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200-105 dumps

Pass4itusre Latest and Most Accurate Cisco 200-105 Dumps Exam Q&As(42-63)

QUESTION 42
Which commands are required to properly configure a router to run OSPF and to add network 192.168.16.0/24 to OSPF area 0? (Choose two.)
A. Router(config)# router ospf 0
B. Router(config)# router ospf 1
C. Router(config)# router ospf area 0
D. Router(config-router)# network 192.168.16.0 0.0.0.255 0
E. Router(config-router)# network 192.168.16.0 0.0.0.255 area 0
F. Router(config-router)# network 192.168.16.0 255.255.255.0 area 0
200-105 exam Correct Answer: BE
Explanation/Reference:
In the router ospf
Command, the ranges from 1 to 65535 so o is an invalid number – B is correct but A is not correct. To configure OSPF, we need a wildcard in the andquot;network” stat

QUESTION 43
Which statement is true, as relates to classful or classless routing?
A. Classful routing protocols send the subnet mask in routing updates.
B. RIPv1 and OSPF are classless routing protocols.
C. Automatic summarization at classful boundaries can cause problems on discontiguous subnets.
D. EIGRP and OSPF are classful routing protocols and summarize routes by default.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: RIPv1, RIPv2, IGRP, and EIGRP all auto-summarize classful boundaries by default (OSPF do

QUESTION 44
What does a router do if it has no EIGRP feasible successor route to a destination network and the successor route to that destination network is in active status?
A. It routes all traffic that is addressed to the destination network to the interface indicated in the routing table.
B. It sends a copy of its neighbor table to all adjacent routers.
C. It sends a multicast query packet to all adjacent neighbors requesting available routing paths to the destination network.
D. It broadcasts Hello packets to all routers in the network to re-establish neighbor adjacencies.
200-105 dumps Correct Answer: C
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 45
Which statement about named ACLs is true?
A. They support standard and extended ACLs.
B. They are used to filter usernames and passwords for Telnet and SSH.
C. They are used to filter Layer 7 traffic.
D. They support standard ACLs only.
E. They are used to rate limit traffic destined to targeted networks.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation/Reference:
Named Access Control Lists (ACLs) allows standard and extended ACLs to be given names instead of numbers. Unlike in numbered Access Control Lists (ACLs), we can edit Named Access Control Lists. Anoth

QUESTION 46
What does the frame-relay interface-dlci command configure?
A. local DLCI on the subinterface
B. remote DLCI on the main interface
C. remote DCLI on the subinterface
D. local DLCI on the main interface
200-105 pdf Correct Answer: A
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 47
Peter is your new Security Administrator. On his first working day, he is very nervous and enters the wrong password three times. His account is locked. What can be done to unlock Peter’s account? Give the BEST answer.
A. It is not possible to unlock Peter’s account. You have to install the firewall once again or abstain from Peter’s help.
B. You can unlock Peter’s account by using the command fwm unlock_admin -u Peter on the Security Gateway.
C. You can unlock Peter’s account by using the command fwm lock_admin -u Peter on the Security Management Server.
D. You can unlock Peter’s account by using the command fwm unlock_admin -u Peter on the Security Management Server
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 48
Where can you find the Check Point’s SNMP MIB file?
A. $CPDIR/lib/snmp/chkpt.mib
B. There is no specific MIB file for Check Point products.
C. $FWDIR/conf/snmp.mib
D. It is obtained only by request from the TAC.
200-105 vce Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 49
You want to generate a cpinfo file via CLI on a system running GAiA. This will take about 40 minutes since the log files are also needed. What action do you need to take regarding timeout?
A. Log in as Administrator, set the timeout to one hour with the command idle 60 and start cpinfo.
B. Log in as the default user expert and start cpinfo.
C. No action is needed because cpshell has a timeout of one hour by default.
D. Log in as admin, switch to expert mode, set the timeout to one hour with the command, idle 60, then start cpinfo.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 50
Many companies have defined more than one administrator. To increase security, only one administrator should be able to install a Rule Base on a specific Firewall. How do you configure this?
A. Define a permission profile in SmartDashboard with read/write privileges, but restrict it to all other firewalls by placing them in the Policy Targets field. Then, an administrator with this permission profile cannot install a policy on any Firewall not listed here.
B. Put the one administrator in an Administrator group and configure this group in the specific Firewall object in Advanced > Permission to Install.
C. Right-click on the object representing the specific administrator, and select that Firewall in Policy Targets.
D. In the object General Properties representing the specific Firewall, go to the Software Blades product list and select Firewall. Right-click in the menu, select Administrator to Install to define only this
  administrator.
200-105 exam Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 51
What is the officially accepted diagnostic tool for IP Appliance Support?
A. ipsoinfo
B. cpinfo
C. uag-diag
D. CST
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 52
ALL of the following options are provided by the SecurePlatform sysconfig utility, EXCEPT:
A. Export setup
B. Time & Date
C. DHCP Server configuration
D. GUI Clients
200-105 dumps Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 53
Which of the following options is available with the GAiA cpconfig utility?
A. Time & Date
B. GUI Clients
C. DHCP Server configuration
D. Export setup
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 54
Which command would provide the most comprehensive diagnostic information to Check Point Technical Support?
A. cpstat – date.cpstat.txt
B. fw cpinfo
C. cpinfo -o date.cpinfo.txt
D. diag

200-105 pdf Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 55
Which of the following statements accurately describes the command snapshot?
A. snapshot creates a Security Management Server full system-level backup on any OS.
B. snapshot stores only the system-configuration settings on the Gateway.
C. A Gateway snapshot includes configuration settings and Check Point product information from the remote Security Management Server.
D. snapshot creates a full OS-level backup, including network-interface data, Check Point product information, and configuration settings during an upgrade of a SecurePlatform Security Gateway.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 56
How do you recover communications between your Security Management Server and Security Gateway if you lock yourself out through a rule or policy mis-configuration?
A. fw delete [email protected]
B. fw unload policy
C. fwm unloadlocal
D. fw unloadlocal
200-105 vce Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 57
How can you check whether IP forwarding is enabled on an IP Security Appliance?
A. clish -c show routing active enable
B. ipsofwd list
C. cat /proc/sys/net/ipv4/ip_forward
D. echo 1 > /proc/sys/net/ipv4/ip_forward
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 58
Which command allows you to view the contents of an R76 table?
A. fw tab -s <tablename>
B. fw tab -t <tablename>
C. fw tab -x <tablename>
D. fw tab -a <tablename>

200-105 exam Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 59
Which of the following tools is used to generate a Security Gateway R76 configuration report?
A. infoCP
B. cpinfo
C. infoview
D. fw cpinfo
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 60
Which of the following is a CLI command for Security Gateway R76?
A. fw merge
B. fw tab -u
C. fw shutdown
D. fwm policy_print <policyname>
200-105 dumps Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 61
You are the Security Administrator for MegaCorp. A Check Point firewall is installed and in use on a platform using GAiA. You have trouble configuring the speed and duplex settings of your Ethernet interfaces. Which of the following commands can be used in Expert Mode to configure the speed and duplex settings of an Ethernet interface and will survive a reboot? Give the BEST answer.
A. eth_set
B. mii_tool
C. ifconfig -a
D. ethtool
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 62
John has scanned the web server with NMAP. However, he could not gather enough information to help him identify the operating system running on the remote host accurately.
What would you suggest to John to help identify the OS that is being used on the remote web server?
A. Connect to the web server with a browser and look at the web page.
B. Connect to the web server with an FTP client.
C. Telnet to port 8080 on the web server and look at the default page code.
D. Telnet to an open port and grab the banner.
200-105 pdf Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Most people don’t care about changing the banners presented by applications listening to open ports and therefore you should get fairly accurate information when grabbing banners from open ports with, for example, a telnet application.

QUESTION 63
An Nmap scan shows the following open ports, and nmap also reports that the OS guessing results to match too many signatures hence it cannot reliably be identified:
21 ftp
23 telnet
80 http

443 https
What does this suggest ?
A. This is a Windows Domain Controller
B. The host is not firewalled
C. The host is not a Linux or Solaris system
D. The host is not properly patched
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
If the answer was A nmap would guess it, it holds the MS signature database, the host not being firewalled makes no difference. The host is not linux or solaris, well it very well could be. The host is not properly patched? That is the closest; nmaps OS detection architecture is based solely off the TCP ISN issued by the operating systems TCP/IP stack, if the stack is modified to show output from randomized ISN’s or if your using a program to change the ISN then OS detection will fail. If the TCP/IP IP ID’s are modified then os detection could also fail, because the machine would most likely come back as being down.

