a batch script which interacts with the mail server and sends an email to the IT department helpdesk to be informed in case problems arise in a Campaign flowchart. Where can the specialist best relate to this script from within the Campaign flowchart? The specialist creates an outbound trigger, invokes the batch script in the trigger, and:
A. assigns a trigger in a mail list or call list process.
B. schedules a trigger to run on a case-by-case basis.
C. uses the eMessage process to send out these emails.
D. assigns it in the Advanced settings section on the Campaign flowchart and has the trigger run on Flowchart Run Error.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 4
The custom macro has been configured to select on “audience id” and a return value. When this custom macro is executed an error is received. What could cause this problem?
A. There are user variables used in the custom macro.
B. The Expression Type is configured incorrectly for the custom macro.
C. The custom macro is the same as one of the Campaign built-in macros.
D. The custom macro is too large for the fields in the temp table (<TempTable>).

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 5
In a Unica Campaign flowchart Select process, how can a custom macro be profiled so that it appears in the Select process “Available Fields” menu?
A. Select “Options” from the main menu in a flowchart, choose “Custom Macros…”. Click “New Item” and add the macro name and field expression.Go to the “Select” process and choose the macro from the “Available Fields” column.
B. Select “Options” from the main menu in a flowchart, choose “Custom Macros…”. Click “New Macro” and add the macro name and fieldexpression. Go to the “Select” process and choose the macro from the “Available Fields” column.
C. In the “Select” process box, create a “Derived Field” with a field name Profile_Test and enter the macro name in the expression field. Go tothe “Select” process “Source” tab and select the macro from the “Available Fields” column.
D. In the “Select” process box “Source” tab, click the Input field and the drop-down list appears. Go to “Tables”, select “UA_CUSTOMMACROS”,and select the macro from the list. Select the macro when it appears in the “Available Fields” column.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 6
A table Customer_master contains 1000 customer_ids. A select box was created and all the customer_ids from the table were selected. However, when the select box was run, the output cell contained only a fraction of the total customers. When a test query was performed in the above mentioned select box, all 1000 customers were selected. What could be cause of this issue?
A. Global suppression.
B. The Select process was not configured properly.
C. The table mapping of Customer_master are out-of-date.
D. Incorrect audience level has been chosen for the Customer_master table.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 7
A user is trying to create RAW SQL in a Select process. “Select IDs with” is selected but when the user clicks on the advanced button the “RAW SQL for Record Selection” check box is greyed out. What is the user doing wrong?
A. The correct tables are not mapped in.
B. A SQL Custom Macro has not been created.
C. The Select process is in Point and Click mode.
D. Unica Campaign is not connected to the database.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 8
A user is mapping a flat file into Unica Campaign. The user needs to ensure that the file ends with a:
A. tab.
B. comma.
C. closing bracket.
D. carriage return, line feed.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 9
Within a flowchart a user wants to switch audiences from the Household level to the Customer level. In order to do this, a table containing both columns is necessary. This can be accomplished by mapping a table:
A. into the catalog twice, once at the Household level and once at the Customer Level.
B. into the catalog and select the Household column and the Customer column when selecting the audience level.
C. in as a base table at the Household level and then map the same table in as a dimension table joined to the base table on the Customercolumn.
D. in at the Household level as a table is normally mapped and then use the “Specify Additional Audiences” screen to select the Customer columnwithin the table.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 10
A user is designing a Campaign flowchart. The user wants to retrieve and use a derived field which was saved in a previous Campaign. Which of the steps below is correct to achieve this task?
A. The user cannot retrieve derived field expressions saved in other Campaigns.
B. Search the previous Campaign and copy the required derived field expression.
C. Retrieve the expression from the Stored Derived fields directory from the Options menu.
D. Retrieve the expression from the Stored Derived fields directory in a Select process box.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 11
In Unica Campaign, how are the Scheduler and Schedule process used?
A. The Schedule process is used to configure the Campaign Scheduler. This enables the use of the Schedule process in a flowchart.
B. The Scheduler is an administration tool used to configure schedules. Use the Schedule process to select the schedule to use as part of theflowchart.
C. The Scheduler is a Marketing Platform function that defines Schedule process attributes. The Schedule process is used to initiate a process,series of processes, or an entire flowchart.
D. The Scheduler starts a flowchart even if it is not running, while the Schedule process in a flowchart works only if the flowchart is running. TheScheduler should not be used to schedule a flowchart that uses the Schedule process.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 12
A user would like to create a 10% holdout control group from a Cell which contains 1000 Audience IDs. Which Unica Campaign flowchart process box is the BEST way to accomplish this?
A. Merge process
B. Sample process
C. Segment process
D. Snapshot process
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 13
Which of the following is NOT true about how a user variable can be used in Unica Campaign?
A. A user variable can be used in a custom macro.
B. A user variable can be used in an outbound trigger.
C. A user variable can be used within a SQL statement.
D. A user variable can be defined in one flowchart and then referenced in another flowchart.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 14
In a Unica Campaign Flowchart, a customer database table (see below) is mapped in a Select process box. There is a requirement to segment and organize customers based on their income, which would typically have the values “HIGH” for customers whose income is greater than 100000 and “LOW” for customers whose income is less than or equal to 100000. This value needs to be output with the final target list.

