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QUESTION NO: 21
What is required to use an IBM Tivoli Director/ Integrator (TDI) AssemblyLine as an IBM Tivoli Federated Identity Manager (TFIM) mapping function?
A. The TDI api.remote.on property for the solution must be set to True.
B. The TDI api.remote.on property for the solution must be set to False.
C. The TDI solution directory must be located under the TFIM TDI Mapping directory.
D. The DirectoryIntegratorSTSModule.jar file needs to be copied to the TDI solutions directory.
Answer: A Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 22
A customer would like to give third-party applications scoped access to a protected resource on behalf of the resource owner. What is the appropriate protocol?
A. SAML
B. OAuth
C. Liberty
D. WS-Federation
Answer: B Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 23
What is a registry configuration requirement when used with IBM Tivoli Federated Identity Manager V6.2.2 User Self Care (USC)?

A. IBM WebSphere Application Server (WAS) federated repositories must be used.
B. WAS federated repositories cannot be used.
C. The USC schema extensions must be applied to the managed registry.
D. The managed registry must support WS-Provisioning extensions, and the extensions must be enabled.
Answer: A Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 24
SAML responses passed to destination sites via Browser/POST utilize which form of encoding?
A. ROT13
B. Base64
C. urlencode
D. uuencode
Answer: B Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 25
In reviewing a IBM WebSphere Application Server IBM Tivoli Federated Identity Manager V6.2.2 diagnostic trace, which object type should be examined to determine how successive processing steps act upon the transaction information?
A. STSUniversalUser (STSUU)
B. SPSUniversalUser (SPSUU)
C. SPSUniversalCredential(SPSUC)
D. SSOCommonCredential(SSOCC)
Answer: A Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 26
What is a claim relative to security tokens?

A. Within a security token, it is a statement which establishes that the token was issued by a trusted party.
B. Within a security token, it is a statement which asserts policy governance for a resource such as an application, service endpoint, or other capability.
C. Within a security token, it is a statement which provides information about a resource such as a user identity, an entitlement, an attribute, capability, etc.
D. Within a security token, it is a statement which establishes ownership of or access to a resource such as an application, service endpoint, or other capability.
Answer: C Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 27
What is a correct statement regarding OpenID?
A. It supports a consumer-agnostic Federated Single Sign-On (FSSO) model that allows a relying party to control which OpenID provider(s) it is willing to trust.
B. It supports a user-centric FSSO model that allows a relying party to control which OpenID provider(s) it is willing to trust
C. It supports a user-centric FSSO model that allows an OpenID provider to select which relying parties to trust without creating a formal trust relationship in advance (such as is done with SAML).
D. It supports a provider-agnostic FSSO model that allows an OpenID provider to select which relying parties to trust without creating a formal trust relationship in advance (such as is done with SAML).
Answer: B Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 28
When installing IBM Tivoli Federated Identity Manager V6.2.2, which three point of contact configuration options are available? (Choose three.)
A. JBoss Application Server
B. generic point of contact server
C. Internet Information Services (IIS)
D. Apache Tomcat Application Server
E. IBM WebSphere Application Server
F. IBM Tivoli Access Manager WebSEAL

Answer: B,E,F Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 29
Users of a SAML Single Sign-On federation that was previously operating properly are now experiencing errors. The administrators of both partners insist that no configuration changes have been made. What are two obvious items to check? (Choose two.)
A. The validity period in a partner certificate may have been reset.
B. The subject attribute in a partner certificate may have become invalid.
C. The NotBefore/NotAfter window in a partner certificate may have been exceeded.
D. The partner system clocks may have fallen out of sync beyond the NotBefore/NotOnOrAfter window.
E. The partner system clocks may have fallen out of sync beyond the allowable 30 second SAML tolerance
Answer: C,D Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 30
What is correct regarding cookies received from a browser?
A. The browser determines which cookies to send and includes only the cookie names and values in the request.
B. The browser determines which cookies to send and includes only the cookie names, values, and expiration times in the request.
C. The browser determines which cookies are eligible to send, and then if a Cookies-Requested header is in the previous response from the server, only cookies named in the Cookies-Requested value will be sent. Only the cookie names and values are included in the request.
D. The browser determines which cookies are eligible to send, and then if a Cookies-Requested header is in the previous response from the server, only cookies named in the Cookies-Requested value will be sent. Only the cookie names, values, and expiration times are included in the request.
Answer: A Explanation: QUESTION NO: 31
Which WS-Trust binding issues new tokens, possibly with new proof information, based upon a proven credential provided in a request in a SOAP message?
A. Issue
B. Create
C. Renew
D. Generate
Answer: A Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 32
Assume IBM Tivoli Federated Identity Manager V6.2.2 (TFIM) is installed in a clustered IBM WebSphere Application Server (WAS) environment. What is a concern with WAS TFIM runtime diagnostic trace analysis for Federated Single Sign-On (FSSO)?
A. The Common Audit Service component must be installed.
B. First Failure Data Capture timestamps may not be synchronized across cluster nodes.
C. SAML 2.0 artifact bindings and OpenID may cause diagnostic trace messages for a given FSSO transaction to span trace logs on multiple cluster nodes.
D. SAML 1.1 Browser/POST profile transactions may cause diagnostic trace messages for a given FSSO transaction to span trace logs on multiple cluster nodes.
Answer: C Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 33
What is an OpenID association?
A. a negotiated connection between provider and consumer
B. a required linkage between the claimed identifier and stateless user site
C. an optional URL/XRI string provided by the user established with the external site
D. a shared secret between a relying party and OpenID provider used to verify protocol messages and reduce round trips
Answer: D Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 34
What is the cryptographic requirement when configuring IBM Tivoli Federated Identity Manager V6.2.2 for Information Card support?
A. Information Card uses SHA-384 hashes. This means that the Java security file java.security must be edited to include the option sha.options = SHA2, 384.
B. The encryption used by Information Card is AES/CBC with PKCS5Padding.This means that the Java security file java.security must be edited to include the option aes.options=CBC, pkcss Pad.
C. The encryption used by Information Card is DESede/ECB with PKCS5Padding. This means that the Java security file java.security must be edited to include the option des.options=EDE, pkcss Pad.
D. The encryption algorithms used by Information Card require strong cryptographic library support. This means that a replacement is needed for the default Java security files local_policy.jar and US_export_policyjar.
Answer: D Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 35
A SAML 1.1 identity provider federation has been created in IBM Tivoli Federated Identity Manager V6.2.2 (TFIM) and a service provider partner from XYZZY Corporation must be added. The partner includes the following information:
Provider ID: XYZZY SAML SP
Assertion Consumer Service (ACS) Endpoint: https://sp.xyzzycorp.com/apps/plugh/saml
Which statement is correct regarding these values?
A. These values may be used directly in the TFIM partner configuration.
B. Because Provider IDs must be domain names, the partner must supply a Provider ID value of sp.xyzzycorp.com.
C. Because Provider IDs must be single word identifiers, the partner must supply a different value which meets this requirement.
D. Because Provider IDs must be URLs, the partner must supply a Provider ID value which matches the context root of the Assertion Consumer Service endpoint.

Answer: A Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 36
The IBM Tivoli Federated Identity Manager V6.2.2 provisioning service supports which WS- Provisioning operations?
A. notify, subscribe, unsubscribe
B. provision, deprovision, cancelRequest
C. createAccount, restoreAccount,deleteAccount
D. requestAccount,deprovisionAccount, changePassword
Answer: B Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 37
A corporate intranet supports single sign-on (SSO) for internally facing Web applications accessed by employees. The company also has an external facing product support site used by customers, business partners, and company employees. Employee IDs are maintained in a user registry which is separate from the user registry for the support site. To use the support site, employees must register in the same manner other users do.
The customer has chosen to use IBM Tivoli Federated Identity Manager V6.2.2 (TFIM) to provide SSO for employees between the intranet and the external facing support site so that an intranet SSO login can be leveraged for support site access. How can this capability be provided?
A. SAML 2.0 using persistent Name Identifiers can be used along with the TFIM Name Identifier Linking Service to link intranet and support accounts for employees. The intranet TFIM can be configured as an identity provider (IdP) in a SAML 2.0 federation, and the support site TFIM can be configured as a SAML 2.0 service provider (SP).
B. SAML 2.0 using persistent Name Identifiers and Name Identifier Management can be used along with the TFIM alias service to link intranet and support accounts for employees. The intranet TFIM can be configured as an IdP in a SAML 2.0 federation, and the support site TFIM can be configured as a SAML 2.0 SP.
C. SAML 1.1 using persistent Name Identifiers and Name Identifier Management can be used along with the TFIM alias service to link intranet and support accounts for employees. The intranet TFIM can be configured as an IdP in a SAML 1.1 federation, and the support site TFIM can be configured as a SAML 1.1 SP.

D. SAML 2.0 using persistent Consent Identifiers and Name Identifier Management can be used along with the TFIM alias service to link intranet and support accounts for employees. The intranet TFIM can be configured as an IdP in a SAML 2.0 federation, and the support site TFIM can be configured as a SAML 2.0 SP.
Answer: B Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 38
Using IBM Tivoli Federated Identity Manager V6.2.2 as an OpenID provider (OP), an error is being reported indicating that a required attribute is missing. What might be the problem?
A. The relying party (RP) may have not included the attribute in the encoded attribute request object sent to the OP AX endpoint, and it was not included in the response.
B. The OP may have not supplied a value for the attribute in the encoded attribute response list sent to the RP attribute exchange (AX) endpoint.
C. A required attribute may have been solicited via Simple Registration (SREG) in the initial request POSTed to the OP login endpoint, and the OP mapping rule/function did not supply a value.
D. A required attribute may have been solicited via SREG in the initial request POSTed to the RP login endpoint, and the OP mapping rule/function did not supply a value.
Answer: D Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 39
Which mechanism does IBM Tivoli Federated Identity Manager V6.2.2 provide for supporting configuration of a custom module?
A. Java Properties class
B. User Interface using GUIXML
C. XSLT-based configuration file
D. Java Class Loader abstraction
Answer: B Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 40

Which IBM Tivoli Access Manager for e-Business component is always required when deploying WebSEAL as an IBM Tivoli Federated Identity Manager V6.2.2 point of contact?
A. NetSEAL
B. Policy Server (pdmgrd)
C. Web Portal Manager (wpm)
D. Authorization Server (pdacld)
Answer: B Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 41
A partner, in the context of Federated Single Sign-On, is a participating entity in a federated relationship which operates in the role of what?
A. a Trusted Provider
B. a Service Provider (SP)
C. the Identity Provider (IdP)
D. either an IdP or a SP
Answer: D Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 42
With regard to the SAML standards, which statement describes an assertion?
A. A piece of data produced by a SAML authority regarding either an act of authentication performed on a subject, attribute information about the subject, or authorization permissions applying to the subject with respect to a specified resource.
B. A signed and encrypted token produced by a SAML authority regarding either an act of authentication performed on a subject, attribute information about the subject, or authorization permissions applying to the subject with respect to a specified resource.
C. A SOAP message containing an artifact produced by a SAML authority regarding either an act of authentication performed on a subject, attribute information about the subject, or authorization permissions applying to the subject with respect to a specified resource.
D. A SOAP message containing an artifact produced by a SAML identity provider regarding either an act of authentication performed on a user, attribute information about the user, or authorization

permissions applying to the user with respect to a specified application.
Answer: A Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 43
Which two deployment scenarios are supported by Web Services Security Management? (Choose two.)
A. surrogation
B. authorization
C. validation of token types
D. conversion of token types
E. authentication and authorization
Answer: D,E Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 44
WebSEAL is used as the Single Sign-On point of contact for an IBM Tivoli Federated Identity Manager V6.2.2 (TFIM) SAML 1.1 identity provider (IdP) configuration using Browser/Artifact with the service provider (SP). What is the action order in an IBM WebSphere Application Server diagnostic trace of the TFIM IdP when an inter-site transfer service request is received?
1.
Run the SAML token creation Security Token Service (STS) module to produce the assertion.