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100-105 dumps

Pass4itusre Latest and Most Accurate Cisco 100-105 Dumps Exam Q&As(25-51)

QUESTION 25
Which of the following describe the process identifier that is used to run OSPF on a router? (Choose two)
A. It is locally significant.
B. It is globally significant.
C. It is needed to identify a unique instance of an OSPF database.
D. It is an optional parameter required only if multiple OSPF processes are running on the router.
E. All routers in the same OSPF area must have the same process ID if they are to exchange routing information.
100-105 exam Correct Answer: AC
Explanation/Reference:
They are locally significant only, and have no bearing on the structure of any OSPF packet or LSA update. So you can have a separate proc

QUESTION 26
Which statements are true regarding ICMP packets? (Choose two.)
A. They acknowledge receipt of TCP segments.
B. They guarantee datagram delivery.
C. TRACERT uses ICMP packets.
D. They are encapsulated within IP datagrams.
E. They are encapsulated within UDP datagrams.
Correct Answer: CD
Explanation/Reference:
Ping may be used to find out whether the local machines are connected to the network or whether a remote site is 
reachable. This tool is a common network tool for determining the network connectivi

QUESTION 27
Refer to the exhibit.
100-105 dumps

Which two statements are true about the loopback address that is configured on RouterB? (Choose two.)
A. It ensures that data will be forwarded by RouterB.
B. It provides stability for the OSPF process on RouterB.
C. It specifies that the router ID for RouterB should be 10.0.0.1.
D. It decreases the metric for routes that are advertised from RouterB.
E. It indicates that RouterB should be elected the DR for the LAN.
100-105 dumps Correct Answer: BC
Explanation/Reference:
A loopback interface never comes down even if the link is broken so it provides stability for the OSPF process (for example we use that loopback interface as the router-id) – The router-ID is chose

QUESTION 28
Scenario:
You are a junior network engineer for a financial company, and the main office network is experiencing network issues. Troubleshoot the network issues. Router R1 connects the main office to the internet, and routers R2 and R3 are internal routers. NAT is enabled on router R1. The routing protocol that is enabled between routers R1, R2 and R3 is RIPv2. 
R1 sends the default route into RIPv2 for the internal routers to forward internet traffic to R1. You have console access on R1, R2 and R3 devices. Use only show commands to troubleshoot the issues.
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100-105 dumps

100-105 dumps

100-105 dumps

100-105 dumps

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100-105 dumps

Users complain that they are unable to reach internet sites. You are troubleshooting internet connectivity problem at main office. Which statement correctly identifies the problem on Router R1?
A. Interesting traffic for NAT ACL is incorrectly configured.
B. NAT configurations on the interfaces are incorrectly configured

C. NAT translation statement incorrectly configured.
D. Only static NAT translation configured for the server, missing Dynamic NAT or Dynamic NAT overloading for internal networks.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 29
Refer to the exhibit.
100-105 dumps

The MAC address table is shown in its entirety. The Ethernet frame that is shown arrives at the switch. What two operations will the switch perform when it receives this frame? (Choose two.)
A. The switch will not forward a frame with this destination MAC address.
B. The MAC address of 0000.00aa.aaaa will be added to the MAC Address Table.
C. The MAC address of ffff.ffff.ffff will be added to the MAC address table.
D. The frame will be forwarded out of all the active switch ports except for port fa0/0.
E. The frame will be forwarded out of fa0/0 and fa0/1 only.
F. The frame will be forwarded out of all the ports on the switch.
100-105 pdf Correct Answer: BD
Explanation/Reference:

If the switch already has the MAC address in its table for the destination, it will forward the frame directly to the destination port. If it was not already in its MAC table, then they frame would

QUESTION 30
Refer to the exhibit.
100-105 dumps

The network is converged.After link-state advertisements are received from Router_A, what information will Router_E contain in its routing table for the subnets 208.149.23.64 and 208.149.23.96?
A. 208.149.23.64[110/13] via 190.173.23.10, 00:00:07, FastEthemet0/0 208.149.23.96[110/13] via 190.173.23.10, 00:00:16, FastEthemet0/0
B. 208.149.23.64[110/1] via 190.172.23.10, 00:00:07, Serial1/0 208.149.23.96[110/3] via 190.173.23.10, 00:00:16, FastEthemet0/0
C. 208.149.23.64[110/13] via 190.173.23.10, 00:00:07, Serial1/0 208.149.23.96[110/13] via 190.173.23.10, 00:00:16, Serial1/0 208.149.23.96[110/13] via 190.173.23.10, 00:00:16, FastEthemet0/0
D. 208.149.23.64[110/3] via 190.172.23.10, 00:00:07, Serial1/0 208.149.23.96[110/3] via 190.173.23.10, 00:00:16, Serial1/0
Correct Answer: A
Explanation/Reference:
Router_E learns two subnets subnets 208.149.23.64 and 208.149.23.96 via Router_A through FastEthernet interface.
The interface cost is calculated with the formula 108 / Bandwidth. For FastEthernet i

QUESTION 31 Scope Control is used to
A.configure to which users a certain application is available.
B.configure to which users a certain PowerLaunch setting is applied.
C.define which nodes are available to a user with access to a certain Security Role.
D.define which PowerFuse objects are available to a user with access to a certain Security Role.
100-105 vce 
Correct:D

QUESTION 32. Workspace Management dynamically combines users with
A.their services.
B.their technology stack.
C.User Environment Management.
D.Application Delivery Solutions.
Correct:A

QUESTION 33. A PowerFuse Environment consists of laptops, workstations and Citrix servers. What must an administrator do to make sure that users can have no more than one session while still being able to access published applications on the Citrix servers?
A.Configure the Instant Passthrough settings on the Defaults tab of the Citrix Integration node.
B.Enable Access Balancing and limit the maximum allowed simultaneous logons to 1.
C.Enable SessionGuard and select “Always allow passthrough sessions”.
D.Enable Instant Logoff for duplicate sessions.
100-105 exam 
Correct:C

QUESTION 34.What happens when the RES PowerFuse Shell is being used and a user double-clicks the system tray clock?
A.The RES PowerFuse calendar is displayed.
B.The default Microsoft Outlook calendar is displayed.
C.The RES PowerFuse Task Scheduler is displayed.
D.The Windows Date and Time properties are displayed.
Correct:A

QUESTION 35.What is the BEST source for an overview of all applications running Security Management in Learning mode?
A.PowerTrace
B.Application List
C.Access Control List
D.Modification Log
Correct:B

QUESTION 36.When using an unattended installation, is it possible to add the RES PowerFuse Agent to a workspace automatically?
A.Yes, but the workspace must be available.
B.Yes, but the workspace must first be created with the corresponding public property.
C.No, this should be done manually in the RES PowerFuse Management Console.
D.No, this should be done manually or by using a Building Block.
100-105 dumps 
Correct:A

QUESTION 37.What is the minimum RES Wisdom Version required for RES Wisdom integration in RES PowerFuse?
A.8.01
B.7.03d
C.5.00f
D.4 SR2
Correct:D

QUESTION 38.To determine what Security Roles are assigned to an administrator, the administrative user should navigate to
A.File > Show My Security Role(s).
B.Help > Show My Security Role(s).
C.Pane > Show My Security Role(s).
D.Action > Show My Security Role(s).
100-105 pdf 
Correct:B

QUESTION 39.Which RES PowerFuse component provides the functionality that the end user needs? The RES PowerFuse
A.Agent.
B.Datastore.
C.Workspace Manager.
D.Management Console.
Correct:C

QUESTION 40.Which variable should be used to create exceptions to the default drive letter for the home directory?
A.%reshomedrive%
B.%homedrive%
C.\\server\share\%username%
D.%homepath%
Correct:A

QUESTION 41
When creating an analytic service, the discovery process requires a minimum of:
A. At least three days of data available.
B. At least three weeks of data available.
C. The application specialist available.
D. Some historical data and some starting point (a server, port, application).
E. A customer network diagram available.
100-105 vce 
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 42
Link Congestion policies apply to a specific interface and can: (Select 3)
A. Warn if either inbound or outbound traffic increases abnormally
B. Warn if an application component of traffic increases abnormally
C. Warn if traffic to/from specific hosts exceeds a specific utilization level
D. Warn if the response time across a link increases abnormally
Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 43
If a VLAN SPAN (VLAN101) is configured and monitored by Cascade Shark, which of the following is true? (Select 2)
A. Inter VLAN101 traffic will be monitored; Intra VLAN101 traffic will not.
B. Intra VLAN101 traffic will be monitored; Inter VLAN101 traffic will not.
C. Both inter and intra VLAN101 traffic will be monitored.
D. It is a best practice to configure the Cascade Shark monitoring port (the SPAN destination) with ‘deduplication’ enabled.
E. It is a best practice to configure the Cascade Shark monitoring port (the SPAN destination) without ‘deduplication’ enabled.
100-105 exam 
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 44
Quality of Service information is obtained from what Cascade sources?
A. Cascade Sensor only
B. Cannot get QoS data on Cascade
C. Cascade Sensor and Cascade Gateway
D. CascadeFlow traffic only
E. NetFlow and IPFIX traffic only
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 45
Cascade Profiler provides identity information collected from Active Directory 2008 by installing and correctly configuring the ‘Cascade Connector’ agent software on:
A. Every DNS server in the AD environment
B. Any server in the MS domain
C. Every client desktop in the AD environment
D. Every NTP server in the MS domain
E. The Microsoft Event Collector component in the AD environment

