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QUESTION 1
How many queues per subscriber can be allocated using a high-speed Media Dependent Adapter (HS-MDA)?
A. 64 ingress or egress queues
B. 16 ingress and 16 egress queues
C. 8 ingress and 8 egress queues
D. 8 ingress or egress queues

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 2
What is the ultimate goal of Triple Play services?
A. To bring Ethernet technologies to the subscriber’s home.
B. To assist providers in managing their IP networks.
C. To move HSI, voice, and video onto a converged IP core.
D. To accelerate the deployment of MPLS in the provider network.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 3
Which of the following elements is part of the access network?
A. IP phone
B. RG
C. BSAN
D. BNG

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 4
Which of the following is correct in a VLAN per all services for all subscribers?
A. One port per BSAN
B. One port per service
C. One SAP per service
D. One SAP per BSAN

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 5
In numbered WAN scenarios, which protocol will configure the IPv4 address of an RG?
A. DHCP
B. LCP
C. IPCP
D. ARP
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 6
Which network element will add the PPPoE Relay Tag? A.RG
B. BSAN
C. BSA
D. BNG

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 7
A subscriber-host gets an IP address from the RG using SLAAC and all prefixes are centrally managed. How does the RG receive the correct information?
A. The RG receives the prefix from the BNG using SLAAC.
B. The RG receives the prefix information encapsulated in a DHCPv4 message.
C. The RG receives the IA_PD in a DHCPv6 message.
D. The RG receives the IA_NA in a DHCPv6 message.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 8
In an FTTU deployment, what device in the home network is used to connect to the provider access network?
A. DSL modem
B. DSLAM
C. ONT
D. P-OLT

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 9
What information is typically present in the option 82 attribute of the DHCP Discover message relayed from an Alcatel-Lucent BSAN?
A. Agent user ID
B. Agent circuit ID
C. Agent vendor ID
D. Agent BSAN ID

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 10
Assume a subscriber only requested one multicast group. Which feature should be enabled on the BSAN to ensure the subscriber only receives data from the multicast group requested?
A. IGMP proxy
B. IGMP snooping
C. MC replicator
D. IGMP querier

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 11
The DHCP clients’ formal request to the DHCP server for an offered IP address is contained in which DHCP message type?
A. DHCP Discover
B. DHCP Request
C. DHC Pack
D. DHCP Offer

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 12
What is the RG’s access connection towards the service provider in FTTN?
A. Copper DSL technology
B. GPON technology
C. BPON technology
D. EPON technology

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 13
Which message is sent from the DHCPv6 server to the lightweight DHCPv6 relay agent?
A. Advertise
B. Confirm
C. Relay-Forward
D. Relay-Reply

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 14
An Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR has a subscriber interface configured with multiple subnets. How is the subnet that is used for subscriber IP address allocation determined?
A. The DHCP server assigns an IP address based on the gi-address configured on the RG.
B. The DHCP server assigns an IP address based on the gi-address configured in the subscriber interface context on the BSA.
C. The DHCP server assigns an IP address based on the gi-address configured in the group interface context.
D. The DHCP server assigns an IP address based on the option 82 information inserted by the BSA.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 15
What do IPv6CP Req/Ack messages use to identify the peer?
A. Circuit ID
B. Remote ID
C. Interface ID
D. SAPID

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 16
In a Routed CO architecture, which of the following is FALSE?
A. Subscriber sessions are created on the BNG.
B. IPv4 is supported for IPoE and PPPoE.
C. IPv6 is supported only for IPoE.
D. PPPoE is supported on IES and VPRN.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 17
How can the number of subscribers on a SAP be limited when using ESM?
A. Use the lease-populate command to secure a finite number of hosts.
B. Use the host-limit command.
C. Use the multi-sub-sap command.
D. Use the antispoofip-mac command.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 18
The pppoe-access-method in the authentication policy context has been set to ” none ” . What will happen during the authentication of a PPPoE subscriber-host?
A. It will be denied access by the authentication policy.
B. It will be allowed access by the authentication policy.
C. It will be forwarded to the radius server for authentication.
D. It will be forwarded to the local-user database for authentication.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 19
To support dual stack subscribers, what is the minimum version of the IOM card on the Alcatel- Lucent 7750 SR?
A. IOM-10g
B. IOM-20g-b
C. IOM2-20g
D. IOM3-xp