Ideally which step should be executed to get the task done?
A. Alter the table to add a new column with the required logic.
B. Create a Persistent Derived field with the logic : IF(Customer_Demographic_Info.Income > 100000,’HIGH’,’LOW’).
C. Create a Strategic Segment with the logic : IF(Customer_Demographic_Info.Income > 100000,’HIGH’,’LOW’).
D. Create a User Variable HIGH and LOW with the logic: IF(Customer_Demographic_Info.Income > 100000,’HIGH’,’LOW’).

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 15
A specialist creates a numeric user variable called MinBalance and assigns an initial value of 100 to it. The specialist wants the Select process to return all IDs where the mapped field AccountBalance is greater than MinBalance. What is the correct syntax to use?
A. MinBalance < AccountBalance
B. AccountBalance > MinBalance
C. AccountBalance > UserVar.MinBalance
D. AccountBalance is GT than UserVar.MinBalance

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 16
How does the Unica Campaign server access system tables residing in an Oracle database? It uses:
A. SQL*Plus.
B. a JDBC type 4 db connection.
C. a ODBC type 4 db connection.
D. Oracle’s native client connection.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 17
A Unica Campaign has been designed to personalize offers for individuals via dynamic parameterization of offer attributes. Which Campaign system table records the offer(s) received by the individuals?
A. Flowchart Table
B. Contact History Table
C. Response History Table
D. Detailed Contact History Table

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 18
Which of the following is NOT a recommended Unica Campaign V8.5 environment?
A. WebSphere V7, IBM z/OS V1, DB2 V9 (system tables)
B. WebSphere V7, Redhat V5, Oracle V11 (system tables)
C. WebLogic V10, Redhat V5, Oracle V11 (system tables)
D. WebLogic V11, Windows Server 2003, DB2 V9 (system tables)

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 19
In a Unica Campaign deployment involving proxy servers, each Campaign user in the Marketing Platform, is required to set authentication credentials (user name and password) as a data source to connect to the proxy server. Campaign requires this data source to be named as:
A. Proxy
B. Virtual
C. Secure
D. Redirect

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 20
Does Unica Campaign take advantage of clustering? A specialist has deployed Unica Marketing Platform in a cluster and now would like to deploy Campaign in cluster. Will this work?
A. Yes, it is fully supported.
B. Yes, but only after turning on the sticky bit from the web application server.
C. Yes, but only if load balancing was used in front of the cluster managed server.
D. No, it is not supported.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 21
A Unica Campaign deployment requires Cognos reporting to be configured. As part of configuring the Cognos firewall, which property in the Cognos configuration, other than “Enable CAF (Cognos Application Firewall) Validation” needs to be set?
A. Gateway URI Property
B. Internal Dispatcher URI Property
C. Valid Domains or Hosts Property
D. External Dispatcher URI Property

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 22
Unica Marketing products that are installed as a Suite including Unica Campaign, must be installed on the same network domain. The reason for this requirement is to:
A. expedite installation.
B. minimize maintenance effort.
C. minimize troubleshooting effort.
D. comply with browser restrictions designed to limit cross-site scripting security risks. Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 23
Unica Platform needs to be integrated with a Directory Server. What can be done to make this happen?
A. Use the built-in Platform login methods.
B. Use Active Directory or an LDAP solution.
C. Use a Content Server Management solution.
D. Individual customization with Platform is needed.

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 24
The Scheduler is a common scheduling component that Unica applications use. Besides Campaign, which of the following applications can schedule jobs?
A. Unica Optimize and Unica Interact
B. Unica eMessage and Unica Optimize
C. Unica Marketing Operations and Unica Interact
D. Unica eMessage, Unica Optimize, Unica Marketing Operations, and Unica Interact

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 25
An administrator has installed and configured Unica Platform and Unica Campaign. Due to business procedures in the company, a new security policy is required. Which default roles are created by the new security policy?
A. A Key User Role and an Owner Role.
B. A Folder Owner Role and an Owner Role.
C. An Admin Owner Role and a User Owner Role.
D. A Folder Owner Role and an Object Owner Role.

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 26
A specialist runs a flowchart containing an Optimize process box. Which table is populated when this occurs?
A. Contact History Table
B. Detailed Contact History Table
C. Proposed Contacts Table (PCT)
D. Optimized Contacts Table (OCT)

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 27
A client’s base selection table in the database uses more than one column to indicate a specific audience record. Is this a problem for the Unica Campaign system?
A. No, as long as one column is of a numeric data type.
B. No, any number of columns can be used to determine an audience.
C. Yes, only one column can be used within an audience.
D. Yes, multi column keys create performance limitations and should be avoided.