100-105 dumps Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 46
Which of the following statements is true regarding SNMP polling and NTP syncing among Cascade components?
A. Cascade Gateway’s poll via SNMP sources of Netflow, while Cascade Profiler, Cascade Gateway and Cascade Sensor sync NTP from a common source.
B. Cascade Profiler’s poll via SNMP sources of Netflow, while Cascade Profiler, Cascade Gateway and Cascade Sensor sync NTP from a common source.
C. Cascade Profiler, Cascade Gateway and Cascade Sensor sync NTP from different sources, while Cascade Profiler’s poll via SNMP sources of Netflow.
D. Cascade Profiler, Cascade Gateway and Cascade Sensor sync NTP from different sources, while Cascade Gateway’s poll via SNMP sources of Netflow.
E. Cascade Profiler does all SNMP polling and is also the source of all NTP.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 47
Within Cascade Pilot, to analyze the round-trip time in a trace file, you can:
A. Ask Riverbed Support to send you the proper View to use.
B. Open the View folders in Cascade Pilot to look for a View named “Round-trip time”.
C. Use the View search box and enter “round”.
D. Use the Help menu and search for round.
100-105 pdf 
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 48
For DNS reverse lookup, Cascade Profiler caches as follows:
A. Cache the most recent 500 IPs.
B. Obey DNS TTLs.
C. Cascade does not cache DNS responses.
D. For 24 hours.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 49
What are two differences between NetFlow version 5 and NetFlow version 9 (select 2)
A. NetFlow version 5 generally support ingress flow export only; NetFlow version 9 supports both ingress and egress export.
B. NetFlow version 5 is used for Switches, NetFlow version 9 is used for Routers.
C. NetFlow version 9 includes information about CPU, Power-status and other router performance characteristics; NetFlow version 5 does not.
D. NetFlow version 9 includes the ability to export the Time-To-Live (TTL); NetFlow version 5 does not.
E. NetFlow version 9 includes the ability to export the packet latency, NetFlow version 5 does not.
100-105 vce 
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 50
When changing the priority for a Layer 4 mapping on Cascade Profiler best practices indicate that Application Mappings should be given higher priorities based on:
A. Longest Match
B. Shortest Match

C. IP & Port
D. IP
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 51
What is the relationship between a Host Group and a Host Group Type in Cascade Profiler?
A. A Host Group Type is a container that may contain multiple Host Groups.
B. A Host Group Type defines the name of the Host Group.
C. They are the same thing.
D. Each Host Group must be defined by the Type of application it serves; this is the Host Group Type.
100-105 exam 
Correct Answer: A

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CCNP Collaboration 300-070 dumps CIPTV1 describe the following topics areas:

  • Describe the Basic Operation and Components Involved in a Call
  • Describe and Configure Cisco Unified Communications Manager to Support On-Cluster Calling
  • Configure Conferencing Device

300-070 dumps

Pass4itusre Latest and Most Accurate Cisco 300-070 Dumps Exam Q&As:

Question No : 151 Which three options can be used to configure digit manipulation for dial peers? (Choose three.)
A. digit translation rules
B. called party transformations
C. route partitions
D. forward digits
E. route patterns
F. digit stripping and prefixes
G. calling party transformations
300-070 exam Answer: A,D,F
Reference:
Question No : 152 When creating a route pattern, which two of these options should you avoid? (Choose two)
A. Lowercase characters, such as a, b, c
B. Wildcards.
C. Numbers.
D. Uppercase characters, such as A, B, C.
E. Spaces.
F. Special characters andescape sequences, such as @ and \+.
Answer: A,E
Question No : 153 Which of the following simplifies and enhances conference resource management?
A. Cisco Telepresence Server
B. Cisco Telepresence MCU
C. Cisco Telepresence MSE 8000
D. Cisco IOS routers with packet voice/data module (PVDM)
E. Cisco Telepresence Conductor
300-070 dumps Answer: E
QUESTION 154
A Project Cost Management plan is created as a part of:
A. Develop Project Management Plan process
B. Control Costs process
C. Determine Budget process
D. Estimate Costs process
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
There is no separate process in the Project Cost Estimation knowledge area to develop a cost management plan. It is devloped in Develop Project Management Plan process.
QUESTION 155
__________ involves using project characteristics in a mathematical model
A. Analogous estimating
B. Life-cycle costing
C. Parametric modelling
D. Bottom up estimating
300-070 pdf Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Parametric modeling : Using project characteristics (or parameters) in a mathematical model to predict  costs (e.g., price per square foot).
QUESTION 156
Adjusting Leads and Lags is a technique for:
A. Develop Schedule
B. Estimate Activity Durations
C. Estimate Activity Resources
D. Sequence Activities
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Adjusting Leads and Lags: Since the improper use of leads or lags can distort the project schedule, the leads or lags are adjusted during schedule network analysis to develop a viable project schedule. Tools and Techniques for Develop Schedule are : Mathematical analysis,Duration compression,Simulation,Resource-leveling ,Project management software,Adjusting Leads and Lags and Coding structure.
QUESTION 157
Analogous Estimate Costs is _________.
A. Generally Accurate
B. Generally less accurate
C. Bottom-up estimating
D. None
300-070 vce Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Analogous Estimate Costs is Generally less accurate . Analogous Estimate Costs Uses Expert Judgment. It is used when reference projects are similar . It is useful in early phases of the project.
QUESTION 158
With triangular distribution, the low, likely and high values are 20, 30 and 40, respectively. The mean is
_____.
A. 30.0
B. 22.5
C. 25.0
D. 27.5
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
mean = (20+30+40)/3= 30
QUESTION 159
You have a piece of equipment that was purchased for your project recently for $5,000 and is expected to last 5 years in production. At the end of the five years, the expected worth of the equipment is $2,000. Using the straight-line deprecation, what is the amount that can be written off each year?
A. $600
B. $1200
C. $3000
D. $100
300-070 exam Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
A is the correct answer. The straight-line depreciation takes the purchase value of the item, minus the salvage price of the item, divided by the number of time periods. Calculation is (5000-2000)/5 = $600.
QUESTION 160
Which of the following is an output of a Verify Scope process?
A. Formal acceptance
B. WBStemplate
C. SOW acceptance
D. Rework
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Output of Verify Scope is formal acceptance.
QUESTION 161
What involves determining what quantities are to be used to perform project activities.
A. Resource planning
B. Estimate Costs
C. Determine Budget
D. Control Costs
300-070 dumps Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Resource planning :Planning, identifying, documenting, and assigning project roles, responsibilities, and reporting relationships to individuals or groups.
QUESTION 162
Which of the following is NOT an example of a type of schedule report?
A. Gantt chart
B. Milestone chart
C. fishbone diagram
D. network diagram
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 163
A Change Control Board should be _______?
A. flexible
B. Include the project manager
C. appropriate authority
D. al1 of the above
300-070 pdf Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
CCB should have all the mentioned characteristics.
QUESTION 164
Project risk is defined as the cumulative effect of chances of ________ which will adversely affect project objectives.
A. Likely events
B. Complex activities
C. Complex schedules
D. Uncertain occurrences
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Uncertain occurrences can affect project objective.
QUESTION 165
Which of the following is not a tool or technique for a Source Selection?
A. Contract negotiation
B. Weighting system
C. Payment system
D. Screening system
300-070 vce Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Payment system is not a tool or technique for Source Selection. Other options are .
QUESTION 166
Which of the following is ensuring that all features and functions are included in a product or service
A. Project scope
B. Project verification
C. Project control
D. Product scope
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Project verification ensuring all features and functions are included in a product or service
QUESTION 167
A major assumption of all network scheduling methods is that the activity duration must be _____.
A. Statistically dependent
B. Variance distributed
C. Statistically independent
D. Deterministic
300-070 exam Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Statistically independent
QUESTION 168
Which of the following is not a part of the project cost baseline but is included in the project budget?
A. Management Contingency Reserve
B. Management Overheads
C. Project Management Planing
D. Activity Cost Contingency Reserve
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The difference between the Cost Baseline and Funding requirement at Project completion is Management Contingency Reserve. Management Contingency Reserve is not part of project cost baseline.
QUESTION 169
In an optimal organization structure, the project manager is:
A. Functional
B. Weak matrix
C. Piojectized
D. Dedicated project team
300-070 dumps Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Dedicated project team
QUESTION 170
Which of the following is not a part of the Earned Value calculations?
A. Unknown Unknowns
B. Project Budget
C. Known Unknowns
D. Amount of work completed
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Unknown Unknowns is not part of the Earned Value calculations.
QUESTION 171
What is the purpose of the WBS?
A. To show which work elements have been assigned to organizational units.
B. To ensure that all work within a project is identified and defined within a common framework.
C. To show the organizational structure of a program.
D. all of the above
300-070 pdf Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 172
A Project Scope Management includes :
A. Initiation
B. Project Plan Execution
C. Overall Change Control
D. Report Performance
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Project scope management includes: Initiation, Collect Requirements, Define Scope, Verify Scope and
Control Scope
QUESTION 173
At which stage, stakeholders have the maximum influence on a project?
A. Initial stage
B. Closing stage
C. Execution stage
D. None of the above
300-070 vce Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
It is easy to make changes to project goals and approach at the initial stage. Stake holders have maximum influence at Initial stage.
QUESTION 174
An activity that consumes no time or resource and shows only that a dependency exists between two
activities is called:
A. A milestone
B. A hammock
C. A dummy activity
D. a and c
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 175
A change requests can occur due to:
A. An external event such as a change in government regulation.
B. An error or omission in defining the scope of the product.
C. An error or omission in defining the scope of the project.
D. all of the above
300-070 exam Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 176
Another term for top down estimating is:.
A. Analogous estimating
B. Life-cycle costing
C. Parametric modeling
D. Bottom up estimating
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 177
A Reserve Analysis is a technique for:
A. Estimate Activity Durations
B. Estimate Activity Resources
C. Sequence Activities
D. Define Activities
300-070 dumps Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 178
The scope management provides:
A. A basis for future decisions about the project.
B. A baseline to accomplish verification measures.
C. A baseline to evaluate potential scope changes.
D. All of the above.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 179
A project plan is:
A. A formal, approved document used to guide both project execution and project control.
B. A document issued by senior management that provides the project manager with the authority to apply organizational resources to project activities.
C. A narrative description of products or services to be supplie
D. A document describing the organizational breakdown structure of the company.
300-070 pdf Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 180
Which of the following relationship is used in the Arrow Diagramming Method [ADM] :
A. Start-to-Finish
B. Finish-to-Start
C. Start-to-Start
D. Finish-to-Finish
300-070 vce Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 181
When should a project manager be assigned to a project?
A. As early in the project as feasible.
B. Preferably before much project planning has been done.
C. At least prior to the start of project plan execution.
D. All of the above.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 182
Which of the following tools and techniques are commonly used in a Define Scope Process?
A. Product analysis
B. Expert Judgment
C. Alternative Identification
D. All of the above
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 183
Your project has a budget of $240,000 and is expect to last for 1 year, with the work and budget spread evenly across all months. The project is now in the fourth month, the work is on schedule, but you have spent $120,000 of the project budget. What is your COST Variance percentage in this case?
A. -50%
B. 50%
C. 40%
D. 20%
300-070 exam Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 184
Which of the following is a common characteristic of most project life cycle descriptions?
A. Cost and staffing are low at the start, higher towards the end. and drop rapidly as the project nears completion.
B. The probability of successfully completing the project is highest at the start of the project.
C. Stakeholders have the most influence on the final characteristics of the product at the end of the project.
D. a and b
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 185
A Project Manager is at the project kick-off meeting. He confidently states the vision and mission for the project. This PM is exhibiting the following leadership style:
A. Hierarchal
B. Authoritarian
C. Charismatic
D. Associative
300-070 dumps Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 186
Which of the following must be measured regularly to identify variances from the plan.
A. Stakeholder requirements
B. Project performance
C. Control Schedule
D. Project controls
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 187
Identification of Mandatory Dependencies is done during which of the following process:
A. Sequence Activities
B. Develop Schedule
C. Define Activities
D. Estimate Activity Durations
300-070 pdf Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 188
Which is the most important element of a Project Management Plan that is useful in the Develop Human
Resource Plan process:
A. Risk Management activities
B. Activity Resource requirements
C. Budget Control activities
D. Quality Assurance activities
300-070 vce Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 189
In which type of organization, a project manager is in complete control of the project?
A. Projectized organization
B. Balanced Matrix organization
C. Strong Matrix
D. Weak Matrix organization
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