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 20
Which of the following about Change of Authorization (CoA) is FALSE ?
A. CoA can change the SLA-profile.
B. CoA can change the IP address of the hosts, if dynamically allocated.
C. CoA can change the subscriber’s ADSL line set up.
D. CoA can create a new subscriber-host.

Correct Answer: C

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Question No : 1 – (Topic 1)
Four routers in a domain are configured as BSR candidate. Router A is configured with a BSR priority of 10, Router B is configured with a BSR priority of 100. Router C and Router D are at the default value. Router D has the highest IP address. Which router will be elected the PIM BSR?
A. Router A
B. Router B
C. Router C
D. Router D

Answer: B
Question No : 2 – (Topic 1)
Refer to the exhibit.

Which router is this screen capture taken from?
A. Any router in the PIM multicast domain
B. Only from the Candidate-RP
C. Only from the Candidate-BSR
D. Only from the elected BSR

Answer: A
Refer to the exhibit.

Which router is this screen capture taken from?
A. Any router in the PIM multicast domain
B. Only from the Candidate-RP
C. Only from the Candidate-BSR
D. Only from the elected BSR

Answer: D
Question No : 4 – (Topic 1)
An Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR is unable to locate a multicast source address in the multicast forwarding table. However, the source address is available in the unicast forwarding table.
Which statement best describes the default RPF check behavior of the 7750 SR?
A. The RPF check will fail as PIM relies exclusively on the multicast forwarding table by default
B. The RPF check will not fail, as by default PIM uses the multicast forwarding table first for RPF check, if not found in the multicast forwarding table then refers to unicast forwarding table
C. The RPF check will not fail as PIM uses only the unicast forwarding table by default
D. The RPF check will fail as the RPF check requires that the source address be present in both the unicast and multicast forwarding table
E. Not enough information is provided to answer the question

Answer: C
Refer to the exhibit.

The switch is not igmp-snooping/proxy capable. What will happen if host 2 issues an IGMP report to join a group?
A. Both Router A and Router B will get this IGMP report and Router B will propagate a PIM join towards the core network
B. Both Router A and Router B will get this IGMP report and both of them will propagate a PIM join towards the core network
C. Only Router A will get this IGMP report and Router A will propagate a PIM join towards the core network
D. Only Router A will get this IGMP report and as Router A is not PIM DR, so no further action
Answer: A

Question No : 6 – (Topic 1)
Refer to the configuration exhibit.

Which of the following statements is true?
A. 2 static RP’s cannot be configured on the same device
B. 10.10.10.24 will be RP for 230.1.1.1 and 10.10.10.66 will be RP for 234.1.1.1
C. 10.10.10.24 will be RP for 234.1.1.1 and 10.10.10.66 will be RP for 230.1.1.1
D. 2 static RP’s both with override cannot be configured on the same device

Answer: C
Question No : 7 – (Topic 1)
How do the routers in the PIM domain become aware of the address of the elected BSR?
A. It is unicast to them
B. It is flooded through the network in a bootstrap message
C. It is preconfigured on all routers
D. It is flooded through the network in the PIM Hello

Answer: B
Question No : 8 – (Topic 1)
Choose the statements that describe Bootstrap Router mechanism. (Choose three)
A. It is a mechanism to distribute RP-set information dynamically
B. The bootstrap router gets and propagates RP information via multicast messages
C. The bootstrap router gets and propagates RP information via unicast and multicast messages
D. BSR relies on timers to discover that an RP-Candidate router is no longer available
E. For BSR to work, every router in the multicast network should be configured as BSR candidate

Answer: A,C,D
Question No : 9 – (Topic 1)
Refer to the configuration exhibit.

