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Question: 21
The storage sales person discusses IBM’s strategy with a customer. The customer insists that all aspects are presented within one visit. What is the place the sale person would invite his customer to get all information appropriate to their requirements?
A. IBM Almaden Research Center
B. IBM Headquarter Office Armonk, NY
C. IBM System Storage Executive Briefing Center
D. IBM System Storage Interoperabilty Center / Systems Lab

Answer: C
Question: 22
Which of the following features differentiates IBM Tivoli Storage Manager from Veritas NetBackup?
A. LAN-free backups
B. Broad platform support
C. Automated tape reclamation
D. Central point of management

Answer: C
Question: 23
A company, storing 80 TB of data, is facing an audit in six months. The company needs to demonstrate it is storing point-in-time regulated information properly. Which IBM recommended solution should be proposed?
A. IBM System nSeries model 3300
B. IBM TS3100 with two LTO-4 drives
C. IBM System Storage DR550 Model DR2
D. IBM System Storage DR550 Model DR1
Answer: C
Question: 24
Which of the following RAID levels provides the fastest Read and Write response times?

A. RAID 0
B. RAID 6
C. RAID 4
D. RAID 5

Answer: A
Question: 25
Which of the following customer environments is addressed by the IBM System Storage NSeries?
A. A customer wanting to implement a global file system
B. A customer with Windows CIFS and AIX NFS requirements
C. A customer who requires good scalability and performance
D. A customer who needs to consolidate multiple storage controllers under one management interface

Answer: B
Question: 26
A customer has a huge amount of files on different distributed locations and is looking for a corporate common solution. Which of the following is the best option to recommend?
A. NSeries
B. Virtual File Manager
C. Windows File Servers
D. General Parallel File System (GPFS)

Answer: D
Question: 27
A healthcare customer is not satisfied with the utilization of their heterogeneous storage devices. Which of the following solutions should the IBM storage specialist to help them to better provision their storage on demand?
A. Tivoli Storage Manager (TSM)
B. IBM SAN Volume Controller (SVC)
C. IBM TotalStorage Productivity Center (TPC)
D. IBM System Storage Multilevel Grid Access Manager Software

Answer: B
Question: 28
Which of the following is the entire list of RAID levels supported by the IBM System Storage DS5000?
A. 1, 3, 5 and 6
B. 1, 3, 5 and DP
C. 1+0, 10, 5 and 6
D. 0, 1, 3, 5, 6 and 10
Answer: D
Question: 29
Implementing a SAN Volume Controller (SVC) provides which major benefit?

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Question: 21
A customer is performing a traditional image copy disaster recovery test. The systems programmer creates a conditional restart control record (CRCR) but detects an error before starting DB2. Which action should be performed to correct the CRCR record?
A. First use CRESTART,DELETE to delete the error CRCR record then CRESTART,CREATE to add a new one.
B. Start DB2, reply “M” to the WTOR that is displayed from the first CRCR record to modify the CRCR parameters.
C. Use CRESTART,MODIFY to modify the parameters of the error CRCR record.
D. Use CRESTART,CREATE to create a new CRCR record.
Answer: D

Question: 22
Which two statements are true regarding a traditional image copy disaster recovery in a data sharing environment? (Choose two ) A. All members defined to the data sharing group must be restarted at the disaster recovery site.

B. When using change log inventory (DSNJU003), the latest log record sequence number that can be used is the oldest last written log record of all members participating in the restart.
C. Only one conditional restart control record (CRCR) needs to be created for the data sharing group and all DB2 members will utilize this CRCR during restart.
D. SETXCF FORCE commands should be used to purge DB2 coupling facility structures prior to staring the first DB2 member.
E. The catalog and directory must be recovered by first data sharing member brought up at the disaster recovery site and all other members must not be started before this recovery is finished.
Answer: B, D

Question: 23
DSNDB06.SYSPLAN runs out of space. Which steps should be performed to resolve the situation?
A. 1) COPY DSNDB06.SYSPLAN. 2) Stop DSNDB06.SYSPLAN. 3) Delete DSNDB06.SYSPLAN VSAM data set. 4) Define DSNDB06.SYSPLAN VSAM data set with more space. 5) Start DSNDB06.SYSPLAN. 6) RECOVER DSNDB06.SYSPLAN.
B. 1) UNLOAD DSNDB06.SYSPLAN. 2) Stop DSNDB06.SYSPLAN. 3) Delete DSNDB06.SYSPLAN VSAM data set. 4) Define DSNDB06.SYSPLAN VSAM data set with more space. 5) Start DSNDB06.SYSPLAN. 6) LOAD DSNDB06.SYSPLAN.
C. 1) UNLOAD DSNDB06.SYSPLAN. 2) ALTER PRIQTY to a larger value. 3) LOAD REPLACE DSNDB06.SYSCOPY.
D. 1) REORG UNLOAD SHRLEVEL REFERENCE DSNDB06.SYSPLAN. 2) Stop DSNDB06.SYSPLAN. 3) Delete DSNDB06.SYSPLAN VSAM data set. 4) Define DSNDB06.SYSPLAN VSAM data set with more space. 5) Start DSNDB06.SYSPLAN. 6) REORG RESUME DSNDB06.SYSPLAN.
Answer: A

Question: 24
Regarding SVC dumps for the DBM1 address space, what should be reviewed to determine the DB2 failing component?
A. the GRS summary
B. the LOGREC symptom string
C. the RMM Control Block Analysis
D. the RSM summary
Answer: B
Question: 25

A number of jobs are waiting for an allied connection to access a DB2 subsystem. What should be done to increase the number of allied connections that can be allocated concurrently?
A. Increase the value of MAXDBAT.
B. Increase the value of CTHREAD.
C. Increase the value of MAXKEEPD.
D. Increase the value of MAXDS.
Answer: B

Question: 26
A DASD controller error occurs which results in all of the active logs being marked as “STOPPED” by DB2. Which steps should be performed to resolve the log status after the controller error has been repaired?
A. 1) Stop DB2. 2) Start DB2.
B. 1) Stop DB2. 2) REPRO the archive logs to the corresponding active logs. 3) Start DB2.
C. 1) Stop DB2. 2) Use DSN1LOGP to make sure last log record written matches the information in the BSDS. 3) Do a conditional restart specifying ENDRBA to the highest RBA in the log.
D. 1) Use the change log inventory utility (DSNJU003) to delete the active logs from the BSDS. 2) Use the change log inventory utility (DSNJU003) to add the active logs back into the BSDS.
Answer: D

Question: 27
Which statement is true regarding disaster recovery scenarios?
A. When using the RESTORE SYSTEM utility, each DB2 member must use the same SYSPITR value when creating conditional restart control records (CRCR).
B. When using an advanced disk mirroring solution, a conditional restart of DB2 must still be performed at the disaster site.
C. With a synchronous peer to peer replication solution, a group restart is not required for a data sharing group since everything is synchronously mirrored.
D. A backup taken from the BACKUP SYSTEM utility cannot be used for object level recovery for the catalog/directory during a disaster recovery scenario.
Answer: A

Question: 28
Which two actions must be performed for a data sharing traditional image copy disaster recovery? (Choose two.)
A. Use STARTRBA=ENDRBA for the conditional restart control record.
B. Start DB2 using the LIGHT(YES) keyword.
C. Use DEFER=ALL in the system parameters during the first restart.
D. Modify the IRLM start up proc to specify SCOPE=LOCAL.
E. Use the SETXCF FORCE command to delete DB2 CF structures.
Answer: C, E
Question: 29

An accounting trace shows a high get page per SQL ratio for a query which retrieves just one row each time it is executed. Which two situations could account for the high ratio? (Choose two.)
A. Use of a matching unique index scan.
B. Use of a nonmatching index scan.
C. Use of an index with low cardinality.
D. Use of an index with high cardinality.
E. Use of a single column index that is a GENERATED ALWAYS identity column.
Answer: B, C

Question: 30
What is the recommended relative address space (highest to lowest) dispatching priority for these components?
A. DBM1, IRLM, MSTR, DB2 performance monitors
B. IRLM, MSTR, DB2 performance monitors, DBM1
C. IRLM, DB2 performance monitors, DBM1, MSTR
D. MSTR, IRLM, DB2 performance monitors, DBM1
Answer: C

Question: 31
You encounter a wait situation while running a BACKUP SYSTEM utility. Which two processes might contribute to this wait situation? (Choose two.)
A. CREATE TABLESPACE TS1 NUMPARTS 25 SEGSIZE 4 IN DATABASE DB1
B. LOCK TABLE TB1 PARTITION 5 IN EXCLUSIVE MODE
C. SELECT * FROM TABLE TB1 WITH RR
D. SET CURRENT DECFLOAT ROUNDING MODE=ROUND_CEILING
E. TRUNCATE TABLE TB1 DROP STORAGE
Answer: A, E

Question: 32
Click the Exhibit button.
Referring to the exhibit, which statement related to DB2 storage usage is correct?

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QUESTION 1
Which of the following applies to nickname usage?