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210-065 dumps

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Question No : 46 Which Cisco TelePresence Multipoint Control Unit Layout view mode gives prominence to one conference participant over the other conference participants while still allowing conference participants to view multiple participants at the same time?
A. enhanced continuous presence
B. active speaker
C. continuous presence
D. room switching
E. speaker switching
210-065 exam 
Answer: A
Question No : 47 Which two additional items can be configured for an endpoint to register with the Cisco TelePresence Video Communication Server for H.323 to function correctly? (Choose two.)
A. unique system ID
B. unique H.323 ID
C. unique DNS entry ID
D. unique E.164 alias
E. unique real-time transport protocol port numbers
F. unique NTP server IPv4 address
Answer: B,D
Question No : 48  Which bridge solution requires Cisco TelePresence Conductor?
A. Cisco TelePresence Server operating in remotely managed mode
B. Cisco TelePresence Server operating in locally managed mode
C. Cisco TelePresence MCU operating in remotely managed mode
D. Cisco TelePresence MCU operating in locally managed mode
210-065 dumps 
Answer: A
QUESTION 49
What type of risk results when an IS auditor uses an inadequate test procedure and concludes that material errors do not exist when errors actually exist?
A. Business risk
B. Detection risk
C. Residual risk
D. Inherent risk
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Detection risk results when an IS auditor uses an inadequate test procedure and concludes that material errors do not exist when errors actually exist.
QUESTION 50
A primary benefit derived from an organization employing control self-assessment (CSA) techniques is that it can:
A. Identify high-risk areas that might need a detailed review later
B. Reduce audit costs
C. Reduce audit time
D. Increase audit accuracy
210-065 pdf Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
A primary benefit derived from an organization employing control self-assessment (CSA) techniques is that it can identify high-risk areas that might need a detailed review later.
QUESTION 51
What type of approach to the development of organizational policies is often driven by risk assessment?
A. Bottom-up
B. Top-down
C. Comprehensive
D. Integrated
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
A bottom-up approach to the development of organizational policies is often driven by risk assessment.
QUESTION 52
Who is accountable for maintaining appropriate security measures over information assets?
A. Data and systems owners
B. Data and systems users
C. Data and systems custodians
D. Data and systems auditors
210-065 vce Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Data and systems owners are accountable for maintaining appropriate security measures over information assets.
QUESTION 53
Proper segregation of duties prohibits a system analyst from performing quality assurance functions. True or false?
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Proper segregation of duties prohibits a system analyst from performing quality assurance functions.
QUESTION 54
What should an IS auditor do if he or she observes that project-approval procedures do not exist?
A. Advise senior management to invest in project-management training for the staff
B. Create project-approval procedures for future project implementations
C. Assign project leaders
D. Recommend to management that formal approval procedures be adopted and documented
210-065 exam 
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
If an IS auditor observes that project-approval procedures do not exist, the IS auditor should recommend to management that formal approval procedures be adopted and documented.
QUESTION 55
Who is ultimately accountable for the development of an IS security policy?
A. The board of directors
B. Middle management
C. Security administrators
D. Network administrators
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
The board of directors is ultimately accountable for the development of an IS security policy.
QUESTION 56
Proper segregation of duties normally does not prohibit a LAN administrator from also having programming responsibilities. True or false?
A. True
B. False
210-065 dumps 
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Proper segregation of duties normally prohibits a LAN administrator from also having programming responsibilities.
QUESTION 57
A core tenant of an IS strategy is that it must:
A. Be inexpensive
B. Be protected as sensitive confidential information
C. Protect information confidentiality, integrity, and availability
D. Support the business objectives of the organization
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Above all else, an IS strategy must support the business objectives of the organization.
QUESTION 58
Batch control reconciliation is a _____________________ (fill in the blank) control for mitigating risk of inadequate segregation of duties.
A. Detective
B. Corrective
C. Preventative
D. Compensatory
210-065 pdf 
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Batch control reconciliations is a compensatory control for mitigating risk of inadequate segregation of duties.
QUESTION 59
Key verification is one of the best controls for ensuring that:
A. Data is entered correctly
B. Only authorized cryptographic keys are used
C. Input is authorized
D. Database indexing is performed properly
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Key verification is one of the best controls for ensuring that data is entered correctly.
QUESTION 60
If senior management is not committed to strategic planning, how likely is it that a company’s implementation of IT will be successful?
A. IT cannot be implemented if senior management is not committed to strategic planning.
B. More likely.
C. Less likely.
D. Strategic planning does not affect the success of a company’s implementation of IT

210-065 vce Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
A company’s implementation of IT will be less likely to succeed if senior management is not committed to strategic planning.
QUESTION 61
Which of the following could lead to an unintentional loss of confidentiality? Choose the BEST answer.
A. Lack of employee awareness of a company’s information security policy
B. Failure to comply with a company’s information security policy
C. A momentary lapse of reason
D. Lack of security policy enforcement procedures
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Lack of employee awareness of a company’s information security policy could
lead to an unintentional loss of confidentiality.

