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QUESTION 15
Which of the following kernel parameters instructs the kernel to suppress most boot messages?
A. silent
B. verbose=0
C. nomesg
D. quiet

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 16
Which of the following options for the kernel’s command line changes the systemd boot target to rescue.target instead of the default target?
A. systemd.target=rescue.target
B. systemd.runlevel=rescue.target
C. systemd.service=rescue.target
D. systemd.default=rescue.target
E. systemd.unit=rescue.target
Correct Answer: E QUESTION 17
After modifying GNU GRUB’s configuration file, which command must be run for the changes to take effect?
A. kill -HUP $(pidof grub)
B. grub-install
C. grub
D. No action is required

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 18
Which of the following commands is used to update the list of available packages when using dpkg based package management?
A. apt-get update
B. apt-get upgrade
C. apt-cache update
D. apt-get refresh
E. apt-cache upgrade

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 19
Which of the following commands lists the dependencies of a given dpkg package?
A. apt-cache depends-on package
B. apt-cache dependencies package
C. apt-cache depends package
D. apt-cache requires package

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 20
Which of the following options is used in a GRUB Legacy configuration file to define the amount of time that the GRUB menu will be shown to the user?
A. hidemenu
B. splash
C. timeout
D. showmenu
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 21
What can the Logical Volume Manager (LVM) be used for? (Choose THREE correct answers.)
A. To create RAID 9 arrays.
B. To dynamically change the size of logical volumes.
C. To encrypt logical volumes.
D. To create snapshots.
E. To dynamically create or delete logical volumes.
Correct Answer: BDE
QUESTION 22
Which of the following commands updates the linker cache of shared libraries?
A. mkcache
B. soconfig
C. mkldconfig
D. lddconfig
E. ldconfig

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 23
Which of the following commands lists all currently installed packages when using RPM package management?
A. yum –query –all
B. yum –list –installed
C. rpm –query –all
D. rpm –list installed

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 24
Which of the following commands can be used to download the RPM package kernel without installing it?
A. yum download –no-install kernel
B. yumdownloader kernel
C. rpm –download –package kernel
D. rpmdownload kernel

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 25
When using rpm –verify to check files created during the installation of RPM packages, which of the following information is taken into consideration? (Choose THREE correct answers.)
A. Timestamps
B. MD5 checksums
C. Inodes
D. File sizes
E. GnuPG signatures
Correct Answer: ABD
QUESTION 26
Which of the following is correct when talking about mount points?
A. Every existing directory can be used as a mount point.
B. Only empty directories can be used as a mount point.
C. Directories need to have the SetUID flag set to be used as a mount point.
D. Files within a directory are deleted when the directory is used as a mount point.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 27
Which function key is used to start Safe Mode in Windows NT?
A. F10
B. F8
C. F6
D. Windows NT does not support Safe Mode
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 28
Which of the following environment variables overrides or extends the list of directories holding shared libraries?
A. LD_LOAD_PATH
B. LD_LIB_PATH
C. LD_LIBRARY_PATH
D. LD_SHARE_PATH
E. LD_RUN_PATH

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 29
SIMULATION Which world-writable directory should be placed on a separate partition in order to prevent users from being able to fill up the / filesystem? (Specify the full path to the directory.)
Correct Answer: Answer: /tmp, tmp, /var/tmp, /tmp/, /var/tmp/
QUESTION 30
Which RPM command will output the name of the package which supplied the file /etc/exports?
A. rpm -F /etc/exports
B. rpm -qf /etc/exports
C. rpm -Kl /etc/exports
D. rpm -qp /etc/exports
E. rpm -qi /etc/exports

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 31
SIMULATION
In which directory must definition files be placed to add additional repositories to yum?
Correct Answer: /etc/yum.repos.d, /etc/yum.repos.d/, yum.repos.d, yum.repos.d/
QUESTION 32

SIMULATION What is the name of the main configuration file for GNU GRUB? (Specify the file name only without any path.)
Correct Answer: menu.lst, grub.conf, grub.cfg
QUESTION 33
When removing a package, which of the following dpkg options will completely remove the files including configuration files?
A. –clean
B. –delete
C. –purge
D. remove
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 34

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QUESTION NO: 25
Which three statements about parsers are true? (Choose three.)
A. SAX and StAX are bi-directional.
B. DOM and StAX are bi-directional.
C. StAX is a push API, whereas SAX is pull.
D. SAX is a push API, whereas StAX is pull.
E. SAX and StAX are read-only.
F. SAX and DOM can write XML documents.
G. StAX and DOM can write XML documents.
Answer: B,D,G

QUESTION NO: 26
A developer who recently added message optimization support to the company’s Web services is tasked with explaining how the next crop of WSIT client applications will use the feature. Which statement is true?
A. Client developers should have experience with the SAAJ and MIME types to use MTOM with the service.
B. The clients should use the service WSDL to discover and satisfy the interoperability requirements.
C. Adding message optimization is a manual step when the WSDL is available on HTTPS.
D. The encryption for optimization requires a client keystore.

Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 27
A developer is analyzing an existing Web service with performance problems. The analysis reveals the service employs SOAP over HTTP. When the size of the encoded binary files grew with changing business requirements, the service slowed. What are two effective solutions for this problem? (Choose two.)
A. Separating the XML and binary content with WS-Filtering implemented in WSIT will improve efficiency.
B. XML documents larger than 1 KB with binary encoding should be optimized.
C. WS-Addressing can ease congestion by routing messages over other protocols.
D. For existing services, the most effective solution is to increase the available bandwidth.
E. MTOM can reduce both processing and bandwidth required by SOAP with attachments.
Answer: B,E
QUESTION NO: 28
Given:
1.
try { // Call Web service Operation

2.
org.me.calculator.client.CalculatorWS port =

3.
service.getCalculatorWSPort();

4.
// TODO initialize WS operation arguments here

5.
int i = 3;

6.
int j = 4;

7.
// TODO process result here

8.
int result = port.add(i, j);

9.
out.println(“<p>Result: ” + result);

10.

11.
} catch (Exception ex) {

12.
out.println(“<p>Exception: ” + ex);

13.
}
Assume Reliable Messaging is used and the code is correct except for what is missing at line 10.
Which code fragment must be placed at line 10?
A. Close the port object with ((Closeable)port).close(); after testing result is positive.
B. Close the port with port.close();
C. Closing the port object is optional, but port.close(); will work.
D. Close the port object with ((Closeable)port).close();

Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 29
Given the Java fragment and schema:
1.
//– Java code fragment

2.
public class PurchaseOrder{

3.
public javax.xml.datatype.XMLGregorianCalendar orderDate;

4.
}

5.
//– Schema fragment

6.
<xs:complexType name=”purchaseOrder”>

7.
<xs:sequence>

8.
<xs:element name=”orderDate” type=”xs:anySimpleType”

9.
minOccurs=”0″/>

10.
</xs:sequence>

11.
</xs:complexType>
Which two statements are true about .Net and WCF interoperability for this data? (Choose two.)
A. The GregorianCalendar maps to an equivalent date type in both Java and .Net.
B. .Net will generate code with the calendar as a string that functions as well as a date.
C. .Net will generate code with the calendar as a string that is not type equivalent.
D. Use of the @XmlSchemaType annotation causes .Net to properly map to a date.
E. Casting in the case of WSIT services is an effective approach for the WCF client.
Answer: C,D
QUESTION NO: 30
A purchase order Web service is designed to be synchronous, request-response, and HTTP- based. The existing service processes the request immediately. Because of new business requirements, the service can take up to ten days to perform a credit check before processing the order. Which two design changes need to be made? (Choose two.)
A. The client needs to use dynamic proxies instead of stubs.
B. The client needs to develop and deploy a Web service to accept callbacks.
C. The service only needs to change the WSDL from rpc-literal to document-literal.
D. The client and the service need to establish a mechanism to correlate the messages.
E. Given delays of up to ten days, a polling strategy is more efficient than callback.
Answer: B,D

QUESTION NO: 31
A developer is writing a Web service method that needs to accept multiple types of requests. Based on the request’s content, the service performs time-consuming steps, such as verifying the user’s account, checking credit ratings, and building a list of offers. Which two approaches are appropriate to use in this situation? (Choose two.)
A. a synchronous, document-style approach
B. a synchronous, procedure-style approach
C. an asynchronous, document-style approach
D. an asynchronous, procedure-style approach
E. HTTP and HTTPS
F. SMTP or other asynchronous protocol
Answer: C,F

QUESTION NO: 32
Based on separation of concerns, which two are correctly implemented in the processing layer of a Web service? (Choose two.)
A. validation of XML documents
B. saving document contents in a database table
C. application of the business logic to the XML document
D. translation of incoming XML documents to their internal XML representations
E. a new SOAP message for exceptions during validation of XML
Answer: B,C

QUESTION NO: 33
Which situation requires the client to use the Dispatch interface to access the Web service?
A. The client and the server are on different platforms.
B. The client has access to the portable artifacts, but not to the WSDL.
C. The client has access to the WSDL, but not to the portable artifacts.
D. The client will access a REST-based service.
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 34
Which statement is true about the SOAP 1.1 actor attribute?
A. It is ignored for HTTP.
B. It indicates the recipient of a header block.
C. It indicates the final recipient of the message.
D. It indicates which recipient processes the Body element.
E. SOAP 1.1 does not use the actor attribute.
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 35
Given:
1.
<?xml version=”1.0″ encoding=”UTF-8″?>

2.
<soapenv:Envelope>

3.
<soapenv:Body xmlns:ns2=”urn:examples”>

4.
<ns2:name>Sun Solaris</ns2:name>

5.
<ns2:price >99.99</ns2:price>

6.
<ns2:description>

7.
Solaris for Intel

8.
</ns2:description>

9.
<ns2:ID>A358185</ns2:ID>

10.
</soapenv:Body>

11.
</soapenv:Envelope>
Which statement is correct?
A. The message is SOAP-encoded because the encoding style is implied.
B. The message is RPC-encoded because in the absence of other specifiers, this is the WS-I default.
C. The message is document literal with type encoding, based on the schema provided.
D. The message is document literal wrapped because there is no encoded type information.
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 36
An organization has business logic implemented in EJB components. Current clients use container-managed, role-based security to access the business logic using RMI. Management has determined that the business logic must be made available to non-RMI clients using a Web service. Which container-managed Web service security mechanism must the development team use to allow Web service clients to use the current security model?
A. XKMS
B. XACML
C. XML Digital Signature
D. HTTP Basic Authentication
E. annotations mapped to the JAX-WS runtime
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 37
Which three techniques can be used to apply XML Digital Signatures to an XML document? (Choose three.)
A. use detached signatures, where the digital signature covers sibling elements or external data
B. use enveloping signatures, where the digital signature element encloses the data to be signed
C. use enveloping signatures, where the digital signature is a child element of the data to be signed
D. use enveloped signatures, where the digital signature is a child element of the data to be signed
E. use enveloping signatures, where the digital signature element is a child element of the data to be signed
Answer: A,B,D

QUESTION NO: 38
Which three security technologies are included in WS-Security? (Choose three.)
A. security pattern injection
B. encryption
C. single sign-on
D. security tokens
E. digital signatures
Answer: B,D,E
QUESTION NO: 39
Two companies communicate using Web services in a business transaction. Which mechanism is designed to ensure that business data CANNOT be renounced, or a transaction denied, by either one?
A. integrity provided by public key certificates and digital signatures
B. confidentiality provided by asymmetric or symmetric cryptography
C. identity management provided by private keys and certificate authorities
D. non-repudiation provided though public key cryptography by digital signing

Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 40
What are two features of a WSDL 1.1 document? (Choose two.)
A. Service defines a collection of related endpoints.
B. Service describes the message’s payload using XML.
C. Service assigns an Internet address to a specific binding.
D. Porttype declares complex data types and elements used elsewhere.
E. Porttype elements are used to group a set of abstract operations.
F. Porttype defines a concrete protocol and data format specification.
Answer: A,E
QUESTION NO: 41
According to the WS-I Basic Profile 1.1, which two statements are true about the targetNamespace attribute for xsd:schema elements that are children of WSDL 1.1 type element? (Choose two.)
A. Its value must be valid unless it has xsd:import, xsd:annotation, or both as its only child elements.

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QUESTION: 71
Given the following client-side code that makes use of the session bean Foo:

10.
@EJB Foo beanl;

11.
@EJB Foo bean2; //more code here
20.
booleantestl = beanl.equals(beanl);

21.
booleantest2 = beanl.equals(bean2); Which two statements are true? (Choose two)

A. If Foo is stateful, testl is true, and test2 is true,
B. If Foo is stateful, testl is true, and test2 is false,
C. If Foo is stateless, testl is true, and test2 is true.
D. If Foo is stateful, testl is false, and test2 is false,
E. If Foo is stateless, testl is true, and test2 is false.
F. If Foo is stateless, testl is false, and test2 is false.

Answer: B, C
QUESTION: 72 A developer implements a session bean with a method doStuff which behaves differently depending on the caller’s security role. Only users in security roles “ADMIN” and “USER” are allowed to call the method. Assume that there is no security-related metadata in the deployment descriptor. Which two, taken in combination, are appropriate to accomplish this? (Choose two.)
A. Annotate method doStuff with @PermitAII.
B. AnnotatemethoddoStuff [email protected]({“ADMIN”,”USER”})
C. If EJBContext.getCallerPrincipal returns role “ADMIN”, implement thebehaviorfor users in role ADMIN.
D. If EJBContext.isCallerlnRole(“ADMIN”) returns true, implement the behavior defined for users in role “ADMIN”.