A. Nicknames cannot be created for views.
B. An MQT definition cannot contain nicknames.
C. Nicknames cannot be specified in SQL/XML statements embedded in static SQL.
D. For each nickname referenced in a query, the authorization ID of the statement must have at least CONTROL authorization.
Answer: C
QUESTION 2
Given the following table:

EMP
EMPNO NAME DEPTNO SALARY
===== ====== ======= =======
0010 JOSH D95 30000
0020 JENNA D98 25000
0030 DYLAN D95 10000
0040 TRACY D90 33000

and the following trigger definition:
CREATE TRIGGER track_chgs
AFTER UPDATE ON emp
REFERENCING NEW_TABLE AS ntable
FOR EACH STATEMENT MODE DB2SQL
BEGIN ATOMIC
INSERT INTO changes
SELECT empno, current timestamp FROM ntable;
END;
After executing the following SQL statements:
UPDATE emp SET deptno = ‘D98’ WHERE deptno = ‘D95’;
INSERT INTO emp VALUES(‘0050’, ‘KEN’, ‘D90’, 35000);
UPDATE emp SET salary=salary – 500 WHERE salary > 35000;
UPDATE emp SET salary=salary + 1000 WHERE salary <= 25000;
What value will be returned by this query?
SELECT count(*) FROM changes

A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
Answer: C

QUESTION 3
After executing the following SQL statements:
CREATE TABLE tab1 (
col1 INT NOT NULL,
col2 CHAR(1),
PRIMARY KEY(col1));
CREATE TABLE tab2
( col1 INT ,
col2 CHAR(1),
FOREIGN KEY (col1) REFERENCES tab1(col1)
ON DELETE CASCADE
ON UPDATE NO ACTION );
INSERT INTO tab1 VALUES(1, ‘A’);
INSERT INTO tab1 VALUES(2, ‘B’);
INSERT INTO tab2 VALUES(3, ‘A’);
INSERT INTO tab2 VALUES(2, ‘B’);
UPDATE tab1 SET col1 = col1 + 1;
DELETE FROM tab1 WHERE col2 = ‘B’;
What values will be returned by the following SQL statement? SELECT col1, col2 FROM tab2

A. COL1 COL2
==== ====
2 ‘A’

B. COL1 COL2
==== ====
2 ‘B’

C. COL1 COL2
==== ====
3 ‘A’

D. COL1 COL2
==== ====
2 ‘B’
3 ‘A’

Answer: B
QUESTION 4
Three applications A, B, and C run concurrently and access the same table on a database server.
Application A inserts new data to the table. Applications B and C, among other processes, issue
two different queries against the table multiple times within their respective Units of Work (UOW).
Application A always receives an identical set of results from its query within the UOW, however,
almost every result set returned by a query to the application B within the UOW is different.
This is unacceptable and must be resolved. What would be the most efficient method ensuring
that data is read/reread with full consistency in application B?
A. Bind the application B with isolation level RR.
B. Bind the application B with isolation level RS.
C. Include the WITH RR clause in the query select statement of the application B.
D. Have the application B issue a share for read lock on the table for the duration of the query.
Answer: C
QUESTION 5 Which of the following trigger definitions will ensure that the city column, EMP_CITY, in the EMP table always contains a string value with all upper-case characters when new rows are added?
A. CREATE TRIGGER upper_case_city BEFORE INSERT ON emp REFERENCING NEW AS n FOR EACH ROW MODE DB2SQL BEGIN ATOMIC SET n.emp_city=UPPER(n.emp_city); END
B. CREATE TRIGGER upper_case_city BEFORE INSERT ON emp REFERENCING NEW_TABLE AS n FOR EACH STATEMENT MODE DB2SQL BEGIN ATOMIC SET n.emp_city=UPPER(n.emp_city); END
C. CREATE TRIGGER upper_case_city BEFORE INSERT ON emp REFERENCING NEW AS n FOR EACH ROW MODE DB2SQL BEGIN ATOMIC INSERT INTO emp VALUES(n.emp_id, n.emp_name, n.emp_address, UPPER(n.emp_city)); END;
D. CREATE TRIGGER upper_case_city INSTEAD OF INSERT ON emp REFERENCING NEW AS n FOR EACH ROW MODE DB2SQL BEGIN ATOMIC INSERT INTO emp VALUES(n.emp_id, n.emp_name, n.emp_address, UPPER(n.emp_city)); END
Answer: A
QUESTION 6 Given the code:

try {
Class.forName(“com.ibm.db2.jcc.DB2Driver”);
conn = DriverManager.getConnection(url, user, pwd);
. . .
}
The conn variable represents an instance of which of the following classes?

A. Connection
B. DriverManager
C. DB2Connection
D. JavaConnection
Answer: A
QUESTION 7
Given the following code:
public static void javastp( int inparm,
int[] outparm,
ResultSet[] rs
)
throws SQLException
{
Connection con;
// fill in connection code
PreparedStatement stmt = null;
String sql = “SELECT value FROM table01 WHERE index = ?”;
//Prepare the query with the value of index
stmt = con.prepareStatement( sql );
stmt.setInt( 1, inparm );
//Execute query and set output parm
rs[0] = stmt.executeQuery();
outparm[0] = inparm + 1;
//Close open resources
if (stmt != null) stmt.close();
if (con != null) con.close();
return;
}
Which of the following statements would correctly initialize the variable con?

A. con = DriverManager.getConnection( “jdbc:default” );
B. con = DriverManager.getConnection( “jdbc:connection” );
C. con = DriverManager.getConnection( “default:connection” );
D. con = DriverManager.getConnection( “jdbc:default:connection” );
Answer: D

QUESTION 8
Given the following EMPLOYEE table:

EMPNO FIRSTNAME LASTNAME
———– —————– —————
000010 CHRISTINE HAAS
000020 MICHAEL THOMPSON
000030 SALLY KWAN
000050 JOHN GEYER
000060 IRVING STERN

If the following Java pseudo code is executed in the sequence shown below:
Class.forName(“com.ibm.db2.jcc.DB2Driver”);
Connection conn =
DriverManager.getConnection(“jdbc:db2://mydb2:50000/sample”, “db2user”, “db2pwd”);
String stmt = “SELECT * FROM employee ORDER BY empno”;
PreparedStatement ps = conn.prepareStatement(stmt);
ResultSet rs = ps.executeQuery();
rs.afterLast();
What is the result of the afterLast() method call?

A. A SQLWarning is thrown.
B. An SQLException is thrown.
C. The cursor is positioned after the end of the resultset.
D. The cursor is positioned before the beginning of the resultset.
Answer: B
QUESTION 9
A developer uses DB2 Add-Ins for Eclipse and the DB2 Universal JDBC driver to write an
application that accesses DB2 for z/OS and DB2 for i5/OS. The New Database Connection
wizard returns the following error message when the database connection is attempted:
“Problems encountered while trying to establish connection xyz.
Explanation: ‘No license present.'”
What is the most likely reason for this error?

A. The COM.ibm.db2.jcc.license class was not included in the project. B. The user profile specified is not recognized by the target database.
C. The db2jcc_license_cisuz.jar file is not specified in the Java classpath.
D. The current user does not have the license required to log into the server operating system.
Answer: C
QUESTION 10
Given the following Java code snippet:
Connection con;
PreparedStatement pstmt;
int numUpd;
Which of the following illustrates the proper use of parameter markers?
A. UPDATE ? SET PHONENO = “55555” WHERE EMPNO = ?
pstmt.setString(1,”EMPLOYEE”);
pstmt.setString(2,”000010″);

B. UPDATE ? SET PHONENO = ? WHERE EMPNO = EMPLOYEE
pstmt.setString(1,”EMPLOYEE”);
pstmt.setString(2,”4567″);

C. pstmt = con.prepareStatement(“UPDATE EMPLOYEE SET PHONENO = ? WHERE
EMPNO = ?”);
pstmt.setString(1,”4657″);
pstmt.setString(2,”000010″);

D. pstmt = con.prepareStatement(“UPDATE ? SET PHONENO = “5555” WHERE EMPNO
= ?”);
pstmt.setString(1,”EMPLOYEE”);
pstmt.setString(2,”000010″);

Answer: C

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QUESTION 1
Which uvbackup option uses an existing list of files to be backed up?
A. uvbackup -f filename
B. uvbackup -v filename
C. uvbackup -file filename
D. uvbackup -cmdfil filename
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 2
When converting an account from UNIX to Windows, which method will handle the conversion?
A. Use FTP from Windows to UNIX
B. Use ‘uvbackup’ on UNIX and ‘uvrestore’ on Windows
C. Use a utility like LAPLINK to transport the files
D. Use ‘uvbackup’ on the UNIX system and ‘cpio’ utility on Windows system

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 3
Which command can A Certkiller .com user use to clear the data stack built either from a DATA statement in a paragraph or a BASIC program?
A. CLEARDATA
B. CLEARSTACK
C. STACKCLEAR
D. CLEAR.DATASTACK
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 4
Which command displays a list of files being used by a UniVerse process?
A. LISTFL
B. LIST.DF

C. PORT.STATUS FILEMAP
D. PORT.STATUS filename
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 5
What file needs to be altered on the UNIX server when defining the port for UniVerse ODBC?
A. /etc/hosts
B. /uv/services
C. /etc/services
D. /usr/services

