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Question: 11
An operator is trying to perform an immediate power down of an AIX LPAR using the ‘shutdown -k’ command. The cursor has returned to the command prompt, but no shutdown activities are showing on the screen after more than one minute. Which of the following is the most likely cause of the problem?
A. The /etc/rc.shutdown script is missing.
B. The bos.rte.control fileset has become corrupted.
C. The operator UID is not a member of the shutdown group.
D. The -k flag against the shutdown command only broadcast the shutdown message.

Answer: D
Question: 12
Which of the following will list only the JFS2 filesystemsthat are mounted?
A. lsfs -t jfs2
B. mount -v jfs2
C. df | grep jfs2
D. mount | grep jfs2

Answer: D
Question: 13
Which of the following will occur if an operator types the command i file.out?Which of the following will occur if an operator types the command ?i file.out?
A. If the file exists it will be opened for editing. If the file does not exist an error message will be displayed.
B. If the file exists it will be opened for editing. If the file does not exist a new file with the name file.out will be created and opened for editing.
C. If the file exists an error message will be displayed. If the file does not exist a newfile with the name file.out will be created and opened for editing.
D. If the file exists the operator will be asked whether to open the file or overwrite thefile. If the file does not exist a new file with the namefile.out will be created and opened for editing.

Answer: B
Question: 14
An operator wants to make sure stdout and stderr of the ls command are redirected to the pg command via the pipe. Which syntax is correct?
A. ls 2>1|pg
B. ls 2&1|pg
C. ls 2>>1|pg
D. ls 2>1>|pg
Answer: A
Question: 15
What command can be used to make all mountable filesystems available for use?

A. mount -a
B. automount all
C. varyonvg -m -a
D. run the /etc/filesystems script

Answer: A
Question: 16
An operator is asked to shutdown the telnet service forsecurity reasons. What are the appropriate commands to achieve this?
A. comment out telnetd in /etc/servicesrefresh -s inetd
B. comment out telnetd in /etc/inetd.conf refresh -s inetd
C. comment out telnetd in /etc/rc.tcpip refresh -s telnetd
D. comment out telnetd in /etc/inetd.conf refresh -s telnetd

Answer: B
Question: 17
How can an operator list all its history of commands in one step?
A. Run c -l 0?from the command line.Run ?c -l 0?from the command line.
B. Invoke SMIT for the shell environment.
C. Run the SC + H?combination at the command prompt.Run the ?SC + H?combinationat the command prompt.
D. Use a rep?command with its UID against the /var/log/history_cmds file.Use a ?rep?command with its UID against the /var/log/history_cmds file.

Answer: A
Question: 18
Which of the following commands would an operator use to give all group members executable permission for the file ‘script.sh’?
A. chmod +e script.sh
B. chmod g+x script.sh
C. chmod e+g script.sh
D. chmod g+660 script.sh

Answer: B
Question: 19
An operator is in /usr/bin running the command ‘ls ../lpp/*/bosinst’. What output directory will be displayed?
A. /usr/lpp/bosinst
B. /usr/bin/bosinst
C. /usr/lpp/bos/bosinst
D. /usr/bin/lpp/bos/bosinst
Answer: C

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1. A customer has installed a POWER6+ machine to handle some workload from their
current POWER5+ machine. The POWER5+ system is running V5R4M5. On the
POWER6+ system, they have loaded IBM i 6.1 SLIC media into the alternate IPL device
and IPLed to DST, and selected the alternate install device with the save media. The IPL
fails. Which of following describes the problem?

A. The CD and the tape are different LIC levels

B. The tape is missing PTFs required for POWER6+

C. The V5R4 interoperability PTFs for i6.1 are missing.

D. The tape drive must be configured as the Alternate IPL device in order to IPL V5R4.
Answer: A

2. What happens when a journal receiver created with MNGRCV(*USER) reaches its
maximum size?

A. A new receiver is created in the job’s current library.

B. Database writes are prohibited and jobs receive error messages.

C. All new journal entries are placed in the QDFTJRN journal receiver.

D. A new receiver is created in the QSYS library for new journal entries.
Answer: B

3. An administrator notices that certain long-running CPU intensive batch jobs cause
numerous short-running batch jobs to have excessive wait times.
Changing batch job priorities is unacceptable since the numerous short batch jobs
consume all the CPU needed by the long-running jobs.
What would permit the short batch jobs access to the CPU while permitting the
long-running batch jobs to run at an equal priority?