Channel 239.1.1.1, 239.1.1.2, 239.1.1.3 and 239.1.1.5 have already been established.
What will happen when this router receives two IGMP reports to join group 239.1.1.4 and 239.1.1.8?
A. Channel 239.1.1.4 will be established while 239.1.1.8 will not
B. Channel 239.1.1.8 will be established while 239.1 1.4 will not
C. Both of these two channels will be established
D. Neither of these two channels will be established

Answer: B
Question No : 10 – (Topic 1)
Which of the following statements is false regarding BSR and RP?
A. A router may be both a candidate-BSR and candidate-RP
B. A router configured as a candidate-BSR may also be configured as a static RP
C. A router configured as a candidate-RP may be also be configured as a static RP
D. A converged multicast network with BSR may have multiple routers elected as BSRs
E. A converged multicast network with BSR may have multiple routers elected as RPs

Answer: D
Question No : 11 – (Topic 1)
How does a Candidate-RP send its information to the BSR?
A. Using PIM address 224.0.0.13
B. It is unicast to all the BSR candidates
C. It is flooded by all PIM routers
D. It is unicast to the elected BSR

Answer: D
Question No : 12 – (Topic 1)
Refer to the exhibit.

Which one of the following descriptions is correct, assuming that all the IGMP join, PIM join and multicast traffic are for the same multicast group?
A. IGMP is enabled on Router A and B’s interfaces facing the switch. PIM is not enabled on Router A and B’s interfaces facing the switch. IGMP snooping is enabled on the switch.
B. IGMP is enabled on Router A and B’s interfaces facing the switch. PIM is not enabled on Router A and B’s interfaces facing the switch. IGMP snooping is not enabled on the switch.
C. IGMP is enabled on Router A and B’s interfaces facing the switch. PIM is enabled on Router A and B’s interfaces facing the switch. IGMP snooping is enabled on the switch.
D. IGMP is enabled on Router A and B’s interfaces facing the switch. PIM is enabled on Router A and B’s interfaces facing the switch. IGMP snooping is not enabled on the switch.
Answer: B

Question No : 13 – (Topic 1)
When a BSR message with a higher priority is seen, will a new BSR election occur?
A. No, the new election only occurs when the elected BSR fails
B. Yes, after a bootstrap message wait interval
C. Yes, immediately
D. Depends on the local configuration of whether to allow the new election or not

Answer: C Question No : 14 – (Topic 1)
Which of the following is true regarding the IPv4 multicast address format?
A. The first 3 bits of the address set to ‘110’
B. A value between 223.0.0.0 and 239.255.255.255
C. The first 4 bits of the address set to ‘1111’
D. A subnet mask to indicate the network and host portion of the address
E. The first 4 bits of the address set to ‘1110’

Answer: E
Question No : 15 – (Topic 1)
An end station receiving a broadcast packet will always process the data up to at least which layer of the OSI stack?
A. Layer 1
B. Layer 2
C. Layer 3
D. Layer 4
E. Layer 7

Answer: C
Question No : 16 – (Topic 1)
Which of the following statements are true? (Choose three)
A. A multicast network may have only one source and one receiver segment
B. A multicast network may have one source and multiple receiver segments
C. A multicast network cannot have more than one source segments
D. A multicast network may have multiple source and multiple receiver segments
E. A multicast network cannot have more than one receiver segments

Answer: A,B,D
Which MAC address will the IPv4 multicast address 233.103.42.11 be translated to?
A. 01-00-5e-66-3a-6b
B. 01-00-5e-75-2a-0b
C. 01-00-5e-67-2a-0b
D. 00-01-5e-a1-2a-6b
E. 00-01-5e-67-2a-0b
F. 00-01-5e-76-2b-cc