 

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Exam Code: 300-115
Exam Name: Implementing Cisco IP Switched Networks
Q&As: 456

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QUESTION 25
What is the function of NSF?
A. forward traffic simultaneously using both supervisors
B. forward traffic based on Cisco Express Forwarding
C. provide automatic failover to back up supervisor in VSS mode
D. provide nonstop forwarding in the event of failure of one of the member supervisors
300-115 exam Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
VSS is network system virtualization technology that pools multiple Cisco Catalyst 6500 Series Switches into one virtual switch, increasing operational efficiency, boosting nonstop communications, and scaling system bandwidth capacity to 1.4 Tbps. Switches would operate as a single logical virtual switch called a virtual switching system 1440 (VSS1440). VSS formed by two Cisco Catalyst 6500 Series Switches with the Virtual Switching Supervisor 720-10GE. In a VSS, the data plane and switch fabric with capacity of 720 Gbps of supervisor engine in each chassis are active at the same time on both chassis, combining for an active 1400- Gbps switching capacity per VSS. Only one of the virtual switch members has the active control plane. Both chassis are kept in sync with the inter-chassis Stateful Switchover (SSO) mechanism along with Nonstop Forwarding (NSF) to provide nonstop communication even in the event of failure of one of the member supervisor engines or chassis.
QUESTION 26
After UDLD is implemented, a Network Administrator noticed that one port stops receiving UDLD packets. This port continues to reestablish until after eight failed retries. The port then transitions into the errdisable state. Which option describes what causes the port to go into the errdisable state?
A. Normal UDLD operations that prevent traffic loops.
B. UDLD port is configured in aggressive mode.
C. UDLD is enabled globally.
D. UDLD timers are inconsistent.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
With UDLD aggressive mode enabled, when a port on a bidirectional link that has a UDLD neighbor relationship established stops receiving UDLD packets, UDLD tries to reestablish the connection with the neighbor. After eight failed retries, the port is disabled.
QUESTION 27
After reviewing UDLD status on switch ports, an engineer notices that the.” Which statement describes what this indicates about the status of the port?
A. The port is fully operational and no known issues are detected.
B. The bidirectional status of “unknown” indicates that the port will go into the disabled state because it stopped receiving UDLD packets from its neighbor.
C. UDLD moved into aggressive mode after inconsistent acknowledgements were detected.
D. The UDLD port is placed in the “unknown” state for 5 seconds until the next UDLD packet is received on the interface.
300-115 dumps Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
By default, UDLD is disabled on all interfaces. We can enable UDLD globally on the device, or individually on specific interfaces with the command udld port. This enables UDLD in normal mode. It would be prohibitively difficult to coordinate the configuration of UDLD on both ends of a link at the same time, so when UDLD is first enabled and does not detect a neighbor the link state is considered unknown, which is not necessarily an error condition. The port will remain operational during this time. When UDLD is finally enabled on the other end, the status will transition to bidirectional.
QUESTION 28
Pilot testing of the new switching infrastructure finds that when the root port is lost, STP immediately replaces the root port with an alternative root port. Which spanning-tree technology is used to accomplish backup root port selection?
A. PVST+
B. PortFast
C. BackboneFast
D. UplinkFast
E. Loop Guard
F. UDLD
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
I f a switch loses connectivity, it begins using the alternate paths as soon as the spanning tree selects a new root port. By enabling UplinkFast with the spanning tree uplinkfast global configuration command, you can accelerate the choice of a new root port when a link or switch fails or when the spanning tree reconfigures itself. The root port transitions to the forwarding state immediately without going through the listening and learning states, as it would with the normal spanning-tree
procedures. UplinkFast provides fast convergence after a direct link failure and achieves load balancing between redundant Layer 2 links using uplink groups. An uplink group is a set of Layer 2 interfaces (per VLAN), only one of which is forwarding at any given time. Specifically, an uplink group consists of the root port (which is forwarding) and a set of blocked ports, except for self-looping ports. The uplink group provides an alternate path in case the currently forwarding link fails.
QUESTION 29
A network engineer must adjust the STP interface attributes to influence root port selection. Which two elements are used to accomplish this? (Choose two.)
A. port-priority
B. cost
C. forward-timers
D. link type

E. root guard
300-115 pdf Correct Answer: AB
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Spanning tree forces redundant data paths into a standby (blocked) state. If a network segment in the spanning tree fails and a redundant path exists, the spanning-tree algorithm recalculates the spanning-tree topology and activates the standby path. Switches send and receive spanning-tree frames, called bridge protocol data units (BPDUs), at regular intervals. The switches do not forward these frames but use them to construct a loop-free path. BPDUs contain information about the sending switch and its ports, including switch and MAC addresses, switch priority, port priority, and path cost. Spanning tree uses this information to elect the root switch and root port for the switched network and the root port and designated port for each switched segment. When two ports on a switch are part of a loop, the spanning-tree port priority and path cost settings control which port is put in the forwarding state and which is put in the blocking state. The spanning tree port priority value represents the location of a port in the network topology and how well it is located to pass traffic. The path cost value represents the media speed.
Reference:

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Exam Code: 210-260
Exam Name: Implementing Cisco Network Security
Q&As: 310

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QUESTION: 56
Which two methods can you use to create a new cross-tab in your report? (Choose two.)
A. Select the Cross-Tab Expert from the Format menu.
B. Select the Cross-Tab option from the Insert toolbar.
C. Select the Cross-Tab option from the Insert menu.
D. Select the Cross-Tab option from the Formatting toolbar.
210-260 exam Answer: B, C
QUESTION: 57
Which data source does Crystal Reports 2008 automatically install?
A. HTML
B. JDBC
C. Salesforce.com
D. crystalreports.com
Answer: C
QUESTION: 58
A motorcycle manufacturer contracts you to produce a complex inventory report. The Production Manager informs you that the seventh character in each motorcycle’s 12- character serial number (SN) represents the type of engine used. The report must be sorted by engine type. Which formula will meet the requirement?
A. {Stock.SN} (7)
B. {Stock.SN} [7]
C. Mid [{Stock.SN}, 7]
D. Mid ({Stock.SN}, 7)
210-260 dumps Answer: B
QUESTION: 59
Which two statements are true regarding barcodes? (Choose two.)
A. BLOB fields can be converted to barcode format.
B. UPC Barcode support is standard in Crystal Reports 2008.
C. Converting a field to a barcode was not available prior to Crystal Reports 2008.
D. If “####” displays when a field is converted to a barcode, the display field must be
widened.
Answer: B, D
QUESTION: 60
Which two top-level data source folders can you choose if you want to create a new report using the Standard Report Creation Wizard? (Choose two.)
A. Universes
B. ODBC
C. Create New Connection
D. Repository
210-260 pdf Answer: C, D
QUESTION: 61
Which two formulas will return a string of 10 blank spaces? (Choose two.)
A. InsertSpace(10)

B. Space(10)
C. ReplicateString(” “, 10)
D. RepeatString(” “, 10)
Answer: B, C
QUESTION: 62
Which feature of Crystal Reports formulas must you use to perform a prescribed set of steps without specifying each step?
A. Functions
B. Operators
C. Procedures
D. Variables
210-260 vce Answer: A
QUESTION: 63
You design a report in Crystal Reports using three different groups. You notice that you insertedthe first and second groups backwards: first by City, then by State and then by Customer. Thecorrect sequence is State, then City and then Customer. Which two procedures can you use to correct this situation? (Choose two.)
A. Delete only the City group. Use the Insert Group icon to recreate the City group and move it between the State and Customer groups.
B. Open the Group Expert and use the black arrows in the upper required corner to reorder the groups as required.
C. Delete the first two groups and recreate them in the correct order.
D. In the Design view, click the Group Header #2 caption on the left side and drag it on top of the Group Header #1 caption. Release your mouse button and the groups will reverse sequence.
Answer: B, D
QUESTION: 64
You need to modify an existing calculated member in a Cross-Tab. Which three formulas can you edit? (Choose three.)
A. Header formula
B. Insertion formula