A. Shorten the wait time in the batch job class.

B. Shorten the time slice value in the batch job class.

C. Raise the maximum number of active jobs in the memory pool that runs batch jobs.

D. Use a subsystem routing entry to run the long-running batch jobs in a dedicated
memory pool.
Answer: B

4. Users without *ALLOBJ authority create many IFS files using an SAP application and
store them into the /SAP directory.
The company policy requires changing the IFS file authorities to READ ONLY for all users
immediately after the file is created, even though the users are the owners of the IFS files.
How can this be accomplished?

A. Set the users authority to *R for the /SAP parent directory. The IFS newly created file
will inherit this authority.

B. Set the users authority to *USE for the /SAP parent directory. The IFS newly created
file will inherit this authority.

C. Start journaling for the /SAP directory. Write a program which uses the RCVJRNE
command to detect file creation and set authority to company policy.

D. Write a program that uses the RCVOBJAUT command to detect the current file
authorities and then uses the EDTOBJAUT command to implement the new policy.
Answer: C

5. How can the system administrator set the expiration date for a tape?

A. Use the command SETEXPDATE on the tape volume.

B. Use the EXPDATE parameter of the SAVxxx command.

C. Use the EXPDATE parameter of the INZTAP command.

D. Use the SETLIBEXP command with the external tape library.
Answer: B

6. An system running IBM i 6.1 has a fibre attached IBM TS3500 (3584). Management has
instituted a policy that any tape leaving the data center with application data must be
encrypted.
Which of the following tape encryption modes is supported?

A. System Managed

B. Library Managed

C. Software Managed

D. Application Managed
Answer: B

7. Some of the master keys on a system have become corrupted and must be restored.
Which of the following correctly describes the restore process?

A. Use the RSTMSTKEY command to retrieve the keys from a SAVSYS backup.

B. Run an abbreviated IBM i install. Change the install options to reload the master keys
from backup media.

C. Run the RSTOBJ command for QUSRBRM/Q1AKEYFILE. Then use the Translate
Master Key Store File command (TRNCKMKSF) with the *SAVRST option to translate the
master key to the system.

D. Check that the Save/Restore master key matches to the value at the time the keys
were saved. Use the Add Master Part and Set Master Key (SETMSTKEY) commands to
set the *SAVRST master key if needed.
Answer: D

8. Due to a merger, a company is consolidating data centers. Each center has a Power
Systems server running IBM i and a TS3200 with LTO-4 drives. Tapes are managed at
both sites with BRMS using non-overlapping bar-codes. One site uses hardware
encryption, the other does not.
An IBM TS3500 (3594) is being acquired to consolidate all tape support for both data
centers.
Management requires the following:
1) The new data center must be able to exchange tapes with the existing data centers
during the migration and consolidation
2) The new tape library must have the fewest drives possible.

3) Human intervention must be minimal.
Which of the following solutions meet these requirements?

A. Define a tape library partition for each IBM i instance. Use library mode encryption on
the partition for the system with encryption enabled.

B. Define a tape library partition shared by both IBM i instances. Use system mode
encryption on the partition for the system with encryption enabled.

C. Define a tape library partition shared by both IBM i instances. Configure BRMS to use
control application mode encryption in the tape library partition for the system with
encryption enabled.

D. Define a tape library partition shared by both IBM i instances. Use library mode
encryption with Barcode Encryption Policy (BEP) set to enable encryption to recognize
tapes that must be encrypted.
Answer: C

9. Which of the following is the minimum requirement to configure RAID Hot Spare for
SCSI disks on the load source IOA?

A. Have one non-configured disk unit of equal or larger size attached to the IOA

B. Have one configured disk unit of equal size attached to the IOA in a valid Load Source
capable position

C. Have one non-configured disk unit of equal size attached to the IOA located in a valid
Load Source capable position

D. Have one configured disk unit of equal size attached to the IOA and the IOA must be
designated as the ‘Alternate IPL Devices’
Answer: C

10. A system has 15 identical SCSI disks connected to a controller. The system has
RAID-5 protection, and there are three RAID-5 parity sets containing 5 disks each.
After ending RAID, how can the system administrator reconfigure the parity sets in order
to get the maximum available storage?

A. Select the option ‘Start device parity with Hot Spare’.

B. First configure the ASPs and then start the parity protection.

C. Change the parity optimization level from Performance to Capacity using the iSeries
Navigator.

D. Specify the desired parity sets number when the parity protection is started using the
iSeries Navigator.
Answer: C

11. What happens when the system ASP reaches the threshold set in SST?

A. No new jobs may enter the active state.

B. All job queues are placed on hold status.

C. The system attention light is illuminated.

D. Messages are sent to the QSYSOPR message queue.
Answer: D

12. An independent ASP requires a reclaim storage. In addition to ‘Available’ which of the
following is a state in which reclaim storage for an independent ASP will succeed?