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 28
An administrator has created an offer template with an attribute ‘Cost to company’ . How should the above attribute be defined so that no user could change or override its value while creating an offer using the
aforementioned template?
A. Cost to company should be defined as a ‘Static Attribute’.
B. Cost to company should be defined as a ‘Hidden Attribute’.
C. Cost to company should be defined as a ‘Custom Cell Attribute’.
D. Cost to company should be defined as a ‘Parameterized Attribute’.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 29
A marketing user has a requirement to create an intermediate table in the flowchart, capturing the audience key and few additional data elements. This data is to be used for further processing downstream in the flowchart. How can the user accomplish this? The user:
A. should use an Extract process.
B. needs to use flat files for this functionality.
C. will be able to do this with a Snapshot process.
D. can do so only if Temp Tables are enabled in the flowchart.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 30
A customer wants to use a mapped table in a flowchart which can only be written to and not selected from. What kind of table BEST suits this purpose?
A. A base table.
B. A general table.
C. A dimension table.
D. A mapped table based on a flat file.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 31
There is a requirement for users to be able to login to any application centrally on the network (i.e. Single Sign-On (SSO)), or the ability for users to authenticate once and then be able to login to any of the applications that they have access to). Using Unica solutions, this can be accommodated by:
A. integrating with an LDAP server.
B. giving specific permissions on the corporate network.
C. using Unica Platform specific configuration parameters.
D. integrating with an Active Directory solution and using Windows Integrated Login.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 32
In a Unica deployment there is a requirement for all users to share one database login credentials to access the marketing database in the flowcharts. There is also a need to automate this process without a challenge response. What actions will the specialist advise the customer to carry out?
A. The users will need to go to Admin > Data Sources and login from there to avoid the request for credentials in the future.
B. In the data source, the ASMSaveDBAuthentication and ASMUserForDBCredentials settings will need to be configured appropriately.
C. Permissions will need to given for accessing User Tables in User Roles & Permissions under the section Campaign > partition[n] > User Tables.
D. Work will need to be done at the database level; the default username/password combination for a given database type needs to be used forthe user database.

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QUESTION 1
Which consideration is true for a Vulnerability Assessment (VA) deployment?
A. Collectors running VA cannot also perform database monitoring.
B. Each collector can run up to 20 Vulnerability Assessments simultaneously.
C. S-TAP must be running on the database server before VA is run for a database on that server.
D. There is a need to create an account with appropriate privileges on the database for VA to work.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 2
Which Guardium appliance cannot be managed?
A. S-TAP
B. Collector
C. Aggregator
D. Central manager

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 3
When planning the deployment for Data Activity Monitoring (DAM) there is a need to determine the location of the various Guardium solution components (I.e. Agents, appliances). Which statement is correct?
A. S-TAP agents need to reside in the same data center the aggregators reside in.
B. Collectors can report to aggregators that are located in data centers other then their own.
C. Collectors can reside anywhere in the customer network regardless of database server location.
D. Aggregators need to reside in the same data center the collectors that report to them (Aggregator) reside.

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 4
When sizing a Vulnerability Assessment solution, what is the recommendation for calculating the number of collectors needed?
A. One collector for every 30K PVU.
B. One collector for every data center.
C. One collector for every 35 database servers.
D. One collector for every 255 database instances.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 5
What are the mechanisms used by UNIX S-TAP to capture database traffic?
A. K-TAP, A-TAP, and PCAP
B. K-TAP, LHMON, and PCAP
C. PCAP, DB2TAP, and K-TAP
D. A-TAP, Shared Memory Driver, and K-TAP

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 6
Which parameter should be used to enable K-TAP flex loading through GIM?
A. KTAP_ENABLED set to “1”
B. KTAP_LIVE_UPDATE set to “Y”
C. KTAP_FAST_FILE_VERDICT set to “1”
D. KTAP_ALLOW_MODULE_COMBOS set to “Y”

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 7
Before uninstalling A-TAP, which procedure must be done?
A. K-TAP must be unloaded using guard_ktap_loader.
B. A-TAP must be deactivated on all database instances.
C. The Guardium group must be removed from the server.
D. The sniffer must be stopped on the Guardium appliance.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 8
Which guard_tap.ini parameter should be used to set the virtual IP of a Microsoft SQL Server cluster environment?
A. tap_ip
B. sqlguard_ip
C. alternate_ips
D. connect_to_ip

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 9
What statement is true regarding policy push down?
A. Policy push down pushes a classification process into S-TAP for Z on IMS.
B. Policy push down allows ZSecure to push policies into the Guardium appliance.
C. Policy push down allows the Guardium appliance to identify sensitive objects inside the DB2 database.
D. Policy-push-down enables policy push down of collected profiles, collection activation, and collection inactivation from the Guardium appliance.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 10
What is the correct way to stop a UNIX S-TAP that was installed with a non-GIM installer?
A. Use the Stop S-TAP button in the S-TAP Control window.
B. Find the S-TAP Process ID and terminate with kill -9 command.
C. Comment the U-TAP section of /etc/inittab, followed by the init q command.
D. Under the Modules parameter in the Central Manager, set STAP_ENABLED = 0 for the appropriate S-TAP.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 11
Which appliance type(s) can serve as a Guardium host for S-TAPs?
A. A collector only.
B. Collectors and Aggregators only.
C. Collectors and standalone Central Managers.
D. All appliance types can accept S-TAP connections.

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12
In the Session level entity, how many UID Chain attribute(s) are there?
A. 1 – UID Chain
B. 2 – UID Chain & UID Chain Compressed
C. 3 – UID Chain, UID Chain Compressed & UID Chain Expanded
D. 4 – UID Chain, UID Chain Compressed, UID Chain Expanded & UID Chain for z/OS

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 13
What is the main command line utility to control and configure A-TAP on all platforms?
A. guardctl
B. guard-atap-ctl
C. guard-ktap-ctl
D. guard-executor-32

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 14
What is the documented procedure for handling delayed cluster disk mounting?
A. Manually restart the S-TAP process after mounting the database server directory.
B. Configure the wait_for_db_exec parameter in the guard_tap.ini with an appropriate delay.
C. Ensure that the S-TAP process is started only after the database installation directory is available.
D. There is no special procedure, S-TAP can automatically detect when the database directory becomes available.