C. Row value formula
D. Column value formula
210-260 exam Answer: A, B, D
QUESTION: 65
You are developing a Crystal report for a vehicle leasing company. All vehicle information is stored in an array, with each member of the array representing a different vehicle type. The vehicle model is represented b y the third position of the alphanumeric vehicle stock number. Which formula will return the vehicle model from the stock number?
A. Local stringvar array saModels := [“car”,”truck”,”van”,”SUV”]; saModels[Tonumber({Invty.Stk#}[3])];
B. Local stringvar array saModels [“car”,”truck”,”van”,”SUV”]; saModels[Tonumber({Invty.Stk#}[2])];
C. Local stringvar array saModels := [“car”,”truck”,”van”,”SUV”]; saModels[Tonumber({Invty.Stk#}[2])];
D. Local stringvar saModels := [“car”,”truck”,”van”,”SUV”]; saModels[Tonumber({Invty.Stk#}[3])];
Answer: A
QUESTION: 66
You want to connect to your Salesforce.com database for reporting. Which server will authenticate you?
A. Salesforce.com
B. crystalreports.com
C. Windows Active Directory
D. BusinessObjects Enterprise XI
210-260 dumps Answer: A
QUESTION: 67
You create a Crystal report that requires the company logo to appear on all pages after the title page. You want to use conditional suppression. Which formula will produce the correct result?
A. PageNumber >= 2

B. PageNumber < 2
C. PageNumber = 1
D. PageNumber := 1
Answer: C
QUESTION: 68
Which formula can you use in a record selection to include all dates from the first day of the month to the date the report is refreshed?
A. {Orders.Order Date} in CurrentMonth
B. {Orders.Order Date} in MonthToDate
C. {Orders.Order Date} in MonthToToday
D. {Orders.Order Date} in CurrentDate
210-260 pdf Answer: B
QUESTION: 69
Which formula calculates the difference in weeks between two date values?
A. DateDiff (“yyyy”, #10/7/1999#, #10/31/1999#)
B. DateDiff (“w”, #10/7/1999#, #10/31/1999#)
C. DateDiff (“ww”, #10/7/1999#, #10/31/1999#)
D. DateDiff (“weeks”, #10/7/1999#, #10/31/1999#)
Answer: B
QUESTION: 70
Each employee in your organization has a unique employee ID. The fifth character of the employee ID represents the department code. Which control structure in the Crystal Reports Formula Editor will enable you to use the employee ID to group the employees by department?
A. Subscript
B. Select Case
C. Else
D. Count
210-260 vce Answer: B
QUESTION: 71
You need to create a report using a stored procedure. The required procedure is missing from the Database Expert. Which configuration change in the Database tab of the Options dialog box could cause this?
A. Disabling the Verify Stored Procedures On First Refresh option
B. Disabling the Stored Procedures option
C. Enabling the Synonyms option
D. Enabling the System Tables option
Answer: B
QUESTION: 72
Which special field can you use to display the total number of pages in a report on the first page of the report?
A. Page Count
B. Total M Count
C. Page Number
D. Total Page Count
210-260 exam Answer: D
QUESTION: 73
In which pass do shared variables get processed?
A. Pre-pass 2
B. Pass 1
C. Pass 3
D. Pass 2
E. Pre-pass 3
210-260 dumps Answer: D
QUESTION: 74
What must be enabled to use the Custom Zoom Factor in Crystal Reports 2008?

A. Active X
B. CMC rights
C. .NET framework
D. Latest Java update
Answer: A

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Exam Code: 200-155
Exam Name: Introducing Cisco Data Center Technologies
Q&As: 85

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QUESTION NO: 19
Which of the following methods is used by forensic investigators to acquire an image over the network in a secure manner?
A. DOS boot disk
B. Linux Live CD
C. Secure Authentication for EnCase (SAFE)
D. EnCase with a hardware write blocker
200-155 exam Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 20
You company suspects an employee of sending unauthorized emails to competitors. These emails are alleged to contain confidential company data. Which of the following is the most important step  for you to take in preserving the chain of custody?
A. Preserve the email server including all logs.
B. Make copies of that employee’s email.
C. Seize the employee’s PC.
D. Place spyware on the employee’s PC to confirm these activities.
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 21
Which of the following is the correct order of loading system files into the main memory of the system, when the computer is running on Microsoft’s Windows XP operating system?
A. NTLDR, BOOT.ini, HAL.dll, NTDETECT.com, NTOSKRNL.exe
B. NTLDR, BOOT.ini, NTDETECT.com, HAL.dll, NTOSKRNL.exe
C. NTLDR, BOOT.ini, HAL.dll, NTDETECT.com, NTOSKRNL.exe
D. BOOT.ini, HAL.dll, NTDETECT.com, NTLDR, NTOSKRNL.exe
200-155 dumps Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 22
Fill in the blank with the appropriate name. is a list, which specifies the order of volatility of data in a Windows based system.
A. RFC 3227
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 23
Which of the following file systems provides file-level security?
A. CDFS
B. FAT
C. FAT32
D. NTFS
200-155 pdf Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 24
Adam works as an Incident Handler for Umbrella Inc. He is informed by the senior authorities that the server of the marketing department has been affected by a malicious hacking attack. Supervisors are also claiming that some sensitive data are also stolen. Adam immediately arrived to the server room of the marketing department and identified the event as an incident. He isolated the infected network from the remaining part of the network and started preparing to image the entire system. He captures volatile data, such as running process, ram, and network connections. Which of the following steps of the incident handling process is being performed by Adam?
A. Recovery
B. Eradication
C. Identification
D. Containment
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 25
Which of the following is the process of overwriting all addressable locations on a disk?
A. Drive wiping
B. Spoofing
C. Sanitization
D. Authentication
200-155 vce Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 26
An executive in your company reports odd behavior on her PDA. After investigation you discover that a trusted device is actually copying data off the PDA. The executive tells you that the behavior started shortly after accepting an e-business card from an unknown person. What type of attack is this?
A. Session Hijacking
B. Bluesnarfing
C. PDA Hijacking
D. Privilege Escalation
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 27
You work as a Network Administrator for Net Perfect Inc. The company has a Windows Server 2008 network environment. The network is configured as a Windows Active Directory-based single forest single domain network. The network is configured on IP version 6 protocol. All the computers on the network are connected to a switch device. One day, users complain that they are unable to connect to a file server. You try to ping the client computers from the server, but the pinging fails. You try to ping the server’s own loopback address, but it fails to ping. You restart the server, but the problem persists.
What is the most likely cause?
A. The cable that connects the server to the switch is broken.
B. Automatic IP addressing is not working.
C. The switch device is not working.
D. The server is configured with unspecified IP address.
E. The server’s NIC is not working.
200-155 exam Answer: E
QUESTION NO: 28
You want to upgrade a partition in your computer’s hard disk drive from FAT to NTFS. Which of the following DOS commands will you use to accomplish this?
A. FORMAT C: /s
B. CONVERT C: /fs:ntfs
C. SYS C:
D. FDISK /mbr
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 29
A firewall is a combination of hardware and software, used to provide security to a network. It is used to protect an internal network or intranet against unauthorized access from the Internet or other outside networks. It restricts inbound and outbound access and can analyze all traffic between an internal network and the Internet. Users can configure a firewall to pass or block packets from specific IP addresses and ports. Which of the following tools works as a firewall for the Linux 2.4 kernel?
A. OpenSSH
B. IPTables
C. IPChains
D. Stunnel
200-155 dumps Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 30
You work as a Web developer for ABC Inc. You want to investigate the Cross-Site Scripting attack on your company’s Web site. Which of the following methods of investigation can you use to accomplish the task?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Review the source of any HTML-formatted e-mail messages for embedded scripts or links in the URL to the company’s site.
B. Look at the Web server’s logs and normal traffic logging.
C. Use Wireshark to capture traffic going to the server and then searching for the requests going to the input page, which may give log of the malicious traffic and the IP address of the source.
D. Use a Web proxy to view the Web server transactions in real time and investigate any communication with outside servers.
Answer: A,B,D

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Exam Code: 300-135
Exam Name: Troubleshooting and Maintaining Cisco IP Networks
Q&As: 118