Answer: C
Question No : 18 – (Topic 1)
Which MAC address will the IPv4 multicast address 239.231.42.11 be translated to?
A. 01-00-5e-66-3a-6b
B. 01-00-5e-75-2a-0b
C. 01-00-5e-67-2a-0b
D. 00-01-5e-a1-2a-6b
E. 00-01-5e-67-2a-0b
F. 00-01-5e-76-2b-cc

Answer: C
Question No : 19 – (Topic 1)
Which of the following data delivery models are most applicable to multicast data delivery? (Choose two)
A. One to one
B. Many to all
C. One to many
D. Many to many
E. One to all

Answer: C,D
What is the OUI field of the MAC address for IPv4 multicast address?
A. 00-01-5e
B. 00-01-5f
C. 01-00-5e
D. 01-00-5f

Answer: C

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QUESTION 1
Which of the following technologies allows for two explicit VLAN tags to be received from a customer device?
A. RSVP-TE
B. SP-VLAN
C. QinQ
D. Dot1Q

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 2
What is the SA in the Ethernet frame used for by a layer 2 switch?
A. MAC learning
B. SA filtering
C. Routing table population
D. Frame forwarding
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 3
What are the limitations of a traditional layer 2 switch? (Choose 3}
A. Isolates collision domains.
B. Requires layer 2 loop prevention.
C. Slow response to topology changes.
D. Limited to 4094 vlans per switch.
E. Increased flooding.
Correct Answer: BCD
QUESTION 4
Which of the following statements about the VC-ID is false?
A. The vc-id is signaled in the control plane.
B. The vc-id is part of the data plane encapsulation.
C. There is a vc-id to vc-label mapping.
D. The vc-id has point to point significance.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 5
Assuming TLDP and RSVP are both being used in an MPLS network core which of the following statements is true?
A. TLDP is used to create the inner label, RSVP is used to create the outer label.
B. TLDP is used to create the outer label, RSVP is used to create the inner label.
C. TLDP and RSVP cannot be used in the same network since they both provide the same label.
D. When RSVP is used, TLDP must be disabled and static vc labels should be used.
E. TLDP and RSVP can be used to create either labels based on how they are configured.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 6
Fill in the blank for this next sentence. Flooded traffic received on any ____________ in the service is replicated to other spoke SDPs and SAPs and not transmitted on any mesh SDPs.
A. Spoke SDP
B. Mesh SDP
C. Either (a) or (b) will make this sentence true.
D. Neither (a) nor (b) will make this sentence true.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 7
Port 1/1/1 has been configured as an access port with QinQ encapsulation. Which of the following three statements are true for ingress traffic assuming default configuration? (Choose 3)
A. sap 1/1/1:*.0 is a valid sap id.
B. sap 1/1/1:100* will accept frames with a single tag of 100.
C. sap 1/1/1:200* will strip the top tag of 200 and the bottom tag will be transparently passed.
D. sap 1/1/1:0* will accept all untagged frames.
E. sap 1/1/1:0* will accept any tagged frames.
Correct Answer: BCD
QUESTION 8
Which of the following statements relating to VPLS is false?
A. A VPLS is a multipoint Layer 2 service.
B. A VPLS allows multiple customer sites to be connected in a single bridged domain.
C. A VPLS on a single node requires a SDP.
D. With an IP/MPLS infrastructure, service providers can provide multiple VPLS services over a common IP/MPLS infrastructure.
E. The VPLS switches traffic based on MAC address associated to the appropriate SAP.
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 9
Click on the exhibit below.

Assume the port on CE-A is sending two tags, a top tag of 100 and a bottom tag of 500. PE-A is configured with a SAP id of 1/1/1:100.*. How should PE-B be configured if CE-B is expecting a top tag of 200 and a bottom tag of 500?
A. PE-B will require a SAP id of “sap 1/1/1:500*”.
B. PE-B will require a SAP id of “sap 1/1/1:100*”.
C. PE-B will require a SAP id of “sap 1/1/1:500.200”.
D. PE-B will require a SAP id of “sap 1/1/1:200*”.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 10
Which of the following statements is false?
A. VPLS is a bridged LAN service.
B. VPLS provides L2 VPN services to CEs.
C. VPLS is a point-to-point service where CEs are presented with point-to-point virtual circuits.
D. CEs that are members of the same VPLS service instance communicate with each other as if they are connected via a bridged LAN. Correct Answer: C QUESTION 11
Click on the exhibit below.