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 15
Which GIM component controls starting and stopping managed agents on UNIX?
A. gim_client.pl
B. guardium_stap
C. guard_supervisor
D. guard_ktap_loader

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 16
What is the correct way to stop S-TAP that is managed by GIM?
A. Uninstall S-TAP.
B. Use kill -9 on S-TAP process.
C. Comment S-TAP entry in /etc/inittab.
D. Set STAP_ENABLED to “0” in GIM parameters.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 17
Where are DB2 z audit rules stored?
A. Collection profiles
B. CICS audit profiles
C. Group audit profiles
D. VSAM audit profiles

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 18
Which ports are used by UNIX S-TAP?
A. 9500 TCP (unencrypted) and 8075 TCP (encrypted)
B. 16016 TCP (unencrypted) and 16018 TCP (encrypted)
C. 9500 TCP (unencrypted) and 8075 UDP (heartbeat signal)
D. 16016 TCP (unencrypted) and 16018 UDP (hearbeat signal)

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 19
Which mechanism is used to intercept DB2 and Informix shared memory traffic on all UNIX platforms except Linux?
A. TEE
B. PCAP
C. A-TAP
D. K-TAP

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 20
What is the purpose of K-TAP flex load in Linux installations?
A. Allows upgrade of the K-TAP module without requiring a reboot of the host operating system.
B. Give the system administrator the ability to stop traffic interception by manually unloading the K- TAP module.
C. Allows installation of K-TAP module with closest match in cases where an exact kernel match is not available.
D. Allows the system administrator to upgrade the K-TAP module directly from GIM interface on Central Manager.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 21
Which statement about Configuration Audit System (CAS) is true?
A. It does not support windows platform.
B. It supports running operating system shell scripts.
C. It does not support monitoring of file permissions (rwxrwxrwx).
D. It supports vulnerability assessment tests using observed behavior.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 22
What is the primary purpose of Group Builder?
A. To update vulnerability assessment rules.
B. To trigger compliance workflow automation.
C. To adapt to the dynamic needs of the business.
D. To associate policy rules with audit process results.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 23
What query change requires the report portlet to be regenerated?
A. Main entity
B. Query fields
C. Runtime parameters
D. Timestamp attributes

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 24
In a rule definition, what DB User field value would test for a blank database user name in the traffic?
A. %
B. NULL
C. guardium://empty
D. Leaving the field blank
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 25
The policy has an extrusion rule with action of ‘Log Extrusion Counter’ when a credit card number is returned by the query. The inspection engine is configured with:

Query ‘select credit_card from TABLE1 where customer_id in (1,2,3);’ returns a total of 120 records with 10 credit cards returned in each network packet. What is expected result for SUM(Returned Data Count) from Full SQL domain for this query?
A. 0
B. 12
C. 74
D. 120

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 26
An audit workflow process may contain any number of audit tasks. Which is NOT a valid audit task?
A. a privacy set
B. a policy process
C. a security assessment
D. a classification process

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 27
When creating a new report there is a need to choose a main entity. There are six levels in the entity hierarchy for the access domain. Which of the following represents the correct hierarchy order (top to bottom)?
A. SQL, Client/Server By Session, Application Event, Command, Object, Field
B. Command, Object, SQL, Field, Client/Server By Session, Application Event
C. Object, Command, SQL, Field, Client/Server By Session, Application Event
D. Client/Server By Session, Application Event, SQL, Command, Object, Field

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 28
How does the database entitlement information get pulled into the Guardium appliance?
A. DB Entitlement Reports use the LDAP Domain feature to create links between the LDAP data on the selected database with the internal data of the predefined entitlement reports.
B. DB Entitlement Reports use the Custom Domain feature to create links between the external data on the selected database with the internal data of the predefined entitlement reports.
C. DB Entitlement Reports use the Access Domain feature to create links between the accessed data on the selected database with the internal data of the predefined entitlement reports.
D. DB Entitlement Reports use the Security Assessment Domain feature to create links between the user data on the selected database with the internal data of the predefined entitlement reports.

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 29
What does ‘sample size’ parameter of classification process define?
A. How many tables in the database should be evaluated by the process.
B. How many rows in each table of the database should be evaluated by the process.
C. How many columns in each table of the database should be evaluated by the process.
D. What percent of the column in each table of the database should be evaluated by the process.

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 30
A query that is used by a correlation alert, is run at 23:59 for time period between 00:00 and 23:59 of that day, produces these results:

How many alerts were sent during that day, if first time alerter ran the query at 01:00 and anomaly detection is configured with polling interval of 30 minutes?
A. 0
B. 2
C. 3
D. 5
Correct Answer: B

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QUESTION NO: 1
Why is the .Net 2.0 Framework SDK needed?
A. To allow users to publish their Framework Manager models for use with Controller.
B. It provides a Graphical User Interface for configuring the code groups.
C. It is used to configure the Controller Data Mart Database.
D. It is needed when using Controller with SSL (Secure Socket Layer).

Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 2
What does configuring the .Net 2.0 Framework accomplish?
A. It allows the Controller COM+ object to access the Controller Database.
B. It allows users to communicate with the .Net 2.0 Framework SDK.
C. It creates a Trust between the Controller Client Distribution Server and the Controller client computer.
D. It allows for the encryption of communication between internal server components.

Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 3
What can be used to provide remote users with access to Controller over limited bandwidth networks?
A. Secure Socket Layer (SSL)
B. Citrix (Terminal Server)
C. Deterministic Network Enhancers
D. Installing the Gateway in a DMZ

Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 4
Which component of the Controller architecture processes all requests for downloading Controller components to the end user’s computer?
A. Client Distribution Server
B. Content Management Server
C. Web Services Server
D. Report Server

Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 5
Enhance Reporting Optimization uses which of the following method(s)?
A. RSS 1.0 or higher, if the Database OS is Unix
B. File Copy, if the database OS is Windows
C. RDP to the Web Services Server
D. Controller’s FastNet copy utility

Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 6
A technical architect wants to direct user requests to one machine and consolidations to another. What should be used to accomplish this?
A. Have failover in the Controller environment.
B. Use advanced routing sets.
C. Distribute the Controller database across multiple servers.
D. Consolidation load balancing.
Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 7
What may be used to encrypt traffic between the end user and the Cognos Controller product?
A. Cognos Application Firewall (CAF)
B. Secure Socket Layer (SSL)
C. Really Simple Syndication (RSS)
D. An Enigma Cipher

Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 8
What must be enabled on the IIS web server for Controller to function?
A. SSL (Secure Socket Layer)
B. ASP .Net 2.0
C. HTTP Compression
D. Anonymous access

Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 9
Which one of the following required third-party components must be installed on the Controller Web Services Server to ensure product function and conformance?
A. Microsoft Excel
B. Adobe Acrobat
C. Framework Manager
D. SOAP Toolkit

Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 10
Which of the following is a required component that must be installed on the Controller Server so that Controller components can be downloaded to the user’s machine?
A. Microsoft .Net 2.0
B. SQL Server
C. Java JRE
D. Adobe Acrobat Reader
Answer: A

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QUESTION 1
When using an effective dated table as a source for a calculation, which two statements are true? (Choose two.)
A. Join start and end date of the effective dated table to a single date.
B. Join the calendar table to the effective dated table.
C. Join on both effective dates.
D. Join an effective dated table to another effective dated table (not Time).

Correct Answer: AC QUESTION 2
What is the impact of locking model calendars?
A. It affects calculations partitioned by the same calendar.
B. It has no effect on any calculations in the model.
C. It affects every calculation in the model regardless of calendars used.
D. It only affects calculations related to payout.

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 3
How does information from the Web client reach the database server?
A. from the Admin client
B. from the Web Application server
C. from the CognosICMService
D. from the Web Application server to the CognosICMService

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 4
Which table property can be changed after it is saved?
A. name
B. description
C. primary key
D. type

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 5
Click the Exhibit button.

In Presenter, when preparing data sources for the report shown in the exhibit, which type of source must be created to produce the subtotals by payee?
A. Data Source
B. Subtotal Source
C. Aggregate Transformation
D. Computed Row

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 6
Which table type is built by joining one or more tables and calculations together?
A. Data
B. Hierarchy
C. Custom
D. View

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 7
What are two purposes of using components in Composer? (Choose two.)
A. for aesthetics
B. for granular application of security
C. for organization
D. for troubleshooting purposes

Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 8
In which two situations would you perform the Optimize Model function? (Choose two.)
A. When a large volume of data has been imported.
B. When calculations have been modified.
C. When a calendar period has been locked.
D. When a large number of admin client users have been added.
Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 9
In Presenter, which two types of Transformations can you create? (Choose two.)
A. Aggregate
B. Subtotal
C. Summed
D. Transpose
Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 10
What are two ways to execute Scheduler processes? (Choose two.)
A. manuallythrough the Admin client
B. automatically through the Web client
C. manually using the database server
D. automatically at a predefined time
Correct Answer: AD QUESTION 11
Which two statements regarding Portal Access Web tabs are true? (Choose two.)
A. The first tab listed in Portal Access is the first tab that will be displayed on the Web client.
B. You can have a Web tab and a sub-tab for a single Web tab object.
C. You can change the location and order of Web tabs after they have been created.
D. Users that have access to Web tab groups also have access to sub-tabs.

Correct Answer: AC QUESTION 12
When applying the Standard Build Framework, which two principles do you follow? (Choose two.)
A. You must hard-code theAttributeIDwhen building static data stores and reports.
B. When joining AttributeIDs, you should base restrictions and joins on the four attribute columns.
C. Outbound ports with the same partitions should be combined into one port with anAttributeIDpartition
D. Every custom table in the model should have a pick list to the CompPlan table.

Correct Answer: BC QUESTION 13
Which two tasks ensure optimal calculation performance in a live production environment? (Choose two.)
A. Enable incremental calculation.
B. Preview calculations regularly to cache calculated results.
C. Clear the computation audit log regularly.
D. Execute the Optimize Model function regularly.

Correct Answer: AD QUESTION 14
Which table type should be used to store transactional information?
A. View
B. Data
C. Custom
D. Structural

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 15
Which two column types would be used as a partition? (Choose two.)
A. Comment
B. Text Box
C. Numeric
D. Date

Correct Answer: BD QUESTION 16
Click the Exhibit button.

Referring to the exhibit, your model has two calculations “Revenue” and “Commission” – partitioned by
PayeeID, ProductGroup, Product, and Month.
What must you create to produce the summary report that shows revenue and commission by
ProductGroup and Month?