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 6
With UNIX file system partitions set at 4K blocks, what is the largest separation that can be used when creating static hashed files to prevent groups being split between disk blocks?
B. 4
C. 8
D. 16
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 7
Administrators can add a test in the LOGIN paragraph of a UniVerse account to prevent a phantom from executing statements in the paragraph by testing which variable?
A. @TTY
B. @USERNO
C. @phantom

D. @LOGNAME
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 8
Which command can administrators use to set the default printer for all interactive UniVerse users?
A. DEFAULT.PTR
B. SETPTR.DEFAULT
C. spool.config (UNIX ONLY)
D. LOGIN paragraph in UV account
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 9
Administrators use the GROUP.STAT command to display
A. information about the record distribution in a file.
B. the list of users assigned to a specific printer group.
C. the list of printers assigned to a specific user group.
D. a list of users assigned to a specific operating system level group.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 10
A Certkiller .com user reports the error ‘unable to execute driver script’ when trying to print on a UNIX system. The most likely cause is
A. ‘usd’ not running.
B. incorrect permissions on driver script.
C. ‘usd’ was started with non-default spool directory.
D. driver script improperly specified in the sp.config file.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 11
Which command will allow administrators to alter print job specifications after a print job is in the UV spooler queue?
A. The SETPTR command
B. The ‘lp’ shell command
C. The ‘usm’ shell command
D. None, specifications cannot be altered

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 12
A Certkiller .com user reports that $<50> is appearing at the start of each screen when executing a TCL query. What should the administrator check?
A. The HEADING clause in the query
B. The user’s current PTERM settings
C. Contents of the PTERM file in the UV account
D. The terminal definition in the terminfo database

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 13
To ensure a VOC item has not been modified, administrators can compare the item against the default NEWACC VOC item using which command?
A. VVOC
B. VCATALOG VOC
C. count VOC and count NEWACC, then DIFF them
D. compare two select lists of each VOC content
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 14
One method to ensure optimal VOC performance is to store multiple line paragraphs and complex sentences in
A. the BP file and access directly by name.
B. the UV account and access by a global command.
C. the DICT of the VOC and access directly by DICT pointer.
D. any other file and access by a remote pointer in the VOC.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 15
How would an administrator make ‘LONGNAMES ON’ the default for new accounts created on an existing installation?
A. Execute the ‘LONGNAMES ON’ in each new account
B. In the UV account execute ‘LONGNAMES ON NEWACC’
C. Manually set verb ‘CREATE.FILE’ to ‘LONGNAMES ON’ in NEWACC
D. Set ‘LONGNAMES ON’ in uvconfig file, then stop UV, then start UV

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 16
What service must be running to open the UniVerse Administration Control Panel?
A. UniRPC service
B. UniVerse REXEC service
C. UniVerse telnet service
D. UniVerse Resource services

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 17
On UNIX, A Certkiller .com user may stop a PHANTOM process before its completion by force logging out the process using which option?
A. “ps -ef | grep username”, then “kill -9 username”
B. “ps -ef | grep uv”, then LOGOUT user initiating the PHANTOM
C. “ps -ef | grep uv”, then locate the process then “kill -9 parentname”
D. At either TCL or O/S level type “STATUS ME”, obtain process id, then type “LOGOUT -pid”

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 18
With transaction logging active, frequent backups allow administrators to minimize the time it takes to restore and roll-forward recovery in the event of
A. data files being damaged.
B. user interrupting the ‘write’ process.
C. transaction buffer space being compromised.
D. an unscheduled interrupt in the BASIC program.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 19
Which command requests control of a particular printer?
A. P.ATT <channel>
B. SETPTR <channel>
C. SP.ASSIGN <channel>
D. ASSIGN.PTR <channel>

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 20
Which TCL command recommends an optimum file type, modulo and separation?
A. HASH.AID
B. HASH.HELP
C. FILE.STAT
D. HASH.TEST
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 21
Which option located in ‘uv/bin’ (UNIX) or ‘uv\bin’ (WINDOWS) is used to clean up UniVerse licenses?
A. uvadmsh
B. uvsetacc
C. uvlictool
D. uvlicregen
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 22
When using transaction logging, administrators can expect that updates to
A. all files are logged
B. recoverable files are only logged if updates are made within a transaction
C. recoverable files are logged whether or not updates are made within a transaction
D. recoverable files are logged whether or not updates are made within a transaction but updates to non-
recoverable files are logged only if they are made within a transaction Correct Answer: C QUESTION 23
With Transaction Logging active, a completed transaction is written from the buffer to
A. the transaction logging system and then the data file.
B. the data file then the log file.
C. the data file and the log file simultaneously.
D. in the order specified in UV Admin Transaction Logging parameters.
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 24
On Microsoft Windows systems, UniVerse access is defined and maintained by
A. UV Admin > Account.
B. Windows User Manager.
C. UV Admin > Security > Users.
D. UV.ACCOUNT file in UniVerse account.

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 25
Which command allows administrators to modify the parameters governing a dynamic file?
A. SPLIT.LOAD
B. LARGE.RECORD
C. CONFIGURE.FILE
D. ANALYZE.FILE (option)
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 26
Which command will change the flavor of a UniVerse account?
A. UPDATE.ACCOUNT [flavor]
B. MODIFY.ACCOUNT [flavor]
C. CREATE.ACCOUNT [flavor]

D. CHANGE.ACCOUNT TO [flavor]
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 27
Which option is a function of the TCL command ASSIGN?
A. Assign a process for exclusive use by a UniVerse task
B. Assign an account for exclusive use by a UniVerse task
C. Assign a tape device for exclusive use by UniVerse task
D. Assign A Certkiller .com user’s security level for devices used in this account for a specific task

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 28
In a UniVerse account, which command will display ONLY file pointers to files located in the same directory the account resides?
A. LISTF
B. LISTLF
C. LISTFL
D. LISTF LOCAL
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 29
Which command should be used by Administrators to restrict the amount of memory available to BASIC programs for A Certkiller .com user?
A. Use LIMIT verb before program execution
B. Use CORE command to limit memory allocated to A Certkiller .com user
C. Use MFILES to limit the number of files A Certkiller .com user may access
D. Use AUTOLOGOUT when user has reached current user memory allocation

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 30
Which command will determine missing records by comparing a subset of data (FILE_A) contained in an active select list against a file (FILE_B)?
A. LIST.DIFF on FILE_B
B. LIST.UNION FILE_B against FILE_A
C. NSELECT on FILE_B with an active select of FILE_A
D. COUNT contents of FILE_A and compare same to FILE_B
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 31
When configuring UniVerse for ODBC access on UNIX, which parameter needs to be increased from its installation default if there are more than 400 column values in a result set?
A. MAXBUFFETCH
B. MAXCOLUMNSET
C. MAXFETCHCOLS
D. MAXCOLSFETCH
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 32
Administrators can advise users to use the BREAK command to
A. disconnect a run away UV process from file locks.
B. stop UniVerse.
C. interrupt UniVerse processing to enable file backups.
D. enable or disable the Interrupt, Stop, Suspend, and Break keys.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 33
To limit A Certkiller .com user’s ability to create UniVerse accounts on a system, administrators must make an entry in which file in the UV account?
A. NEWACC
B. UV.ACCESS
C. UV.FLAVOR

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QUESTION 21
When selecting data from a SQL data source, which separator between the attribute names in the SELECT statement is valid?
A. colon (:)
B. comma (,)
C. space ( )
D. semicolon(;)
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 22
Which command line will sort the TEST.FILE by AMT with highest amount to lowest amount?
A. SORT TEST.FILE DSND AMT
B. SORT TEST.FILE BY.DSND AMT
C. SORT TEST.FILE AMT DESCENDING
D. SORT DESCENDING AMT FROM TEST.FILE
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 23
When using Basic SQL Client Interface (BCI), what type of interface is the program connecting to?
A. JDBC
B. ODBC
C. Oracle Client Interface (OCI)
D. Microsoft ActiveX Data Objects (ADO)
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 24
Which interface would a BASIC programmer use to read and/or write a remote ODBC data source?
A. UDODBC or UVODBC
B. Basic SQLConnect (BSC)
C. UniObjects for Java (UOJ)
D. Basic SQL Client Interface (BCI)
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 25
With the variable SUB equal to “SUB1”, which statement will call the external subroutine SUB1?
A. CALL SUB
B. CALL @SUB
C. CALL @SUB1
D. CALL “SUB”
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 26
Given the following programs (subroutine is cataloged) PROGRAM MAIN SUBROUTINE SUB1(Z) X=1 X=2 Y=2 Y=2 CALL SUB1(Y) Z=1 PRINT X,Y RETURN END END Running program MAIN will print what values for X and Y?
A. 1 for X and 1 for Y
B. 1 for X and 2 for Y
C. 2 for X and 1 for Y
D. 2 for X and 2 for Y
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 27
Multiple arguments in an external subroutine call must be separated by a
A. comma
B. space
C. period
D. value mark
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 28
Which command will execute an externally cataloged subroutine?
A. CASE
B. CALL
C. GOSUB
D. PERFORM
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 29
Which command performs a call to an internal subroutine?
A. CALL
B. CHAIN
C. GOSUB
D. EXECUTE
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 30
Which command executes reiteration of a LOOP statement?
A. END
B. NEXT
C. RETURN
D. REPEAT
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 31
Which modifier increments a FOR/NEXT loop variable by two?
A. NEXT 2
B. STEP 2
C. PRECISION 2
D. variable = 2
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 32
Under what condition would the ELSE clause be taken in the following IF/THEN statement? IF A < 10 THEN GOTO para1 ELSE GOTO para2
A. Variable A is 5
B. Variable A is 15
C. Variable A is empty
D. Variable A is undefined
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 33
Which line of code represents the default answer on a CASE statement? BEGIN CASE CASE A=3;GOSUB ABC