2.
Generate the artifact.

3.
Run the appropriate mapping function for the federation partnership against the STS Universal User (STSUU) object.

4.
Redirect the user to the SP Attribute Retrieval Service.
A. 3, 1, 4, 2
B. 2, 1, 3, 4
C. 3, 1, 2, 4
D. 2, 3, 1, 4
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 45

What are the four core elements defined by the SAML 1.1 and SAML 2.0 standards?
A. assertions, bindings, profiles, protocols
B. assertions, subjects, profiles, protocols
C. assertions, bindings, attributes, protocols
D. subjects, attributes, protocols, authentication responses
Answer: A Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 46
Which IBM WebSphere Application Server (WAS) security properties must be configured so WAS can be used as an IBM Tivoli Federated Identity Manager V6.2.2 point of contact?
A. Application and container security are enabled
B. Application and JEE/J2EE security are enabled; Single Sign-On (SSO) is disabled
C. Server and cluster security are enabled; SSO (LTPA Token) are enabled
D. Application and administration security are enabled; SSO (LTPA Cookie) is enabled
Answer: D Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 47
Which component(s) of IBM Tivoli Federated Identity Manager V6.2.2 are compliant with the WS- Trust standard?
A. Secure Token Service (STS)
B. STS, Security Token Service Universal User (STSUU)
C. STS, WS-Trust Web Service Description Language (WSDL)
D. STS, WS-Trust WSDL, STSUU
Answer: A QUESTION NO: 48
Which component is included with IBM Tivoli Federated Identity Manager V6.2.2 for auditing data?
A. QRadar
B. IBM Cognos Server
C. Common Audit Service
D. Common Event Service
Answer: C Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 49
When performing an IBM Tivoli Federated Identity Manager V6.2.2 (TFIM) deployment operation after creating a domain, this error is seen:
FBTCON137E: An error occurred during the deployment operation.
What is a possible cause of this error message and what action should be taken to address it?
A. This message is a generic description of any deployment failure and can be received even
when the operation is successful but the operation took longer than the specified SOAP request
timeout value.
To validate the deployment, perform these steps:

1.
Close the Runtime Node Management panel.
2.
Open the Runtime Node Management panel.
If the TFIM Runtime shows as deployed with a check mark in the status column proceed to
configuring the Runtime.

B. This message is a generic description of any deployment failure and can be received even
when the operation is successful but the operation took longer than the specified JSON-RPC
request timeout value.
To validate the deployment, perform these steps:

1.
Close the Runtime Node Management panel.
2.
Open the Runtime Node Management panel.
If the TFIM Runtime shows as deployed with a check mark in the status column proceed to
configuring the Runtime.

C. This message is related to the domain being created before the TFIM Runtime was configured.
To correct, perform these steps:
1.
Close the Runtime Node Management panel.

2.
Configure the Runtime.

3.
Open the Runtime Node Management panel.

4.
Perform the Deploy operation again.
D. This message is related to the domain being created before the TFIM Management Service
was started.
To correct, perform these steps:

1.
Close the Runtime Node Management panel.
2.
Start the Management Service.
3.
Open the Runtime Node Management panel.
4.
Perform the Deploy operation again.

Answer: A Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 50
Which additional configuration step must be done after creating a federation when using WebSEAL as the point of contact?
A. Run the wsconfig utility. This creates a WebSEAL virtual host junction to the federation endpoint and updates IBM Tivoli Access Manager (TAM) ACLs against federation endpoints.
B. Run the tfimcfg utility. This updates the WebSEAL configuration to support the specific federation being created, and it updates TAM ACLs against federation endpoints.
C. Run the wsconfig utility. This creates a WebSEAL transparent junction to the federation endpoint, adds an EAI trigger to the WebSEAL configuration to support the specific federation being created, and updates TAM ACLs against federation endpoints.
D. Run the tfimcfg utility. This creates a WebSEAL transparent path junction to the federation endpoint, adds an EAI trigger to the WebSEAL configuration to support the specific federation being created, and updates TAM ACLs against federation endpoints.
Answer: B Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 51
Consider this HTTP protocol response:
HTTP/1.1 302 Found

Location: https://www.jkenterprises.com/xyzzy.html
How will the browser respond?
A. The browser will issue an HTTP PUT to the URL specified by Location.
B. The browser will issue an HTTP GET to the URL specified by Location.
C. The browser will issue an HTTP POST to the URL specified by Location.
D. The browser will open a new window containing the content specified by Location.
Answer: B Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 52
What is an XSLT template?
A. It is a defined set of XSL rules executed against a collection of relational elements based on a pattern match, and may be called by other templates, which may pass input parameters by name.
B. It is a defined set of XSL rules executed against a collection of tree structured nodes in the input based on a pattern match, and maybe called by other templates, which may pass input parameters by name.
C. It is a defined set of XSL rules executed against a serialized list of input elements based on a pattern match, and may be called by other templates. Input parameters are passed by inference rather than explicitly.
D. It is a defined set of XSL rules executed against a collection of tree structured nodes based on a pattern match, and may be called by other templates. Input parameters are passed by inference rather than explicitly.
Answer: B Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 53
The Web Services Security Management component will be added to an existing IBM Tivoli Federated Identity Manager installation using WebSEAL as a point of contact for Federated Single Sign-On. What other additional components are also required?
A. IBM HTTP Server must be installed.
B. No other additional components are required.
C. IBM Tivoli Identity Manager must be installed.

D. IBM WebSphere Application Server network deployment version must be installed.
Answer: B Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 54
What are the roles defined by OAuth 2.0?
A. Client application, resource owner, resource server
B. User, client application, resource owner, resource server
C. User, resource owner, resource server, authorization server
D. Client application, resource owner, resource server, authorization server
Answer: D Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 55
Which two configuration types are available for use with the Alias Service? (Choose two.)
A. XML
B. LDAP
C. Active Directory
D. JDBC provider and data source
E. ODBC provider and data source
Answer: B,D Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 56
Using a browser traffic capture tool, a capture of the HTTP interactions between Internet Explorer and a federation endpoint was recorded. The IBM Tivoli Federated Identity Manager V6.2.2 deployment was configured with WebSEAL as the point of contact server. When looking through the trace, which cookie indicates that a session has been established with IBM Tivoli Access Manager?

 

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QUESTION 1
What step would the FileNet Content Manager administrator follow when stopping when the IBM Content Search Services (CSS) index dispatcher in preparation to upgrade the Content Platform Engine?
A. Logon to the Windows CSS server and stop the “CSS Server” service.
B. Logon to the Windows Verity server and stop the “Verity K2 Administration Server” service.
C. Logon to the Administration Console for Content Engine as a gcd_admin user, select the domain icon. In the edit pane, click the Text Search Subsystem tab and uncheck the Enable indexing check box.
D. Logon to the Administration Console for Content Engine as an object store administrator, select the object stores configured for CBR, Under Data Design > Classes, select the CBR enabled classes and uncheck the “CBR Enabled” field.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 2
A large government agency will be upgrading and migrating from IBM FileNet P8 V5.1x to P8 V5.2.1 with a Microsoft SQL database. P8 V5.2.1 will be installed in a new environment.
Which of the following operating system accounts will need to be created in the new P8 V5.2.1 environment?
A. The Content Platform Engine installer account (cpe_install_user), Content Platform Engine operating system user (cpe_os_user) and the Configuration Manager user (config_mgr_user).
B. The Content Platform Engine application server installation administrator (cpe_appserver_install_user), Content Platform Engine installer account (cpe_install_user) and the Configuration Manager user (config_mgr_user).
C. The Content Platform Engine application server installation administrator (cpe_appserver_install_user), Content Platform Engine installer account (cpe_install_user), Content Platform Engine operating system user (cpe_os_user) and the Configuration Manager user (config_mgr_user).
D. The Content Platform Engine application server installation administrator (cpe_appserver_install_user), Content Platform Engine installer account (cpe_install_user), Content Platform Engine operating system user (cpe_os_user), Database User account (p8_db_user) and the Configuration Manager user (config_mgr_user).

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 3
A consultant for an aircraft engine manufacture is migrating their IBM Case Foundation system to a new set of hardware in order to handle an increased load in engineering drawings and their associated approval processes. Company policy does not allow the use of a graphical interface for application installations on their AIX servers.
When the installation completes, what file should the consultant check for errors?
A. user_home/ce_install_log_5.2.1.txt
B. os_temp_path/ce_install_log_5.2.1.txt
C. ce_install_path/ce_install_log_5.2.1.txt
D. os_temp_path/ce_logs/ce_install_log_5.2.1.txt

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 4
A P8 administrator has been using Workspace XT to perform the content and process related features of the IBM FileNet Content Platform Engine (CPE), e. g. update Site Preferences and launch the Process Configuration Console (PCC). Workplace XT is running on a different server from the CPE server. After a recent Interim Fix Pack upgrade on the CPE server, the administrator received a java.io.InvalidClassException error when launching the PCC from Workplace XT.
Which one of the following actions must be done to resolve the problem?
A. Install the latest Workspace XT Interim Fix Pack to work with the CPE system.
B. Run the CPE client installer from the Interim Fix Pack on Workplace XT server and redeploy.
C. Re-run the “Deploy Workplace XT” task in the installation profile in CPE Configuration Manager.
D. Run the CPE client installer from the Interim Fix Pack on the Workplace XT server, redeploy Workplace XT and run the “Deploy Workplace XT” task again in the installation profile in the CPE Configuration Manager.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 5
A consulting firm for a tire manufacture is building a new IBM Case Foundation system to handle engineering drawings and their associated approval processes. They have selected IBM WebSphere for their J2EE application server.
When installing a WebSphere Application Server, which two of the following features need to be selected? (Select two.)
A. Modern Batch.
B. Dynamic Scripting.
C. EJBDeploy tool for pre-EJB 3.0 modules.
D. Communications Enabled Applications (CEA).
E. Stand-alone thin clients and resource adapters.

Correct Answer: BD QUESTION 6
A customer would like to improve overall response time and CPU utilization in their IBM FileNet P8 V5.2.1 system by changing their garbage collection policy.
What is the suggested garbage collection policy for any FileNet P8 JVM to accomplish this improvement?
A. Balanced (balanced)
B. Optimum throughput (optthruput)
C. Generational Concurrent (gencon)
D. Optimum Average Pause (optavgpause)

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 7
By default Content Search Services logs are stored in the \IBM\ Content Search Services\CSS Server\logs directory.
What file in this directory would you review for information, warning, and error messages that are logged during server activity?
A. default*.log
B. monitor*.csv
C. adminAudit.csv
D. p8_css_trace*.log

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 8
A customer is setting up a new IBM FileNet Content Platform Engine and would like to know the easiest type of storage areas to create.
Which of the following meets this criteria?
A. Fixed storage areas.
B. Advanced storage areas.
C. Database and file storage areas.
D. Database and Fixed storage areas.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 9
A consultant for an airline needs to federate some content from their IBM Content Manager OnDemand (CMOD) system into their IBM Content Platform Engine system.
Which of the following web based user interfaces only supports downloading the federated content fron CMOD but not viewing it?
A. IBM WEBi
B. Workplace
C. Workplace XT
D. IBM Content Navigator

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 10
A company is planning to deploy IBM Content Navigator (ICN) to be used with an IBM FileNet Content Manager (FCM) V5.2.1 repository.
To configure ICN with the correct FCM client connector files, what steps should be followed? (Select two)
A. No additional steps are needed to connect to a FCM repository.
B. Run the FileNet Deployment manager to update the ICN client connector files.
C. In the ICN Configuration Manager run the Update the IBM FileNet P8 Client Connector Files task.
D. Copy the JACE.jar file from the FCM Server to the ICN servers and place in the ECMClient plugins folder.
E. The CPEClient installer matching the FCM server version should be run on the ICN server to update the P8 Client Connector Files.

Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 11
A software vendor is implementing the IBM Content Management Interoperability Services (CMIS) for IBM FileNet Content Manager.
The administrator will set which two of the following for this configuration?
A. IBM CMIS supports only Federated Repositories.
B. IBM CMIS and FileNet Content Engine can have the same LDAP server.
C. The IBM FileNet P8 and IBM CMIS Platform uses LDAP-based security and also supports Java 2 security.
D. Use the IBM WebSphere Application Server administrative console for the Content Engine server to ensure that the following settings match on both (CMIS and P8 Content Engine) application servers. 1) User filter 2) Group Filter 3) User ID map 4) Group member ID map 5) Certificate map mode 6) Certificate filter
E. Use the IBM WebSphere Application Server administrative console for the Content Engine server to ensure that only the following settings match on both CMIS and FileNet Content Engine application servers.
1) Primary administrative user name.
2) Automatically generated server identity.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 12
A customer is creating a new workflow system for a newly installed IBM Content Platform Engine V5.2.1.
Which two of the following options must an administrator consider for new workflow creation? (Select two.)
A. Request forwarding must not be enabled at the site level.
B. The customer must log on to the administration console as a pe_admin user to perform this task.
C. Determine the name of the workflow system data table space and optionally the index and BLOB table spaces.
D. Work with the database administrator to determine whether custom table spaces or file groups are need for the workflow system database.
E. The workflow system created is in an object store that uses sites in a geographically distributed environment. There is no need to configure object store request forwarding.

Correct Answer: CE
QUESTION 13
A FileNet consultant is performing steps to enable Kerberos authentication on an IBM WebSphere Application Server. The consultant is reviewing the FileNetP8KerberosService configuration in the Application Logins and notices the login modules are missing.
Which two of the login modules below should be present? (Select two.)
A. com.filenet.engine.authentication.LoginModule
B. com.ibm.ws.security.filenet.server.LoginModule
C. com.ibm.ws.security.server.lm.ltpaLoginModule
D. com.ibm.ws.security.server.lm.wsMapDefaultlnboundLoginModule
E. com.ibm.wsspi.security.common.auth.module.IdentityAssertionLoginModule

Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 14
Which of the following is completely accurate about the permissions the cpe_install_user must have?
A. Read permission on the /tmp directory.
B. Membership in the appserver_admin_group.
C. Read permission to the directories: file storage areas, index areas, and content caches.
D. Read, Write and Execute permissions to the device or location where: Content Platform Engine is to be installed. The application server instance/domain/profile has been installed.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 15
An IBM Content Platform Engine V5.2.1 (CPE) administrator receives a call from a user that the system is running slow during certain times of the day.
What logging or configuration change in CPE, on a WebSphere Application Server (WAS), will help gather information for this issue?
A. In FileNet Enterprise Manager under the Domain Properties>Trace Control tab check the Enabled Trace Logging box.
B. For CPE installed on a WAS, modify the fnlog4j.properties.sample and place it in WebSphere

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QUESTION 1
While configuring the LDAP settings in Configuration Manager to point to an Active Directory server, an installer clicks the Test LDAP Connection button. A dialog box appears stating the test has failed. Which Microsoft Windows Server event log would you check to help determine the cause?
A. System event log
B. Directory Service event log
C. Active Directory Server event log
D. Lightweight Directory Access Protocol event log

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 2
A P8 Administrator from a company needs to turn on IBM FileNet Content Engine tracing for the following servers: ce_clu_server3, ce_clu_server1. Please refer to the screenshot for more information.

What level of tracing should be configured to generated the desired logs?
A. Domain level.
B. Site level such as Initial Site.
C. Individual server level such as ce_clu_server3 and ce_clu_server1.
D. Virtual servers level such as W2K8-dP8nd2Node1 and W2K8-dP85ndNode01.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 3
A P8 administrator for a company just finished deploying IBM FileNet P8 V5.1. The administrator wants to use FileNet Enterprise Manager (FEM) to logon to P8 to perform further tasks. An error occurs immediately upon logging on to P8. The administrator would like to use log4j to troubleshoot the issue. Which sample log4j file should the administrator use?
A. <install path>\FileNet\ContentEngine\samples\log4j.xml.server
B. <install path>\FileNet\ContentEngine\samples\log4j.properties.client
C. <install path>\FileNet\ContentEngine\config\samples\log4j.xml.server
D. <install path>\FileNet\ContentEngine\config\samples\log4j.properties.client

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 4
An upgrade to a basic IBM FileNet P8 V5.1 BPM installation from IBM FileNet P8 V4.0 is being planned. To minimize the downtime the customer wants to do staged upgrades. The Application Engine is at V4.0.2 with the latest fix pack already installed. What is the best way to determine the impact of installing fix packs in planning for this scenario?
A. No extra planning is necessary as you always install the latest fix packs during any upgrade.
B. Use the IBM FileNet P8 V5.X Fix Pack Compatibility Matrix to determine which fix packs are compatible.
C. Go to Fix Central, review the fix pack Readme files for the new version applicable fix packs, and only include those that are marked”REQUIRED”.
D. Go to Fix Central, review all the latest component fix pack Readme files for dependencies, and exclude them if the fixes do not relate to thesystem.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 5
A P8 administrator fails to logon to an IBM FileNet P8 V5.1 system when using Workplace XT. FileNet Enterprise Manager (FEM) is able to connect to P8 without issues. The administrator would like to use log4j with Workplace XT to further troubleshoot the issue. In which directory should the log4j file be placed so that logging is enabled for Workplace XT?
A. <install path>/FileNet/Config/AE
B. <install path>/FileNet/Config/WebClient
C. <install path>/FileNet/CEClient/config/samples
D. <install path>/FileNet/AE/CE_API/config/samples

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 6
A consultant has installed an IBM FileNet Process Engine client fix pack on a 3 node, horizontally load balanced Application Engine installation. After an interactive installation, some users are seeing the same problem intermittently, rather than constantly, as it was before the fix pack was installed. What could still be the issue?
A. The fix pack did not correct the problem.
B. The fix pack install script did not deploy the war file properly.
C. The fix pack installer did not delete an application server temp directory.
D. The fix pack install script did not delete an Application Server temp directory.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 7
A P8 Administrator of a company would like to use vwtool to run a trace on region 2. What would be the correct command to switch to region 2?
A. vwtool -region 2
B. vwtool:1>region 2
C. vwtool:2:>region 2
D. vwtool:1>regions 2

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 8
The IBM FileNet Process Engine is unable to start after an upgrade. Customer-provided background information (also known as MustGather data) is being requested by the IBM support engineer. What command should be run to gather operating system configuration and error reports on a Red Hat Enterprise Server system?
A. errpt -a
B. /usr/sbin/dmesg
C. /usr/sbin/prtdiag -v
D. wevtutil epl System Systemlog.evtx

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 9
A security administrator has created an IBM FileNet Content Engine service account for connecting to the LDAP directory server. Which of the following is NOT true about this account?
A. Can be accessed using referrals.
B. Acts as the bind user specified by the application server.
C. Serves as the GCD user that searches users and groups.
D. Must have read access to the forest-wide configuration directory partition.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 10
When configuring a Storage Area to be used by a UNIX hosted IBM FileNet Content Engine, which of the following statements is always true?
A. The ce_appserver_install_group must have read access to the Storage Area file system.
B. The ce_os_group must only have read and execute access to the Storage Area file system.
C. The ce_os_user must have read, write, and execute access to the Storage Area file system.
D. The ce_appserver_install_user must have read, write, and execute access to the Storage Area file system.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 11
A security administrator has been assigned the task of creating a Content Engine bootstrap account. The account must be able perform the following task: establish a connection to the application server, access the JNDI lookup tree and lookup the data source for accessing the GCD. What other function does the Content Engine bootstrap account need to perform?
A. Create the data sources for the GCD.
B. Startup the Content Engine application.
C. Startup the Content Engine background tasks.
D. Startup the Content Engine application server.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 12
An IBM client is planning the implementation of a IBM FileNet P8 Platform and needs to identify the solution components. What are the IBM FileNet P8 V5.1 core components?
A. Content Engine, Process Engine, and Application Engine
B. Image Manager, Process Engine, Application Engine, Workplace XT and Rendition Engine
C. Content Engine, Process Engine, Application Engine, Workplace XT, and Rendition Engine
D. Content Engine, Process Engine, Application Engine, Workplace XT and Enterprise Records

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 13
A customer is planning to implement an IBM FileNet P8 Platform environment and needs to identify the different roles that are recommended to complete the implementation. What are the suggested installation roles as described in the IBM FileNet P8 Installation and Upgrade Worksheet?
A. Database administrator, Application server administrator, and FileNet P8 administrator
B. LDAP administrator, Database administrator, Application server administrator, FileNet P8 administrator, and E-mail administrator
C. Installation administrator, Security administrator, Database administrator, Application server administrator, and FileNet P8 administrator
D. Installation administrator, Information Technology administrator, Security administrator, Database administrator, Application serveradministrator, FileNet P8 administrator, and E-mail administrator

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 14
A customer is designing a highly available IBM FileNet P8 system with both horizontally and vertically scaled implementations of Content Engine and Workplace XT. The customer desires to use a hardware load balancer in front of a series of HTTP proxy servers to spread all HTTP/HTTPS traffic. Additionally, a hardware load balancer will be used to spread traffic across multiple Process Engine servers. The hardware load balancer chosen in this configuration is configured to use a dynamic DNS server. What must be configured in order to facilitate proper high availability functionality of the P8 environment?
A. Session Affinity must be configured for the Process Engine servers.
B. The Content Engine EJB ports must be configured in the load balancer.
C. Time-To-Live (TTL) settings in the application server cluster must be configured.
D. FileNet Enterprise Manager must be configured to connect via the load balancer.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 15
A consultant is completing a IBM FileNet P8 system installation and is configuring FileNet Content Federation Services for Image Services (CFS-IS) for best performance. Which of the following is NOT true when increasing the number of replication workers?
A. Increasing the number of replication workers requires an increase in batch size in a farmed environment.
B. Increasing the number of replication workers increases the number of connections to the IBM FileNet Image Services server.
C. Increasing the number of replication workers increases the Java virtual machine (JVM) memory that is used on the application server.
D. Monitoring the system vitals such as CPU, memory and throughput rates is essential. As system resources are maxed out, increasing thenumber of workers does not increase performance and may decrease performance.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 16
An IBM FileNet P8 client user is receiving authentication errors while attempting to logon to Workplace XT. The network administrator has determined that the clock on the client machine is not in sync with the application server. What steps must be taken to remedy this problem?
A. Sync the clock on the Content Engine and Process Engine.
B. Sync the clock on the Process Engine and Application Engine.
C. Sync the clock on the Application Engine server with all client machines.
D. Sync the clock on Workplace XT, Process Engine and Content Engine.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 17
Which of the following tablespaces should be created in an IBM FileNet Content Engine object store database when using DB2?
A. Data tablespace, GCD tablespace
B. User tablespace, Temporary tablespace
C. Index tablespace (Optional), Large object (Lob) tablespace (Optional)
D. Data tablespace, Index tablespace (Optional), Large object (Lob) tablespace (Optional)