A. Active

B. Failed

C. Varied On

D. Recovery Pending
Answer: B

13. Every Saturday night, BRMS is scheduled to perform a full system backup of a
production IBM I partition and then IPL. Due to time constraints for system availability,
management has directed the administrator to eliminate the IPL and bring the system up
immediately after the backup completes. The administrator modified the BRMS system
policy IPL controls to prevent the IPL from occurring. However, after Saturday’s backup,
the system IPLs in spite of the change.
What is the cause of this unplanned IPL, and how can the problem be corrected?

A. The system value QIPLTYPE is set to perform an Unattended IPL. Modify the system
value appropriately.

B. The backup policy can override the system policy and start an IPL. Change the
appropriate backup policy parameters to defer to the system policy.

C. The backup policy can override the system policy and start an IPL. Change the
appropriate control group parameters to defer to the system policy.

D. The system policy IPL controls are dependent on the BRMS console monitor. Start the
BRMS console monitor and ensure the System Policy Control parameter is set to *YES.
Answer: B

14. An administrator has been asked to assist in defining a detailed recovery plan for
objects in IFS directories that are journalled. The goal is to be able to completely reload
the system with minimal intervention.
Which of the following represents the correct order to restore objects?

A. Journal receivers, IFS objects, journals

B. IFS objects, journals, journal receivers

C. Journal receivers, journals, IFS objects

D. Journals, journal receivers, IFS objects
Answer: D

15. An administrator must copy production data to a new system for high availability. How
can System Reply Lists, System Values, Job and Subsystem Descriptions be restored
from tape?

A. Restore the libraries QGPL and QUSRSYS.

B. Perform a Manual IPL to DST, select Change Install Options on the Install the
Operation System display.
Select the Message Reply List, System information, Job and Subsystem Descriptions.

C. Perform a Manual IPL to DST, select Change Install Options on the Install the
Operating System display.

Select the Restore option 1=Restore programs and language objects from current media set. Select the Message Reply List, System information, Job and Subsystem Descriptions.
D. Perform a Manual IPL to DST, select Change Install Options on the Install the
Operating System display.
Select the Restore option 4=Restore only language objects from a different media set
using the current install device.
Select the Message Reply List, System information, Job and Subsystem Descriptions.
Answer: C

16. A user must restore libraries LIBA and LIBB. LIBA contains logical files that are
dependent on physical files in LIBB. Both libraries were saved using a SAVLIB(*NONSYS)
command.
Which command, or group of commands, will complete the restore operation in one pass
through the tape
even though the physical files are restored after the logical files?

A. RSTLIB SAVLIB(LIBB LIBA) DEV(TAP01)

B. RSTLIB SAVLIB(LIBA LIBB) DEV(TAP01) DFRID(ABC)

C. RSTLIB SAVLIB(LIBA LIBB) DEV(TAP01) DFRID(ABC)
RMVDFRID DFRID(ABC)

D. RSTLIB SAVLIB(LIBA LIBB) DEV(TAP01) DFRID(ABC)
RSTDFROBJ DFRID(ABC)
Answer: D

17. After a complete restore, the job log shows several logical files that have not been
restored.
Which of the following will complete the restore?
A. RSTLIB LIB(*NEW) PVTAUT(*NO)

B. RST LIB(*ALL) OPTION(*NEW) PVTAUT(*YES)

C. RSTOBJ OBJ(*NEW) LIB(*ANY) PVTAUT(*YES)

D. RSTOBJ OBJ(*ALL) LIB(*ANY) OPTION(*NEW) PVTAUT(*YES)
Answer: D

18. How can a user specify more than 300 library names on the SAVLIB command when
the save operation is performed on a tape media device?

A. Use the Additional Library (ADDLIB) parameter of the SAVLIB command.

B. Specify the library names on the LIB parameter of the SAVLIB command.

C. Use SAVLIB LIB(*USRSPC) to save to a save file, then CYPSAVF to tape.

D. Use the command SAVLIB LIB(*USRSPC) DEV(TAP01) VOL(*MOUNTED)
CMDUSRSPC(QGPL/USRSPC).
Answer: D

19. Which of the following are saved using the Save System Information (SAVSYSINF)
command?

A. *CMD and *MSGF objects in QSYS changed since the last SAVSYS

B. *PGM and *SRVPGM objects in QSYS changed since the last SAVSYS
C. *USRPRF and *TBL objects in QSYS changed since the last SAVSYS
D. *DTAARA and *FILE objects in QSYS changed since the last SAVSYS Answer: A
20. An IBM i 6.1 system has the system value QFRCCVNRST set to 1. The administrator has restored an application library from a V5R4 system. The application is now running very slowly. Which of the following is the most likely cause of the problem?
A. The restored objects are being converted at first use.
B. The QFRCOBJCVN system value must be set to at least 4 for V5R4 objects.
C. The restored objects are using the V5R4 template, which runs more slowly on a 6.1 system.
D. The programs were compiled to a previous release which causes a performance problem at 6.1 Answer: A