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QUESTION NO: 21
What is required to use an IBM Tivoli Director/ Integrator (TDI) AssemblyLine as an IBM Tivoli Federated Identity Manager (TFIM) mapping function?
A. The TDI api.remote.on property for the solution must be set to True.
B. The TDI api.remote.on property for the solution must be set to False.
C. The TDI solution directory must be located under the TFIM TDI Mapping directory.
D. The DirectoryIntegratorSTSModule.jar file needs to be copied to the TDI solutions directory.
Answer: A Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 22
A customer would like to give third-party applications scoped access to a protected resource on behalf of the resource owner. What is the appropriate protocol?
A. SAML
B. OAuth
C. Liberty
D. WS-Federation
Answer: B Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 23
What is a registry configuration requirement when used with IBM Tivoli Federated Identity Manager V6.2.2 User Self Care (USC)?

A. IBM WebSphere Application Server (WAS) federated repositories must be used.
B. WAS federated repositories cannot be used.
C. The USC schema extensions must be applied to the managed registry.
D. The managed registry must support WS-Provisioning extensions, and the extensions must be enabled.
Answer: A Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 24
SAML responses passed to destination sites via Browser/POST utilize which form of encoding?
A. ROT13
B. Base64
C. urlencode
D. uuencode
Answer: B Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 25
In reviewing a IBM WebSphere Application Server IBM Tivoli Federated Identity Manager V6.2.2 diagnostic trace, which object type should be examined to determine how successive processing steps act upon the transaction information?
A. STSUniversalUser (STSUU)
B. SPSUniversalUser (SPSUU)
C. SPSUniversalCredential(SPSUC)
D. SSOCommonCredential(SSOCC)
Answer: A Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 26
What is a claim relative to security tokens?

A. Within a security token, it is a statement which establishes that the token was issued by a trusted party.
B. Within a security token, it is a statement which asserts policy governance for a resource such as an application, service endpoint, or other capability.
C. Within a security token, it is a statement which provides information about a resource such as a user identity, an entitlement, an attribute, capability, etc.
D. Within a security token, it is a statement which establishes ownership of or access to a resource such as an application, service endpoint, or other capability.
Answer: C Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 27
What is a correct statement regarding OpenID?
A. It supports a consumer-agnostic Federated Single Sign-On (FSSO) model that allows a relying party to control which OpenID provider(s) it is willing to trust.
B. It supports a user-centric FSSO model that allows a relying party to control which OpenID provider(s) it is willing to trust
C. It supports a user-centric FSSO model that allows an OpenID provider to select which relying parties to trust without creating a formal trust relationship in advance (such as is done with SAML).
D. It supports a provider-agnostic FSSO model that allows an OpenID provider to select which relying parties to trust without creating a formal trust relationship in advance (such as is done with SAML).
Answer: B Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 28
When installing IBM Tivoli Federated Identity Manager V6.2.2, which three point of contact configuration options are available? (Choose three.)
A. JBoss Application Server
B. generic point of contact server
C. Internet Information Services (IIS)
D. Apache Tomcat Application Server
E. IBM WebSphere Application Server
F. IBM Tivoli Access Manager WebSEAL

Answer: B,E,F Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 29
Users of a SAML Single Sign-On federation that was previously operating properly are now experiencing errors. The administrators of both partners insist that no configuration changes have been made. What are two obvious items to check? (Choose two.)
A. The validity period in a partner certificate may have been reset.
B. The subject attribute in a partner certificate may have become invalid.
C. The NotBefore/NotAfter window in a partner certificate may have been exceeded.
D. The partner system clocks may have fallen out of sync beyond the NotBefore/NotOnOrAfter window.
E. The partner system clocks may have fallen out of sync beyond the allowable 30 second SAML tolerance
Answer: C,D Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 30
What is correct regarding cookies received from a browser?
A. The browser determines which cookies to send and includes only the cookie names and values in the request.
B. The browser determines which cookies to send and includes only the cookie names, values, and expiration times in the request.
C. The browser determines which cookies are eligible to send, and then if a Cookies-Requested header is in the previous response from the server, only cookies named in the Cookies-Requested value will be sent. Only the cookie names and values are included in the request.
D. The browser determines which cookies are eligible to send, and then if a Cookies-Requested header is in the previous response from the server, only cookies named in the Cookies-Requested value will be sent. Only the cookie names, values, and expiration times are included in the request.
Answer: A Explanation: QUESTION NO: 31
Which WS-Trust binding issues new tokens, possibly with new proof information, based upon a proven credential provided in a request in a SOAP message?
A. Issue
B. Create
C. Renew
D. Generate
Answer: A Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 32
Assume IBM Tivoli Federated Identity Manager V6.2.2 (TFIM) is installed in a clustered IBM WebSphere Application Server (WAS) environment. What is a concern with WAS TFIM runtime diagnostic trace analysis for Federated Single Sign-On (FSSO)?
A. The Common Audit Service component must be installed.
B. First Failure Data Capture timestamps may not be synchronized across cluster nodes.
C. SAML 2.0 artifact bindings and OpenID may cause diagnostic trace messages for a given FSSO transaction to span trace logs on multiple cluster nodes.
D. SAML 1.1 Browser/POST profile transactions may cause diagnostic trace messages for a given FSSO transaction to span trace logs on multiple cluster nodes.
Answer: C Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 33
What is an OpenID association?
A. a negotiated connection between provider and consumer
B. a required linkage between the claimed identifier and stateless user site
C. an optional URL/XRI string provided by the user established with the external site
D. a shared secret between a relying party and OpenID provider used to verify protocol messages and reduce round trips
Answer: D Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 34
What is the cryptographic requirement when configuring IBM Tivoli Federated Identity Manager V6.2.2 for Information Card support?
A. Information Card uses SHA-384 hashes. This means that the Java security file java.security must be edited to include the option sha.options = SHA2, 384.
B. The encryption used by Information Card is AES/CBC with PKCS5Padding.This means that the Java security file java.security must be edited to include the option aes.options=CBC, pkcss Pad.
C. The encryption used by Information Card is DESede/ECB with PKCS5Padding. This means that the Java security file java.security must be edited to include the option des.options=EDE, pkcss Pad.
D. The encryption algorithms used by Information Card require strong cryptographic library support. This means that a replacement is needed for the default Java security files local_policy.jar and US_export_policyjar.
Answer: D Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 35
A SAML 1.1 identity provider federation has been created in IBM Tivoli Federated Identity Manager V6.2.2 (TFIM) and a service provider partner from XYZZY Corporation must be added. The partner includes the following information:
Provider ID: XYZZY SAML SP
Assertion Consumer Service (ACS) Endpoint: https://sp.xyzzycorp.com/apps/plugh/saml
Which statement is correct regarding these values?
A. These values may be used directly in the TFIM partner configuration.
B. Because Provider IDs must be domain names, the partner must supply a Provider ID value of sp.xyzzycorp.com.
C. Because Provider IDs must be single word identifiers, the partner must supply a different value which meets this requirement.
D. Because Provider IDs must be URLs, the partner must supply a Provider ID value which matches the context root of the Assertion Consumer Service endpoint.

Answer: A Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 36
The IBM Tivoli Federated Identity Manager V6.2.2 provisioning service supports which WS- Provisioning operations?
A. notify, subscribe, unsubscribe
B. provision, deprovision, cancelRequest
C. createAccount, restoreAccount,deleteAccount
D. requestAccount,deprovisionAccount, changePassword
Answer: B Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 37
A corporate intranet supports single sign-on (SSO) for internally facing Web applications accessed by employees. The company also has an external facing product support site used by customers, business partners, and company employees. Employee IDs are maintained in a user registry which is separate from the user registry for the support site. To use the support site, employees must register in the same manner other users do.
The customer has chosen to use IBM Tivoli Federated Identity Manager V6.2.2 (TFIM) to provide SSO for employees between the intranet and the external facing support site so that an intranet SSO login can be leveraged for support site access. How can this capability be provided?
A. SAML 2.0 using persistent Name Identifiers can be used along with the TFIM Name Identifier Linking Service to link intranet and support accounts for employees. The intranet TFIM can be configured as an identity provider (IdP) in a SAML 2.0 federation, and the support site TFIM can be configured as a SAML 2.0 service provider (SP).
B. SAML 2.0 using persistent Name Identifiers and Name Identifier Management can be used along with the TFIM alias service to link intranet and support accounts for employees. The intranet TFIM can be configured as an IdP in a SAML 2.0 federation, and the support site TFIM can be configured as a SAML 2.0 SP.
C. SAML 1.1 using persistent Name Identifiers and Name Identifier Management can be used along with the TFIM alias service to link intranet and support accounts for employees. The intranet TFIM can be configured as an IdP in a SAML 1.1 federation, and the support site TFIM can be configured as a SAML 1.1 SP.