A. a Data Store that joins both calculations and select ProductGroup and Month as detail columns
B. Aggregate Transformations in Presenter partitioned by ProductGroup and Month
C. additional calculations to sum the results partitioned by ProductGroup and Month
D. Calculated Rows in Presenter that sum both values by ProductGroup and Month
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 17
Click the Exhibit button.

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QUESTION 1
Which consideration is true for a Vulnerability Assessment (VA) deployment?
A. Collectors running VA cannot also perform database monitoring.
B. Each collector can run up to 20 Vulnerability Assessments simultaneously.
C. S-TAP must be running on the database server before VA is run for a database on that server.
D. There is a need to create an account with appropriate privileges on the database for VA to work.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 2
Which Guardium appliance cannot be managed?
A. S-TAP
B. Collector
C. Aggregator
D. Central manager

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 3
When planning the deployment for Data Activity Monitoring (DAM) there is a need to determine the location of the various Guardium solution components (I.e. Agents, appliances). Which statement is correct?
A. S-TAP agents need to reside in the same data center the aggregators reside in.
B. Collectors can report to aggregators that are located in data centers other then their own.
C. Collectors can reside anywhere in the customer network regardless of database server location.
D. Aggregators need to reside in the same data center the collectors that report to them (Aggregator) reside.

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 4
When sizing a Vulnerability Assessment solution, what is the recommendation for calculating the number of collectors needed?
A. One collector for every 30K PVU.
B. One collector for every data center.
C. One collector for every 35 database servers.
D. One collector for every 255 database instances.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 5
What are the mechanisms used by UNIX S-TAP to capture database traffic?
A. K-TAP, A-TAP, and PCAP
B. K-TAP, LHMON, and PCAP
C. PCAP, DB2TAP, and K-TAP
D. A-TAP, Shared Memory Driver, and K-TAP

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 6
Which parameter should be used to enable K-TAP flex loading through GIM?
A. KTAP_ENABLED set to “1”
B. KTAP_LIVE_UPDATE set to “Y”
C. KTAP_FAST_FILE_VERDICT set to “1”
D. KTAP_ALLOW_MODULE_COMBOS set to “Y”

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 7
Before uninstalling A-TAP, which procedure must be done?
A. K-TAP must be unloaded using guard_ktap_loader.
B. A-TAP must be deactivated on all database instances.
C. The Guardium group must be removed from the server.
D. The sniffer must be stopped on the Guardium appliance.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 8
Which guard_tap.ini parameter should be used to set the virtual IP of a Microsoft SQL Server cluster environment?
A. tap_ip
B. sqlguard_ip
C. alternate_ips
D. connect_to_ip

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 9
What statement is true regarding policy push down?
A. Policy push down pushes a classification process into S-TAP for Z on IMS.
B. Policy push down allows ZSecure to push policies into the Guardium appliance.
C. Policy push down allows the Guardium appliance to identify sensitive objects inside the DB2 database.
D. Policy-push-down enables policy push down of collected profiles, collection activation, and collection inactivation from the Guardium appliance.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 10
What is the correct way to stop a UNIX S-TAP that was installed with a non-GIM installer?
A. Use the Stop S-TAP button in the S-TAP Control window.
B. Find the S-TAP Process ID and terminate with kill -9 command.
C. Comment the U-TAP section of /etc/inittab, followed by the init q command.
D. Under the Modules parameter in the Central Manager, set STAP_ENABLED = 0 for the appropriate S-TAP.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 11
Which appliance type(s) can serve as a Guardium host for S-TAPs?
A. A collector only.
B. Collectors and Aggregators only.
C. Collectors and standalone Central Managers.
D. All appliance types can accept S-TAP connections.

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12
In the Session level entity, how many UID Chain attribute(s) are there?
A. 1 – UID Chain
B. 2 – UID Chain & UID Chain Compressed
C. 3 – UID Chain, UID Chain Compressed & UID Chain Expanded
D. 4 – UID Chain, UID Chain Compressed, UID Chain Expanded & UID Chain for z/OS

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 13
What is the main command line utility to control and configure A-TAP on all platforms?
A. guardctl
B. guard-atap-ctl
C. guard-ktap-ctl
D. guard-executor-32

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 14
What is the documented procedure for handling delayed cluster disk mounting?
A. Manually restart the S-TAP process after mounting the database server directory.
B. Configure the wait_for_db_exec parameter in the guard_tap.ini with an appropriate delay.
C. Ensure that the S-TAP process is started only after the database installation directory is available.
D. There is no special procedure, S-TAP can automatically detect when the database directory becomes available.

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 15
Which GIM component controls starting and stopping managed agents on UNIX?
A. gim_client.pl
B. guardium_stap
C. guard_supervisor
D. guard_ktap_loader

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 16
What is the correct way to stop S-TAP that is managed by GIM?
A. Uninstall S-TAP.
B. Use kill -9 on S-TAP process.
C. Comment S-TAP entry in /etc/inittab.
D. Set STAP_ENABLED to “0” in GIM parameters.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 17
Where are DB2 z audit rules stored?
A. Collection profiles
B. CICS audit profiles
C. Group audit profiles
D. VSAM audit profiles

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 18
Which ports are used by UNIX S-TAP?
A. 9500 TCP (unencrypted) and 8075 TCP (encrypted)
B. 16016 TCP (unencrypted) and 16018 TCP (encrypted)
C. 9500 TCP (unencrypted) and 8075 UDP (heartbeat signal)
D. 16016 TCP (unencrypted) and 16018 UDP (hearbeat signal)