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 18
A customer is deploying Content Engine on Oracle WebLogic. For performance reasons, what value must you set the parameter Max Group Membership Search Level in the Oracle WebLogic Console to control searches within the authentication provider?
A. 1
B. 0
C. -1
D. 75% of max users

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 19
An IT Administrator is creating a Microsoft Windows operating system account for the ce_appserver_install_user. What are the minimum required permissions that need to be set for this account?
A. Read permissions for directories on devices or drives for external file storage.
B. Create permissions for directories on devices or drives for external file storage.
C. Create, read and write permissions for directories on devices or drives for external file storage.
D. Read, write and modify permissions for directories on devices or drives for external file storage.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 20
A customer is planning to use a standalone LDAP configuration on their IBM WebSphere Application Server V7.0. The customer is tasked to configure this as part of the installation project. Where would the customer navigate to first?
A. Security > Global Security
B. Security > Global Security > Authentication
C. Security > Secure administration, applications and infrastructure
D. Security > Secure administration, applications and infrastructure > Authentication

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 21
An IT Administrator is configuring the default file-creation permissions for various IBM FileNet Content Engine users on a UNIX server. What umask setting is required for the user running Content Engine setup (ce_install_user)?
A. u=rwx,g=,o=
B. u=rwx,g=rwx,o=
C. u=rwx,g=rw,o=rw
D. u=rwx,g=rwx,o=rwx

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 22
An IBM FileNet P8 Administrator for a company would like to secure files and folders in the Content Engine file storage area. Which user should the Administrator use to logon to the operating system to achieve this task?
A. ce_os_user
B. ce_install_user
C. config_mgr_user
D. ce_appserver_install_user

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 23
A customer wants to ensure that the CPU usage for IBM FileNet P8 components on a Microsoft Windows 2008 server does NOT regularly increase. Which operating system tool’s configuration should the customer be concerned with?
A. Windows Explorer
B. Component Services
C. Local Security Policy
D. Server Manager Console

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 24
A client is planning on using Centera as their fixed content device. If the number of access nodes is to be three, what should the Maximum Connections be set to?
A. 3
B. 30
C. 45
D. 99

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 25
When installing and deploying Workplace XT across four nodes, at a single site in a highly available configuration (i.e. J2EE application cluster), which of the following two statements follows IBM’s best practices?
A. Install Workplace XT on a single node only.
B. Store all configuration information in the EAR file.
C. Install Workplace XT on all four nodes independently.
D. Use a shared file system for configuration files used by all four nodes.
E. Install Workplace XT on a network file system that is shared by all four nodes.
Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 26

A customer is trying to create an object store using a database storage area. When attempting to create an
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QUESTION NO: 1
What is the recommended solution delivery mechanism for Native Event List tools, prompts, and menus?
A. They are included in the WebGUI configuration.
B. They should be packaged up using nco_conf pack.
C. They should be included in the solution delivery SQL file.
D. They should be documented in the detailed design document but not delivered in the solution delivery package

Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 2
What does the nco_pa_status tool display?
A. the status output from a named Process Agent
B. the status output from all Process Agents in the installation
C. process accounting information for the named ObjectServer
D. process accounting information for all binaries in the IBM Tivoli Netcool/OMNIbus installation
Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 3
The username and password for the ObjectServer datasource is configured in which WebGUI configuration file?
A. $NCHOME/omnibus_webgui/etc/server.init
B. $NCHOME/omnibus_webgui/etc/datasources/ncwDataSource.dtd
C. $NCHOME/omnibus_webgui/etc/datasources/ncwDataSource.xml
D. $NCHOME/omnibus_webgui/etc/datasources/ncwDataSourceDefinitions.xml
Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 4

Pluggable Authentication Modules are used to verify user credentials on a Linux host. What is the correct command line to start process control?
A. %NCHOME/omnibus/bin/nco_pad -admingroup roots -authenticate KER -secure
B. %NCHOME/omnibus/bin/nco_pad -admingroup root -authenticate PAM -secure
C. %NCHOME/omnibus/bin/nco_pad -admingroup admin -authenticate PLUG -secure
D. %NCHOME/omnibus/bin/nco pad -admingroup admin -authenticate UNIX -secure
Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 5
What is the purpose of the BufferSize probe property (common to all probes)?
A. It tells a probe how much memory to allocate for its internal buffers.
B. It tells a probe the size of the buffer to use when reading alerts from its data source.
C. It tells a probe the maximum number of alerts to buffer before flushing them to the destination ObjectServer(s).
D. It tells a probe the maximum number of alerts to have awaiting processing by the rules file. Events received when thebuffer is full are discarded automatically.
Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 6
Which two actions are required when configuring a CGI script to use via a WebGUI tool? (Choose two.)
A. ensure the script is writeable
B. ensure the script is executable
C. save the CGI script on the Web GUI server in the $NCHOME/etc/cgi-bin directory
D. save the CGI script on the Web GUI server in the $OMNIHOME/etc/cgi-bin directory
E. save the CGI script on the Web GUI server in the $NCHOME/omnibus_webgui/etc/cgi-bin directory

Answer: B,E

QUESTION NO: 7
Examine this part of a rules file (line numbers added for troubleshooting)

What is the cause of this error?
A. Dept.lookup has a syntax error.
B. Department is not a valid Objectserver field.
C. The NC_RULES_HOME environment variable is not set.
D. Lookup table definitions must be located at the start of a rules file
Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 8
Which two statements are true regarding Group Filters in WebGUI V7.4? (Choose two.)
A. Only a single copy of the filter is needed.
B. Only users with ncw_admin role can add group filters.
C. User retains a copy of the filter when leaving the group.
D. Global, system, user filters can depend on group filters.
E. Allows users to share filters based on their membership.
Answer: A,E QUESTION NO: 9

What is taken into consideration while calculating sizing for a server that will only run an IBM Tivoli Netcool/OMNIbusObjectServer?
A. number of operator users configured
B. number of WebGUI maps configured
C. number of custom SQL triggers configured
D. number of Process Control agents configured within the solution
Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 10
A company is assessing their user and group requirements for WebGUI WebGUI was configured for ObjectServer authentication during the installation. These users will need access to WebGUI
-10 users will be monitoringthe Active Event List in shifts.They will run tools that will modify
events -1 manager will connect to the Active Event List occasionally to view certain event information -1 user will modify the Event Dashboard portlet preferences -3 users will configure the product to create views and filters for all users
Given these requirements, how many users will belong to each of the default user groups?
A. 1 user is member of ncouser group, and 14 users are members of ncoadmin group.
B. 11 users are members of ncouser group, and 4 users are members of ncoadmin group.
C. 1 user is member of Netcool_OMNIbus_User group, and 14 users are members of Netcool_OMNIbus_Admin group.
D. 11 users are members of Netcool_OMNIbus_User group, and 4 users are members of Netcool_OMNIbus_Admin group
Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 11

A company is using Federated Repository with 3 LDAP servers defined. Users and groups are synced to the ObjectServer. Some users cannot log in to the Tivoli Integrated Portal. The SystemOut.log shows this exception:
[1/23/13 12:44:03:743 CST] 000000b5 exception E com.ibm.ws.wim.ProfileManager loginlmpl
com.ibm.websphere.wim.exception.DuplicateLogonldException: CWWIM4538E Multiple principals were found for the ‘jsmith’ principal name.
What can the administrator do to prevent the error?
A. use one LDAP server only
B. switch users.credentials.sync to False
C. ensure usernames are unique across repositories
D. use different value for users.credentials.sync.groupname
Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 12
Which role is required to administer groups and roles in IBM Tivoli Netcool/OMNIbus V7.4 WebGUI?
A. iscadmins
B. nco_admin
C. configurator
D. administrator
Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 13
Which statement is true about a signal trigger?
A. It is executed repeatedly based on a specified frequency.
B. It can only be executed if the system is running under process control.
C. It can only be executed before or after an event is updated in the ObjectServer.
D. It responds to changes detected within the IBM Tivoli Netcool/OMNIbus processes

Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 14
Which three methods can be used to improve the resiliency of the IBM Tivoli Netcool/OMNIbus deployment? (Choose three.)
A. deploying ObjectServers in pairs
B. configuring and maintaining single sign-on capability
C. deploying a second probe in peer-to-peer mode for any running probe
D. using a probe raw capture file to determine the raw data reaching a probe
E. setting up a cluster of Web GUI servers and then enabling Web GUI load balancing
F. enabling multiple logins to allow multiple users to log in using the same user ID and password
Answer: A,C,E

QUESTION NO: 15
What must be configured to run an ObjectServer in FIPS 140-2 security mode?
A. set the SecurityEncryption property of the ObjectServer to the DES setting
B. set the SecurityEncryption property of the ObjectServer to the AES setting
C. set the PasswordEncryption property of the ObjectServer to the DES setting
D. set the PasswordEncryption property of the ObjectServer to the AES setting
Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 16
What is the only environment variable that has to be set to start the Display ObjectServer?
A. NCHOME
B. OMNI_HOME
C. JAVA_HOME
D. LD_LIBRARY_PATH

Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 17
Click the Exhibit button.

An administrator at Widgetcom intends to use the standard multitier architecture configuration that ships with IBM Tivoli Netcool/OMNIbus V7.4 (Netcool/OMNIbus) to deploy an aggregation pair of ObjectServers AGG_P (primary) and AGG_B (backup) with a failover bidirectional gateway connecting them: AGG_GATE.
Two physical computer systems will be used to deploy this single tier deployment of Netcool/OMNIbus. What is the minimum memory that should be provisioned for the Netcool/OMNIbus components running on the primary aggregation ObjectServer host?
A. 1 GB
B. 2 GB
C. 4 GB
D. 6 GB
Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 18

The goal is a configuration that implements ObjectServer failover and fallback in the most efficient manner and in accordance with standard Best Practices.
Which statement is true about configuring ObjectServer users in the LONDON_GATE property file?
A. Different ObjectServer user names can be used for each ObjectServer.
B. ObjectServer user names and passwords are not required in the gateway property file.
C. The password value entered in the gateway property file for the ObjectServer users must be encrypted using thenco_g_crypt Utility.
D. The same ObjectServer user name configured in the gateway property file must be defined in the LONDON_P andLONDON_B ObjectServers.
Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 19
When developing several new pages in a sandbox dev/test system for the WebGUI, the work is ready to migrate to production during a change control. How is the migration performed?
A. use a series oftipcli.sh import and export commands
B. migrate the files in tip_home_dir/profiles/TIPProfile/outputto the new system
C. use the import/ export wizard in the Settings page of the WebGUI as an administrator
D. create a tar file of the appropriate files in tip_home_dir/profiles/TIPProfile/etc/pages; transfer the tar file to the newsystem and untar in the same location
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 20
Click the Exhibit button.

When creating a new external procedure in the ObjectServer, which hostname should be listed as the Host parameter?
A. localhost
B. the ObjectServer hostname
C. the local Process Agent name
D. the hostname where the executable will be run
Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 21
During an ObjectServer upgrade it is determined that AES encryption was used. What must be done to the upgrade to comply with FIPS 140?