Answer: B, D
QUESTION: 73 You have been asked to develop business methods for an enterprise bean to fulfill the following objective: If the JDBC connection is NOT available, the current state of the shopping cart session must be serialized. A serialized state must be written to a text file using a java.io.PrintWriter. Data must be shared with a Web services end point. Logging information must be displayed in ajavax.swing.JPanel component. Which is true?
A. The requirements can be fullfilled only in sessionbeans.
B. Therequirementscan befulfilled only in message-driven beans.
C. Allof the requirements can be fulfilled using either session beans or message-driven beans.

D. None of the requirements can be fulfilled using either session beans or message-driven
beans.
E. Bothsession beansandmessage-driven beans canfulfillsomebutnotalloftherequirements.

Answer: E
QUESTION: 74 A developer is creating an entity which is mapped to a table that has a primary key constraint defined on two character columns and would like to use mapping defaults as much as possible to simplify the code Which two mapping options can be chosen? (Choose two.)
A. Use an @ld property that constructs a private field as a concatenation of two columns.
B. Use a separate class to map those two columns and use an @ldClass annotation to denote the primary key field or property in the entity.
C. Use a separate @Embeddable class to map those two columns and use an @Embeddedld annotation to denote a single primary key field or property in the entity.
D. Use a separate @Embeddable class to map those two columns and add two fields or properties to the entity, each marked as @ld, that correspond to the fields or properties in the embeddable class.
E. Use a separate class to map those two columns. Specify that class using @ldClass annotation on the entity class. Add two fields or properties to the entity, each marked as @ld, that correspond to the fields or properties in that separate class.

Answer: C, E
QUESTION: 75 A session bean’s business method throws an exception during execution. Which two are responsibilities of the Bean Provider when throwing the exception? (Choose two.)
A. For application exceptions, ensure that if the current transaction commits there will be no loss of data integrity.
B. For application exceptions, ensurethatthe current transaction will commit.
C. For system errors, when the client is remote, throw a java.rmi.RemoteException that wraps the original exception.
D. For checked exceptions from which the bean cannot recover, throw an EJBException that wraps the original exception.
Answer: A, D
QUESTION: 76 A developer creates the following session bean: 10..Stateless
11.
@RolesAllowed(“SECRET”)
12.
public class MyBean implements Mylnterface
13.
public void methodAOJ}
14.
@PermitAII
15.
public void methodB0 {}
16.
@DenyAII
17.
public void methodC0 {}
18.}
No deployment descriptor is supplied. Which two statements are true? (Choose two.)

A. A user in the role “SECRET” will be able to access all of the methods.

B. A user in the role “FOO” will be able to access methodA and methodB.

C. A user without any role will be able to access methodB but NOT methodA.

D. A user in the role “SECRET” will be able to access methodA and methodB.

E. A user in the role “SYSADM” will be able to access methodA, methodB, and
methodC.
Answer: C, D
QUESTION: 77 Given a stateless session bean with container-managed transaction demarcation, from which two methods can a developer access another enterprise bean? (Choose two.
A. beanconstructor
B. Timeout callback method
C. PreDestroy lifecycle callback method
D. PostConstruct lifecycle callback method
E. businessmethod fromthebusiness interface
Answer: B, E

QUESTION: 78
Which statement about entity manager is true?

A. A container-managed entity manager must be a JTA entity manager.
B. An entity manager injected into session beans can use either JTA or resource-local transaction control.
C. An entity manager created by calling the EntityManagerFactory.createEntityManager method always uses JTA transaction control.
D. An entity manager obtained through resource injection in a stateful session bean can use a resource-local EntityTransaction for transaction control

Answer: A
QUESTION: 79 Which two statements about the EJBContext. isCallerlnRole method are correct? (Choose two.)
A. Message-drivenbeans must NOT call the isCallerlnRole method.
B. The isCallerlnRole method may be called in a session bean constructor.
C. The isCallerlnRole method can be called in any business method of a stateless or a stateful session bean.
D. The isCallerlnRole method can be called in the PostConstruct and PreDestroy lifecycle callback methods of a stateless session bean.

Answer: A, C
QUESTION: 80
According to the Java Persistence API, a managed entity instance X becomes removed by
invoking the remove method on it or when it is a target of a cascaded remove operation.
Which statement is true?

A. After an entity has been removed its state will be restored to the Java defaults.
B. If a detached entity Y references Xthe HlegalStateException will be thrown.
C. If X is a new entity the remove operation is cascaded to entities referenced by X.
D. A removed entity X will be guaranteed to be removed from the database when the remove method returns.
Answer: C
QUESTION: 81
Given the following client-side code that makes use of the session bean Foo:

10.
@EJB Foo beanl;

11.
@EJB Foo bean2; //more code here
20.
booleantestl = beanl.equals(beanl);

21.
booleantest2 = beanl.equals(bean2); Which two statements are true? (Choose two)
A. A. IfFoo is stateful, testl is true, and test2 is true,
B. If Foo is stateful, testl is true, and test2 is false,
C. If Foo is stateless, testl is true, and test2 is true.
D. If Foo is stateful, testl is false, and test2 is false,
E. If Foo is stateless, testl is true, and test2 is false.
F. If Foo is stateless, testl is false, and test2 is false

Answer: B, C
QUESTION: 82
Given two entities with a many-to-many bidirectional association between them:

11.
@Entity public class Employee!
12.
Collection projects;
13.
// more code here
14.}
and
11..Entity public class Project!

12.
Set<Employee> emps;
13.
// more code here
14.}
What set of annotations correctly defines the association?

A. @ManyToMany on the projects field, @ManyToMany(mappedBy=”projects”) on the
emps field

B. @ManyToMany(mappedBy=”emps”) on the projects field, @ManyToMany on the
emps field

C. @ManyToMany(targetEntity=Project.class) on the projects field,
@ManyToMany(mappedBy=”projects”) on the emps field
D. @ManyToMany(targetEntity=Project.class) on the projects field, @ManyToMany on the emps field

Answer: C
QUESTION: 83 A developer wants to perform programmatic access control inside EJB 3.0 session beans. This is needed because some permissions can be determined only at application runtime. Which method achieves this goal?
A. javax.ejb.EJBContext.getRollbackOnlyO
B. java.lang.SecurityManager.checkAccess(Thread t)
C. javax. interceptor. InvocationContext. getTargetO
D. javax. ejb. SessionContext.isCallerlnRole(String roleName)
E. javax. servlet. http. HttpServletRequest. getUserPrincipalQ

Answer: D
QUESTION: 84 A business method of a stateless session bean with a transaction attribute REQUIRED executes a Java Persistence query on a container-managed persistence context. Under which two conditions can the developer expect the persistence provider to ensure that all changes made to the persistence context in the transaction are visible to the processing of the query? (Choose two.
A. Theflushmode is NOT explicitly set.
B. Theflushmodeon the Query object is set toCOMMIT.
C. The refresh method on the EntityManager is called.
D. The flush mode on the persistence context issetto AUTO but is NOT specified for the Query object.
Answer: A, D
QUESTION: 85

A session bean calls the setRollbackOnly method on the EJBContext interface within a business method with an active transaction. Which two are correct? (Choose two.)
A. The transaction timeout is immediately disabled.
B. The container will ensure that the transaction will never commit.
C. The bean must have started the current transaction for this to be legal.
D. The bean must have bean-managed transaction demarcation for this to be legal.
E. Thebean must have container-managed transaction demarcation for this to be legal.

Answer: B, E
QUESTION: 86 A session bean’s business method invokes UserTransaction.setRollbackOnly and receives an HlegalStateException. Under which circumstance canthis happen?
A. The bean is using bean-managed transactions regardless of whether there is an active transaction.
B. There is no circumstance that would cause setRollbackOnly to throw an HlegalStateException.
C. The bean is using bean-managed transaction demarcation, and UserTransaction.begin has NOT been invoked.
D. The setRollbackOnly method is invoked within a bean-managed transaction, and UserTransaction.commit has NOT been invoked.

Answer: C
QUESTION: 87
Given the following entity class:

11.
@Entity public class Customer)
12.
@ld private int id;
13.
private transient String name;
14.
private Jav

a.
math. BigDecimal grossAmmount;
15.}
Which mapping annotation can be added to the fields of this entity?
A.
@Columntothe name field
B.
@Embeddedldto theid field

C.
@Basictothe grossAmmountfield

D.
@JoinColumnstothe grossAmmount field
Answer: C
QUESTION: 88
Which two statements are true about EJB 3.0 JMS message-driven beans? (Choose two.)

A. The developer can use JMS messageselector declarationsto restrict the messages that the bean receives.
B. The developer can associate the bean with a specific queue or topic using the resource-ref element of the deployment descriptor.
C. To achieve concurrent processing of more than one message at a time, more than one bean class must be associated with the same JMS queue.
D. The developer can usetheactivationConfigelementoftheMessageDrivenannotationto specify whether the bean should be associated with a queue or a topic.

Answer: A, D
QUESTION: 89 A developer wants to create a Java Persistence query that returns valid U.S. phone numbers (formatted as “123-456-7890” or “800-RUN-EJB3”) from a collection of differently formatted international phone numbers. The developer needs only those numbers that begin with 303. Which WHERE clause is correct?
A. WHEREaddr. phone LIKE 303J
B. WHERE addr. phone LIKE 303%’
C. WHEREaddr. phone LIKE303-_-_’
D. WHEREaddr.phone LIKE 303-%-%’
E. WHEREaddr. phoneLIKE 303–‘
F. WHERE addr. phone LIKE 303-%%%-%%%%’
Answer: E
QUESTION: 90

A session bean’s business method throws an exception during execution. Which two are responsibilities of the Bean Provider when throwing the exception? (Choose two.)
A. For application exceptions, ensure that if the current transaction commits there will be no loss of data integrity.
B. For application exceptions, ensurethatthe current transaction will commit.
C. For system errors, when the client is remote, throw a java.rmi.RemoteException that wraps the original exception.
D. For checked exceptions from which the bean cannot recover, throw an EJBException that wraps the original exception.

Answer: A, D
QUESTION: 91 Given: 10..Stateless
11.
@RunAs(“X”)
12.
public class SecureBeanOl implements SecureOl {
13.
@EJB Secure02 secure02;

23.
@RolesAllowed(“A”)
24.
public void methodA0 {
25.
secureO2.methodB0;
26.}
10..Stateless

11. public void SecureBean02 implements Secure02{

23.
@RolesAllowed(“A”)
24.
public void methodB0 {
A user who is only in role A invokes SecureOl. method . Assuming NO other
security-related metadata, what is the expected result?

A. An exception is thrown at Line 25.

B. Anexceptionisthrown at Line 13.

C. methodA cannot beinvokedbythis user.

D. The codeexecutes without raising an exception.

Answer: A
QUESTION: 92

A developer creates a stateful session bean that is used by many concurrent clients. The clients are written by other development teams and it is assumed that these clients might not remove the bean when ending their session. The number of concurrent sessions will be greater than the defined bean cache size. The developer must consider that the state of the session bean can be influenced by either passivation or timeout. Which three actions should the developer take to make the bean behave correctly in passivation and timeout situations? (Choose three.)
A. Release references to resources [email protected] method.
B. Re-establish references to resources in an @lnit annotated method.
C. Release references to resources [email protected] annotated method.
D. Release references to resources in a @PrePassivate annotated method.
E. Re-establish referencestoresources ina (.PostActivate annotatedmethod.

Answer: C, D, E
QUESTION: 93 A developer is writing a stateless session bean that is obtaining a transaction-scoped entity manager using injection and assumes the application defines one persistence unit. Which declaration is correct?
A. .ResourceEntityManagerem;
B. @PersistenceUnit EntityManager em;
C. @PersistenceContext EntityManager em;
D. @PersistenceUnit(“TransactionScoped”) EntityManager em;

Answer: C
QUESTION: 94 The Java Persistent API defines certain rules for persistent entities. These rules are required by the persistent provider to manage entities at runtime. Which statement is correct, assuming NO mapping descriptor is used?
A. Entitiesmust extenda persistent base class.
B. Entities must implement the interface PersistentEntityto bemanaged bythepersistent provider.

C. Afield withoutatransient modifier mustbeannotated as.Persistent tobe stored in the
database.
D. A field without a transient modifier must be annotated as (.Transient to NOT be stored in the database.

Answer: D
QUESTION: 95
Which statement is correct about the Java Persistence API support for the SQL queries?

A. SQL queries are NOT allowed to use parameters.
B. The result of an SQL query is not limited to entities.
C. Only SELECT SQL queries are required to be supported.
D. SQL queries are expected to be portable across databases.

Answer: B
QUESTION: 96
Which two are restrictions of beans with bean-managed transactions? (Choose two.)

A. The NONSUPPORTED transaction attribute must be chosen.
B. Clients calling with a transactional context are prohibited and will result in an exception.
C. A stateful session bean must commit a started transaction before a business method returns.
D. A bean that starts a transaction must complete the transaction before it starts a new transaction.
E. A message-driven bean instance must commit a transaction before the onMessage method returns.

Answer: D, E
QUESTION: 97
Given two entities with a many-to-many bidirectional association between them:

11.
@Entity public class Employee!

12.
Collection projects;

13.
// more code here
14.}
and
11..Entity public class Project!
12.
Set<Employee> emps;
13.
// more code here
14.}
What set of annotations correctly defines the association?