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 19
Which mechanism is used to intercept DB2 and Informix shared memory traffic on all UNIX platforms except Linux?
A. TEE
B. PCAP
C. A-TAP
D. K-TAP

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 20
What is the purpose of K-TAP flex load in Linux installations?
A. Allows upgrade of the K-TAP module without requiring a reboot of the host operating system.
B. Give the system administrator the ability to stop traffic interception by manually unloading the K- TAP module.
C. Allows installation of K-TAP module with closest match in cases where an exact kernel match is not available.
D. Allows the system administrator to upgrade the K-TAP module directly from GIM interface on Central Manager.
Correct Answer: C

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QUESTION NO: 1
Which tool is used to create a connection point to an existing Process Engine isolated region?
A. Workplace XT.
B. Process Administrator.
C. FileNet Enterprise Manager.
D. Process Configuration Console.

Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 2
When using Workplace XT and a user is out of the office (e.g., vacation), where can they specify an alternate person to receive their Process Engine work items?
A. Site Preferences.
B. Process Configuration Console.
C. Task Settings under User Preferences.
D. General Settings under User Preferences.
Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 3
Which of the following is NOT reported to IBM FileNet Dashboard?
A. Remote procedure call counts and durations.
B. Number of documents stored in the Content Engine.
C. System specifications, operating system version, and product version.
D. Real-time graphing of performance data, including CPU load and memory utilization.
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 4

How can you start and stop P8 components?
A. IBM FileNet Enterprise Manager.
B. Command-line based instruction only for Unix.
C. Graphical user interface (GUI) only for Windows.
D. Graphical user interface (GUI) based or command-line-based instruction.
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 5
In which two scenarios should the Content Consistency Checker be used? (choose two.)
A. Content Engine is performing slow.
B. If search templates are not working.
C. After restoring a storage area from backup media.
D. To troubleshoot Fixed Content Device connectivity.
E. If users are unable to view the content of a document when the content is stored in a file storage area, even when they have view-content permissions on the document.
Answer: C,E
QUESTION NO: 6
Consider the following distributed P8 configuration:

All object stores contain file storage areas and are configured for content based retrieval (CBR). A complete offline backup of the system runs daily at 10 PM. If server A crashes at 2 PM and must be replaced, how should the administrator recover the system?

A. Restore all files for server A from backup.
B. Restore all files for server A from backup and re-index the object stores.
C. Restore all files for server A from backup and restore the database files to server C.
D. Restore all files for server A from backup and restore the file storage files to the NAS device.
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 7
For documents in which a date based property is a primary identifier, which type of partitioning will reduce query retrieval time?
A. Date partitioning.
B. Index partitioning.
C. Interval partitioning.
D. Collection partitioning.
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 8
Which of the following actions can be performed within the query builder?
A. Execute Java code.
B. Search across object stores.
C. Perform content-based retrieval.
D. Save searches in an object store.
Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 9
What is the Composite Platform Installation Tool?
A. A tool that allows you to install P8 components only.

B. A tool that allows you to install P8 on multiple servers.
C. A tool that allows you to install P8 components remotely.
D. A tool that allows you to install P8 components on a single server, including the middleware applications such as the database and web application server software.
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 10
The Process Engine service user (pe_service_user) is used by the Process Engine to connect to the Content Engine. What type of account should you create for the pe_service_user?
A. Database account.
B. Directory server account.
C. Application server account.
D. Operating system account.
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 11
Content Search Services Client files are installed on which of the following P8 servers?
A. Content Engine.
B. Process Engine.
C. Application Engine.
D. Legacy Content Search Engine.
Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 12
FileNet Configuration Manager offers only one JDBC connection for an object store by default. What are the two ways of adding additional JDBC connections for object stores. (choose two.)

A. It is not possible to create multiple JDBC data source.
B. Configure a new JDBC data source using the application server console.
C. Create a new profile, for the JDBC data source in FileNet Configuration Manager .
D. Add New Task “Configure Object Store JDBC Data Sources” in FileNet Configuration Manager.
E. The same JDBC data source will work for the preference object store. No need to create a new one.
Answer: B,D
QUESTION NO: 13
The Content Engine bootstrap account (ce_bootstrap_admin) is stored in the CEMPBoot.properties file that is archived in the Content Engine EAR file. What type of account should you use for the ce_bootstrap_admin?
A. Database account.
B. Directory server account.
C. Application server account.
D. Operating system account.

Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 14
Component Manager hosts a component that can be used to execute certain content-related operations against the Content Engine. What is this component called?
A. Event action.
B. CEOperations.
C. Integration Tier.
D. Web Application Toolkit.
Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 15
What are the two types of transport protocols supported by the Content Engine? (choose two.)
A. .NET
B. Enterprise Java Beans (EJB)
C. Java 2 Enterprise Edition (J2EE)
D. Content Engine Web Services (CEWS)
E. Representational State Transfer (REST)
Answer: B,D
QUESTION NO: 16
For which of the following components is it required to set session affinity (sticky session) on a load balancer?
A. Content Engine.
B. Process Engine.
C. Application Engine.
D. Content Search Engine/Server.
Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 17
Which items are associated with a Content Engine site?
A. Marking sets, storage areas and virtual servers.
B. Content cache areas, add-ons and object stores.
C. Object stores, storage areas and fixed content devices.
D. Storage areas, content cache areas and virtual servers.
Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 18
In a High Availability environment for Content Engine, how should IBM FileNet Enterprise Manager be connected to the Content Engine server?
A. Using Enterprise JavaBeans (EJB) protocol for a specific node.
B. Using WSI protocol for multiple nodes (e.g. load-balancer URL).
C. Using Web Service Interoperability (WSI) protocol for a specific node.
D. Using EJB protocol for multiple nodes (e.g. corbaloc URL for WebSphere).
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 19
Workplace XT hosts and manages a component that enables the Process Engine to make calls on external components. What is this component called?
A. PEOperations
B. Process Adaptor
C. Component Manager
D. Process Administrator
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 20
What two services does the Content Engine supply? (choose two.)
A. Content storage.
B. Workflow management.
C. Life cycle management.
D. Thin client user front end.
E. User and group management.
Answer: A,C