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QUESTION: 33
Select which of the following are not well-formed XML documents.
A. <product color=’red’ price=”100″/>
B. <product color=”red” color=”black”>Pencil</product>
C. <product color=”red”
price=”100″> Pencil
</product>
D. <product color=”red”> Pencil
</product price=”100″>W Courier Newlr Z
300-135 exam Answer: B, D
QUESTION: 34
Select which of the following methods can be used when using a single quote (‘) in an
attribute value.
A. Use a double quotation mark (“) to enclose the attributes value.
B. Use the entity reference ‘ to represent the single quote in the attribute value.
C. Use a Unicode character code (0x0027) for a single quote (‘) and enclose the section with
the character reference “‘”.
D. Any of the above. W Courier Newlr Z

Answer: D
QUESTION: 35
Select which of the following statements about CDATA sections is correct.
A. When coding a CDATA section in an XML document, you must first make a specific
declaration with the DTD.
B. You may use different character encoding within the CDATA section than for the body of
the XML document.
C. Characters such as “<” and “&” can be used within the CDATA section without any
modification.
D. An XML parser processes text strings within the CDATA section as comments. W
Courier Newlr Z
300-135 dumps Answer: C
QUESTION: 36
Select which of the following correctly describes designating two “color” attributes for the
“product” element.
A. Use the DTD to make the following attribute list declaration.
<!ATTLIST product color CDATA #REQUIRED
color CDATA #REQUIRED>
B. Use the XML Schema to make the following attribute declaration.
<xs:attribute name=”color” type=”xs:string”
minOccurs=”2″
maxOccurs=”2″/>
C. Use the DTD to make the following attribute list declaration.
<!ATTLIST product (color+) CDATA #REQUIRED>
D. A single element cannot have a multiple number of attributes with the same name. W
Courier Newlr Z
Answer: D
QUESTION: 37
Press the Exhibit button to view “XML Document”. Select which of the following correctly
describes the resulting document after applying “XSLT Stylesheet” to “XML Document”.
Assume that the input XML document and transformation results ignore meaningless
whitespace.

A. <?xml version=”1. 0″?>
<Prefecture_List>
<Name>Hokkaido</Name>
<Name>Aomori</Name>
<Name>Akita</Name>
</Prefecture_List>
B. <?xml version=”1. 0″?>
<Prefecture_List> Hokkaido
Aomori
Akita
</Prefecture_List>
C. <?xml version=”1. 0″?>
<Prefecture_List>
<Name>Akita</Name>
</Prefecture_List>
D. An error is thrown
E. <?xml version=”1. 0″?>
<Prefecture_List>
</Prefecture_List>W Courier Newlr Z
300-135 pdf Answer: A
QUESTION: 38
Select which of the following is correct with respect to XSLT.
A. XSL-FO must be used when using an XSLT stylesheet to display an XML document.
B. Only a single XSLT stylesheet may be applied to a single XML document.
C. An XSLT stylesheet can be used to acquire the values of specific elements within an
XML document.
D. The XSLT Version 1. 0 recommendation defines special instructions to create a
corresponding DTD from the original XML document. W Courier Newlr Z
Answer: C
QUESTION: 39
Press the Exhibit button to view and transform “Transformation Source XML Document”.
Select which of the following correctly describes the XPath method that belongs in (1) of the
“XSLT Stylesheet” when deriving
“Post-Transformation XML Document”.
[XSLT Stylesheet]
<?xml version=”1. 0″?>
<xsl:stylesheet version=”1. 0″ xmlns:xsl=”http://www. w3. org/1999/XSL/Transform”>
<xsl:template match=”/”>
<Fruit>

<xsl:value-of select=”(1)
</Fruit>
</xsl:template>
</xsl:stylesheet>
“/>
A. /[email protected]
B. /fruit/name
C. /name
D. fruit/@fruit1
E. //name[. =’apple’] W Courier Newlr Z
300-135 vce Answer: B, D, E
QUESTION: 40
Press the Exhibit button to view “Transformation Source XML Document”. Select which of
the following correctly describes the XPath method combination belonging in (1), (2) and (3)
of the “XSLT Stylesheet” when acquiring the text string “Taro_Suzuki” from the
“Transformation Source XML Document”.
A. (1) book/author
(2) author
(3) .
B. (1) library/book
(2) book
(3) author
C. (1) /library
(2) //library
(3) book/author
D. (1) //author
(2) .
(3) .
E. (1) //number
(2) number
(3) . . /authorW Courier Newlr Z
Answer: B, C, E
QUESTION: 41
Press the Exhibit button to view “Transformation Source XML Document”. Select which of
the following correctly describes the XPath method (1) and (2) that belongs in the “XSLT
Stylesheet” blank space when acquiring the text string “Taro_Suzuki” from the
“Transformation Source XML
Document”. Text String(1) library/book/author

Text String(2) library//author
A. Both (1) and (2) are correct.
B. (1) is correct, but (2) is not correct.
C. (2) is correct, but (1) is not correct.
D. Neither are correct. W Courier Newlr Z
300-135 exam Answer: A
QUESTION: 42
Select which of the following correctly describes the XML namespace to which the –>(1)
“price”
element in the “XML Document” below belongs.
[XML Documents]
<?xml version=”1. 0″?>
<products xmlns=”urn:sample:product”>
<item:product xmlns:item=”urn:sample:item”>
<item:name>T-Shirt</item:name>
<price>2500</price> –>(1)
</item:product>
</products>
A. urn:sample:product
B. urn:sample:item
C. item
D. None W Courier Newlr Z
Answer: A
QUESTION: 43
When using an XML processor to read the XML document below, which answer correctly
describes the value that entity reference “&name;” replaces? Assume that the XML
processor can read
“external. txt”.
[external. txt]
<?xml version=”1. 0″ encoding=”UTF-8″?>
<name>gloria</name>
[XML Documents]
<?xml version=”1. 0″ encoding=”UTF-8″?>
<!DOCTYPE text [
<!ELEMENT text (#PCDATA|name)*>
<!ELEMENT name (#PCDATA)>
<!ENTITY name SYSTEM “external. txt”>

]>
<text>My name is &name;</text>
A. gloria
B. <?xml version=”1. 0″?>
<name>gloria</name>
C. <name>gloria</name>
D. An error is thrown and nothing is replacedW Courier Newlr Z
300-135 dumps Answer: C
QUESTION: 44
Company A has decided to manage their report information using XML data. Press the
Exhibit button to view “Requirements”. Select which of the following DTD definitions best
satisfies “Requirements”.
A. <!ELEMENT report (#PCDATA|name|page|software|attachment|attached_software)*>
<!ELEMENT name (#PCDATA)>
<!ELEMENT page (#PCDATA)>
<!ELEMENT software (#PCDATA)>
<!ELEMENT attachment (#PCDATA)>
<!ELEMENT attached_software (#PCDATA)>
B. <!ELEMENT report (reportdata)*>
<!ELEMENT reportdata (name, page, software, (attachment, attached_software)*)>
<!ELEMENT name (#PCDATA)>
<!ELEMENT page (#PCDATA)>
<!ELEMENT software (#PCDATA)>
<!ELEMENT attachment (#PCDATA)>
<!ELEMENT attached_software (#PCDATA)>
C. <!ELEMENT report (reportdata)>
<!ELEMENT reportdata (name, page, software, attachment*, attached_software*)>
<!ELEMENT name (#PCDATA)>
<!ELEMENT page (#PCDATA)>
<!ELEMENT software (#PCDATA)>
<!ELEMENT attachment (#PCDATA)>
<!ELEMENT attached_software (#PCDATA)>
D. <!ELEMENT report (reportdata)>
<!ELEMENT reportdata (name, page, software, alist)*>
<!ELEMENT name (#PCDATA)>
<!ELEMENT page (#PCDATA)>
<!ELEMENT software (#PCDATA)>
<!ELEMENT alist (attachment, attached_software)>
<!ELEMENT attachment (#PCDATA)>
<!ELEMENT attached_software (#PCDATA)>W Courier Newlr Z