A. @ManyToMany on the projects field,
@ManyToMany(mappedBy=”projects”) on the emps field

B. @ManyToMany(mappedBy=”emps”) on the projects field,
@ManyToMany on the emps field

C. @ManyToMany(targetEntity=Project.class) on the projects field,
@ManyToMany(mappedBy=”projects”) on the emps field

D. @ManyToMany(targetEntity=Project.class) on the projects field,
@ManyToMany on the emps field
Answer: C
QUESTION: 98 A developer is implementing an EJB 3.0 message-driven bean that will be associated with a JMS topic. The bean must NOT miss any messages published to the topic, even if the EJB server is down for some time. Which is correct?
A. The developershouldset the activation config properly subscriptionDurabilitytovalueDurable.
B. The developer should set the activation config property subscriptionDurability to value NonDurable.
C. Clients must take care of resending messages to the topic in case of missing message acknowledgements.
D. The developer does NOT need to do anything, because as long as the EJB server is down no client can publish messages to the topic.
Answer: A
QUESTION: 99

Which two can be specified by both the Bean Provider and the Application Assembler?
(Choose two.)
A. security roles
B. enterprise bean type
C. transaction attributes
D. session bean’s state-management type
E. enterprise bean’s remote home interface
F. enterprise bean’s local business interface

Answer: A, C
QUESTION: 100 A developer writes a stateless session bean with one local business interface and with containermanaged transactions. All business methods have transaction attribute REQUIRED. The bean has an injected field sessionCtx of the type SessionContext. Which two operations are allowed in a business method of the bean? (Choose two.)
A. sessionCtx. getEJBObject
B. sessionCtx.setRollbackOnly
C. sessionCtx. getMessageContext
D. sessionCtx. getBusinessObject
E. sessionCtx. getEJBLocalObject

Answer: B, D
QUESTION: 101
A User entity is in a one-to-many relationship with a Book entity. A developer writes a
query to delete users that have a first name of Fred1or ‘Ginger’, and writes the following
Java Persistence query language statement:
DELETE FROM User u WHERE u.name IN (Fred’, “Ginger)
If the query fails with a PersistenceException, what can be the cause?

A. The syntax of the query is NOT correct.
B. Thequerycauses a foreign key integrity constrainttobe violated.
C. The database doesNOThave any userswith thenameFred’or ‘Ginger’.

D. Theentities corresponding to the userswiththe nameFred’or’Ginger’ arealreadybeing managedbythe persistencecontext.

Answer: B
QUESTION: 102
Given :
public class MyException extends Exception {}
The business interface Foo declares a method work0: I.public void work0 throws
MyException;
The bean class FooBean contains the following:
10..Stateless

II. @Remote(Foo.class)

12.
public class FooBean {
13.
public void workQ throws MyException {
14.
//do some work not shown here
15.
throw new MyException0;
16.}
Assuming there is no deployment descriptor, which statement is true when the workQ
method is invoked by a client with an existing transaction context and execution reaches
Line 15?

A. The container does notroll back thetransaction.

B. The clientreceives javax.ejb.EJBTransactionRequiredException.

C. The clientreceivesjavax.ejb.EJBTransactionRolledbackException.

D. Thecontainer marks the transactionforrollback by calling the EJBContext.setRollbackOnly
method.
Answer: A
QUESTION: 103
Which statement is true about the use of a persist operation in a transaction?

A. If a user persists a detached object it always becomes managed.
B. The persist operation on an entity always cascades to its related entities.
C. If a user persists a new entity with an existing primary key the transaction will fail.
D. If a user persists a managed entity an exception may be thrown by the persist operation.
Answer: C
QUESTION: 104 A developer is working on a project that includes both EJB 2.1 and EJB 3.0 session beans. A lot of business logic has been implemented and tested in these EJB 2.1 session beans. Some EJB 3.0 session beans need to access this business logic. Which design approach can achieve this requirement?
A. Add adapted home interfaces to EJB 3.0 session beans to make EJB 3.0 and EJB 2.1 session beans interoperable.
B. Add EJB 3.0 business interfaces to existing EJB 2.1 session beans and inject references to these business interfaces into EJB 3.0 session beans.
C. No need to modify existing EJB 2.1 session beans. Use the @EJB annotation to inject a reference to the EJB 2.1 home interface into the EJB 3.0 bean class.
D. No need to modify existing EJB 2.1 session beans. Use the @EJB annotation to inject a reference to the EJB 2.1 component interface into the EJB 3.0 bean class.

Answer: C
QUESTION: 105 A Java Persistence application wants to use optimistic locking. Which statement that describes the functionality of optimistic locking is correct?
A. The Version attribute of an entity using optimistic locking can be mapped to a secondary table.
B. Optimistic locking can be used by Java Persistence applications to set optimistic locks on tables in the database.
C. The Version attribute of an entity using optimistic locking is verified each time the instance is loaded from the database.
D. Optimistic locking ensures that updates or deletes are consistent with the current state of the database and that intervening updates are not lost.
Answer: D
QUESTION: 106

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QUESTION 15
Which version of WCCP supports redirection of all TCP traffic?
A. Version 1
B. Version 2
C. Version 9
D. Version 12.2.18
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 16
A user downloads a Microsoft PowerPoint presentation from a server across the network. The file has been seen before by both Steelhead appliances that are optimizing the link and so the user experiences warm performance. A second user at the same office has a local copy and adds some pictures then uploads the very same file. This file transfer can be considered:
A. Cold, the data now travels in another direction so the Steelhead appliance needs to relearn the data
B. Cold, the file has been changed to the file needs to be stored again
C. Warm, all the data has been seen by the Steelhead appliances before
D. Warm, the transaction prediction module of the Steelhead appliance can detect the application and accelerate the transfer
E. Partially warm, the Steelhead appliances only need to learn the new data

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 17
A user uploads a Microsoft Word document to a server across the network using the file transfer protocol (FTP). The file has been seen before by the Steelhead appliances that are optimizing the link and so the user experiences warm performance. A second user at the same location downloads the file from the same server using the CIFS protocol. This file transfer can be considered:
A. Cold, the data now travels in another direction so the Steelhead appliances need to relearn the data
B. Cold, the application protocol is now different so the Steelhead appliances need to relearn the data
C. Warm, the data has been seen by the Steelhead appliances before making the application protocol irrelevant
D. Warm, only because the transfer uses CIFS
E. Partially warm, the Steelhead appliances only need to learn the new data

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 18
Which of the following QoS scheduling algorithms does Steelhead appliance use when QoS is enabled?
A. Weighted Random Early Discard
B. Weighted Fair Queuing
C. Hierarchical Fair Service Curve
D. Class Base Weighted Fair Queuing
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 19
What optimization can be performed on HTTPS traffic when SSL optimization is enabled?
A. SDR
B. LZ
C. Application Streamlining
D. A and B only
E. A, B, and C

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 20
When performing datastore synchronization between two Steelhead appliances, segments of data are exchanged between them. Which interfaces can be used for datastore synchronization? (Select 2)
A. In-path
B. Primary
C. Auxiliary
D. WAN
E. Remote

Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 21
When performing a logical in-path deployment, which interface needs to be physically cabled for optimization to occur?
A. LAN
B. AUX
C. WAN
D. Primary

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 22
Which of the following parameters can be used to classify traffic into QoS classes? (Select 3)
A. Destination subnet
B. Source subnet
C. VLAN
D. WCCP Mask or HASH
E. Service Groups

Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 23
The default action performed by the Steelhead appliance when it receives a packet with an existing DSCP value 46 is to:
A. Override the value with a default of 0
B. Override the value with the value of AF11
C. Reflect the value received by the original packet
D. Reflect the value returned by the symmetric TCP flow
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 24
Name the areas where the Steelhead appliance will be beneficial. (Select 3)
A. Accelerate chatty applications that use well known protocols such as CIFS and MAPI
B. Save bandwidth on LAN links
C. With a single TCP session, effectively use bandwidth on high-speed WAN links
D. Reduce UDP traffic on the WAN by engaging Riverbed Professional Services
E. Remove the traffic load from MAPI servers
Correct Answer: ACD
QUESTION 25
The benefits provided by the CIFS application-level optimizations are:
A. Remove protocol chattiness from the remote LAN
B. Remove protocol chattiness from the data center LAN
C. Increase protocol chattiness from the WAN
D. Remove protocol chattiness from the WAN
E. Encrypt important data

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 26
What does the Data Streamlining module in RiOS do?
A. Eliminates redundant bytes from transfers
B. Prioritizes application traffic
C. Reduces transport protocol inefficiencies
D. All of the above
E. None of the above

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 27
What does the Transport Streamlining module in RiOS do? (Select 2)
A. Reduces transport protocol inefficiencies
B. Prioritizes application traffic
C. Virtually expands TCP windows
D. Reduces WAN round trips at the application layer

Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 28
What does the Application Streamlining module in RiOS do?
A. Eliminates redundant bytes from transfers
B. Prioritizes application traffic
C. Eliminates transport protocol inefficiencies
D. Reduces WAN round trips at the application layer
E. All of the above
F. None of the above

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 29
What are the benefits of Application Streamlining?
A. Applications run up to 100 times faster
B. Reduces application chattiness by 65-98%
C. Accelerates the most important applications, such as CIFS, MAPI, NFS, HTTP/S, Lotus Notes, and MS-SQL
D. All of the above
E. None of the above
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 30
Data Streamlining brings what benefits?
A. WAN bandwidth reduction by 60-95%
B. Eliminates redundant data transfers at the byte-sequence level
C. Performs cross-application optimization
D. Provides compression
E. All of the above

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 31
To help secure the server private key on the server-side Steelhead appliance, which of the following features can be used?
A. TACACS+ authentication
B. RADIUS authentication
C. Secure Vault
D. Datastore encryption

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 32
Assume the SSL server is configured for the default SSL port. Which port has to be specified in the in-path rules of the client-side Steelhead appliance?
A. 443
B. 445
C. 7801
D. 8080

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 33
Which of the following MAPI application-specific optimizations can be performed by Steelhead appliances?
A. Read ahead on attachments
B. Read ahead on large emails
C. Write behind on attachments
D. Write behind on large emails
E. All of the above

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 34
When MAPI prepopulation is enabled, what is default TCP keep-alive time used to prepopulate the Steelhead appliance with emails and attachments?
A. 24 hours
B. 48 hours
C. 72 hours
D. 96 hours
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 35
Which of the following platforms provide support for HighSpeed TCP?
A. All Steelhead modules designed for large offices
B. All models except the desktop units
C. All appliance models
D. Only the mid-size office
E. Only really big appliances 80lbs or greater

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QUESTION: 25
Which of the following statements regarding cooldown is FALSE?

A. The emphasis should be large muscle activity performed at a low to moderate intensity.
B. Increasing venous return should be a priority during cool-down.
C. The potential for improving flexibility may be improved during cool-down as compared with warm-up.
D. Between 1 and 2 minutes are recommended for an adequate cool-down.

Answer: D
QUESTION: 26 All of the following are examples of aerobic exercise modalities EXCEPT
A. Weight training.
B. Walking.
C. Bicycling.
D. Stair climbing.

Answer: A
QUESTION: 27 A target HR equivalent to 85% of HRR for a 25year-old male with a resting HR of 75 bpm would be equal to
A. 195 bpm.
B. 166 bpm.
C. 177 bpm.
D. 102 bpm.

Answer: C
QUESTION: 28 The appropriate exercise HR for an individual on f3-blocking medication would generally be

A. 75% of HRR.
B. 30 bpm above the standing resting HR.
C. 40% of HRR.
D. (220 – age) X 0.85.

Answer: A
QUESTION: 29 The recommended cardiorespiratory exercise training goal for apparently healthy individuals should be
A. 15 minutes, six times per week, at 90% of HRR.
B. 30 minutes, three times per week, at 85% of HRR.
C. 60 minutes, three times per week, at 85% of HRR.
D. 30 minutes of weight training, three times per week, at 60% of HRR.

Answer: B
QUESTION: 30 In an effort to improve flexibility, the ACSM recommends
A. Proprioceptive neuromuscular facilitation.
B. Ballistic stretching.
C. The plough and hurdler’s stretches.
D. Static stretches held for 10 to 30 seconds per repetition.

Answer: D
QUESTION: 31 An appropriate exercise for improving the strength of the low back muscles are
A. Straight leg lifts.
B. Parallel squats.
C. Spinal extension exercises.
D. Sit-ups with feet anchored.
Answer: C
QUESTION: 32
Which of the following statements true regarding exercise leadership is FALSE?

A. The exercise leader should be fit enough to exercise with any of his or her participants.
B. Most people are not bored by exercise and can easily find time to participate in an exercise program.
C. The exercise leader should adjust the exercise intensity based on individual differences in fitness.
D. Periodic fitness assessment may provide evidence of improvement in fitness for some participants.

Answer: B
QUESTION: 33
Which of the following statements regarding exercise for the elderly is FALSE?

A. A decrease in maximal HR is responsible for reductions in the maximal oxygen consumption as we age.
B. A loss of fat-free mass is responsible for the decrease in muscular strength as we age.
C. The ACSM recommends a cardiorespiratory training intensity of 50% to 70% of HRR for older adults.
D. Resistance exercise training is not recommended for older adults.

Answer: D
QUESTION: 34 Which of the following medications have been shown to be most effective in preventing or reversing exercise-induced asthma?
A. f3 -Agonists.
B. f3 -Blockers.
C. Diuretics.
D. Aspirin.
Answer: A
QUESTION: 35 The exercise leader or health/fitness instructor should modify exercise sessions for participants with hypertension by
A. Shortening the cool-down to less than 5 minutes.
B. Eliminating resistance training completely.
C. Prolonging the cool-down.
D. Implementing high-intensity (>85% of HRR), short-duration intervals.

Answer: C
QUESTION: 36 Normal values for fasting blood sugar are
A. Greater than 140 mg/dL.
B. Between 60 and 140 mg/dL.
C. Less than 60 mg/dL.
D. Between 200 and 400 mg/dL.

Answer: B
QUESTION: 37 The goal for the obese exercise participant should be to
A. Sweat as much as possible.
B. Exercise at 85% of HRR.
C. Perform resistance exercise three to five times per week.
D. Expend 300 to 500 calories per exercise session.

Answer: D
QUESTION: 38 Which of the following statements regarding exercise for persons with controlled cardiovascular disease is TRUE?