A. keys will work with AES encryption for FIPS 140
B. decrypt everything with nco_aec_crypt withthe -d option, then encryptwith nco_keygen -keyfile <filelocation>
C. decrypt everything with nco_aec_de crypt, then re-encrypt with nco_keygen and nco_aes_crypt to store thekeys in the proper keyfile
D. decrypt everything with nco_aes_crypt with the -d option, then re-encrypt with nco_keygen andnco_aes_crypt to store the keys in the proper keyfile
Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 22
Which data does the nco_os report tool export in a variety of formats?
A. all data from an ObjectServer
B. operating system performance data
C. only configuration data from an ObjectServer
D. configuration data of an IBM Tivoli Netcool/OMNIbus installation
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 23

The goal is a configuration that implements ObjectServer failover and fallback in the most efficient manner and in accordance with standard Best Practices.
Which statement correctly describes the use of the primary_only Trigger Group?
A. The primary_only Trigger Group is only defined in the LONDON_P ObjectServer.
B. The primary_only Trigger Group is only defined in the LONDON_B ObjectServer.
C. The primary_only Trigger Group is always enabled in the LONDON_B ObjectServer.
D. The primary_only Trigger Group is only enabled in the LONDON_B ObjectServer when LONDON_P is down.

Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 24
If UNIX authentication is used by a ProcessAgent, which check is made for any incoming connection to be accepted?
A. The user’s shell (in/etc/passwd) must not be/bin/false.
B. The connection must be made via an SSL port; connections over non-SSL ports are rejected.
C. The user must be a member of the ncoadmin group (or whatever the -admingroup property is set to).
D. The host that the connect is coming from must be listed in a host entry in the nco_routing section of the ProcessAgent’sconfiguration file.
Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 25
What are the steps to clone an ObjectServer?
A. It is not possible to exactly clone an ObjectServer.
B. Export the ObjectServer configuration into SQL files with nco_conf pack.Run the SQL files using nco_sqlto createthe new ObjectServer.
C. Export the ObjectServer configuration into SQL files with nco_os report. Use the SQL files to create a newObjectServer with nco_dbinit.
D. Export the ObjectServer configuration into SQL files with nco_conf pack. Use the SQL files to create a newObjectServer with nco_dbinit.
Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 26
What is the difference between the hash and tree database index structure?
A. The hash index can only be used on INTEGER columns. The tree index can be used on any

column data type.
B. The tree index can only be used on VARCHAR columns. The hash index can be used on any column data type.
C. The hash index supports equality comparisons in SQL queries. The tree index is an ordered index that stores columnvalues in a sorted structure.
D. The hash index is an ordered index that stores column values in a sorted structure. The tree index supports equalitycomparisons in SQL queries.
Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 27
An administrator would like to give a group of users access to an Active Event List in IBM Tivoli Netcool/OMNIbus V7.4 WebGUI but keep them from using right-click tools. Which role should be used?
A. ncw_user
B. netcool_ro
C. netcool_nt
D. netcool_rw
Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 28
What is the purpose of probe rules file caching (e.g. the CacheRulesFile property)?
A. It provides a system for selecting which events to cache so that they can be processed by the probe at a later time (i.e.when a target ObjectServer is less busy).
B. It provides a system for storing a probe’s last known working rules file and using it in the case when the probe is restartedwith an unavailable or invalid local rules file.
C. It causes the probe to cache its current rules file into memory so that a running probe is not automatically affected bysubsequent changes to the rules file(s) on disk.
D. It specifies a rules file for processing events previously cached by the probe and are being replayed. This allows differentrules to be applied to cached and non-cached events.
Answer: B QUESTION NO: 29

These IBM Tivoli Netcool/OMNIbus profile statistics were collected with a granularity period of 60 seconds:

What should be the first action to optimize the ObjectServer performance?
A. limit access for users to run ISQL queries
B. analyze client filters and make them more efficient
C. analyze the number of gateway connections and drop connections not in use
D. analyze and correct probe rulesfile so that unnecessary events or event details will not be forwarded to the ObjectServer
Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 30
A customer would like to migrate a WebGUI V7.3.1 scenario running TIP V2.1 to the a WebGUI V7.4 configuration running on another server Following a successful export of data from the source V7.3.1 system, they cannot find the resulting data file. Where would this file be generated?
A. inthetip_home_dir/profiles/TIPProfile/logs directory
B. in the tip_home_dir/profiles/TIPProfile/output directory
C. in the $NCHOME/omnibus_webgui/integration/migration_tool directory
D. in the $NCHOME/omnibus_webgui/integration/importexport_tool directory

Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 31
Which two statements are true about configuring probes to use failover IBM Tivoli Netcool Proxy Servers? (Choose two.)
A. The probe’s IsProxyConnection property should be set to 1.
B. The probe’s PeerHost property should be set to point at the backup proxy server.
C. The probe’s PeerHost property should be set to point at the primary proxy server.
D. The probe’s Server property should be configured to point at the primary proxy server.
E. The probe’s ServerBackup property should be configured to point at the backup proxy server.
Answer: D,E

QUESTION NO: 32
What is the default Windows path where IBM Tivoli Netcool/OMNIbus V7.4 is installed?
A. C:\IBM\netcool
B. C:\IBM\Tivoli\netcool
C. C:\ProgramFiles\IBM\netcool
D. C:\Program Files\micromuse\netcool
Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 33
What is one of the first steps that the WebGUI administrator should do when creating a new page for a user?
A. define the page wires for the different workspaces
B. set the page location, source URL, and tools accessibility
C. set the page properties, roles, layouts, and levels of access
D. define the user access groups for each workspace on the page

Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 34
Which three software components are required for a WebGUI Load Balancing cluster? (Choose
three)

A. process agent
B. IBM HTTP Server
C. IBM DB2 database
D. bi-directional gateway
E. IBM Load Balancing Gateway
F. IBM Tivoli Netcool/OMNIbus WebGUI Cluster nodes
Answer: B,C,F

QUESTION NO: 35
A customer has a requirement that events must be obtained from an application. The events are to be sourced from a log file – one event per line. Which two probes could be used to do this? (Choose two)
A. EIF Probe
B. GLF Probe
C. Syslog Probe
D. Socket Probe
E. Syslogd Probe
Answer: B,C
QUESTION NO: 36
What is the effect of this command?
%OMNIHOME%\bin\nco_probeeventfactory.cmd -host servername.ibm.com -port 2020 AlertGroup=Netcool Manager=mttrapd Host=testserver.ibm.com Severity=l

A. It sends a request to update the remote Probe Rules file with the listed event field values.
B. It sends a request to update the remote Probe properties file with the listed event field values.
C. It generates an event with the listed event field values to a probe whose host is testserver.ibm.com.
D. It generates an event with the listed event field values to a probe whose host is servername.ibm.com.
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 37
Click the Exhibit button.

Widgetcom has deployed this 3-tier standard multi-tier architecture deployment of IBM Tivoli Netcool/OMNIbus V7.4 (Netcool/OMNIbus) using the best practice configuration that ships with the product:
Assuming all Netcool/OMNIbus components have been set up in accordance with best practices, which two commands can be used to verify that the various components are up and running? (Choose two)
A. nco_ping

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Question No : 1
A customer wants fully autonomous monitoring for their operating systems which are based in a placewith these restrictions:

The traditional operating system agents (the knt, klz, and kux agents that monitor the Windows, Linux, and UNIX operating environments) cannot be used directly.
Which statement is true in order to meet the customer’s requirements?
A. IBM Tivoli Monitoring (ITM) will not be the right solution because of the relatively large agent footprint.
B. ITM will not be the right solution because Java is required for all ITM agents to operate.
C. The traditional ITM operating system agents must be configured for Autonomous Mode.
D. The customer will have to deploy the System Monitor Agents which provide autonomous-only monitoring for their operating systems.

Answer: D
Question No : 2
What information must be collected in order toplan a Hub Tivoli Enterprise Monitoring Server in an IBM Tivoli Monitoring V6.2.2 (ITM) implementation?
A. The location of the servers to be monitored.
B. Which applications are running on the monitored servers?
C. The number of servers and applications monitored by ITM.
D. How many users are logged into each of the monitored servers?

Answer: C
Question No : 3
What are two considerations before installing any IBM Tivoli Monitoring component in an environment where a single or multiple firewall(s) exist? (Choose two.)
A. Open only one port on the firewall(s).
B. Opening as few ports on the firewall(s) as possible.
C. The existing firewall(s) must be moved and/or uninstalled.
D. Location of components to be installed relation to existing firewall(s).
E. If a single or multiple firewall exists then the KDE gateway must be used.

Answer: B,D
Question No : 4
Which two pieces of information must be collected in order to select the appropriate monitoring agent? (Choose two.)
A. Theapplications to be monitored.
B. The firewalls in the company’s network.
C. The size of the data warehouse database.
D. The operating system of the servers to be monitored.
E. The operating system of the Tivoli Enterprise Monitoring Server.

Answer: A,D
Question No : 5
According to the IBM Tivoli Monitoring V6.2.2 Installation and Setup Guide, what is the maximum number of agents that a remote Tivoli Enterprise Monitoring Server (RTEMS) can handle?
A. 500
B. 1500
C. 2500
D. 3500

Answer: B
Question No : 6
When planning to deploy a KDE Gateway, which two IBM Tivoli Monitoring components must be configured to add the KDE Gateway configuration? (Choose two.)
A. Warehouse Proxy Agent
B. Tivoli Enterprise Portal Server
C. Tivoli Enterprise Monitoring Agent
D. Tivoli Enterprise Monitoring Server
E. Summarization and Pruning Agent

Answer: C,D
Question No : 7
Which protocol can an agent use to send messages to an event management system when the agent is running in Autonomous mode?
A. XML
B. SSH
C. SOAP
D. SNMP

Answer: D
Question No : 8
An agentless monitoring server is installed with these active agentless monitor instance types started: 2 AIX, 2 Linux, 2 Solaris, 2 Windows. What is the maximum number of systems that can be monitored?

A. 8
B. 80
C. 800
D. 8000

Answer: C
Question No : 9
Which three database products are supported for the Tivoli Data Warehouse database? (Choose three.)
A. Derby
B. Oracle
C. Sybase
D. MS SQL
E. IBM DB2
F. IBM Informix
Answer: B,D,E

Explanation:
QUESTIONNO: 10 A customer must perform trend analysis for future growth. Which product should be included in the design?
A. IBM System Director
B. IBM Tivoli Common Reporting
C. IBM Tivoli Performance Analyzer
D. IBM Tivoli Monitoring Agent Builder
Answer:C

Question No : 10
Which two items can be specified while configuring a Tivoli Enterprise Monitoring Server (TEMS)? (Choose two.)
A. TEMS gateways
B. configure Hot Standby TEMS
C. Tivoli Event Integration Facility
D. hostname of the data warehouseserver
E. hostname of the Tivoli Enterprise Portal Server

Answer: B,C Question No : 11
What are three supported relational databases for the Tivoli Enterprise Portal Server? (Choose three.)
A. Derby
B. Oracle
C. Sybase
D. Informix
E. IBM DB2
F. SQL Server

Answer: A,E,F
Question No : 12
The WAREHOUSEAGGREGLOG table provides what type of information?
A. attribute group names and number of rows processed by the Summarization and Pruning agent
B. number of rows of summarized data currentlyresiding in the Tivoli Data Warehouse for each attribute group
C. messages regarding connection of the Summarization and Pruning agent to the Tivoli Enterprise Monitoring Server
D. statistics about how many rows of summarized historical data have been retrieved for display at the Tivoli Enterprise Portal Server

Answer: A
Question No : 13
In IBM Tivoli Monitoring, which three agents can have Application Support installed during the Tivoli Enterprise Portal Server installation process? (Choose three.)
A. Agent Builder
B. Universal Agent
C. Warehouse Proxy
D. Agentless Monitoring for Linux
E. Monitoring Agent for Watchdog
F. Monitoring Agent for OMEGAMON XE for Messaging