Answer: B
QUESTION: 45
Company B has decided to manage product information using XML data. Press the Exhibit
button to view “Requirements”. Select which of the following DTD definitions best satisfies
“Requirements”.
A. <!ELEMENT Product (name, ID, color?, size?)*>
<!ELEMENT name (#PCDATA)>
<!ELEMENT ID (#PCDATA)>
<!ELEMENT color (#PCDATA)>
<!ELEMENT size (#PCDATA)>
B. <!ELEMENT Product (ProductData)*>
<!ELEMENT ProductData (name, ID)*>
<!ELEMENT name (#PCDATA)>
<!ELEMENT ID (#PCDATA)>
<!ATTLIST ProductData color CDATA #IMPLIED>
<!ATTLIST ProductData size CDATA #IMPLIED>
C. <!ELEMENT Product (ProductData)*>
<!ELEMENT ProductData (name, ID)>
<!ELEMENT name (#PCDATA)>
<!ELEMENT ID (#PCDATA)>
<!ATTLIST ProductData color CDATA #IMPLIED>
<!ATTLIST ProductData size CDATA #IMPLIED>
D. <!ELEMENT Product (ProductData)*>
<!ELEMENT ProductData (name, ID)>
<!ELEMENT name (#PCDATA)>
<!ELEMENT ID (#PCDATA)>
<!ATTLIST Product color CDATA #IMPLIED
size CDATA #IMPLIED>W Courier Newlr Z
300-135 pdf Answer: C
QUESTION: 46
Company C has decided to manage documents using XML data. Press the Exhibit button to
view “Requirements”. Select which of the following DTD definitions best satisfies
“Requirements”.
A. <!ELEMENT Document (title,doc)>
<!ELEMENT title (#PCDATA)>
<!ELEMENT doc (bold)*>
<!ELEMENT bold (#PCDATA)>
B. <!ELEMENT Document (title,doc)>

<!ELEMENT title (#PCDATA)>
<!ELEMENT doc (sentence,bold)*>
<!ELEMENT sentence (#PCDATA)>
<!ELEMENT bold (#PCDATA)>
C. <!ELEMENT Document (title,doc)>
<!ELEMENT title (#PCDATA)>
<!ELEMENT doc (#PCDATA|bold)*>
<!ELEMENT bold (#PCDATA)>
D. <!ELEMENT Document (title,doc*)>
<!ELEMENT title (#PCDATA)>
<!ELEMENT doc (#PCDATA|bold)>
<!ELEMENT bold (#PCDATA)>W Courier Newlr Z
Answer: C
QUESTION: 47
Select which of the following correctly describes a valid XML document with respect to the
DTD below.
<!DOCTYPE list [
<!ELEMENT list (product+)>
<!ELEMENT product (name?)>
<!ATTLIST product_division (healthcare|cosmetic) “cosmetic”>
<!ELEMENT name (#PCDATA)>
]>
A. The name element must be designated at least once within the XML document.
B. The division attribute must be designated within the XML document.
C. The product element and name element must appear within the XML document the exact
same number of times.
D. The product element must be designated at least once within the XML document. W
Courier Newlr Z
300-135 vce Answer: D

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Exam Code: 640-911
Exam Name: Introducing Cisco Data Center Networking
Updated: Jul 28, 2017
Q&As: 208

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640-911

Pass4itusre Latest and Most Accurate Cisco 640-911 Dumps Exam Q&As:

 

DEMO
QUESTION 1
Which two networking devices forward data based on destination MAC address? (Choose two.)
A. Repeater
B. Bridge
C. Switch
D. Router
E. Hub
640-911 dumps Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 2
Unlike IPv6, which feature is available only in IPv4?
A. broadcast
B. anycast
C. multicast
D. unicast
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 3
Which two data center technologies are part of the IEEE 802.3 standard for Ethernet-based LANs?
(Choose two.)
A. 40 Gb/s
B. 10 Gb/s
C. WLAN
D. Smart Grid
640-911 pdf Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 4
Which three IP addresses are examples of an RFC 1918 address? (Choose three.)
A. 172.16.3.1/24
B. 209.165.201.5/27
C. 209.165.200.225/27
D. 10.30.20.1/28
E. 192.168.200.50/24
Correct Answer: ADE
QUESTION 5
What two statements about functions within the OSI layer model are true? (Choose two.)
A. data at Layer 3 is referred to as a Frame
B. routing function happen at Layer 3
C. network layer is responsible for assigning a MAC address to NIC
D. ARP is a Layer 2 protocol
E. encryption of data happens at the Transport Layer
640-911 vce Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 6 You are designing a network that provides FCoE, FabricPath, OTV, and Layer 3 functionalities. Which
device can perform these functionalities?
A. Cisco Nexus 5500 Series Switches
B. Cisco Nexus 7000 Series Switches
C. Cisco Catalyst 6500 Series Switches
D. Cisco ASR 1001 Router
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 7
What is the result when two data transmissions are sent at the same time?
A. A collision occurs and both devices stop transmission and back off.
B. A collision occurs and one device retransmits.
C. All traffic continues to transmit.
D. A collision occurs and both devices resend transmissions.
640-911 exam Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 8
Which command displays the Trunking Native Mode VLAN on port Ethernet 1/18?
A. show running-config switchport e1/18
B. show running-config e1/18 switchport
C. show interface e1/18
D. show interface e1/18 switchport
E. show interface e1/18 native
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 9
What are two core features of Cisco Nexus Operating System? (Choose two.)
A. SNMPv3
B. RMON
C. System Manager
D. PSS
E. VRF
F. TRILL
640-911 dumps Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 10
Which two options describe services that are provided by TCP? (Choose two.)
A. session multiplexing
B. EtherTypes identify destination services
C. connection-oriented
D. best-effort packet delivery
E. binary translation
Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 11
What is the subnet mask for the network 172.16.0.0/21?
A. 255.255.0.0
B. 255.255.255.240
C. 255.255.248.0
D. 255.255.255.248
E. 255.255.248.240
F. 255.255.255.0
640-911 exam Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 12
How many bits are used for a subnet ID in an IPv6 address?
A. 48
B. 16
C. 64
D. 128
E. 10
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 13
In an IPv6 address, how many bits are used for the interface identifier?
A. 48
B. 16
C. 64
D. 128
E. 10
640-911 pdf Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 14
Ethernet 1/1 is assigned IP address 10.1.1.1 with subnet mask 255.255.255.0. Which configuration is used
to configure EIGRP on a Cisco Nexus 7000 switch?
A. feature eigrp!interface Ethernet1/1ip address 10.1.1.1 255.255.255.0no shutdown!router eigrp
1network 10.1.1.0 0.0.0.255
B. feature eigrp!router eigrp 1autonomous-system 1!interface Ethernet1/1ip address 10.1.1.1/24ip router
eigrp 1no shutdown
C. router eigrp 1autonomous-system 1!interface Ethernet1/1ip address 10.1.1.1/24ip router eigrp 1no
shutdown
D. feature eigrp!interface Ethernet1/1ip address 10.1.1.1/24no shutdown!router eigrp 1network 10.1.1.0
0.0.0.255
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 15
Which two options describe what can happen when devices are in the same broadcast domain? (Choose
two.)
A. They are on the same VLAN and the same switch.
B. They are on different VLANs and the same switch.
C. They are on different VLANs and different switches.
D. They are on the same VLAN and different switches.
640-911 vce Correct Answer: AD
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Vendor: Cisco
Certifications: CCDA
Exam Name: Designing for Cisco Internetwork Solutions
Exam Code: 200-310
Total Questions: 422 Q&As

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200-310

Gotocert Latest and Most Accurate Cisco 200-310 Dumps Exam Q&As

QUESTION 1
A network engineer requires that an OSPF ASBR must only flood external LSAs only within its own area.
What OSPF area type should be configured?
A. Backbone Area
B. Totally Stub Area
C. Not So Stubby Area
D. Stub Area
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 2
Which protocol is used to reserve bandwidth for the transport of a particular application data flow across
the network?
A. cRTP
B. IEEE 802.1P
C. RSVP
D. LFI
E. Auto QOS
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 3
An enterprise campus module is typically made up of four submodules, as described by the Cisco
Enterprise Architecture Model. Which two submodules are part of this module? (Choose two.)
A. DMZ
B. enterprise branch
C. building distribution
D. server farm/data center
E. MAN
Correct Answer: CD


QUESTION 4
You want to gather as much detail as possible during a network audit, to include data time stamping
across a large number of interfaces, customized according to interface, with a minimal impact on the
network devices themselves. Which tool would you use to meet these requirements?
A. RMON
B. SNMPv3
C. NetFlow
D. Cisco Discovery Protocol
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 5
Which design is the recommended geometric design for routed topologies?
A. linear
B. triangular
C. rectangular
D. circular
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 6
Which two are types of network virtualization? (Choose two.)
A. VSS: Virtual Switching System
B. VRF: virtual routing and forwarding
C. VCI: virtual channel identifier
D. VLSM: variable length subnet masking
E. VM: virtual machine
F. VMP: Virtual Memory Pool
Correct Answer: AB


QUESTION 7
The spanning tree topology can be simplified by deploying what Cisco NX-OS technology in the
distribution and access layer?
A. VDC
B. vPC
C. Rapid PVST+
D. VSS
E. Flex Links
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 8
A data center is being deployed, and one design requirement is to be able to readily scale server
virtualization. Which IETF standard technology can provide this requirement?
A. Transparent Interconnection of Lots of Links
B. Cisco FabricPath
C. data center bridging
D. Cisco Unified Fabric
Correct Answer: A

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