A. Resistance exercise training is dangerous and should be avoided.
B. A physician-supervised exercise test is not necessary to establish exercise intensity.
C. Anginal pain is normal during exercise, and participants should be pushed through the pain.
D. Exercise intensity should be set at an HR of 10 bpm less than the level at which signs/symptoms were evidenced during an exercise test.

Answer: D
QUESTION: 39 All of the following factors are important to consider when determining exercise intensity EXCEPT
A. An individual’s level of fitness.
B. The risk of cardiovascular or orthopedic injury.
C. Any previous history participating in organized sports.
D. Individual preference and exercise objectives.

Answer: C
QUESTION: 40 When determining the intensity level, the RPE is a better indicator than percentage of maximal HR for all of the following groups EXCEPT
A. Individuals on f3-blockers.
B. Aerobic classes that involve excessive arm movement.
C. Individuals older than 65 years.
D. Individuals involved in high-intensity exercise.

Answer: D

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QUESTION 30
Which principle of training best describes a previously active client, who has been ill and bed-ridden for a prolonged period of time?
A. Overload
B. Specificity
C. Reversibility
D. Progression

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 31
If you are palpating the thumb side of the forearm in the wrist area, what pulse are you checking?
A. Humeral
B. Ulnar
C. Brachial
D. Radial

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 32
What is the correct order of the regions of the spinal column, from superior to inferior?
A. Cervical, lumbar, thoracic, sacral and coccyx.
B. Coccyx, sacral, lumbar, thoracic, and cervical.
C. Cervical, thoracic, lumbar, coccyx, and sacral.
D. Cervical, thoracic, lumbar,sacral, and coccyx.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 33
Which muscle is an antagonist of the hamstrings?
A. Gastrocnemius
B. Iliopsoas
C. Gracilis
D. Sartorius

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 34
Which of the following physiological changes does NOT occur when a client improves aerobic capacity?
A. The muscles will be able to extract more oxygen from the blood.
B. Total lung volume will increase in proportion to the total accumulated time of high-intensity exercise.
C. The oxygen carrying capacity of the blood will increase.
D. The amount of air the lungs can take in will increase because of increases in the rate and depth of breathing.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 35
As the intensity of dynamic exercise increases, which of the following sets of responses occurs?
A. Heart rate, systolic blood pressure, and diastolic blood pressure increase.
B. Heart rate and systolic blood pressure increase, diastolic pressure remains unchanged.
C. Heart rate and systolic blood pressure increase, stroke volume and cardiac output remain the same.
D. Stroke volume decreases, heart rate and cardiac output increase.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 36
From a seated position, with dumbbells to the sides, raising the dumbbells laterally to shoulder level with elbows slightly flexed, exercises primarily the _______:
A. bicep brachii and latisimus dorsi
B. posterior deltoid
C. anterior deltoid and triceps brachii
D. middle deltoid.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 37
What is the major muscle used to flex the hip joint?
A. Vastus lateralis
B. Iliopsoas
C. Biceps femoris
D. Gluteus maximus

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 38
A subject with elbows held at 90 degrees of flexion is handed a 150 lb (68.1kg) barbell. Even though he exerts maximal tension, the barbell causes the joint angle to increase to 170 degrees. Which one of the following describes the muscle action during the extension?
A. Isotonic concentric
B. Isotonic eccentric
C. Isokinetic concentric
D. Isokinetic eccentric
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 39
Type II muscle fibers:
A. Have a high capacity to generate energy through the electron transport system.
B. Have a high capacity to generate energy from fat.
C. Are recruited at a higher percentage of maximum force than Type I fibers.
D. Have high endurance capabilities.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 40
Which of the following is a normal blood pressure (BP) response to aerobic exercise?
A. Both systolic and diastolic BP increase proportionately to increases in workload.
B. Systolic BP increases and diastolic BP decreases.
C. Systolic BP increases proportionately to increases in workload and diastolic BP remains unchanged or decreases slightly.
D. Systolic and diastolic BP both decrease at the onset of exercise, then increase in proportion to the increase in intensity.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 41
Which rotator cuff muscle abducts the arm?
A. Infraspinatus
B. Supraspinatus
C. Subscapularis
D. Medial deltoid

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 42
Which energy system has the highest capacity for ATP production?
A. ATP-CP
B. Rapid glycolysis
C. Slow glycolysis
D. Oxidative phosphorylation

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 43
What plane divides the body into upper and lower sections?
A. Sagittal
B. Frontal
C. Transverse
D. Median

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 44
When performing neck flexion in the sagittal plane, which of the following exercises best mimics that movement?
A. Cartwheel
B. Somersault
C. Bicep curl
D. Leg curl

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 45
Under which of the following circumstances would you expect to see the highest rise in blood lactate?
A. During maximal exercise lasting between 60 and 180 seconds in the untrained client
B. Prior to treadmill walking in the cardiac patient
C. During maximal exercise lasting between 60 and 180 seconds in the athlete
D. After moderate intensity cycling exercise in the client with Type 2 diabetes

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 46
Typical movements in the weight room such as a biceps curl using free weights and leg press actions using a machine are best described as ____________ muscle actions.
A. plyometric
B. isokinetic
C. ballistic
D. isotonic

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 47
The latissimus dorsi acts as the prime mover during the concentric phase of which of the following exercises?
A. lat pulldown
B. flat bench press
C. lateral raise
D. incline bench press

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 48
Which of the following bones facilitate movement of the chest during both inspiration and expiration?
A. clavicle
B. scapula
C. carpal
D. scalene
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 49
Which of the following is characterized as a plane (uniaxial) joint?
A. Coxal (hip)
B. Atlantooccipital
C. Radiocarpal (wrist)
D. Sacroiliac

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 50
Which of the following indicates the reason why a female who is pregnant should avoid exercise in the supine position after the first trimester?
A. obstruction of arterial blood flow
B. risk of orthostatic hypotension due to obstructed venous return
C. obstruction of the diaphragm
D. risk of decreased oxygen consumption due to pressure on the uterus

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 51
As a response to a progressive resistance training program, which of the following demonstrates the predominant contribution to an increase in cross-sectional area of a muscle?
A. atrophy and possibly hypertrophy
B. hyperplasia and possibly hypertrophy
C. atrophy and possibly hyperplasia
D. hypertrophy and possibly hyperplasia

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 52
What is an appropriate precaution and/or modification for exercising in higher ambient temperatures?
A. Take salt tablets.
B. Drink eight ounces of water once per hour.
C. Select proper loose fitting, lightweight clothing.
D. Train in clothes designed to trap and hold body heat.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 53
What is the intensity recommendation for the initial conditioning stage of a cardiovascular program?
A. 10% to 20% of heart rate reserve
B. 20% to 30% of heart rate reserve
C. 40% to 60% of heart rate reserve
D. 60% to 85% of heart rate reserve

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 54
Approximately how long is the initial conditioning phase of a cardiovascular training program?
A. Four weeks
B. Eight weeks
C. Twelve weeks
D. Sixteen weeks

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 55
What is the American College of Sports Medicine’s recommendation regarding frequency to increase cardiorespiratory fitness?
A. One to two days per week
B. Two to three days per week
C. Three to five days per week
D. Four to six days per week

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 56
What is the variability for any given age, when estimating a client’s age-predicted maximum heart rate?
A. 2 to 4 beats per minute
B. 10 to 12 beats per minute
C. 18 to 20 beats per minute
D. 22 to 24 beats per minute

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 57
What is the formula to determine 60% of heart rate reserve?
A. 220 – age x 60%
B. Maximum heart rate x 60%
C. Maximum heart rate – resting heart rate x 60%
D. Maximum heart rate – resting heart rate x 60% + resting heart rate

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 58
A 50 year old client has a resting heart rate of 70 beats per minute. Calculate the exercise heart rate for this client using 50% of heart rate reserve.
A. 85 beats per minute
B. 100 beats per minute
C. 110 beats per minute
D. 120 beats per minute

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 59
When should a client exhale during performance of a bench press?
A. Only after the movement ends.
B. Immediately before the movement begins.
C. During the eccentric phase of the movement.
D. During the concentric phase of the movement.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 60
What health-related physical fitness component is primarily emphasized in a circuit training program that has 30 stations, 60 seconds per station, at 25% of one repetition maximum?
A. Muscular Strength
B. Muscular Flexibility
C. Muscular Endurance
D. Muscular Power
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 61
What is a result of resistance training in adolescents?
A. It promotes muscular strength.
B. It increases muscular bulk.
C. It increases the risk of osteoporosis.
D. It causes permanent musculoskeletal damage.

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 62
A 35 year-old male client has a goal of completing a sprint distance triathlon. The certified Personal Trainer prescribes an exercise regimen of swimming 2 days per week, running 3 days per week, and bicycling 2 days per week. What training principle is being used?
A. Reversibility
B. Overload
C. Progression
D. Specificity

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 63
What are the FITTE Factors?
A. Frequency, injury, time, type, enjoyment
B. Frequency, intensity, total, type, exercise
C. Frequency, intensity, total, type, equipment
D. Frequency, intensity, time, type, enjoyment

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 64
Why is a cool-down period important?
A. Prevents heat stroke
B. Helps prevent injuries
C. Reduces brain blood flow back to normal
D. Returns pooled blood back to central circulation

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 65
Which of the following is NOT a principle of training?
A. Overload
B. Specificity
C. Reversibility
D. Concentration

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 66
What is the first phase of an annual training cycle?
A. Transition
B. Off-season
C. Preparatory
D. Competition

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 67
What is a function of the hamstring muscles?
A. Hip flexors
B. Hip extensors
C. Plantar flexors
D. Knee extensors

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 68
What method of training combines a routine of alternating cardiovascular exercises with resistance training exercises?
A. Circuit training
B. Interval training
C. Split routine training
D. Periodization training

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 69
What resistance training method is described by a light to heavy or heavy to light progression of sets?
A. Pyramid
B. Superset
C. Negative set
D. Volume training

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 70
What resistance training method is being used when the client is performing a set of bicep curls immediately followed by triceps pushdowns?
A. Pyramid
B. Supersets
C. Plyometrics
D. Split routine

Correct Answer: B

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QUESTION: 26 A developer is writing implementation code for an EJB 3.0 message-driven bean class that processes booking requests. Within the business logic of the onMessage method, a temporary problem can occur. In that case the developer wants to make sure that the booking request is processed again in 30 minutes. Which two can the developer select? (Choose two.)
A. Throwa runtimeexception torollbackthetransaction.
B. Call setRollbackOnly on the MessageDrivenContext interface.
C. Makeuseof the TimerService, and implement the TimedObject interface.
D. Make use of the TimerService,implement areprocess method, and annotate it with @Timeout.
E. Throw an application exception, and addtheretry-after attribute to the deployment descriptor.
Answer: C, D
QUESTION: 27

Given a set of CMT bean methods with the following transaction attributes: Method
M1=SUPPORTS Method M2=REQUIRED Method M3=NOT_SUPPORTED Method M4=REQUIRES_NEW And the following method invocation sequence: Method M1 invokes Method M2 Method M2 invokes Method M3 Method M1 invokes Method M4 If Method M1 is invoked by a method that does NOT have a transaction context, which describes a possible scenario?
A. Method M1notransaction MethodM2new transaction Method M3no transaction MethodM4newtransaction
B. Method M1notransaction Method M2Container throws EJBTransactionRequiredException
C. MethodM1new transaction Method M2runs in same transaction as M1 Method M3Container throws TransactionNotSupportedException
D. Method M1no transaction Method M2new transaction Method M3Container throws TransactionNotSupportedException

Answer: A
QUESTION: 28 OldBarBean is a stateless session bean written to the EJB 2.1 API with remote home interface. OldBarHome and remote component interface OldBar. FooBean is a stateless session bean written to the EJB 3.0 API. OldBarBean and FooBean are the only EJBs packaged in the ejb-jar. The FooBean portion of the ejb-jar. xml also declares an ejb-ref whose ejb-ref-name is ejb/oldBar. The ejb-ref is linked to OldBarBean. There are no other ejb dependencies defined. A business method foo in FooBean needs to access OldBarBean. Which is portable code to achieve this goal?
A. .Remote
private OldBar oldBar;

B. public void fooQ { try {
InitialContext ic = new InitialContextO; Object obj = ic.lookup(“ejb/oldBar”);
OldBarHome OldBarHome =
(OldBarHome) PortableRemoteObject.narrow(obj, OldBarHome.class);
OldBar oldBar = oldBarHome.createO;

C. @EJB private OldBarHome OldBarHome;
public void fooQ {
try {
OldBar oldBar = oldBarHome.createQ;

D. public void fooQ {
try {
InitialContext ic = new InitialContextO; OldBarHome OldBarHome =
(OldBarHome) ic.lookup(“ejb/oldBar”); OldBar oldBar = oldBarHome.createQ;
Answer: C
QUESTION: 29 DRAG DROP Click the Task button. A Department entity is in a one-to-many relationship with an Employee entity. A developer has been asked to write a Java Persistence query to update the set of employees who are in the department ‘HR’ by setting their department to null. Construct a query using the Java Persistence query language to perform this task. Construct a valid Java Persistence query by dragging and dropping the syntax fragements.

Answer: C
QUESTION: 30 A developer implemented a Java class called Store. The class is annotated correctly to act as an entity. The developer created a stateless session bean to create, lookup, and remove Store objects. This session bean has a container-managed entity manager injected into field em and a removeStore method with transaction attribute REQUIRED. Given the following code :
32.
public void re move St ore (St ore store) {
33.
em.remove(store); 34.}
What is a possible reason that an HlegalArgumentException is thrown at Line 33
when the removeStore method is called by a remote client?