Answer: B,C,D
Question No : 14
Which two methods can be used on a Windows computer to check the status of remote agent deployments? (Choose two.)
A. the command tacmd viewDepot
B. the command tacmd getDeployStatus
C. the Deployment Status Summary workspace
D. the command itmcmd viewDeployStatus
E. the Manage Tivoli Enterprise Monitoring Servers workspace

Answer: B,C
Question No : 15
An IBM Tivoli Monitoring V6.2.2 (ITM) fix pack was successfully installed but workspaces are not properly displaying the updated version of agents. What must be done to fix this problem?
A. restart the Tivoli Enterprise Portal Server (TEPS)
B. reconfigure TEPS
C. reinstall the ITM fix pack and restart TEPS
D. restart TEPS and the Tivoli Enterprise Monitoring Agent

Answer: B
Question No : 16
What is the default agent installationdirectory on UNIX?
A. /IBM/ITM
B. /usr/ibm/itm
C. /var/IBM/ITM
D. /opt/IBM/ITM

Answer: D
Question No : 17
When installing Application Support for an agent on the Tivoli Enterprise Portal Server (TEPS), which three components are added into the TEPSdatabase? (Choose three.)
A. Agent Product Provided Queries
B. Agent Product Provided Situations
C. Agent Product Provided Workspaces
D. Agent Product Provided Policies/Workflows
E. Agent Product Provided Managed System Group
F. Agent Product Provided Catalog and Attribute Files

Answer: A,C,F
Question No : 18
How is Application Support installed on a Windows Tivoli Enterprise Portal Server?
A. the command kincinfo
B. the command itmcmd support
C. setup.exe from the installation media
D. Manage Tivoli Enterprise Monitoring Services

Answer: C
Question No : 19
On Linux the Warehouse Proxy agent uses a JDBC driver to connect to the Tivoli Data Warehouse. This requires the specification of an URL. Which item is required to be specified in the URL?
A. port 1918
B. Tivoli Data Warehouse name
C. Warehouse user and password
D. IP address of the database server

Answer: B
Question No : 20
What are two considerations when configuring two Hub Tivoli Enterprise Monitoring Servers (TEMS) for Hot Standby? (Choose two.)
A. Different protocols can be used only if they are in the TCP/IP family.
B. Different communication protocols on Primary and Secondary Hub TEMS can be used.
C. The communication protocol on the Primary and Secondary Hub TEMS must be the same.
D. Both Primary and Secondary Hub TEMS must be at the same release and maintenance level.
E. Secondary Hub TEMS must be started and have all Agents/Remote TEMS connected to it before configuring and starting the Primary Hub.

Answer: C,D
Question No : 21
When configuring the Summarization and Pruning Agent, which three databases can be specified for the Tivoli Data Warehouse? (Choose three.)
A. Derby
B. Oracle
C. Sybase
D. IBM DB2
E. IBM Informix
F. MS SQL (SQL Server)

Answer: B,D,F
Question No : 22
Which items are required during an Agent Builder installation?
A. language, install directory
B. language, install directory, host name, port of the Tivoli Enterprise Portal Server
C. language, install directory, IBM TivoliMonitoring install directory of the OS Agent
D. language, install directory, hostname, port, protocol of the Hub Tivoli Enterprise Monitoring Server

Answer: A
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QUESTION NO: 1
In the Catalogs application, how can an administrator quickly add several offerings into a catalog?
A. In the Catalog tab, use the Select Offerings option
B. Click on the Deploy Multiple Offerings icon on the toolbar
C. Use the Add Multiple Offerings option in the Select Action menu
D. In the Offerings tab, use the Add Offering option and select multiple offerings at once

Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 2
A survey must be in which status in order to make and apply updates?
A. Draft
B. Closed
C. Inactive
D. Pending
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 3
Which field is mandatory when creating a new Response Plan?
A. Ranking
B. Conditions
C. Description
D. Response Plan Administrator
Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 4
What type of event can be associated with an object launch point?
A. New
B. Create
C. Update
D. Activate

Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 5
Which two types of information are displayed when viewing survey results? (Choose two.)
A. The percentage of each answers for the number of responses.
B. The percentage of users who have responded for tracked surveys.
C. How many users received the survey for tracked but not untracked surveys.
D. How many user received the survey for both tracked and untracked surveys.
E. The percentage of answers responded to for each question weighted a value of one (1).
Answer: A,D

QUESTION NO: 6
What is the Priority Matrix used for?
A. To set the Internal Priority based on Impact and Urgency
B. To set the External Priority based on Impact and Urgency
C. To set the Internal Priority based on Impact and Reported Priority
D. To set the External Priority based on Impact and Reported Priority
Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 7
A consultant is implementing the Incident and Problem Management process at a customer site. The customer requires that an incident is associated to a problem record before it is resolved. What should be done to accomplish this?
A. Create an incident and check Is Known Error check box
B. Add a reference to the problem in the Incident Work Log
C. Use the Select Action menu to create a problem from incident record
D. Use the Failure Reporting tab to create a problem record and associates it with the incident
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 8
In IBM SmartCloud Control Desk V7.5, which two applications can be filtered by individual service or service group? (Choose two.)
A. Users
B. Actions
C. Contracts
D. User Groups
E. Work Orders
Answer: C,E

QUESTION NO: 9
Which action should be taken by an agent before resolving an incident?
A. Complete each worklog entry
B. Mark the incident as a known issue
C. Enter symptom, cause, and resolution in the Solution Details tab
D. For global incidents, each related incident must be resolved manually
Answer: C QUESTION NO: 10
What are two methods to place a new Service Request (SR) under a Service Level Agreement (SLAy? (Choose two.)
A. The SLA is applied with an action within a workflow.
B. Click the Apply SLA action from the Select Action menu.
C. A ticket template includes a SLAt0 be applied to the SR.
D. A SLA is defined as part of the classification used on the SR.
E. The self-service user selects a valid SLA when creating a new SR.
Answer: A,B
QUESTION NO: 11
The Offerings application is used for what two purposes? (Choose two.)
A. To grant administrative rights to offerings
B. To define the approvals for the Offering Fulfillment process
C. To define which catalogs the specific offering is a member of
D. To create a process that will be followed once the offering is approved
E. To create a process that will be followed once the offering is requested
Answer: B,C
QUESTION NO: 12
What two type of questions are available when creating question and answer sets for surveys? (Choose two.)
A. Attribute
B. Free form
C. Mandatory
D. Check Box
E. Combo Box
Answer: B,D QUESTION NO: 13
Which three pieces of information may be stored on a Ticket Template and applied to a Service Request? (Choose three.)
A. Owner Group
B. Classification
C. Internal Priority
D. Affected Person
E. Reported Priority
F. Service Level Agreement
Answer: A,B,C
QUESTION NO: 14
Which statement is true about adding keywords to a solutions record?
A. New keywords can only be added by the owner of the solution.
B. New keywords can only be added from the Domains application.
C. New keywords can only be added from the Solutions application.
D. The keywords list is predefined during implementation and cannot be modified.
Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 15
The View Catalog Request application is used for what purpose?
A. To view and manage all service requests
B. To view and manage all service requests for a user
C. To view and manage submitted requests for available offerings for a user
D. To view and manage submitted requests for available catalogs for a user
Answer: C QUESTION NO: 16
In IBM SmartCloud Control Desk V7.5, which two types of records can be related to a service group? (Choose two.)
A. Users
B. Assets
C. Access
D. Locations
E. Time Zones
Answer: B,D
QUESTION NO: 17
What is a valid status sequence for a Response Plan?
A. Draft> Active > Inactive> Active
B. New> Active> Inactive > Revised
C. Draft> Pending > Active> Inactive
D. New> Pending> Active > Revised
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 18
When a Self Service Center user is searching for a particular offering, how can they tell the difference between an offering and a solution if they performed a general search using the Search field?
A. Offerings have puzzle pieces as icons.
B. Offerings usually have icons that represent their service.
C. Offerings for the user will be found in Frequent Requests.
D. Offerings can only be found in the Request New Service folder.

Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 19
Which statement is true about cart templates in IBM SmartCloud Control Desk V7.5?
A. It is possible to add multiple cart templates in a shopping cart.
B. It is possible to add only one cart template in each shopping cart.
C. It is possible to add multiple cart templates in a shopping cart only after the offering is validated.
D. It is possible to add multiple cart templates in a shopping cart only if each item in the cart template is different.
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 20
How does a service desk agent report the labor time spent for each activity related to resolving a problem?
A. Use the Time Tracking section
B. Apply a Service Level Agreement to the problem ticket
C. Add the labor, start time, and end time in the Failure Reporting tab
D. Use the buttons Start Timer and Stop Timer in the Problem application
Answer: A
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QUESTION 1
Which three reporting options are available under the Analytics function in the Data Management Portal? (Choose three.)
A. Custom Query
B. Change History
C. Topology Builder
D. Grouping Composer
E. Component Comparison
F. Topology Agents Groups Status

Correct Answer: ABE
QUESTION 2
Which file is used to edit the logging properties?
A. edm.properties
B. bulkload.properties
C. collation.properties
D. database.properties

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 3
What are two ways IBM Tivoli Application Dependency Discovery Manager V7.2.1.3 supports multi-tenancy? (Choose two.)
A. by using access collections
B. by using auto-tagging feature
C. by using business applications
D. by using logical groups called tenant groups
E. by having dedicated databases for each customer

Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 4
Which discovery scans the TCP/IP stack in a credential-less mode?
A. Level0
B. Level 1
C. Level2
D. Level3

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 5
What is the general rule regarding streaming architecture which requires new firewall rules beyond those in the synchronization environment?
A. Configure anchors and gateways for discovery though a firewall.
B. Deploy an anchor between the discovery server and each firewall.
C. Firewalls between discovery servers and storage servers are not supported at this point.
D. Firewall ports must be open so that the primary storage server can establish connections to the discovery server.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 6
To troubleshoot WMI/SSH related issues on Windows and UNIX target servers, the support tools in the support/bin directory use the credentials to authenticate to the target servers. Where are the credentials stored?
A. In an XML file
B. In an Access list
C. in the collation.properties file
D. passed as an argument to the support tool command

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 7
What are two deployment options for IBM Tivoli Application Dependency Discovery Manager V7.2.1.3? (Choose two.)
A. Slipstreamed deployment
B. Reverse proxy deployment
C. Domain sewer deployment
D. Streaming server deployment
E. Replication server deployment

Correct Answer: CD QUESTION 8
A discovery schedule can be added using which option in the IBM Tivoli Application Dependency Discovery Manager V7.2.1.3 Discovery Management Console?
A. Schedule > Discovery
B. Discovery> Schedule
C. Schedule > Add Schedule
D. Discovery Profile > Schedule

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 9
What is the correct process to define a username and password for only a specific group of servers?
A. Assign a scope to the access list.
B. Assign the access list to an access group.
C. Assign the access list to a custom server group.
D. Enter the hostname(s) or IP address(es) in the custom server list.

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 10
What is the correct support command syntax to debug WMI issue on target Windows servers?
A. ./wmiexec.jy <command> <IP Address>
B. ./execwin.jy <IP Address> <command>
C. . /wmiexec.jy -u <userid> -p <password> <IP Address> <command>
D. . /wmiexec.jy -i <IP Address> -c <command> -u <userid> -p <password>

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 11
Which statement is true regarding streaming architecture?
A. Scopes, profiles, and access lists are unique to each discovery server.
B. All scopes, profiles, and access lists become usable by all discovery servers.
C. All profiles become usable by all discovery servers; access lists and scopes are unique to discovery servers.
D. All scopes and profiles become usable by all discovery servers; each access list is unique to the discovery server.