D. SAML 2.0 using persistent Consent Identifiers and Name Identifier Management can be used along with the TFIM alias service to link intranet and support accounts for employees. The intranet TFIM can be configured as an IdP in a SAML 2.0 federation, and the support site TFIM can be configured as a SAML 2.0 SP.
Answer: B Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 38
Using IBM Tivoli Federated Identity Manager V6.2.2 as an OpenID provider (OP), an error is being reported indicating that a required attribute is missing. What might be the problem?
A. The relying party (RP) may have not included the attribute in the encoded attribute request object sent to the OP AX endpoint, and it was not included in the response.
B. The OP may have not supplied a value for the attribute in the encoded attribute response list sent to the RP attribute exchange (AX) endpoint.
C. A required attribute may have been solicited via Simple Registration (SREG) in the initial request POSTed to the OP login endpoint, and the OP mapping rule/function did not supply a value.
D. A required attribute may have been solicited via SREG in the initial request POSTed to the RP login endpoint, and the OP mapping rule/function did not supply a value.
Answer: D Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 39
Which mechanism does IBM Tivoli Federated Identity Manager V6.2.2 provide for supporting configuration of a custom module?
A. Java Properties class
B. User Interface using GUIXML
C. XSLT-based configuration file
D. Java Class Loader abstraction
Answer: B Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 40

Which IBM Tivoli Access Manager for e-Business component is always required when deploying WebSEAL as an IBM Tivoli Federated Identity Manager V6.2.2 point of contact?
A. NetSEAL
B. Policy Server (pdmgrd)
C. Web Portal Manager (wpm)
D. Authorization Server (pdacld)
Answer: B Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 41
A partner, in the context of Federated Single Sign-On, is a participating entity in a federated relationship which operates in the role of what?
A. a Trusted Provider
B. a Service Provider (SP)
C. the Identity Provider (IdP)
D. either an IdP or a SP
Answer: D Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 42
With regard to the SAML standards, which statement describes an assertion?
A. A piece of data produced by a SAML authority regarding either an act of authentication performed on a subject, attribute information about the subject, or authorization permissions applying to the subject with respect to a specified resource.
B. A signed and encrypted token produced by a SAML authority regarding either an act of authentication performed on a subject, attribute information about the subject, or authorization permissions applying to the subject with respect to a specified resource.
C. A SOAP message containing an artifact produced by a SAML authority regarding either an act of authentication performed on a subject, attribute information about the subject, or authorization permissions applying to the subject with respect to a specified resource.
D. A SOAP message containing an artifact produced by a SAML identity provider regarding either an act of authentication performed on a user, attribute information about the user, or authorization

permissions applying to the user with respect to a specified application.
Answer: A Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 43
Which two deployment scenarios are supported by Web Services Security Management? (Choose two.)
A. surrogation
B. authorization
C. validation of token types
D. conversion of token types
E. authentication and authorization
Answer: D,E Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 44
WebSEAL is used as the Single Sign-On point of contact for an IBM Tivoli Federated Identity Manager V6.2.2 (TFIM) SAML 1.1 identity provider (IdP) configuration using Browser/Artifact with the service provider (SP). What is the action order in an IBM WebSphere Application Server diagnostic trace of the TFIM IdP when an inter-site transfer service request is received?
1.
Run the SAML token creation Security Token Service (STS) module to produce the assertion.

2.
Generate the artifact.

3.
Run the appropriate mapping function for the federation partnership against the STS Universal User (STSUU) object.

4.
Redirect the user to the SP Attribute Retrieval Service.
A. 3, 1, 4, 2
B. 2, 1, 3, 4
C. 3, 1, 2, 4
D. 2, 3, 1, 4
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 45

What are the four core elements defined by the SAML 1.1 and SAML 2.0 standards?
A. assertions, bindings, profiles, protocols
B. assertions, subjects, profiles, protocols
C. assertions, bindings, attributes, protocols
D. subjects, attributes, protocols, authentication responses
Answer: A Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 46
Which IBM WebSphere Application Server (WAS) security properties must be configured so WAS can be used as an IBM Tivoli Federated Identity Manager V6.2.2 point of contact?
A. Application and container security are enabled
B. Application and JEE/J2EE security are enabled; Single Sign-On (SSO) is disabled
C. Server and cluster security are enabled; SSO (LTPA Token) are enabled
D. Application and administration security are enabled; SSO (LTPA Cookie) is enabled
Answer: D Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 47
Which component(s) of IBM Tivoli Federated Identity Manager V6.2.2 are compliant with the WS- Trust standard?
A. Secure Token Service (STS)
B. STS, Security Token Service Universal User (STSUU)
C. STS, WS-Trust Web Service Description Language (WSDL)
D. STS, WS-Trust WSDL, STSUU
Answer: A QUESTION NO: 48
Which component is included with IBM Tivoli Federated Identity Manager V6.2.2 for auditing data?
A. QRadar
B. IBM Cognos Server
C. Common Audit Service
D. Common Event Service
Answer: C Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 49
When performing an IBM Tivoli Federated Identity Manager V6.2.2 (TFIM) deployment operation after creating a domain, this error is seen:
FBTCON137E: An error occurred during the deployment operation.
What is a possible cause of this error message and what action should be taken to address it?
A. This message is a generic description of any deployment failure and can be received even
when the operation is successful but the operation took longer than the specified SOAP request
timeout value.
To validate the deployment, perform these steps:

1.
Close the Runtime Node Management panel.
2.
Open the Runtime Node Management panel.
If the TFIM Runtime shows as deployed with a check mark in the status column proceed to
configuring the Runtime.

B. This message is a generic description of any deployment failure and can be received even
when the operation is successful but the operation took longer than the specified JSON-RPC
request timeout value.
To validate the deployment, perform these steps:

1.
Close the Runtime Node Management panel.
2.
Open the Runtime Node Management panel.
If the TFIM Runtime shows as deployed with a check mark in the status column proceed to
configuring the Runtime.

C. This message is related to the domain being created before the TFIM Runtime was configured.
To correct, perform these steps:
1.
Close the Runtime Node Management panel.

2.
Configure the Runtime.

3.
Open the Runtime Node Management panel.

4.
Perform the Deploy operation again.
D. This message is related to the domain being created before the TFIM Management Service
was started.
To correct, perform these steps:

1.
Close the Runtime Node Management panel.
2.
Start the Management Service.
3.
Open the Runtime Node Management panel.
4.
Perform the Deploy operation again.

Answer: A Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 50
Which additional configuration step must be done after creating a federation when using WebSEAL as the point of contact?
A. Run the wsconfig utility. This creates a WebSEAL virtual host junction to the federation endpoint and updates IBM Tivoli Access Manager (TAM) ACLs against federation endpoints.
B. Run the tfimcfg utility. This updates the WebSEAL configuration to support the specific federation being created, and it updates TAM ACLs against federation endpoints.
C. Run the wsconfig utility. This creates a WebSEAL transparent junction to the federation endpoint, adds an EAI trigger to the WebSEAL configuration to support the specific federation being created, and updates TAM ACLs against federation endpoints.
D. Run the tfimcfg utility. This creates a WebSEAL transparent path junction to the federation endpoint, adds an EAI trigger to the WebSEAL configuration to support the specific federation being created, and updates TAM ACLs against federation endpoints.
Answer: B Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 51
Consider this HTTP protocol response:
HTTP/1.1 302 Found

Location: https://www.jkenterprises.com/xyzzy.html
How will the browser respond?
A. The browser will issue an HTTP PUT to the URL specified by Location.
B. The browser will issue an HTTP GET to the URL specified by Location.
C. The browser will issue an HTTP POST to the URL specified by Location.
D. The browser will open a new window containing the content specified by Location.
Answer: B Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 52
What is an XSLT template?
A. It is a defined set of XSL rules executed against a collection of relational elements based on a pattern match, and may be called by other templates, which may pass input parameters by name.
B. It is a defined set of XSL rules executed against a collection of tree structured nodes in the input based on a pattern match, and maybe called by other templates, which may pass input parameters by name.
C. It is a defined set of XSL rules executed against a serialized list of input elements based on a pattern match, and may be called by other templates. Input parameters are passed by inference rather than explicitly.
D. It is a defined set of XSL rules executed against a collection of tree structured nodes based on a pattern match, and may be called by other templates. Input parameters are passed by inference rather than explicitly.
Answer: B Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 53
The Web Services Security Management component will be added to an existing IBM Tivoli Federated Identity Manager installation using WebSEAL as a point of contact for Federated Single Sign-On. What other additional components are also required?
A. IBM HTTP Server must be installed.
B. No other additional components are required.
C. IBM Tivoli Identity Manager must be installed.