A. Thepassedobject is NOT serializable.

B. Thepassed object is NOT found inthedatabase.

C. The passed object is NOT managed by the entity manager.

D. There is no active transaction to manage the database removal.
Answer: C
QUESTION: 31 A developer is designing a Java Persistence application that is mapped to a set of existing tables. This set includes table EMPLOYEE, DEPARTMENT, and PROJECT. Tables EMPLOYEE and DEPARTMENT do NOT define any foreign key constraints to table PROJECT. Table PROJECT defines foreign key constraints with references to tables EMPLOYEE and DEPARTMENT and an extra column called COST. The table EMPLOYEE is mapped to an entity Employee and the table DEPARTMENT to an entity Department. How can the table PROJECT be mapped so the persistence application can be portable?

A. Such sets of tables cannotbemappedandkeep the application portable.
B. Map thetablePROJECT asasecondary table for either the Employee or Departmententity.
C. Map the table PROJECT to bidirectional many-to-many relationships between the Employeeand Departmentusing a Java. util.Mapas the type ofthefield or property.
D. Mapthe tablePROJECT to an entity Projectwith afield or property cost mappedto thecolumn COST and one-to-many relationshipstothis entity in the Employee and the Department.

Answer: D
QUESTION: 32 A CMT session bean named MrBean contains a method storeStuff which is annotated as follows:
22.
@TransactionAttributeO”ransactionAttributeType.REQUIRES_NEW)
23.
public void storeStuffO {
All other methods of this bean have no transaction annotations. Given the following part
of an ejbjar.
xml:

23.
<container-transaction>
24.
<method>
25.
<ejb-name>MrBean</ejb-name>
26.
<method-name>*</method-name>
27.
</method>
28.
<transaction-attribute>NotSupported</transaction-attribute>
29.
</container-transaction>
Which statement is correct about the methods in MrBean?

A. Allmethods of MrBean have transaction attribute REQUIRED.

B. All methodsofMrBean have transactionattribute NONSUPPORTED.

C. MethodstoreStuffhastransactionattributeREQUIRES_NEWandthe other methods have
transaction attribute REQUIRED.

D. Method storeStuff has transaction attribute NONSUPPORTED and the other
methods have transaction attribute REQUIRED.

E. Method storeStuff has transaction attribute REQUIRES NEWandthe other
methodshavetransaction attribute NOT SUPPORTTED.

Answer: B

QUESTION: 33 A developer writes an interceptor class called Foolnterceptor containing the following Aroundlnvoke method:
11.
@Aroundlnvoke
12.
public Object intercept(lnvocationContext ctx) {
13.
return “intercepted”; 14.}
Foolnterceptor is applied to a business method in a stateless session bean:

11.
@lnterceptors(Foolnterceptor.class)
12.
public String testzero(int i) {
13.
return (i == 0) ? “zero””not zero”;
14.
}
Which describes the result when a client invokes the testzero method with a value of 1?

A. The intercept method is NEVER invoked.

B. The clientreceivesareturnvalueof “zero”.

C. The client receivesa returnvalue of “not zero”.

D. The client receivesareturn value of “intercepted”.
Answer: D
QUESTION: 34 A developer implements a session bean which acts as a session facade for an application. This means that clients will only see this session bean’s interface which offers the application interface. There are three distinct roles known at development time”user”, “admin”, and “guest”. The majority of the methods will be used by role “user”. All methods must have role permissions active and roles may be added or changed in the future. Which two scenarios are correct? (Choose two.)
A. The developer annotates the bean class with @PermitAII and annotates the methods used by role”guest” or “admin” individually.
B. The developer annotates the bean class with @DenyAII and annotates the methods used by role”user”, “guest”, or “admin” individually.
C. The developer defines individual method permissions for the methods used by roles “user”,”guest”, and “admin” in the deployment descriptor.
D. The developer annotates the bean class with @RolesAllowed(“user”) and annotates the methods used by role “guest” or “admin” individually.
E. Thedeveloper defines a method permission with method name “*” and role “user” and adds individual method permissions for the methods used by roles “guest” and “admin” in the deployment descriptor.
Answer: D, E
QUESTION: 35 A User entity is in a one-to-many relationship with a Book entity. Assume that a developer has a function fetchBook(String title) that fetches a Book entity with the given title title. Also assume that the developer has an entity manager em. Which query can be used to return the user that holds the book titled “Java”?
A. em.createQueryfSELECT u FROM User u where :great IN u.books.title”).setParameter(“great”,”Java”)
B. em.createQuery(“SELECT u FROM User u where :great IN
C. books”). setParameter(“great”,fetchBook(“Java”))
D. em.createQuery(“SELECT u FROM User u where :great MEMBER OF
E. books.title”). setParameter(“great” .”Java”)
F. em.createQuery(“SELECT u FROM User u where :great MEMBER OF
G. books”). setParameter(“great”,fetchBook(“Java”))

Answer: D
QUESTION: 36 Given: A session bean Foo uses container-managed transactions The container throws a javax.transaction.TransactionRolledBackException when the doStuff method runs. Which transaction attribute can the doStuff method have for this to occur?
A. NEVER
B. MANDATORY
C. REQUIRES_NEW
D. NOT SUPPORTED

Answer: B
QUESTION: 37 Within a Java EE environment, which annotation can be used to inject an entity manager factory?

A. .Entity
B. .Factory
C. @JTAFactory
D. @PersistenceUnit
E. .PersistenceContext

Answer: D
QUESTION: 38
Given this code snippet from a JMS message-driven bean class X:

11.
public XQ { System, out. print(“1 “); }
12.
public void onMessagefMessage m) throws Java. rmi. RemoteException
13.
try {
14.
TextMessage tm = (TextMessage) m;
15.
String text = tm.getText0;
16.
System, out. print(“2 “);
17.
} catch (JMSException e) {
18.
throw new java. rmi. RemoteExceptionQ; 19.}
20.}
When this bean class handles a message, which is correct?

A. After a messagedelivery theresultis1.

B. Aftera message delivery the resultis2.

C. Aftera message delivery the result is12.

D. Afteramessage delivery an exception isthrown.

E. After a message delivery the resultisunpredictable.

F. This isNOTanEJB3.0 compliant bean.
Answer: F
QUESTION: 39
Which statement is true about the primary key of a Java Persistence entity?

A. The primary key cannot be overriden by a mapping descriptor.
B. The location of the primary key defines the topmost entity class in the hierarchy.

C. If property-based access is used, the properties of the primary key class must be public or protected.
D. At least part of a primary key must be defined in the class that is the topmost class of an entity which is defined by a hierarchy of classes.

Answer: C
QUESTION: 40 A session bean calls the setRollbackOnly method on the EJBContext interface within a business method with an active transaction. Which two are correct? (Choose two.)
A. The transaction timeout is immediately disabled.
B. The container will ensure that the transaction will never commit.
C. The bean must have started the current transaction for this to be legal.
D. The bean must have bean-managed transaction demarcation for this to be legal.
E. Thebean must have container-managed transaction demarcation for this to be legal.

Answer: B, E
QUESTION: 41
Which statement about entity manager is true?

A. A container-managed entity manager must be a JTA entity manager.
B. An entity manager injected into session beans can use either JTA or resource-local transaction control.
C. An entity manager created by calling the EntityManagerFactory.createEntityManager method always uses JTA transaction control.
D. An entity manager obtained through resource injection in a stateful session bean can use a resource-local EntityTransaction for transaction control

Answer: A
QUESTION: 42
A Java Persistence application uses a Version attribute to manage concurrent updates.
Which is true?
A. The Version attribute must have a public access type.
B. The Version attribute is used by the persistence provider.
C. A separate Version attribute must be specified for each class in the inheritance hierarchy.
D. A separate Version column must be specified for each table mapped to the entity.

Answer: B
QUESTION: 43 A developer writes a stateful session bean FooBarBean with two local business interfaces Foo and Bar. The developer wants to write a business method called getBarfor interface Foo that returns a Bar reference to the same session bean identity on which the client invokes getBar. Which code, when inserted on Line 12 below, implements the getBar method with the wanted behavior? 10..Resource SessionContext sessionCtx;
11.
public BargetBarOJ
12.

13.}
A. return(Bar)this;

B. return(Bar) new FooBarBeanQ;

C. return (Bar) sessionCtx.lookup(“FooBarBean”)

D. return (Bar) sessionCtx.getBusinessObject(Bar.class);

E. InitialContextic= new InitialContextQ;
return (Bar) ic.lookup(“java:comp/env/ejb/FooBarBean”);
Answer: D
QUESTION: 44 Which statement about the combination of mapping defaults, annotations, and XML descriptors is correct?
A. All mapping annotations must always be processed by the persistence provider.
B. Some annotations, like the @Entity annotation, must always be processed by the persistence provider.
C. The mapping information for an entity class specified by annotations and in XML
descriptors must be distinct.

D. If multiple entity listeners are defined, the order in which they are invoked can be
defined or overwritten in the XML descriptor.

Answer: D
QUESTION: 45 A developer wants to release resources within a stateless session bean class. The cleanup method should be executed by the container before an instance of the class is removed. The deployment descriptor is NOT used. Which three statements are correct? (Choose three.)
A. The cleanup method may declare checked exceptions.
B. The cleanupmethodmusthave noarguments andreturn void.
C. The cleanup method isexecuted inan unspecifiedtransactionand security context.
D. The developer should mark the cleanup methodwiththe @PreDestroy annotation.
E. The developershouldmark thecleanupmethodwiththe @PostDestroy annotation.
F. Thecleanup method is executed inthetransactionandsecurity context ofthelast business method invocation.

Answer: B, C, D
QUESTION: 46
Given code snippets from two files:

7.
public class Dog {
8.
public void onMessage(Message m) { System, out. print(“1 “);
9.
1
And
10.
@MessageDriven
11.
class MessageDog extends Dog implements MessageDrivenBean
12.
MessageDog(Message m){ System, out. print(“2 “); }
13.}
Which four code changes, when used together, create a valid JMS message-driven bean?
(Choose four.

A. Make class MessageDog public.

B. Make the MessageDog constructor no-arg.

C. Make the MessageDog constructor public.

D. Move the onMessage method to class MessageDog.
E. Change MessageDog so that it is NOT a subclass of Dog.
F. Make class MessageDog implement MessageListener instead of MessageDrivenBean.
Answer: A, B, C, F
QUESTION: 47 A developer writes a stateless session bean FooBean with one remote business interface FooRemote containing one business method foo. Method foo takes a single parameter of application-defined type MyData.
11.
public class MyData implements Java. io.Serializablej
12.
int a; 13.}
Method foo is implemented within the FooBean class as:

11.
public void foo(MyData data) {
12.
data.a = 2; 13.}
Another session bean within the same application has a reference to FooRemote in
variable fooRef and calls method foo with the following code:

11.
MyData data = new MyDatafJ;
12.
data.a = 1;
13.
fooRef.foo(data);
14.
System, out. println(data. a);
What is the value of data, a when control reaches Line 14 of the client ?

A. 0

B. 1

C. 2

D. either1or 2
Answer: B
QUESTION: 48
EJB 3.0 containers must provide a specific subset of which two APIs? (Choose two.

A. JSP APIs
B. JavaMailAPIs
C. JAX-WS APIs
D. Java CardAPIs
E. Sun Studio APIs
Answer: B, C
QUESTION: 49
Given the following code in an EJB 3.0 session bean:

10.
@Resource(name=”jdbc/employeeDB”)
11.
private DataSource dataSource;
12.
13.
public void lookupEmployee(String id) {
14.
InitialContext ic = new InitialContextO;
15.
// insert code here
16.
DataSource ds = (DataSource) obj;
17.}
Which code, inserted at Line 15, portably looks up the injected resource?

A. Object obj = ic.lookup(“employeeDB”);

B. Object obj = ic.lookup(“dataSource”);

C. Object obj = ic.lookup(“jdbc/employeeDB”);

D. Object obj = ic.lookup(“javacomp/env/employeeDB”);

E. Object obj = ic.lookup(“java:comp/env/jdbc/employeeDB”);
Answer: E
QUESTION: 50 Which Java Persistence query uses the aggregate function correctly, assuming that chairs field is of type int?
A. SELECT ANY(r. chairs) FROM Room r
B. SELECT NEW Integer(MAX(r. chairs)) FROM Room r
C. SELECT r FROM Room r WHERE r.chairs > AVG(r.chairs)
D. SELECT c FROM Chair c WHERE LOCATE (c.type, lazyboy) > -1
Answer: B
QUESTION: 51

A session bean’s business method throws an exception during execution. Which two are responsibilities of the Bean Provider when throwing the exception? (Choose two.)
A. For application exceptions, ensure that if the current transaction commits there will be no loss of data integrity.
B. For application exceptions, ensurethatthe current transaction will commit.
C. For system errors, when the client is remote, throw a java.rmi.RemoteException that wraps the original exception.
D. For checked exceptions from which the bean cannot recover, throw an EJBException that wraps the original exception.