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QUESTION NO: 1
A customer is considering a PureFlex Express but they insist on using their own rack. Which of the following is the correct response for the PureSystem technical specialist?
A. The PureSystem nodes may be installed in a BladeCenter H with an RPQ
B. The chassis must be installed in an IBM rack specific to the PureFlex
C. The chassis may be installed in an IBM rack specific to the BladeCenter
D. Customers may use a non PureSystem rack, but it is not the preferred method
Answer: D Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 2
A customer is considering a PureFlex Express. The customer wants redundant high speed Ethernet and redundant native Fibre Channel connections. Which of the following is the minimum number of switch bays required and number of switch bays remaining available for expansion?
A. 2 and 2
B. 2 and 4
C. 4 and 0
D. 4 and 4
Answer: C Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 3
A customer wants a single PureFlex Express chassis with internal storage virtualization, two 4-socket Power nodes, and three 2-socket x86 nodes. Which of the following is the number of open node bays remaining unused?

A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. 3
Answer: C Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 4
A customer currently runs virtualized server environments on x86 and AIX. There are different teams and management for each platform, as well as different teams for storage, networking, etc. The customer wants to virtualize all department applications and consolidate resources. What is the most efficient way for a specialist to determine who is a decision maker or an influencer or a recommender?
A. Talk to the CIO or CTO
B. Talk to the Purchasing Agent to determine who makes decisions for server platforms
C. Talk to the x86 Development Manager on how they are able to get workloads to run on x86 or AIX
D. Talk to leaders in multiple organizations to understand how IT solution purchases have been funded
Answer: A Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 5
A business partner sales specialist and the business partner technical specialist are calling on a medium sized prospect that is designated as business partner led. The prospect raised several very technical specific questions comparing PureFlex Enterprise with a Cisco UCS. Which of the following IBM resources should the technical specialist engage first to address those questions?
A. Competeline
B. Supportline
C. IBM Cisco alliance team
D. Distributor configuration specialist

Answer: A Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 6
A customer is looking over a configuration for a PureFlex System Express offering and is questioning a Lab Services line item with a quantity of three. The customer asks what this means. Which of the following is the correct description?
A. Provides PureFlex training for up to three customer personnel.
B. Up to three PureFlex compute nodes will be configured for the customer prior to shipment.
C. A three day services engagement to implement the PureFlex chassis, management, storage, and primary node.
D. An extension of three days to the included services engagement that is part of standard installation of a PureFlex purchase.
Answer: C Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 7
A PureFlex prospect asks what is the Power compute node feature that is the equivalent of vMotion on the x86 compute node. Which of the following is the equivalent?
A. Live Partition Mobility
B. Virtual IO Server (VIOS)
C. Live Application Mobility
D. N_Port ID Virtualization (NPIV)
Answer: A Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 8
A prospect is considering a Flex System solution that has one p260 node and four x240 nodes. Virtualization hypervisors will be deployed on all five nodes. What component needs to be included for this solution to function?

A. Internal disk
B. Flex System V7000
C. Flex System Manager
D. Converged network switches
Answer: C Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 9
Which of the following Storwize V7000 advanced functions allows for the retention of both the image mode and managed mode disks during migration, and provides seamless fail over in the event of a failure after the migration?
A. FlashCopy
B. Global Mirror
C. VDisk Mirroring
D. Thin Provisioning
Answer: C Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 10
A PureFlex Express prospect has a need for several very small partitions. Which of the following is the minimum percentage of a core needed to define an LPAR in a PureFlex POWER7+ compute node using PowerVM?
A. 1%

B. 5%
C. 10%
D. 0.1%
Answer: B Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 11
A technical specialist needs to identify and reduce the risk for a new PureFlex foundation

implementation Which of the following is an IBM requirement for the technical specialist?
A. Meet with the SMEs to perform a TDA
B. Meet with the CFO to review the financial plan
C. Meet with the IBM Storage Specialist to review the implementation plan.
D. Meet with the IBM Client Executive to review the PureFlex implementation plan
Answer: A Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 12
A customer is contemplating two POWER-based solutions to run a compute intensive application. One option using IBM BladeCenter PS704 blades and another using IBM PureFlex p460 Compute Nodes. Which of the following attributes would make an IBM PureFlex solution attractive over IBM BladeCenter?
A. L3 cache size
B. Power requirements
C. CPU clock frequency
D. Number of I/O options
Answer: C Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 13
A PureFlex Enterprise prospect would like all of the services below. Which of the following must be covered by a separate contract in addition to the standard IBM Lab Services?
A. Account Advocate
B. External SAN integration
C. Three year Warranty Service
D. Two annual microcode analyses
Answer: B Explanation:

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