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Question: 1
Which statement is true about the “Time Delayed” method when you are creating verification points in your scripts?
A – It introduces a fixed delay after a previous action before the verification point is tested
B – It allows a verification point to keep trying until the time specified has elapsed
C – It gives the tester time to reveal pop-up objects (such as menus) during the creation of a verification point
D – It gives the tester the opportunity to specify a delay after a verification point fails
Answer: C
Question: 2
Given the following manual verification point

vpManual (“manual1”, “The rain in Spain”, “The Rain in Spain”).performTest();
What are the results?
A – The two strings are the same, and a pass would be generated in the log
B – The two strings are different, and a fail would be generated in the log
C – The syntax is incorrect, so this would not compile
D – This will compile but the parameters are mixed up, and a fail would be recorded in the log. The correct syntax is: vpManual (“The rain in Spain”, “The Rain in Spain”, “manual1”).performTest();
Answer: B
Question: 3
Which branches under Preferences contain specific settings to enable the ClearCase integration?
A – Workbench and Test B – Functional Test and Run/Debug C – Workbench and Team D – Plug-in Development and Functional Test
Answer: C
Question: 4
When you set break points, why does the script not stop at the break points and switch over to the debug perspective?
A – This is a known eclipse bug in version 6.1 and has been corrected in the latest release or last interim fix
B – The break point has already been recognized by the JVM and the break point needs to be toggled
C – Either the icon or debug functional tester script was not invoked or the shift + F11 menu option was not invoked
D – The debug perspective is not listed as an available perspective when trying to debug a script

Answer: C
Question: 5
When you enable web browsers, what is the best way to select the Linux or UNIX web browser?
A – You use the Search button, choose Search All, select the executable, and provide all the needed parameters.
B – Modify the registry to enable Linux or Unix web browser support
C – Modify the Internet Explorer settings to refer to a Linux or Unix web browser
D – You use the Search button, choose Search In, browse to the executable, and provide all the needed parameters
Answer: D
Question: 6
In which situation is it best to use the Browser Enablement Diagnostic tool?
A – when the web browser does not launch when invoked through Functional Tester

Tester
C – when Functional Tester is in the recording process and no HTML objects are being recognized
D – when Functional Tester is not able to launch the viewlet comparator on the HTML log
Answer: C
Question: 7
You cannot access help file from Rational Functional Tester. You receive an error or the page loads slowly. How can this be fixed?
A – talk to the LAN Administrator to see if there is a problem with the corporate network or if the ISP is having performance issues
B – in Network properties, change the IP configuration to static IP and provide a valid IP address, which can be obtained from the LAN Administrator
C – in the Network Advanced settings for proxies, remove “127.0.0.1; localhost” from the Exceptions if these addresses are listed
D – if your host was configured to use DHCP for IP assignment, make sure that the “Automatically detect settings” checkbox is cleared
Answer: D
Question: 8
Where do you set the option for switching to Test Debug perspective when debugging?
A – Preferences > Functional Test > Workbench > Advanced B – Preferences > Java > Debug C – Preferences > Run/Debug > Console D – Preferences > Test
Answer: A
Question: 9
How do you add line numbers within the script editors view?

A – use a third party plug-in because this option is not available within the tools interface B – download the latest version of the plug-in C – select the option under the main menu > Window > Preferences > Debug D – select the option under the main menu > Window > Preferences > Editor
Answer: D
Question: 10
How many default Java environments can you have within one configuration of Rational Functional Tester?
A – one for each instance of the application under test B – as many default Java environments as are needed to do testing C – You can change the java environments dynamically when testing different applications. D – only one
Answer: D
Question: 11
What is the best practice when changing object maps that are
already assigned to Functional Test projects?
A – highlight the project in the Functional Test projects, right-click, select Properties > Functional Test project and browse to the new object map B – record a new script, select the new Functional Test project, click next and browse to the new test object map C – modify the XML file, configurations.rftcfg, locate the object map section, enter the proper object and save the XML file D – right-click the test object map in the script explorer, choose the Open option and make necessary changes
Answer: A
Page 13 of 13 .

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