Answer: A, D
QUESTION: 52 A developer creates the following session bean: 10..Stateless
11.
@RolesAllowed(“SECRET”)

12.
public class MyBean implements Mylnterface {

13.
public void methodAOJ}

14.
@PermitAII

15.
public void methodB0 {}

16.
@DenyAII

17.
public void methodC0 {}

18.
} No deployment descriptor is supplied. Which two statements are true? (Choose two.)
A. Auserin the role “SECRET” will be able to accessallof the methods.
B. A user inthe role”FOO” will be able to accessmethodAandmethodB.
C. A user withoutanyrolewill beable to accessmethodBbut NOTmethodA.
D. A user in the role “SECRET”willbe able to accessmethodA andmethodB.
E. A userintherole “SYSADM” will be abletoaccessmethodA,methodB, and methodC.
Answer: C, D
QUESTION: 53

A developer wants to create a Java Persistence query to perform a bulk update operation on five different entity classes. All of these classes have a field called name. These classes have the following relationships: Harrier extends Dog and Dog extends Animal Vet extends Doctor What is the minimum possible number of operations required to change the value of the name field for all of the entities in all five classes?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 5
Answer: B

QUESTION: 54
A developer writes an enterprise application and packages it into an .ear file. The application contains two persistence units defined at the .ear level with persistence unit names FooPU and BarPU. The application also contains an ejb-jar with one stateless session bean. Which code, when added to the stateless session bean class, injects an EntityManagerFactory at runtime?
A. PersistenceUnit private EntityManagerFactory emf; B. PersistenceContext private EntityManagerFactory emf;
C. PersistenceUnit(unitName=”BarPU”) private EntityManagerFactory emf;
D. Resource(name=”BarPU”, type=EntityManagerFactory.class) private EntityManagerFactory emf;

Answer: C
QUESTION: 55 A developer is working on a user registration application using EJB 3.0. A business method registerUser in stateless session bean RegistrationBean performs the user registration. The registerUser method executes in a transaction context started by the client. If some invalid user data causes the registration to fail, the client invokes

registerUser again with corrected data using the same transaction. Which design can
meet this requirement?
A. Have registerUser method call EJBContext.setRollbackOnlyOmethodafter registration fails.
B. Have registerUser method throw javax.ejb.EJBTransactionRequiredExceptionafterregistration fails.
C. HaveregisterUser method throw EJBException without marking the transaction for rollback, after registration fails.
D. Create an application exception withtherollbackattributeset to falseandhave registerUser method throwit afterregistration fails.

Answer: D
QUESTION: 56
Which statement is true about the Timer service in an EJB 3.0 stateless session bean?

A. The timeout callback method contains the business logic that handles the timeout event.
B. The timeout callback method must be declared as a business method in business interfaces.
C. The timeout callback method can throw application exceptions to report business logic failures.
D. A bean class can implement multiple timeout callback methods, each associated with a different timer.

Answer: A
QUESTION: 57 A developer wants to create a portable EJB 3.0 application that includes the following class definition for the Entity Account: 11..Entity
12.
@Entityl_isteners(com. acme.AlertMonitor. class)

13.
public class Account {

14.
// more code here

15.
@PrePersist

16.
protected void validateCreate0 {/* more code here */} 17.}

Which statement is correct?
A. The validateCreate method may NOT throwruntimeexceptions.
B. ThevalidateCreate method can invoke the EntityManager.flush operation.
C. Methods oftheclass com.acme.AlertMonitor annotatedwithcallback annotationsmusttake an Object or Account instance astheonly argument.
D. The above class definition is NOT correct. An entity cannot defineacallback methodlike PrePersistand use the EntityListeners annotationatthe same time.

Answer: C
QUESTION: 58
Given this code snippet from a JMS message-driven bean class X:

11.
public XQ { System, out. print(“1 “); }
12.
public void onMessagefMessage m) throws Java. rmi. RemoteException
13.
try {
14.
TextMessage tm = (TextMessage) m;
15.
String text = tm.getText0;
16.
System, out. print(“2 “);
17.
} catch (JMSException e) {
18.
throw new java. rmi. RemoteExceptionQ;
19.}
20.}
When this bean class handles a message, which is correct?

A. After a messagedelivery theresultis1.

B. Aftera message delivery the resultis2.

C. Aftera message delivery the result is12.

D. Afteramessage delivery an exception isthrown.

E. After a message delivery the resultisunpredictable.

F. This isNOTanEJB3.0 compliant bean.
Answer: F
QUESTION: 59 FooBean is an EJB 3.0 session bean that can make valid use of UserTransaction. Which is guaranteed to work in an EJB container for FooBean to obtain the UserTransaclion object?

A. Invoke a method on a SessionContext that returns a UserTransaction object.
B. Perform JNDI lookup with name “java:/UserTransaction” on an InitialContext.
C. Perform JNDI lookup with the name “jdbc/UserTransaction” on an InitialContext.
D. Use the @TransactionManagement annotation to inject an instance variable of type UserTransaction in a bean class.

Answer: A
QUESTION: 60
An Application Assembler is given the following stateless session bean:
10..Stateless public class MyBean implements Mylnt {

11.
@RolesAllowed(“SECRET”)
12.
public void methodA(int x) {}
13.
public void methodA(String y) {}
14.
public void methodB(String z) {}
15.
}
A deployment descriptor is also supplied, a portion of which reads as follows:

20.
<method-permission>
21.
<role-name>AGENT</role-name>
22.
<method>
23.
<ejb-name>MyBean</ejb-name>
24.
<method-name>methodA</method-name>
25.
</method>
26.
</method-permission> Which statement is true?

A. A client in any rolewill beabletoaccess anyof themethods.

B. Aclient inthe role “AGENT” willbeable to access any ofthemethods.

C. A client in therole”SECRET” will be able to access any of the methods.

D. A client in the role “AGENT” will be abletoaccess methodB and
methodA(String), but not methodA(int).

E. Aclient in the role “SECRET” will beableto access methodA(int) and methodB,
but NOT methodA(String).
Answer: B
QUESTION: 61
A deployer is given the following session bean:
10..Stateless
11.
@RolesAllowed(“BATH”)

12.
@DeclareRoles(“SOAP”)

13.
public class ShowerBean implements Shower {

14.
public void plugO {} 15.}
and the following associated excerpt from the ejb-jar.xml descriptor file:

20.
<assembly-descriptor>
21.
<security-role>
22.
<role-name>TOWEL</role-name>
23.
</security-role>
24.
</assembly-descriptor>
Which roles is the deployer expected to map to users or user groups?

A. TOWEL

B. BATHandSOAP

C. BATH and TOWEL

D. BATH and SOAP and TOWEL
Answer: D
QUESTION: 62 A developer wants to release resources within a stateless session bean class. The cleanup method should be executed by the container before an instance of the class is removed. The deployment descriptor is NOT used. Which three statements are correct? (Choose three.)
A. The cleanup method may declare checked exceptions.
B. The cleanupmethodmusthave noarguments andreturn void.
C. The cleanup method isexecuted inan unspecifiedtransactionand security context.
D. The developer should mark the cleanup methodwiththe @PreDestroy annotation.
E. The developershouldmark thecleanupmethodwiththe @PostDestroy annotation.
F. Thecleanup method is executed inthetransactionandsecurity context ofthelast business method invocation.

Answer: B, C, D
QUESTION: 63
Which statement is true about the Timer service in an EJB 3.0 stateless session bean?
A. The timeout callback method contains the business logic that handles the timeout event.
B. The timeout callback method must be declared as a business method in business interfaces.
C. The timeout callback method can throw application exceptions to report business logic failures.
D. A bean class can implement multiple timeout callback methods, each associated with a different timer.

Answer: A
QUESTION: 64 Which is a valid way of injecting a container-managed transaction-scoped persistence context into an EJB 3.0 session bean assuming the application contains only one persistence unit?
A. @PersistenceUnit public EntityManager em;
B. @PersistenceContext private EntityManager em;
C. @TransactionManagement(TransactionManagementType. CONTAINER) public EntityManager em;
D. @Resource(name=”persistence/em”, authenticationType=AuthenticationType. CONTAINER) protected EntityManager em;

Answer: B
QUESTION: 65 A developer wants to perform programmatic access control inside EJB 3.0 session beans. This is needed because some permissions can be determined only at application runtime. Which method achieves this goal?
A. javax.ejb.EJBContext.getRollbackOnlyO
B. java.lang.SecurityManager.checkAccess(Thread t)
C. javax. interceptor. InvocationContext. getTargetO
D. javax. ejb. SessionContext.isCallerlnRole(String roleName)
E. javax. servlet. http. HttpServletRequest. getUserPrincipalQ
Answer: D
QUESTION: 66
Given the following entity class:

11.
@Entity public class Customer)
12.
@ld private int id;
13.
private transient String name;
14.
private Java. math. BigDecimal grossAmmount;
15.}
Which mapping annotation can be added to the fields of this entity?

A. @Columntothe name field

B. @Embeddedldto theid field

C. @Basictothe grossAmmountfield

D. @JoinColumnstothe grossAmmount field
Answer: C
QUESTION: 67 A developer writes a stateless session bean FooBean with one remote business interface FooRemote containing one business method foo. Method foo takes a single parameter of application-defined type MyData.
11.
public class MyData implements Java. io.Serializablej
12.
int a;
13.}
Method foo is implemented within the FooBean class as:

11.
public void foo(MyData data) {
12.
data.a = 2;
13.}
Another session bean within the same application has a reference to FooRemote in
variable fooRef and calls method foo with the following code:

11.
MyData data = new MyDatafJ;
12.
data.a = 1;
13.
fooRef.foo(data);
14.
System, out. println(data. a);
What is the value of data, a when control reaches Line 14 of the client ?

A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. either1or 2

Answer: B
QUESTION: 68 Given :
I. public class MyExceplion extends Exception {}
The remote business interface Foo declares a method workQ:

5. public void work0 throws MyException;
The bean class FooBean contains the following:
10..Stateless

II. @Remote(Foo.class)

12.
public class FooBean {
13.
public void workQ throws MyException {
14.
throw new MyException0;
15.}
Which exception can be received in the client as a result of invoking the work method?

A. a MyException

B. ajavax.ejb.ConcurrentAccessException

C. a javax. ejb. EJBException that wraps an instance of MyException as the rootcause

D. aJava.rmi. RemoteExceptionthatwraps an instance ofMyExceptionas the root cause
Answer: A
QUESTION: 69 A developer is working on a project that includes both EJB 2.1 and EJB 3.0 session beans. A lot of business logic has been implemented and tested in these EJB 2.1 session beans. Some EJB 3.0 session beans need to access this business logic. Which design approach can achieve this requirement?
A. Add adapted home interfaces to EJB 3.0 session beans to make EJB 3.0 and EJB 2.1 session beans interoperable.
B. Add EJB 3.0 business interfaces to existing EJB 2.1 session beans and inject references to these business interfaces into EJB 3.0 session beans.

C. No need to modify existing EJB 2.1 session beans. Use the @EJB annotation to inject
a reference to the EJB 2.1 home interface into the EJB 3.0 bean class.
D. No need to modify existing EJB 2.1 session beans. Use the @EJB annotation to inject a reference to the EJB 2.1 component interface into the EJB 3.0 bean class.

Answer: C
QUESTION: 70 A developer wants to implement a relationship between Company and Department entity classes. Every department belongs to one company, and one company has several departments. In this application it is essential to quickly determine which company a department belongs to and to also easily access all departments of a given company. Which two declarations provide a solution to these requirements? (Choose two.)
A. In class Department
@ManyToOne
private Company company;

B. In class Department
@OneToMany private
Company company;

C. In class Department:
@OneToMany(mappedBy=”department”) private Collection<Company> companies;

D. In class Company:
@ManyToOne(mappedBy=”company”)
private Collection<Department> departments;

E. In class Company:
@OneToMany(mappedBy=”company”)
private Collection<Department> departments;
Answer: A, E

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QUESTION 21
What requirements apply to shared storage on an HA Server Pool?
A. Each server in the pool must have a connection to the shared storage, using NFS, ISCSI or a SAN Either ext3 or OCFS2 should be used to format the shared file system.
B. Each server in the pool must have a connection to the shared storage, using NFS, (SCSI or a SAN. Either gfs or OCFS2 should be used to format the shared file system.
C. t least one server in the pool must have a connection to the shared storage, using iSCSI or a SAN. Either ext3 or OCFS2 should be used to format the shared file system.
D. Each server in the pool must have a connection to the shared storage, using iSCSI or a SAN. Only OCFS2 should be used to format the shared file system when using iSCSI or a SAN.
E. Each server in the pool must have a connection to the shared storage, using NFS, iSCSI or a SAN. Only OCFS2 should be used to format the shared file system when using iSCSI or a SAN.
Correct Answer: E Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 22
In a paravirtualized environment, which answer best describes the drivers that are used in domO and the guest to communicate block I/O requests?
A. A blkback driver is used in dom0, and a blkfront driver is used in the guest.
B. A native device driver is used in dom0, and a blkback driver is used in the guest.
C. A blkfront driver is used in dom0, and a native device driver is used in the guest.
D. A blkfront driver is used in dom0, and a blkbck driver is used in the guest.
E. Native drivers are used in both dom0 and the guest.
Correct Answer: A Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 23
In Oracle VM 2.2.x, what directory will the root repository be symbolically linked to on each Oracle VM Server attached to a storage pool?
A. /OVS3
B. /var/ovs/mount/root
C. /var/ovs/mount/OVSROOT

D. /OVSROOT
E. /var/OVS
F. /opt/ovs
Correct Answer: E Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The /OVS directory is the cluster root and is a symbolic link mounted to the /var/ovs/mount/uuid directory. For example, the mount command might display something similar to: # mount example.com:/OVS on /var/ovs/mount/F4135C096045458195057412169071E5 type nfs (rw,addr=192.168.2.20) And the ls command might display something similar to: # ls -l /OVS lrwxrwxrwx 1 root root 47 Sep 18 16:15 /OVS -> /var/ovs/mount/F4135C096045458195057412169071E5
QUESTION 24
During installation of Oracle VM Manager to a new Oracle Enterprise Linux server, the installer fails with a message indicating that there is insufficient swap space.
What is the cause for this error?
A. The installer has determined that the Oracle application server’s (OC4J) minimum requirement for swap space has not been met.
B. The installer has determined that the Oracle Database XE server’s minimum requirement for swap space has not been met.
C. The installer has determined that there is insufficient swap space to unpack the installer into the /var subdirectory.
D. The installer has determined that the swap space recognized by the system has been incorrectly formatted to use TMPFS instead of SWAPFS.
Correct Answer: B Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 25
In a paravirtualized environment, which answer best describes the drivers that are used in domO and the guest to communicate network I/O requests?
A. A netback driver is used in dom0, and a netfront driver is used in the guest.
B. A native device driver is used in dom0, and a netback driver is used in the guest.
C. A netfront driver is used in dom0, and a native device driver is used in the guest.
D. A netfront driver is used in dom0, and a blkbck driver is used in the guest.
E. Native drivers are used in both dom0 and the guest.
Correct Answer: A Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
http://mokumsolutions.com/chapter-2-oracle-vm-x86-reference-design-and-architectural- introduction
QUESTION 26
The Oracle VM administrator is having issues shutting down a virtual machine. Which log file will best help troubleshoot whether the shutdown command is being successfully executed on the target server?
A. /var/log/ovs-agent/ovs_performance.log
B. /var/log/ovs-agent/ovs_operation.log
C. /var/log/xen/xend.log
D. /var/log/xen/xend-debug.log
Correct Answer: C Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 27
Oracle VM Server 2.2 consists of which two software components?
A. Oracle Database XE
B. Oracle Enterprise Linux 5.3
C. Xen Hypervisor
D. Oracle Containers for Java (OC4J)
E. Oracle WebLogic Server (WLS)

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QUESTION 21
Service Oriented Integration (SOI) exposes capabilities from existing source systems. Which statement best describes the Impact SOI has on existing source systems?
A. Because SOI exposes only existing capabilities, any new required functionality will be implemented by modifying the existing source systems.
B. No modifications to existing source systems are allowed because SOA Services expose all the necessary capabilities from the source systems.
C. Modifications to existing source systems should be avoided, but may be necessary to support SOA Service creation.
D. To support SOA Service connectivity, modifications will be required for the existing source systems incorporated into the SOI architecture.