D. IBM WebSphere Application Server network deployment version must be installed.
Answer: B Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 54
What are the roles defined by OAuth 2.0?
A. Client application, resource owner, resource server
B. User, client application, resource owner, resource server
C. User, resource owner, resource server, authorization server
D. Client application, resource owner, resource server, authorization server
Answer: D Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 55
Which two configuration types are available for use with the Alias Service? (Choose two.)
A. XML
B. LDAP
C. Active Directory
D. JDBC provider and data source
E. ODBC provider and data source
Answer: B,D Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 56
Using a browser traffic capture tool, a capture of the HTTP interactions between Internet Explorer and a federation endpoint was recorded. The IBM Tivoli Federated Identity Manager V6.2.2 deployment was configured with WebSEAL as the point of contact server. When looking through the trace, which cookie indicates that a session has been established with IBM Tivoli Access Manager?

 

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QUESTION 21
A second virtual disk has been added to a SuSE Linux LPAR on the existing vhost0 adapter. What must be done for this disk to be recognized on the Linux LPAR?
A. /usr/bin/cfgmgr
B. /bin/kpartx -a -v /dev/sdb
C. echo “- – -” > /sys/class/scsi_host/host0/scan
D. /usr/bin/rescan-scsi-bus

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 22
An architect is desiging a new virtualized POWER7 system. The system will have a number of AIX and Linux LPARs and will be deployed with a logical memory block size of 16MB.Which of the following could be used to determine the amount of memory used by the Hypervisor?
A. System Planning Tool.
B. System Configurator.
C. Facts and Features Guide.
D. LPAR Validation Tool.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 23
An administrator uses DLPAR on an active LPAR to add an additional VLAN ID into an existing virtual adapter used by the SEA. The operation fails with error HSC01221 stating that the Modification of Virtual I/ O resources failed. The server being modified is a POWER6 595 running firmware version EH350_071. The VIO Server is at version 2.2.0.10 FP24Based on this information, what is the most likely cause for this error?
A. The system firmware needs to be updated to EH350_085.
B. The VIO Server needs to be updated to 2.2.0.10 FP 24 SP1.
C. Dynamic addition of VLAN IDs to an existing virtual adapter are only supported at AIX 7.1.
D. Dynamic addition of VLAN IDs to an existing virtual adapter are only supported on POWER7 hardware.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 24
An administrator would like to install a new Fix Pack on an existing VIO server. The Fix Pack has been mounted using NFS on /mnt. Which command should the administrator use to achieve this?
A. installios -update_all -dev /mnt
B. iosinst -update -install -accept -dev /mnt
C. updateios -dev /mnt -accept -install
D. geninstall -u -ac -d /mnt -f all
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 25
A user has accidentally deleted critical system files on an LPAR. Storage on the LPAR is provided using both vSCSI and NPIV. The administrator is preparing to reinstall the LPAR, but has concerns about the existing NPIV configuration. Which statement concerning WWPNs is correct?
A. During the reinstall of AIX, the HMC will assign new WWPNs to the adapters.
B. Assigned WWPNs are regenerated during a reinstall for boot devices, but preserved for secondary storage.
C. Providing the configuration of the virtual Fibre Channel adapters remains unchanged in the LPAR profile, the existing WWPNs are preserved.
D. The virtual_fc_adapters LPAR attribute must be verified prior to the reinstall and suitably updated to preserve all existing WWPNs.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 26
Which is the lowest edition of PowerVM that will permit redundant VIO Servers?
A. PowerVM Basic Edition
B. PowerVM Express Edition
C. PowerVM Standard Edition
D. PowerVM Enterprise Edition

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 27
A virtual adapter with IEEE 802.1Q enabled for multiple VLANs has been created on a new VIO Server. This has been turned into a Shared Ethernet Adapter (SEA) but the SEA is not passing the tagged traffic to the outside world. Which of the following actions, when taken on the VIO Server, will fix the issue?
A. Set the trunk priority is to 1.
B. mkvdev -vlan ent[Ethernet device] -tagid [VLAN ID] for each PVID.
C. Re-create the SEA with -vlan [VLAN ID] option.
D. chvdev -sea en[Ethernet interface] -vlanid [VLAN ID].

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 28
An administrator has installed a new client partition and has used vSCSI to provide the disk for rootvg. The rootvg consists of one single disk, hdisk0, which is provided using a single SAN device presented to a dual VIO server configuration. The client virtual SCSI adapters are vscsi0 and vscsi1The administrator would like to prioritize I/O traffic for vscsi0.Running which command will achieve this?
A. chdev
B. chvpath
C. chpath
D. chattr

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 29
An administrator has a hardware environment including POWER5, POWER6 and POWER7 architectures.
A requirement exists to improve availability across all platforms without additional costs.
What technology should be considered?

A. Live Application Mobility
B. Live Partition Mobility
C. Multiple Shared Storage Pools
D. Resource Monitoring and Control

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 30
On the following system which uses Multiple Shared Processor Pools (MSPP):

LPAR6 requires two additional processing units. Which of the following will accomplish this?
A. DLPAR move two processing units from LPAR2 to LPAR6.
B. Decrease MSPP1 by two processing units.DLPAR add two processing units to LPAR6.
C. Move LPAR6 to MSPP3.DLPAR add two processing units to LPAR6.
D. Add two processing units to MSPP2.DLPAR add two processing units to LPAR6.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 31
A new Power 750 machine is being prepared for use. When the administrator tries to assign a new LPAR to a secondary shared processor pool, the HMC displays the following error:”This operation is not allowed because the partition is using dedicated processors.”What is the most likely cause for the error?
A. The defined LPAR has yet to be activated.
B. The defined LPAR has been set to the wrong Processor compatibility mode.
C. The defined LPAR has the “Allow when partition is active” option checked.
D. The defined LPAR has the “Allow when partition is inactive” option unchecked.

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 32
An administrator has written a script to back up user-defined disk structures on a VIO server. The script makes a list of non-rootvg structures and then uses the savevgstruct command to backup the list of structures. While testing the script, the administrator finds that the disk structures are not all being successfully backed up. What is the most likely cause?
A. The disk structure is currently offline. It needs to be online for the savevgstruct command to succeed.
B. The disk structure is currently busy. It needs to be queisced to remove any file locks.
C. The disk structure is a Virtual Media Repository. These are backed up using the backupios command.
D. The disk structure is a Shared Storage Pool. These are backed up with the viosbk command.

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 33
An architect requires Active Memory Sharing (AMS) to be implemented for a new AIX environment. Which of the following are minimum requirements in order to implement AMS?
A. PowerVM Standard Edition, HMC version 7.3.5, VIO Server version 2.1 FP21
B. PowerVM Enterprise Edition. POWER6 Hardware, AIX 6.1 TL3
C. PowerVM Standard Edition, POWER7 Hardware, HMC version 7.7.1
D. PowerVM Enterprise Edition, AIX 6.1 TL4, redundant storage

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 34
Which of the following statements is true when considering Active Memory Sharing?
A. Only one paging VIO server partition is supported in each system.
B. Only physical hard disks are supported as paging devices.
C. Each paging VIO server partition must have a single dedicated paging device.
D. Every partition in the shared memory pool requires its own dedicated paging device.

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 35
A systems service processor is being connected to a redundant HMC. Which of the following is required to support DHCP server on dual HMCs?
A. The two HMCs must be on different subnets.
B. The redundant HMC must have the ‘Redundant DHCP Range’ check box selected on ethernet ent0 configuration.
C. Both HMCs must be running RMC on a shared private network.
D. The first HMC must be set as primary DHCP range.

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 36
A VIO server provides a virtual Fibre Channel adapter to each of 2 LPARs. The HBA has recently been replaced on the VIO server. After the VIO server was rebooted, the clients LPARs were also rebooted. The LUNs are now showing as “Defined” instead of “Available”. What is the cause?
A. The HBA created new WWPNs on the virtual Fibre Channel adapters.
B. The HBA requires an initial configuration to be performed.
C. The client virtual Fibre Channel adapters were configured via DLPAR.
D. The client virtual Fibre Channel needs a map to the new WWPNs.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 37
While reactivating client LPARs following a scheduled power down, some LPARs have lost visibility to their NPIV-allocated SAN LUNs. On investigation it appears the WWNs have changed on the problem LPARs. What is the most likely cause for the change in WWN?
A. The option to randomly assign WWNs for security reasons has been selected.
B. The NPIV adapters on the VIOS LPARs were not tagged as being “required for partition activation.”
C. The virtual Fibre Channel client adapters were dynamically allocated to the LPARs before being added to the partition profile.
D. The WWNs will have changed due to the recycle of the Hypervisor. The chsyscfg -r command should be used to recover the previously allocated WWN.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 38
What Shared Ethernet Adapter environment can be implemented to prevent client network outages when the Virtual I/O server needs to be shut down for maintenance?
A. Shared Ethernet Adapter failover
B. Link Aggregation on the Virtual I/O Server
C. Etherchannel on the Virtual I/O Server
D. Live Partition Mobility