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 12
Which information is most important to properly size an IBM Tivoli Application Dependency Discovery Manager V7.2.1.3 (TADDM) server?
A. the number of subnets to be discovered
B. the number of users that will use TADDM
C. the number of databases to be discovered
D. the number of server equivalents to be discovered

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 13
IBM Tivoli Application Dependency Discovery Manager V7.2.1.3 has just been installed on a Linux system. Which step should the administrator do right after installation?
A. Check that firewalls have the proper ports defined
B. Ensure that SSL is turned off on the client systems
C. Verity that the Apache server is running with the appropriate settings
D. Run the command $C0LLATI0N HOME/bin/control status and check for errors

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 14
Which two elements are required to be specified when initiating an IBM Tivoli Application Dependency Discovery Manager V7.2.1.3 discovery using the Discovery Management Console?
A. Credentials, schedule
B. Schedule, component
C. Profile, scope elements
D. Program name, credentials

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 15
Which tool is used for generating the database view that corresponds to an existing extended attribute?
A. ext-dep.sh
B. sax2exts.py
C. extattr_views.sh
D. mysql_extattribs.jy

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 16
Which status code indicates a problem occurred during discovery that requires additional analysis?
A. Error
B. Fatal
C. Failure
D. Critical

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 17
Which script is used for creating the IBM Tivoli Application Dependency Discovery Manager database in an DB2 UNIX/Linux environment?
A. pg2db2 .sh
B. gen_db_stats.jy
C. make_db2_db.sh
D. db2updatestats.sh

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 18
Which two statements are true when the property value com.collation.discover.anchor.forceDeployment is set to False? (Choose two.)
A. Anchors are deployed during discovery startup.
B. Anchors are not deployed during the discovery process.
C. Anchors are deployed only if any IP address from the scope cannot be pinged.
D. Anchors are deployed if port 22 cannot be reached on any of the discovered IP addresses.
E. Anchors are deployed only if cygwin or the bitvise SSH server program is found on the system.

Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 19
Which files must be copied from IBM Tivoli Enterprise Portal Server to the IBM Tivoli Application Dependency Discovery Manager server for IBM Tivoli Monitoring Endpoint discovery?
A. TaddmPortMap.exe, aports.dll, tap_cli.jar
B. TaddmWmi.dII, TaddmWmi.mof, TaddmWmi.exe, tap_cli jar
C. browser.jar, cnp.jar, cnp_vbjorball.jar, kjrall.jar, util.jar, tap_cu.jar
D. TaddmWmi.dll, TaddmWmi.exe, TaddmWmi.pdb, cnp_vbjorball.jar

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 20
Which two tasks must be performed before upgrading the IBM Tivoli Application Dependency Discovery Manager V7.2.1.3 (TADDM) server which used an IBM DB2 database? (Choose two.)
A. Do not drop any database triggers.
B. Run db2 drop database taddm.
C. Ensure primary database users have the authority to run the LOAD command.
D. Ensure that the TADDM server Java processes are running before and during the upgrade.
E. Ensure names of business applications and services do not contain single or double quotation marks.

Correct Answer: CE
QUESTION 21
What is used for importing report design files into IBM Tivoli Application Dependency Discovery Manager V7.2.1.3?
A. Import Report Wizard IBM

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QUESTION NO: 1
What is the maximum number of units that can be defined for an IBM Tivoli Workload Scheduler V8.6 resource?

A. 32
B. 60
C. 1,024
D. 99,999.999
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 2
Which UNIX/Linux user can change eWAS trace properties?
A. root
B. <TWS_User>
C. <useropts_user>
D. any user that can authenticate to eWAS
Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 3
Which three installation methods are supported for installing an IBM Tivoli Workload Scheduler (TWS) for Applications V8.5 extended agent on a TWS V8.6 fault-tolerant agent on a Windows workstation? (Choose three.)
A. twsappsinst
B. installer.exe
C. twainstall.exe
D. Iaunchpad.exe
E. InstatlShield MultiPlatform silent
F. Software Distribution software package blocks
Answer: D,E,F
QUESTION NO: 4
What is a potential reason for a job to go from an internal status of READY to FAIL?
A. netman is down
B. batchman is down
C. the script defined in the job does not exist
D. the return code the job returned is not equal to 0
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 5
Which two relational database systems are supported by IBM Tivoli Workload Scheduler V8.6? (Choose two.)
A. Oracle
B. Sybase
C. Informix
D. MS SQL
E. IBM DB2
Answer: A,E

QUESTION NO: 6
Which two objects can be managed using monitor tasks on multiple engines? (Choose two.)
A. jobs
B. resources
C. event rules
D. job streams
E. workstations
Answer: A,D
QUESTION NO: 7
How can dynamic agents be used in an IBM Tivoli Workload Scheduler V8.6 topology where multiple firewalls exist?
A. All dynamic agents must connect to the master domain manager.
B. All dynamic agents must connect to the dynamic domain manager.
C. A dynamic agent must connect to either the master domain manager or the dynamic domain manager.
D. A dynamic agent can only connect to the master domain manager once the dynamic domain manager fails.
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 8
Where is a Windows user object created using Dynamic Workload Console?
A. Settings > Credential Store
B. Users and Groups > User Roles
C. Users and Groups > Manage Users
D. Tivoli Workload Scheduler > Workload > Design > Create Workload Definitions
Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 9
What must occur in the correct order to install the Tivoli Dynamic Workload Console on an existing
instance of the embedded WebSphere Application Server?
A.
1.
Supply the username and password of the existing RDBMS instance.

2.
Select the port of the embedded WebSphere Application Server.
B.
1.
Supply the port number of the Tivoli Integrated Portal.

2.
Supply the username and password of the existing instance of the embedded WebSphere Application Server.
C.
1.
Supply the username and password of the existing instance of the embedded WebSphere Application Server.

2.
Select if the administrator should have rights to access the IBM Tivoli Workload Scheduler portlets, the dynamic workload broker portlets, or both.
D.
1.
Select if the administrator should have rights to access the IBM Tivoli Workload Scheduler portlets, the dynamic workload broker porrtlets, or both.

2.
Select the port of the embedded WebSphere Application Server.
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 10
A user has installed an IBM Tivoli Workload Scheduler V8.6 (TWS) master domain manager (MDM) on their own computer. Their computer is connected to the production network. The user has copied the workstation definitions from the production MDM to their own database. How can this user’s TWS master be prevented from connecting to the production agents and initializing them with their own production plan?
A. set the BEHINDRREWALL flag on all workstation definitions to ON
B. enable centralized security by setting the enCentSec option to YES
C. configure the agents’ firewalls to prohibit socket connections to port 31111
D. install IBM Tivoli Access Manager for Operating Systems on all production agents
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 11
Which workstation type allows the inclusion of requirements for jobs running on the workstation?
A. pool
B. class
C. dynamic pool
D. fault-tolerant agent
Answer: C

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QUESTION: 1 An IBM Tivoli Netcool/lmpact V6.1 system is configured to perform event enrichment by retrieving ObjectServer events which have an empty Location field. Which Service Log can be used to verify that Netcool/lmpact is selecting events from the ObjectServer based upon that condition?
A. the PolicyLogger service
B. the PolicyActivator service
C. the OMNIbusEventReader service
D. the OMNIbusEventListener service
Answer: C
QUESTION: 2 Which command line function should be executed prior to applying a product fix or upgrading the IBM Tivoli Netcool/lmpact Server as best practice?
A. nci_crypt
B. nci_policy
C. nci_trigger
D. nci_export

Answer: D
QUESTION: 3 How is the name of the IBM Tivoli N etc oo I/Imp act Server Instance on the console identified?
A. check the IBM Installer utility litslll.sh to show the Impact Server Instance Names that have been set up
B. check the TIPProfile/logs/server1 directory -the SystemOutlog holds the Impact Service Instance name
C. use the nci_server command line utility to show the Impact Server Instance Names that have been set up
D. check the impact/etc directory -all Impact Server Instance-related files use the Instance Name in the beginning of every file name

Answer: D
QUESTION: 4
In which folder are the IBM Tivoli Netcool/lmpact V6.1 service logs stored?
A. $NCHOME/logs
B. $IMPACT_HOME/log
C. $IMPACT_HOME/Iogs
D. $IMPACT_HOME/services/logs

Answer: C
QUESTION: 5
A new Impact Server will be installed using the console mode of the installer application.
Which statement is true?

A. All default ports must be available.
B. The installer will not check if the required ports are available.
C. A starting point of ports can be selected if the default ports are not available.
D. The installer will adapt the required ports if some are tested as in use during the installation.

Answer: C
QUESTION: 6 In order for IBM Tivoli Netcool/lmpact V6.1 to start using the ObjectServer for authentication, the server must be configured so that it can map the roles that the application exposes to groups and/or users managed in IBM Tivoli Netcool/OMNIbus. Which file must be edited for this purpose?
A. omnibus.conf
B. omnibususers
C. guiserver.setting
D. objectserver.conf

Answer: C
QUESTION: 7 On a server with only command line access, the server in an IBM Tivoli Netcool/lmpact cluster is identified as acting as a primary server by using which command line utility?
A. nci_server
B. nci_trigger
C. nci_get_primary

D. nci_findendpoint

Answer: C
QUESTION: 8
Which component of IBM WebSphere is installed with IBM Tivoli Netcool/lmpact V6.1?

A. WebSphere MQ
B. WebSphere Portal Server
C. WebSphere Process Server
D. Embedded WebSphere Application Server

Answer: D
QUESTION: 9
What is the purpose of a project in IBM Tivoli Netcool/lmpact V6.1?

A. It allows for creating subsets of the elements stored in the global repository.
B. It allows for creating subsets of the elements stored in the Impact repository.
C. It allows for creating subsets of the elements stored across cluster members.
D. It allows for creating supersets of the elements stored in the global repository.

Answer: A
QUESTION: 10 Which three IBM Tivoli Netcool/lmpact roles in Tivoli Integrated Portal can be used to control users access to navigation pages in the GUI and to permit users to unlock their own files?
A. impactSuperUser. impactFullAccessUser, and impactOpViewUser
B. impactAdminUser, impactReadWriteUser, and impactOpViewUser
C. impactAdminUser, impactFullAccessUser, and impactOpViewUser
D. impactAdminUser, impactFullAccessUser, and impactReadOnlyUser

Answer: C
QUESTION: 11 Which step is required to design an IBM Tivoli Netcool/lmpact V6.1 solution from stakeholder requirements?

A. Determine if the correct Java version is installed.
B. Create an architecture and a raw functional design of policies.
C. Determine if enough disk space is provided on the installation servers.
D. Interview the operational staff to determine their most efficient way to resolve a problem

Answer: B
QUESTION: 12
What are two ways Data Source Adapters are used in IBM Tivoli Netcool/lmpact V6.1?
(Choose two.)

A. to monitor Netcool/lmpact services
B. to communicate with external data sources
C. to extend the capabilities of Netcool/lmpact
D. to apply product fixes to the Netcool/lmpact Server
E. to start the policy logging service in Netcool/lmpact

Answer: B, C
QUESTION: 13 Given only command line access, where is it verified that a newly started IBM Tivoli Netcool/lmpact Server instance is registering itself as a slave or primary in a cluster?
A. in the server.log file
B. in the netcool.log file
C. in the systemOut.log file
D. using the nci_server utility

Answer: B
QUESTION: 14
Which tool will start a policy from the command line?