Correct Answer: C Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Some minor modifications may be required to support connectivity, but requiring extensive modifications
defeats a major reason for integration.

It must be noted that creating a SOA Service from existing assets generally requires a good deal more
than just adding a standards-based interface, i.e. simply service enabling existing assets is insufficient.
The SOA Service needs to expose process, functionality, and data that is usable in a broader context than
the source of the capability was designed to meet. Therefore, creating a SOA Service usually entails some
amount of aggregation, transformation, or expansion of existing capabilities provided by the source
systems. This requires a SOA Services layer between the existing assets and the consumers as illustrated
in the figure.
Note: The primary goal of service-oriented integration is to better leverage existing systems within the IT environment by applying service-oriented principles. Ultimately, the goal is to enable the assembly of composite applications, with little or no custom coding, that include capabilities sourced from existing systems. Composite applications are applications that pull together data, functionality, and process from multiple existing sources to solve a business problem or create new business value. Service-oriented integration is the mechanism to expose existing sources of data, functionality, and process so that those sources can be readily consumed by a composite application. Service construction includes creating entirely new SOA Services and also exposing existing assets as SOA Services. References:
QUESTION 22
IT Strategies from Oracle (ITSO) Includes multiple Enterprise Technology Strategies. Why are there multiple Enterprise Technology Strategies within ITSO?
A. Each enterprise Technology Strategy documents the architecture for a particular Oracle product.
B. Each Enterprise Technology Strategy provides Oracle product details that are important to the technology strategy.
C. An Enterprise Technology Strategy provides detailed guidance on deploying the oracle products that are important to the technology strategy.
D. Each Enterprise technology Strategy provides a reference architecture and practical guidance to achieve success with specific new technology.
E. Each Enterprise Technology Strategy provides industry-vertical reference architecture and practical guidance.

Correct Answer: D Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: IT Strategies from Oracle (ITSO) is a series of documentation and supporting material designed to enable organizations to develop an architecture-centric approach to enterprise-class IT initiatives. ITSO presents successful technology strategies and solution designs by defining universally adopted architecture concepts, principles, guidelines, standards, and patterns.
ITSO is made up of three primary elements Oracle Reference Architecture (ORA), Enterprise Technology Strategies (ETS) and Enterprise Solution Designs (ESD).
Enterprise Technology Strategies (ETS) offer valuable guidance on the adoption of horizontal technologies for the enterprise. They explain how to successfully execute on a strategy by addressing concerns pertaining to architecture, technology, engineering, strategy, and governance. An organization can use this material to measure their maturity, develop their strategy, and achieve greater levels of adoption and success. In addition, each ETS extends the Oracle Reference Architecture by adding the unique capabilities and components provided by that particular technology. It offers a horizontal technology-based perspective of ORA.
References:
QUESTION 23
The Mediation Layer in the Logical View of the Service-Oriented Integration architecture provides several capabilities. Which of the following are capabilities provided by the Mediation Layer?
A. enrichment – adding data elements to a data entity to give the entity increased Information
B. routing – sending the client request to the appropriate provider (s) based on some criteria
C. message transformation – converting the request message format to a different message form, appropriate for the provider
D. choreography – defining the messages that flow back and forth between systems that are participating in a business process
E. protocol mediation – converting a client request from one protocol to a different protocol used by provider

Correct Answer: BCE Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The Mediation Layer provides loose coupling for the entire architecture. It decouples the layers of the
architecture as well as decoupling external users of the layers from the specific layers in the architecture.
The key capabilities in this layer include:

*
Routing – Routing provides the ability to send the client request to the appropriate provider based on
some criteria. The routing may even include sending the client request to multiple providers. This capability
facilitates location transparency, versioning, scalability, partitioning, request pipelining, SLA management,
etc.
*
Protocol Mediation – Protocol mediation is the ability to handle a client request using one protocol (e.g.
WS*, JMS, REST) with a provider using a different protocol. This provides protocol decoupling between the
provider and the consumer.
Message Transformation – Message transformation allows a client request using one message format to
be handled by a provider that expects a different message format. This provides message format
decoupling between the provider and the consumer.
*
Discovery – Discovery is the mechanism by which a client finds a provider of a particular SOA Service.
Discovery can occur at design time or runtime.
*
Monitoring – Monitoring captures runtime information about the messages flowing through the mediation
layer. Since the mediation layer is an intermediary for message traffic, it provides a centralized monitoring
capability.
*
Policy Enforcement – Policy enforcement provides consistent application of policies (e.g. WS-
SecurityPolicy) across all messages flowing through the mediation layer. Since the mediation layer is an
intermediary for message traffic, it provides a centralized policy enforcement capability.

References:
QUESTION 24
Which one of the following types of access control should be used when access to a resource is dependent upon specific qualities of the user, for example, membership status, frequency of purchases, or level of certification?
A. role-based access control
B. rule-based access control
C. discretionary access control
D. content-dependent access control
E. attribute-based access control
Correct Answer: C Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Content dependent access control involves restricting access to content, such as documents and emails,
based on embedded keywords or certain assigned metadata. It works by inspecting the content and
applying rules to determine if access is permitted. This approach is taken by many Data Loss Prevention
solutions. It is possible to combine content dependent access control with role-based access control in
order to restrict access to content by established roles.

References:

QUESTION 25
BPM and SOA are frequently combined to provide greater business value than either technology provides independently. Which statements are true with regard to combining the BPM Technology Perspective and SOA Technology Perspective?
A. A Business Process may invoke a SOA Services to perform specific tasks within the process flow.
B. A Business Process may be exposed as a SOA Service.
C. When combining SOA and BPM, all the tasks within a Business Process are accomplished via Services.
D. A Business Process may invoke an SOA Service, but an SOA Service cannot invoke a Business Process.
E. Every business Process is exposed as a SOA Service.

Correct Answer: ABD Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

Note E: BPM processes and sub-processes can (but are not required) themselves be exposed as SOA Services. This enables processes to be composed of SOA Services that are implemented as processes. It can be beneficial in two ways. First, it improves reuse of lower level system-centric processes (i.e. service orchestrations), and second, it offers a standard interface mechanism with which to invoke all types of business processes.
Note: BPM and SOA are often used together, as they both support a closer alignment between business and IT, and they both promote agility. BPM targets alignment and agility at the process level, while SOA applies more at the activity level. Hence, business processes and SOA Services can represent business constructs, providing a mapping between the things business does and the way IT helps get it done. The convergence of BPM and SOA generally happens via process decomposition. That is when business processes are modeled as, (i.e. decomposed into), activities. All automated activities must be backed by some form of executable code or function call. These functions, if they are deemed worthy, can be engineered as SOA Services following service-oriented design principles. Agility at the process level is attained by changing the process model. Agility at the service level is achieved by deploying services that are loosely coupled and independently managed.
QUESTION 26
Which of the following interactions does not occur as part of a web-based single sign-on scenario?
A. A gateway, deployed In the Web Server, intercepts requests destined for protected resource
B. The user is prompted for login credentials when a protected resource is accessed and the user has not (recently) logged In.
C. Credentials are passed to the application for validation.
D. Authorization checks are optionally performed before the user is permitted access to the application.
E. A cookie is returned, which is used to permit access to other protected resources in that domain

Correct Answer: C Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The application does not handle the validation.

QUESTION 27
Which are the major categories of ORA Engineering capabilities?
A. Integrated Development
B. Asset Management
C. Event Processing
D. Service Engineering

Correct Answer: AB Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The broad categories that define ORA Engineering are:

*
Integrated development
This covers a wide range of engineering capabilities required to model, design and build solutions. These
capabilities go beyond simple editing and include advanced capabilities to support round-trip engineering,
integrated testing, deployment, and asset management.
*
Asset Management
Asset Management deals with the visibility, management and governance of assets and asset metadata. It
covers the capabilities required to effectively manage enterprise assets.
*
Quality Management
Quality Management capabilities ensure that the developed solution meets the enterprise standards and
pass the exit criteria. Quality Management covers testing, defect management, and continuous integration.
*
Deployment Management
Deployment Management deals with building, packaging, migration, and deployment of assets.
References:
QUESTION 28
Enterprise Architecture consists of Business Architecture, Application Architecture, Information, Architecture and Technical Architecture (BAIT). Which statement best describes Oracle Reference Architecture (ORA) in the context of BAIT?
A. ORA addresses all four (Business, Application, Information, and Technical) equally.
B. ORA is primarily focused on the Technical Architecture, with some content on the other three aspects-of BAIT.
C. ORA has content applicable to the Technical Architecture only.
D. ORA is primarily focused on the Business Architecture, with some content on the other three aspects of BAIT
E. ORA is primarily focused on the information Architecture, with some limited content on the other three aspects of BAIT.
F. ORA has content applicable to Information Architecture only.

Correct Answer: A Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: Oracle Reference Architecture(ORA) defines a detailed and consistent reference architecture for developing and integrating solutions based on current technologies from Oracle and other vendors. The reference architecture offers architecture views, principles, and guidance based on recommendations from technical experts across Oracle. It covers a broad spectrum of concerns pertaining to technology architecture, including middleware, database, hardware, processes, and services.

QUESTION 29
Which of the following statements are true?
A. (OWCS) provides components for reverse proxy, personalization, customization, social computing, and analytics.
B. Oracle WebCenter (OWC) provides the Resource Tier of the Oracle Reference Architecture User Interaction.
C. Oracle HTTP Server (OHS) provides the standard communication protocols (for example, HTTP) between the Client Tier and the Service Tier as well as the Message Security between the Client Tier and Service Tier.
D. Oracle Meta Data Services (OMDS) stores customization, personalization, and other metadata in a repository
E. Oracle WebLogic Suite (OWLS) is used in Oracle Reference Architecture User Interaction to enable Ontology languages for the Semantic Web

Correct Answer: BD Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
B: Oracle WebCenter (OWC) – provides the foundation for delivering a modern user experience for Oracle Fusion Middleware as well as Oracle Fusion Applications. OWC is composed of four main components as illustrated in the figure:

D: Oracle Meta Data Services (OMDS) – stores customization, personalization, and other metadata in a repository. The repository can either be stored in a database or in file-based storage.
QUESTION 30
The Oracle Reference Architecture (ORA) includes the concept of Technology Perspectives. Which statements are true concerning ORA and Technology Perspectives?
A. Each Technology Perspective focuses on a particular set of products and technology.
B. A Technology Perspectiveincludesboth reference architecture views as well as practical guidance and approaches for successfully implementing the changes required to embrace the products and technology.
C. The Technology Perspectives can be used individually or in combinations, for example, SOA with BI.
D. The Technology Perspectives can be used individually or in combinations. When used in combinations, the SOA Technology Perspective must be included.
E. Each Technology Perspective is part of ORA and is part of an Enterprise Technology Strategy; i.e. a Technology Perspective is the connection between ORA and an Enterprise Technology.

Correct Answer: ACDE Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: Technology perspectives extend the core material by adding the unique capabilities, components, standards, and approaches that a specific technology strategy offers.(A) SOA, BPM, EPM/BI, and EDA are examples of perspectives for ORA. Each technology strategy presents unique requirements to architecture that includes specific capabilities, principles, components, technologies, standards, etc. Rather than create another reference architecture for each strategy, ORA was designed to be extensible to incorporate new computing strategies as they emerge in the industry.
In order to present the reference architecture in the most effective manner, each new technology strategy adds a perspective to ORA. This enables the reference architecture to evolve holistically. New computing strategies extend the core material, providing further insight and detail as needed. A perspective extends the ORA core collateral by providing views, principles, patterns, and guidelines that are significant to that technology domain yet cohesive with the overall ORA. The perspective includes:
*
A foundation document describing the terms, concepts, standards, principles, etc. that are important to the ETS.