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 39
An administrator is planning to deploy multiple AIX LPARs onto a Power 770. These LPARs will be served with Virtual SCSI storage from a pair of VIO Servers (VIOS). What consideration should be considered with regard to VIOS configuration to ensure suitable performance of the virtualized storage?
A. Allocate sufficient CPU processing capacity.
B. Provide sufficient memory allocation.
C. Assign each virtual disk on a unique virtual SCSI adapter.
D. Set the hcheck_mode attribute on the vSCSI disks.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 40
A customer has a VIO server which runs on internal disks. It can not support an outage during normal business hours. Which action can the administrator take that will support this requirement AND improve overall system availability?
A. Use the -P flag when setting disk quorum.
B. Use the -D flag when creating a backup device.
C. Use the -defer option when mirroring the rootvg.
D. Use the -immed option when creating a hot spare disk.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 41
An administrator is trying to perform Live Partition Mobility (LPM) between physical systems managed by the same HMC. The VIO Servers (VIOS) on each physical system are connected to the same SAN. The client LPARs will use virtual SCSI (vSCSI) disks. The SCSI adapter slot numbers are between 11 and 20.Each client LPAR has a unique name. The network used by the client LPARs use Logical Host Ethernet adapters (LHEA).The PowerVM Enterprise edition is being used. No EtherChannel has been configured. Why are LPM activities failing?
A. This LHEA configuration is not supported for LPM.
B. The SCSI adapter slot numbers are too high.
C. Multiple MSP (mover service partitions) were configured.
D. The ssh keys have not been exchanged between the two VIO servers.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 42
A partition that uses an LHEA for network connectivity needs to be moved to another managed system. The administrator has the LHEA configured in an Etherchannel with a virtual Ethernet adapter as the backup adapter. When attempting to perform the migration using the Migration Wizard, it fails. What is necessary for the migration to be successful?
A. The HMC command line interface needs to be used to perform the migration.
B. The migration must be initiated from the opertaing systems of the mobile partition.
C. The LHEA must be removed from the Etherchannel before the migration.
D. The destination server does not have an LHEA available for the migration.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 43
The VIO servers in a Power Systems server have already been installed and the LUNs have been mapped to their vhosts as virtual scsi disks. When defining a client LPAR, the administrator wants to map a virtual client SCSI adapter to a server adapter in one of the VIO servers.

In the “Create Virtual SCSI Adapter” dialog box below, why are the fields for “Backing Device” and “Client Disks” empty?
A. The information becomes available when the clients are booted.
B. There needs to be an RMC connection between the HMC and the VIO servers.
C. This information is only available when using internal disks.
D. PowerVM Enterprise Edition is required for this feature .

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 44
Which of the following are advantages of configuring a management IP address on a VIO Server?
A. Allows trunking on the SEA failoverAllows DLPAR of CPU and MemoryAllows network based OS upgrades
B. Allows the VIO Server to be used as an MSPAllows VIO Server management without access to an HMCAllows browser-based access to ASMI
C. Allows DLPARAllows network based OS upgradesAllows VIO Server management without access to an HMC
D. Allows a control channel to be used on SEAsAllows for the use of Live Partition MobilityAllows for security inside a hostile network

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 45
An administrator has installed a Linux LPAR using virtual storage and virtual networking on a POWER7 system and is attempting to DLPAR additional memory into the LPAR. They see the following error message during the DLPAR operation.

Which action will resolve this issue?
A. Add the HMC to the /etc/hosts file.
B. Configure a network on the same subnet on the HMC.
C. Install the IBM Installation Toolkit for Linux
D. Upgrade the version on Linux to support memory DLPAR.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 46
When planning for virtual disk redundancy on an AIX LPAR, which solution would provide the highest availability?
A. N_Port ID Virtualization (NPIV)
B. MPIO through redundant VIO Servers
C. Disk mirroring on the VIO Servers providing the virtual disks
D. Distinct vhost provided for each disk allocated by the VIO Servers

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 47
Which of the following provides resilience when dynamically allocating CPU and memory resources on IBM Power Systems servers?
A. PowerHA System Mirror for Virtualization
B. PowerVM Enterprise Extended Edition
C. Redundant VIO server partitions
D. Redundant Hardware Management Consoles

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 48
A VIO server administrator is configuring MPIO-based storage for a new LPAR named P7_3_AIX.The administrator runs the lspv -free command and sees 4 disks free. The lsmap -all command confirms that the disks are free. A check of the list of LPARs shows the following:

In order to avoid problems, what else should be verified before mapping storage to the new LPAR?
A. If the free disks are allocated to P7_2_AIX
B. That the free disks are MPIO capable
C. If the free disks are allocated to P7_3_AIX
D. That the free disks are allocated to a shared storage pool

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 49
An administrator manages a Power 750 server for application development testing. Full system environments need to be deployed quickly to perform functional application testing. What is the fastest method for the administrator to deploy new AIX environments for the testing staff?
A. Install a VIO server and install testing LPARs utilizing virtualized network and disks.
B. Install a NIM server LPAR on the system and perform installations on testing LPARs through Virtual Ethernet adapters.
C. Use alt_disk_install to maintain a new image on alternate disks on testing LPARs.
D. Create a global LPAR and create test environments using WPAR.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 50
During the validation of a planned partition migration between managed servers, the following error message is displayed:HSCLA297 The DLPAR Resource Manager (DRM) capability bits 0x0 for mover service partition (MSP) VIOS indicate that partition mobility functions are not supported on the partition. What is the most likely cause of this error?
A. An RMC error has occurred on one of the VIOS partitions.
B. The mobile partition has an HEA logical port configured.
C. There is a mismatch in VIO Server versions between the two systems.
D. The network connection to the mobile partition is not working.

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QUESTION 21
What is the advantage of purchasing a Solution Edition featuring Independent Software Vendor (ISV) software running on IBM i, compared to the ISV software running on non-IBM platforms?
A. Solution Editions include IBM Software Maintenance at no charge for the first 3 years.
B. Support for ISV software running on IBM i is included in the initial cost of the Solution Edition.
C. Solution Editions featuring ISV software offer lower total cost of ownership (TOO) and lower total cost of acquisition (TOA) than competitors.
D. IBM International Pricing Agreements mean that global ISVs offer a lower pricing model for their software when running on Power Systems servers.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 22
A client requires a PureElex compute node model for a test IBM i workload. Which model supports IBM i workloads?
A. p240
B. p24L
C. p260
D. p740

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 23
An existing IBM i customer with a POWER6 520 is planning to move to POWER7I but wants to understand the differences between running IBM i on a PureElex compute node compared to a new POWEP7 720 server. Which of the following describes a key consideration for this customer related to running IBM i on a PureFlex compute node?
A. Systems Director VMControl management software is required for compute node management.
B. Punning IBM i on a PureFlex compute node requires VIO Server to provide all virtualized I/O resources.
C. IBM i on a PureFlex compute node requires dedicated physical adapters for all I/O resources.
D. The integrated storage node is a requirement for storage for a compute node running IBM i.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 24
A customer is concerned that there have been no new releases to IBM i since 7.1 was announced in 2010.
They are afraid that IBM is no longer investing in IBM i as a strategic operating system.
Which statement answers the customer concern?

A. IBM consolidated its investments in POWER so that it could be exploited by multiple operating systems. All investments in POWER benefit IBM i.
B. IBM has purposely extended the period between major releases, but has delivered Technology Refreshes with new capabilities approximately every six months.
C. IBM i is used by over 150,000 companies around the world to run their business applications. The size of this customer set assures the continued future of IBM i.
D. The announcement of PureSystems servers and the support of common software technologies such as PowerVM and PowerHA demonstrate investment in IBM i.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 25
Which of the following represents a unique characteristic of IBM i and DB2 that is designed to reduce the amount of time it takes to restart a system and database after an abnormal end, such as a power interruption?
A. Disk Mirroring
B. SMP Parallelism
C. Adaptive Query Processing
D. System Managed Access Path Protection

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 26
An 010 plans to purchase a new Power System. In a previous purchase of non IBM servers, critical components were missing from the proposal. As a result, additional items had to be purchased. Which IBM tool will help ensure that the proposed system contains the necessary components?
A. eConfigurator
B. Workload Estimator
C. System Planning Tool
D. Server Validation Tool
Correct Answer: A

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QUESTION 21
Which special authorities are required to allow a user to change user profiles on a system with QSECURITY set to 40?
A. *ALLOBJ*OBJMGT
B. *SECADM*ALLOBJ
C. *SECADM*OBJMGT
D. *SECADM*SER VICE

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 22
An application vendor has shipped a save file with the source member for a new program. The administrator restored the new source member into the existing source file, but when checking the source file after the restore discovered that all of the previous source members were missing.
Which parameter of the Restore Object (RSTOBJ) command would have allowed the administrator to restore the new member without losing the existing members?
A. MBROPT *NEW
B. FRCOBJCVN *NO
C. ALWOBJDIE *FILEVL
D. FILEMBR (*NAME *NEW)
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 23
Which command will help an administrator to find the IBM i Navigator jobs?
A. WRKJOB TYPE(*PJ)
B. WRKJOB JOB(QZRCSRVS)
C. WPKACTJOB JOB(*REMOTE)
D. WRKUSRJOB USER(*CENTRAL)
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 24
After an abnormal IPL, jobs that are accessing some files for the first time are spending an extended amount of time in a status of “IDX” and are taking longer to complete.
Which command should be used to enable all pending access path rebuilds to be analyzed, prioritized, and immediately executed rather than waiting for first access?
A. WRKEFD
B. EDTRBDAP
C. WRKAPSTS
D. WRKJOBAP

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 25
Consider the following graphic. Where in System i Navigator Management Central are the message monitors configured?
A. Message
B. Commands
C. Extreme Support
D. Collection Services

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 26
After installing IBM i 7.1 on a brand new system, only the QSECOFR user profile can login on the system console. The administrator copied the QSECOFR profile into a new user profile. When attempting to login with the new user profile, the following error is displayed:
“CPF1110 not authorized to work station.”
What is causing the error?
A. The DST Console type was not set during installation of the Os.
B. The QLMT5ECOFR system value is set to require explicit device access.
C. The limit device session parameter (LMTDEV55N) on the new user profile is set to tYE5.
D. The system does not allow automatic workstation device creation for users with *ALLOBJ authority.