A. nci_crypt
B. nci_policy
C. nci_trigger
D. nci_import
Answer: C
QUESTION: 15
What is true about the LDAP DSA?

A. It does not support data saved in UTF-8 format.
B. It does not retrieve information from LDAPV2/V3.
C. It allows IBM Tivoli Netcool/lmpactto add, modify, or delete information managed by the LDAP server.
D. It does not allow IBM Tivoli Netcool/lmpactto add. modify, or delete information managed by the LDAP server.

Answer: D
QUESTION: 16
What must occur before a data type can be defined?

A. Data Type service must be started
B. Policy Activator service is activated
C. Data Source definition is configured
D. ObjectServer Event Reader is activated

Answer: C
QUESTION: 17 What must be done to receive an IBM Tivoli Netcool/OMNIbus event when a policy run raises any unknown exception?
A. use the action function exceptionnameOand add policy code to insert the event between the brackets
B. use handle exceptionnameO in the policy and add policy code to insert the event between the brackets
C. create an ExceptionHandlerPolicy that inserts the event and define this in the Policytogger configuration
D. configure the Self-Monitoring service to log exceptions into the ObjectServer defined in the service configuration
Answer: C

QUESTION: 18 What is the minimum memory requirement for installing a Tivoli Integrated Portal profile and an IBM Tivoli Netcool/lrnpact profile running on the same physical machine?
A. 2 GB
B. 4 GB
C. 6 GB
D. 8 GB

Answer: C
QUESTION: 19 Which utility edits the installed GUI server deployment and maps the roles to the specified users?
A. roles.[bat|sh]
B. user-roles.[bat|sh]
C. update-impact-roles.[bat|sh]
D. impact-security-roles.[bat|sh]

Answer: C
QUESTION: 20 Which functional step should be completed when designing an IBM Tivoli Netcool/lmpact V6.1 solution?
A. write an enrichment policy
B. develop Netcool/lmpact startup scripts
C. test high availability and fail-over scenarios
D. determine methods of achieving customer requirements

Answer: D
QUESTION: 21 The log function of the Impact Policy Language (IPL) provides a convenient mechanism for generating messages during the execution of a policy. These messages can be configured to indicate success or failure of data retrieval from a data type. Which statement describes where the output from the messages can be viewed by a user?
A. view the ObjectServer event list to find Self-Monitoring alerts

B. use the View Service Log button in the PolicyLogger window
C. use the View Data Type button in the data type configuration
D. use the View Service Log button in the EventProcessor window

Answer: B
QUESTION: 22 The ncijrigger tool is executed with a user_name that has no password set. Which statement is true?
A. Use the command line with blank password.
B. The NULL option needs to be used instead of a password.
C. This is not possible because a user must always have a password set.
D. The nci_crypt tool provides a dummy encrypted password that can be used instead.

Answer: B
QUESTION: 23 An e-mail will be used to trigger a policy using the e-mail reader service. Which two protocols are supported? (Choose two.)
A. ICQ
B. POP
C. IMAP
D. Outlook
E. Outlook Express

Answer: B, C
QUESTION: 24 Which three options can be monitored by IBM Tivoli Netcool/lmpact V6.1 Self-Monitoring service? (Choose three.)
A. Event Filters
B. Queue Status
C. Service Filters
D. Cluster Status
E. Version Control
F. Memory Status
Answer: B, D, F
QUESTION: 25
What must be exactly the same on all members of an IBM Tivoli Netcool/lmpact cluster?

A. cluster name
B. GUI Server name
C. Impact Server name
D. GUI Server port number

Answer: A
QUESTION: 26
Which IBM Tivoli Netcool/lmpact Programming Language (PL) code block implements
the pseudo- code?
INPUT: Events from OMNIBUS where Customer is NULL.
For each event, collect the data from external customerHost data type.
And populate the corresponding field.
OUTPUT: Populate Customer

A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D

Answer: C
QUESTION: 27
What is only configured on the primary portion of a data source definition?

A. the data source user name
B. the data source IP address
C. the data source port number
D. the data source server name

Answer: A
QUESTION: 28
How is the command line interface started?

A. ftp <hostname> <commandlineport>
B. SSh <hostnanie> <commandlineport>
C. telnet <hostname> <commandlineport>
D. Rlogin <hostname> <commandlineport>

Answer: C
QUESTION: 29
What are two ways to verify the installed version of IBM Tivoli Netcool/lmpact V6.1?
(Choose two.)

A. check the PolicyLogger Logfile
B. use the command line utility nci_version
C. usethe nci_get_primary command line utility
D. use the IBM installer listlU.sh utility to retrieve the version number
E. log in to the Tivoli Integrated Portal of the Netcool/lmpact installation and use the Support tab
Answer: D, E
QUESTION: 30 What must be started before starting the policy when executing a program with command line parameters and output parsed within a policy?
A. the nci_irexec server
B. the nci_trigger service
C. the EmailReader service
D. the PolicyLogger service

Answer: A
QUESTION: 31 What is the purpose of this IBM Tivoli Netcool/lrnpact V6.1 command? UPDATE Service SET Running = false WHERE Name = ‘SelfMonitoring’;
A. to start the Netcool/lrnpact Server
B. to stop the Self-Monitoring service
C. to startthe Self-Monitoring service
D. to verify that Netcool/lrnpact is running

Answer: B
QUESTION: 32 When using IBM Tivoli Netcool/lmpact V6.1 to insert a synthetic (or meta) event into Netcool/OMNIbus, which function can be used?
A. NewEvent B.MetaEvent C.Eventlnsert D.EventCreate

Answer: A
QUESTION: 33 What are three IBM Tivoli Netcool/lmpact V6.1 categories of data sources? (Choose three.)

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QUESTION 1
Which utility checks the SOAP port number used by an IBM Tivoli Workload Scheduler instance?
A. backupConfig.sh
B. modifyThreadPool.sh
C. showHostProperties.sh
D. showDataSourceProperties.sh

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 2
When uninstalling an IBM Tivoli Workload Scheduler agent from a Windows computer, the to wsinst command is run using which option?
A. Java
B. Python
C. Windows PowerShell
D. Windows Visual Basic Script

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 3
How is a successful IBM Tivoli Workload Scheduler agent installation confirmed?
A. Check the master domain manager processes.
B. Review the output written to the installation logs.
C. Review the IBM WebSphere Application Server installation logs.
D. Confirm if the agent is visible from the Dynamic Workload Console.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 4
Which task would a Dynamic Workload Console user use to check for a full mailbox on a fault- tolerant agent?
A. Connections
B. Check Health Status
C. Monitor Operator Messages
D. Monitor Computers on Broker

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 5
Which file is used to store common options when configuring IBM Tivoli Workload Scheduler for Applications SAP R/3?
A. r3opts
B. globalopts
C. <XA>_r3opts
D. r3batch.opts

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 6
Which IBM WebSphere Application Server utility is used to change the j2cPassword property?
A. updateWas.sh
B. changeHostProperties.sh
C. changeSecurityProperties.sh
D. changeDataSourceProperties.sh

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 7
What are the two main object types of event management plug-ins?
A. Alert
B. Action
C. Condition
D. Reporting
E. Monitoring

Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 8
What are three parameters that can be configured in the localopts file?
A. plan auditing
B. mailman caching
C. agent SSL configuration
D. netman configuration parameters
E. number of days to save job statistics
F. maximum length of the preproduction plan in days

Correct Answer: BCF
QUESTION 9
Which workstation type is required when defining the workstation definition for a dynamic domain manager configured as a backup?
A. FTA
B. AGENT
C. BROKER
D. MANAGER
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 10
When is a local parameter in a job scheduled turn on a fault-tolerant agent (FTA) resolved?
A. When the job runs.
B. When the job stream is defined.
C. When the FINAL job stream runs.
D. When the job stream is submitted.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 11
Which statement is true when allowing users to authenticate with the same credentials when they use the composer command and the Dynamic Workload Console (DWC)?
A. Configure Federated Repositories in the IBM WebSphere Application Server (WAS).
B. Configure WAS to use the same directory repository.
C. Configure both instances of WAS to use the same LTPA token keys.
D. Configure direct connections between the DWC and the master domain manager using SSL certificates.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 12
Which two processes are specific to the dynamic agent?
A. agent
B. writer
C. mailman
D. batchman
E. JobManager
Correct Answer: DE QUESTION 13

Which statement is true for the given Security file extract?
A. TWS and root have full access.
B. The mastersm role has no rights.
C. The listed users can only use the default variable table.
D. The user must log in as TWS_user or root to have mastersm access.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 14
Which log on the system where event processor is running shows the deploying actions of event rules?
A. EventOut.log
B. PlanEvent.log
C. SystemOut.log
D. EventRuleOut.log

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 15
Which conman command switches the event processor component?
A. switchmgr <newmgr>
B. switchmgr <domain>;<newmgr>
C. switcheventpcocessor <workstation>
D. switcheventprocessor <domain>;<workstation>

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 16
What is the significance of having more than one two instance<n>TWA.properties file in the /etc/TWA directory?
A. There were failed installations.
B. The installed instance has been upgraded one or more times.
C. There is more than one Tivoli Workload Automation instance installed.
D. The Tivoli Workload Scheduler instance has more than one JazzSM profile.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 17
What is the purpose of running the command conman cancel job <jobselect>; pend?
A. To cancel the job without prompting.
B. To cancel the job and hold subsequent jobs.
C. To cancel the job and release subsequent jobs.
D. To cancel the job only after its dependencies are resolved.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 18
Which process can have a lock on the Symphony file?
A. logman
B. planman
C. stageman
D. batchman
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 19
Which log should be reviewed if a job running on a fault-tolerant agent (FTA) abends?
A. joblog
B. SystemOut.log
C. TWSMERGE on the FTA
D. TWSMERGE on the master domain manager
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 20
The scripts, tws_env.cmd (Windows) and tws_env.sh (UNIX), are used for which purpose?
A. To turn auditing on and off.
B. To run jobs in the correct directories.
C. To configure the IBM Tivoli Workload Scheduler environment.
D. To set up SSL connections between the master domain manager and the dynamic agents.
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 21
What will be the effect of jobs on a workstation if the workstation FENCE is set to GO?
A. Jobs will not run.
B. Jobs with a priority of 101 will run
C. Jobs with a priority of Go will run.
D. All jobs will get have a priority of GO.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 22
Where is the ResourceAdvisorUrl parameter changed in order to configure an existing dynamic agent to communicate this master domain manager or dynamic domain manager through a local gateway?
A. ITA.ini
B. preferences.ini
C. JobManager.ini
D. JobManagerGW.ini

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 23
Which command launches the tutorial utility installation script when populating a test environment?
A. IBMIM.sh
B. customizeDB.sh
C. createSample.sh
D. sampledbsetup.sh

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 24
A workstation has a FENCE of 10, LIMIT of 5, and a job with a priority of 10 currently on HOLD. What must be changed to enable a job to launch?
A. Change the FENCE t9.
B. Change the workstation LIMIT t0.
C. Change the workstation LIMIT t10.
D. Change the job stream PRIORITY to GO.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 25
What is the effect on the queue size after running the evtsize <filename> 15000 command on the master domain manager (MDM)?
A. It sets the maximum queue size t15,000 bytes.
B. It increases <filename> on the local agent by 15,000 bytes.
C. It sets <filename> on all agents managed by the MDM t15,000 bytes.
D. It increases <filename> on all agents managed by the MDM by 15,000 bytes.

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 26
How are the logging and tracing messages changed for IBM Tivoli Workload Scheduler to identify batchman issues?

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