*
An infrastructure document that defines a reference architecture built using the technologies pertinent to the ETS.
References:
QUESTION 31
Oracle Web Services Manager uses an agent-based approach to providing Web Services security. Where are these agents deployed?
A. In any IPv4 of Later network firewall
B. In the Oracle WebLogic Server Web Service request Interceptors
C. In the Oracle Service Bus proxy pipeline
D. In the Oracle Access Manager web gate
E. In the Oracle WebLogic Server access gate

Correct Answer: D Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
You use the Web Services Manager Control Console to define Oracle Web Services Manager components
such as server agents. The server agent acts as an enforcement point for security policies.

Point your browser to the Web Services Manager Control Console and log in using your single sign-on
user name and password.
The Web Services Manager Control Console is accessed with a URL of the form:
http://<hostname>:port_number/ccore

QUESTION 32
Your company has decided to create an Enterprise Architecture following. The Open Group Architecture Framework (TOGAF). Which option best describes how the IT Strategies from Oracle (ITSO) library of material relates to this TOGAF-based Initiative?
A. ITSO has minimal applicability because TOGAF is a complete architecture framework.
B. The ITSO material can be used as reference material within the TOGAF approach.
C. The TOGAF approach will need to be modified (customized) to incorporate the ITSO material.
D. The ITSO material will need to be adapted to the TOGAF approach.
E. TOGAF and ITSO are mutually exclusive. One or the other must be chosen as the basis for the company’s Enterprise Architecture.

Correct Answer: A Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: The ITSO, and, being part of it, the Oracle Reference Architecture is not an Architecture Framework. For this, many solutions are already available, of which TOGAF andOracle’s Enterprise Architecture Framework (OEAF) are good examples. The ORA can be perfectly integrated in any of the currently available frameworks.
Note: The IT Strategies from Oracle give you a whole library of whitepapers, not only to develop a Reference Architecture for your own, by adapting the ORA to your needs, but it also focuses on the surrounding Enterprise Technology Strategies and Enterprise Solution Designs. In other words, ITSO covers both the horizontal technology perspectives (SOA, BPM, EDA, etc.), but also the vertical business perspectives (Utilities, Government, etc.).Now, in case you think that this is all about Oracle Technology products, you might be surprised: the whole ITSO / Oracle Reference Architecture is Vendor-Neutral. It is only scoped to Oracle’s product portfolio. Now, one might ask themselves: what technology product area’s doesn’t Oracle have products for, so that shouldn’t be too much of an issue as far as completeness is concerned.ITSO can help you organizing complex product landscapes, by means of a holistic approach to technology adoption. By covering the technology as a whole, you can reduce risk and become more in control of your IT solutions.
QUESTION 33
Which of the following are strategies for alert management with Oracle Enterprise Manager?
A. controlling the volume of alerts
B. removing unwanted alerts
C. centralized filtering of alerts
D. automating fix for common alerts

Correct Answer: BD Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
B: New in Enterprise Manager 10g Release 5 (10.2.0.5)
Alert Management Enhancements: Administrators can better manage their log-based alerts (e.g., alert log
alerts) by setting duration-based notification rules that clear such alerts on a periodic basis, or by using
new EMCLI verbs that support bulk clearing of such alerts.

D: New in Enterprise Manager 10g Release 5 (10.2.0.5)
Alert Management Enhancements: On-demand evaluation of alerts allow administrators to quickly verify
whether the fixes implemented for alerts result in clearing of the alert.

Note: Advanced alert management
QUESTION 34
Which of the following token profiles is not included in the WS-Security standard as a standard type of identity token?
A. XACML token profile
B. SAML token profile
C. username token profile
D. Kerberos token profile
E. X.500 token profile

Correct Answer: A Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
TheWS-Securityspecification allows a variety of signature formats, encryption algorithms and multiple trust domains, and is open to various security token models, such as:
*
X.509 certificates (not E)

*
Kerberos tickets (not D) *UserID/Password credential (not C)

*
SAML Assertions (not B) *custom-defined tokens.
Note: WS-Security (Web Services Security, short WSS) is a flexible and feature-rich extension to SOAP to apply security to web services. It is a member of the WS-* family of web service specifications and was published by OASIS.
QUESTION 35
Which of the following is NOT defined as a primary ORA computing foundation component?
A. Distributed Computing
B. Utility Computing
C. Grid Computing
D. Caching

Correct Answer: D Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: Primary ORA computing foundation components: Distributed Computing On-Demand Computing Utility Computing Grid Computing Cloud Computing Elastic Computing Virtualization
References:
QUESTION 36
Which of the following capabilities are provided by containers?
A. Transaction Support
B. Security Support
C. Thread Management
D. Business Processes

Correct Answer: ABC Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Containers provide several capabilities that include the following:
Transaction Support (A)
Security Support (B)

Scalability and Performance Thread Management (C) Data and Code Integrity Centralized Configuration Connection and Session Management Abstraction
References:
QUESTION 37
Which of the following Oracle products provides a comprehensive Integrated Development Environment (IDE)?
A. Oracle Enterprise Pack for Eclipse
B. Oracle JDeveloper
C. Oracle Service Registry
D. Enterprise Manager

Correct Answer: AB Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
A: Oracle Enterprise Pack for Eclipse is a free set of certified plug-ins, enabling WebLogic developers to support Java EE and Web Service standards. Oracle Enterprise Pack for Eclipse supports development with technologies including Database, Java SE, Java EE, Web Services, XML, Spring Framework and Oracle Fusion Middleware.
B: Oracle JDeveloper is a free integrated development environment that simplifies the development of Java-based SOA applications and user interfaces with support for the full development life cycle.
Incorrect answers
Oracle Service Registry and Enterprise Manager are not development tools.

QUESTION 38
Which of the following statements best describes how the deployment supports closed-loop governance?
A. The Metadata Repository is integrated with the operational systems to link operational metrics to the assets to ensure that the assets perform asintended.
B. The Metadata Repositories deployed in each environment are chained to share asset usage information.
C. A closed-loop governance framework is deployed on a clustered server to monitor the governance activities.
D. Production systems are integrated to the developer desktops to validate the requirements against the implemented code.

Correct Answer: BC Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
SOA Software’s Policy Manager and Service Manager combine to form a comprehensive closed-loop SOA
Governance solution.

Closed loop means:

*
Defining and managing actionable policies in a governance solution at design-time

*
Enforcing these policies via deep integration with a management solution at run-time

*
Auditing that these policies are being enforced

*
Using industry standards (WS-Policy, WS-MEX) where appropriate for information exchange Closed loop infrastructure enables demand and Value Management

*
Collect performance, usage and exception statistics at run-time

*
Track these statistics via the governance solution

*
Use live, audited information to drive value-based decisions about the effectiveness of different services and organizations

*
Provide developers with up to the minute information about a service in runtime to inform their decisions about which services to use

*
Manage supply and demand to ensure maximum efficiency and benefit from SOA

The products share a common registry and metadata repository to ensure seamless integration and offer active governance. Closed-loop governance will:

*
Ensure defined policies are enforced ** When you define a policy for a service you have to KNOW categorically that it is being enforced ** Generate audit trails for run-time and design-time policy compliance

*
Measure the real-world value of SOA ** Not just theoretical value ** How many applications are using each service, and how much are they using it ** NOT how many applications have asked to use a certain capacity of each service

*
Manage, monitor and control relationships between consumers and providers ** Enforced contracts ** Capacity planning Change management
The diagram below shows the relationships between SOA governance, security and management, demonstrating how SOA Policy Management forms a closed loop of policy, metrics, and audit.

http://www.soa.com/images/img_closed_loop.gif
QUESTION 39
Which of the following are common uses of an Attribute Service?
A. to maintain metadata pertaining to audit log entries and attestation reports
B. to acquire data that are necessary to make access-control decisions
C. to securely supply personally identifiable information to applications
D. to determine which security policy is assigned to a Web Service

Correct Answer: BC Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The Attribute Service(AS) retrieves user information from an attribute store. The AS retrieves user
information associated with a user from variety of authoritative identity stores including, but not limited to,
LDAP and database stores.

QUESTION 40
Conventional Management and Monitoring tools focus and produce metrics on which one of the following?
A. holistically across heterogeneous systems
B. metrics that measure individual resources
C. metrics that focus on understanding the relationship and Interactions between component
D. metrics that capture the combined behavior of several components interacting with the shared component

Correct Answer: B Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Conventional tools tend to focus and produce metrics on individual resources which is inadequate for an
agile shared services computing environment.

Note:
A metric is a unit of measurement used to report the health of the system that is captured from the
monitored infrastructure components. Metrics from all monitored infrastructure components are stored and
aggregated in the Management Repository, providing administrators with a rich source of diagnostic
information and trend analysis data.

References:

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QUESTION 21
All commands executed by toolbar icons can be accessed from three menus. Select the three menus.
A. Action
B. Copy
C. Edit
D. Paste
E. View
F. Remove
G. Modify

Correct Answer: ACE Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
A: Note: To facilitate a streamlined, role-specific configuration of P6 Web Access, your administrator can assign you to a user interface view that corresponds to your role and work processes in your organization. The tabs, tab icons, and action menu items that you can access in each section of P6 Web Access, and the order in which they appear, depend on your user interface view settings
C: The Edit menu is a standard Windows menu that lets you do common actions such as cut, copy, and paste.
E: The View menu is quite extensive, and the items available vary as you view different modules.
Note:
When you log into P6 the first time, you should be presented with a screen similar to the following screenshot:
QUESTION 22
Yon are working with a customer that has had a legacy Primavera release installed and running in their environment for four years, the CIO tells you that the current EPS does not show the data the way he would like to view it, and, therefore, he would like to restructure the entire EPS.
Before proceeding, what four options would you present to the CIO so that organizational Impacts are eliminated?
A. Modify the EPS.
B. Identify the reporting requirements.
C. Restructure the OBS.
D. Add project codes
E. Modify global filters.
F. Create user-specific filters.
G. Modify Group and Sort.

Correct Answer: ABDE Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
E: Global filters are made available to anyone working in the database,
QUESTION 23
What is the significance of the “Summarize project based on detailed activity resource assignments” setting?
A. Summarized project data will reflect top-down plans.
B. Summarized project data will reflect bottom-up plans.
C. Summarized project data will reflect integrated actuals.
D. Summarized project data will be monetized.

Correct Answer: B Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Use the Detail Activity Resource Assignments option for in-progress projects when you want to review detailed activity-level summarized data, for example, for
earned value reporting.

Note: `Summarize Project Based on’ determines whether the Summarizer calculates and displays rolled-up data based on resource assignments at the activity or
project level. Note 2: You can summarize project data to a specific WBS level when calculating and maintaining summary data.
QUESTION 24
You are a project manager addressing risk responses in your Risk Register. As you created your Risk Register, you also created multiple mitigating/response plans for each risk. Identify the functionality that will indicate which response plan is primary.
A. Response plan marked Active
B. Response plan with the closest start date
C. Response plan with lowest cost
D. Response plan marked highest priority

Correct Answer: A Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Response Plan row: Create one or more response plans while you are in the planning phase and indicate the response type. When you have analyzed your
response options, choose one response plan by selecting the Active option next to the appropriate response plan.

In the example below, two response plans have been created for the Concrete supply constrained risk. The first plan is to accept the risk and take no action; the
second plan is to reduce the impact of the risk by contracting with alternative suppliers. You can see this second plan was selected as the plan of choice.
Note:
*
A risk register and risk scoring matrix provide a system for monitoring and tracking risks.

*
Rather than having a single response, you can create multiple responses to a risk.

*
Once you have established your risks, you can view the Probability and Impact Diagram, which shows how the risks are coded. Several pre-defined PID matrices have been provided from which we can choose.

References:
QUESTION 25
Where are risk response plans captured?
A. In the Risk Scoring Matrix
B. In the Activity Notebook for Risk
C. In the Risk Register
D. In the Project Notebook for Risk

Correct Answer: C Explanation Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The Response Plans detail window is the area in the risk register where you create plans for handling the identified risks. Once you have identified which project
risks need further action, create a response plan and assign response plan action items for each risk to reduce the negative impact on the project.

Example below:
References:
QUESTION 26
You received an e-mail from a portfolio manager asking you to check performance metrics for the past months on each of the projects filtered for that portfolio.
You cannot locate the portfolio that the email references.
What is the probable cause?
A. It is a user portfolio created by the portfolio manager.
B. It is a user-filtered portfolio that has not been refreshed.
C. You do not have the appropriate license for the web interface.
D. You have not been assigned as a resource to the projects.

Correct Answer: B Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 27
Identify the best definition of the EPS.
A. The hierarchical definition of project budgets and actual costs.
B. The hierarchical definition of reporting structures.
C. The hierarchical structure of the security for projects.
D. The hierarchical structure of the database of projects.

Correct Answer: D Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Enterprise Project Structure (EPS)
The EPS is the outsider’s view of your company, showing your lines of business. The EPS is laid out in a tree structure.
The EPS is used to organize and manage the projects in your organization. Your database of projects is arranged in a hierarchy called the enterprise project
structure (EPS).

QUESTION 28
Identify the true statement regarding user-interface views.
A. Deleting a user-interface view that has assigned users could cause user issues.
B. Each user may be assigned to multiple user-interface views.
C. User-interface views overwrite project and global security profiles.
D. User-interface views are created and managed by individual users.

Correct Answer: B Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
A user interface view is a customized view of the Dashboards, Portfolios, Projects, and Resources sections of P6 Web Access typically associated with a role.

QUESTION 29
You are an implementation consultant working at a company where project schedules have been managed primarily with Microsoft Project, on individual desktops. The “projects” theoretically have been multiple-year projects. Your scope of work includes migrating project data from legacy project plans and setting up project planning standards. As you look into the current Microsoft Project plans, it becomes clear that the projects are not really multi-year projects. The plans have been managed by creating “new” projects within the old projects by skipping a few lines in what has become more of a program history.
What approach would you recommend to retain the legacy data (which is a mandated requirement in the new Primavera system), while moving forward with a “one project, one plan” process?

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