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 27
An administrator issues the WRKSYSACT command on a system partition using dedicated processors and the following result displays:
Current processing capacity 2
What does the current processing capacity value indicate?
A. The percentage of CPU currently available for system jobs.
B. The share of the physical processors in the pool it is running.
C. The number of processing units currently assigned to the partition.
D. The number of virtual processors that are currently active in the partition.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 28
An administrator needs to upgrade their Flexible Service Processor’s (FSP) firmware for an HMC managed Power 720. They are currently running AL730_085. The latest corrective service on Fix Central is AL730_1 12_092.
Which statement is correct regarding the installation of this corrective service package?
A. Since this is an HMC managed FSP, the installation of the corrective service will be concurrent.
B. Since the FSP will remain at the same 730 code stream level the installation of the corrective service will be concurrent.
C. Since the 092 is greater than the currently running 085 fix pack level, the installation of the corrective service will be disruptive.
D. Since the 112 is greater than the currently running 085 fix pack level, the installation of the corrective service will be disruptive.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 29
On an HMC-managed system with several partitions, the QSECOFR password for DST/SST has been disabled for one partition. No other profiles for DST/SST are known. What procedure will reset the password to the shipped value?
A. Sign on to the partition as QSECOFR, issue the CHGDSTPWD PASSWORD(*DEFAULT) command.
B. Use the function in the HMC for “Users and Groups” to modify the partition’s DST password.
C. Use the control panel function 21 from the HMC user interface to reset the SST/DST password.
D. Connect to ASMI, use the “admin” profile to reset the DST password of the affected partition.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 30
Which command will save the access paths for Iwo physical files (PFLE1, PFILE2) when both the physical and dependent logical file (LFILE) reside in the same library?
A. SAV OBJ(LFILE) PATH(*YES)
B. SAVOBJ OBJ(LFILE) ACCPTH(*YES)
C. SAVOBJ OBJ(PFILE1 PFILE2) ACCPTH(*YES)
D. SAVACCPATH FILE(PFILE1 PFILE2) ACCPATH(*YES)

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 31
An administrator needs to upgrade users’ IBM i Access for Windows emulators to use Secure Sockets Layer (SSL) protocol. The administrator used the Microsoft Windows administrator account to complete a successful upgrade and subsequent test. After re-booting the Windows PC, users log in using their ID. When users launch the IBM i Access emulator and log into the IBM i server, the emulator session is not SSL secured, even after the successful installation.
What is most likely cause of the problem?
A. The Windows client IP address is being blocked by the exit point QIBM_SSL_DEVINIT.
B. The IBM i Access for Windows emulator shortcut for users’ desktops were not configured for SSL.
C. The IBM i Access for Windows emulator supports SSL only when run from a Windows administrator account.
D. The Windows client has been assigned a new IP address from the DHCP server which is not registered with the System i SSL server.

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 32
An administrator needs to identify which jobs are creating short CPU and disk arm usage spikes. The administrator also needs to determine what the job(s) are doing as soon as possible during or after a spike occurs.
Which tool is most appropriate to use to assist with this activity?
A. IBM i Performance Explorer (PEX)
B. IBM i Performance Management Agent
C. IBM System Director Navigator for i
D. System i Navigator Management Central monitors

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 33
A system administrator is restoring a saved library LIBA on the same system where it was saved several months ago, using the RSTLIB command with the Allow Object Differences (ALWOBJDIE) parameter set to *ALL.
The original library LIBA has changed since it was last saved. Several original files now have different authorization lists, and many new objects have been added. After the restore, the administrator observed that some restored files have two versions, FILEx and FILEx0001.
Which setting of the ALWOBJDIF parameter will avoid this problem?
A. *MATCH
B. *MBRLVL
C. *FILELVL
D. *COMPATIBLE

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 34
An administrator has prepared an update package containing the prescribed groups and HIPER PTF5. When testing the package, a message is received stating some of the PTEs cannot be applied because others are missing.
What is the most efficient approach to accomplish a successful test?
A. Apply the latest technology refresh.
B. Apply the latest cumulative fix package.
C. Inspect the job log for the missing PTFs.
D. Read the PSP for cumulative updates for missing PTFs.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 35
An administrator with an HMC managed POWER7 system needs to perform a concurrent update to server firmware. Which co-requisites and/or prerequisites should the administrator consider as part of the planning process?
A. Available flash storage on the system FSP
B. IBM i, Licensed Internal Code PTE5, and HMC code level
C. Ability’ of the HMC to attach to the Internet and the IBM Support ETP site for the download
D. Service window to place the system partitions into restricted state and perform a platform IPL

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 36
A customer needs to upgrade from IBM i 5.4 to 7.1 . The current system is used extensively for Web serving. Extensive database activity is performed in SQL.
Which factor will affect the time to perform the upgrade of the operating system?
A. The ES Type must convert during the IBM i upgrade.
B. The DB2 referential constraints must be manually reestablished.
C. Some database joins must be reformatted to be compliant with new SQL standards.
D. The logical file access paths must be rebuilt into Encoded Vector Indexes (EVI).

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 37
When a user opens up Database Navigator for IBM i 7.1, only the QGPL database is initially available. The user needs the list of schemas to be available each time Database Navigator is opened.
What action can the administrator take to support the requirement?
A. Add the user to the authorization list QSM1 AUTL and restart the host servers.
B. In Application Administration for System i Navigator, enter a schema name and press the ADD button.
C. Create a supplemental group profile that has the needed list of libraries assigned and make the user a member of that supplemental group.
D. Create a job description with the appropriate list of libraries on it and assign the job description to the user. Have the user sign off and sign on again.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 38
An administrator needs to install third party software into an iASP environment. The installation is failing when the program provided by the software company attempts to create and restore library objects.
What is the most efficient way for the administrator to install the software while maintaining the command integrity of the system?
A. Copy the software libraries into the system ASPThen create duplicate objects into the iASPRemove the new commands when the installation completes
B. Create a copy of the CRTLIB and RSTLIB commands, which include the iASP name, into a library that is placed first in the system portion of the library listRemove the new commands when the installation completes
C. Create a copy of the CRTLIB and RSTLIB commands, which include the ASP name, into a different library Then add that library to the user portion of the library listRemove the new commands when the installation completes
D. Create a copy of the CRTLIB and RSTLIB commands, which include the ASP name, in a different library Then add that library to the install portion of the library listRemove the new commands when the installation completes
Correct Answer: B

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Version: Demo
1.What does collector data populate manifests for?
A. Build Forge Enterprise Edition
B. Build Forge Standard Edition
C. all properly licensed editions
D. servers configured with collectors Answer: A
2.The Build Forge services layer is served by the default application server and which alternative platform?
A. WebSphere application server
B. Apache Tomcat application server
C. WebLogic application server
D. JBoss Enterprise application platform Answer: A
3.What are the primary roles of the agent? (Select three.)
A. to listen for instructions from the Build Forge Console
B. to calculate CPU profile on the client machine
C. to accept API calls
D. to execute instructions from the Build Forge Console Answer: A,B,C,D
4.What can developers use to start Build Forge projects and view job results from within their IDE?
A. the Build Forge IDE
B. the TFS plug-in
C. the Build Forge Eclipse perspective
D. an iPhone running Firefox Answer: C
5.What does creating an environment snapshot produce?
A. a new instance of an existing environment
B. a copy of an existing environment
C. a revision of an existing environment with a version number
D. a delta from the original environment Answer: A
6.What is the best way to handle excessive step log output?
A. through direct use of the Build Forge API
B. by limiting the log data generated by the project steps
C. by upgrading the disk subsystem on the database server
D. through use of Build Forge Console clustering support Answer: B
7.What happens when the dot command.set is used to assign a value to an environment variable?
A. The job environment value is changed on-the-fly.
B. The value of the master environment record is changed.
C. A new environment variable is created and added to the master environment record.
D. The value of the job environment is changed, but the change is lost when the job is finished. Answer: B
8.What can be done to gain optimal performance from Build Forge?
A. set all project Run Limits to Unlimited
B. increase Max Jobs to greater than the maximum number of concurrent jobs
C. measure baseline performance of a known project, then individually vary Build Forge and database performance parameters and re-measure performance
D. increase the Run Queue size to greater than the maximum number of concurrent jobs Answer: C
9.On which system can IBM Installation Manager (IIM) be used to install multiple Build Forge Management Console versions that can be selectively started without additional intervention?
A. System z
B. System i
C. UNIX
D. Windows Answer: C
10.Where are detailed system messages available?
A. <install directory>/?apache/tomcat/logs directory
B. the Build Forge user interface Administration Messages panel
C. project step logs
D. server manifests Answer: A

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