The following VPLS services and SAPs have been configured. Which of the following statements is true?
A. All untagged frames will be dropped.
B. The source MAC address of a frame with a top tag of 200 and bottom tag of 300 will be populated in VPLS 3.
C. All frames with more than one tag will be dropped.
D. The source MAC address of a frame with a single tag of 500 will be populated in VPLS 1.
E. The source MAC address of a frame with a top tag of 100 will be populated in VPLS 2.

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 12
Click on the exhibit below.

If the SDP between R2 and R1 goes down, what devices will be reachable from R2 through the VPLS?
A. Only R4 will be reachable through the VPLS.
B All devices will be reachable through the VPLS.
B. R4 and R3 will remain reachable.
C. No devices will be reachable.

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 13
What is the default service-mtu for a VPLS service?
A. 1500
B. 1514
C. 1518
D. It depends on the access port MTU.
E. It depends on the network port MTU.
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 14
Click on the exhibit below.

The VPLS service MTU on R2 is 1514 bytes. What must the service MTU be on all other routers participating in the VPLS?
A. The service MTU must be equal to or smaller than 1514 bytes.
B. The service MTU must be 1514 bytes.
C. The service MTU must be equal to or greater than 1514 bytes.
D. The service MTU can be any value. Correct Answer: B QUESTION 15
What is the default fdb size for a VPLS service?
A. 100
B. 1

C. 25
D. 250
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 16
If the command “disable-learning” has been added at the VPLS level, then MAC entries which have already been learned will not be aged.

A. TRUE
B. FALSE Correct Answer: B QUESTION 17
Which OAM tool can be used to dynamically learn the MAC address of a CE device connected to a SAP within a VPLS service?
A. oam mac-populate
B. oam mac-ping
C. oam mac-trace
D. oam svc-ping
E. oam cpe-ping Correct Answer: E QUESTION 18
During the process of troubleshooting a VPLS problem the “oam mac-purge” command with “register” option was used to purge a MAC address from the FDB. Which of the following statements is true?
A. Relearning of the MAC address that was purged can only be done once customer traffic resumes.
B. Relearning of the MAC address that was purged can only be done with the “oam mac- populate” command.
C. Customer traffic destined to the MAC address that was purged will be dropped until the MAC address is relearned with the “oam mac-populate” command.
D. Relearning of the MAC address that was purged can only be done with the “oam mac- register” command.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 19
Click on the exhibit below.

The following IP filter has been configured and applied to a SAP in a non-VPLS service. Which of the following statements is true?
A. An error will be generated and the configuration will not be allowed.
B. The filter entry will be ignored and traffic matching the criteria will be forwarded
C. All traffic matching entry 20 will be dropped.
D. Traffic matching entry 20 will be forwarded to sdp 100:1.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 20
Which of the following statements is true?
A. Filter Policies can only be applied on egress.
B. An IP filter can be applied on ingress at the same time a MAC filter is applied on the egress of the SAP.
C. Filter Policies can be based on IP, MAC, and VPI/VCI addresses.
D. Any number of ingress and egress filter policies can be associated with a SAP.
E. An IP filter and a MAC filter can be applied on the ingress SAP at the same time.
F. None of the above.

Correct Answer: B

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QUESTION 1
What is the amount of the principal plus interest due at maturity on a 1-month (32-day) deposit of USD 50,000,000.00 placed at 0.37%?
A. EUR 50,015,416.67
B. EUR 50,016,219.18
C. EUR 50,016,444.44
D. EUR 50,016,958.33
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 2
Which of the following currencies is quoted on an ACT/360 basis in the money market?
A. SGD
B. PLN
C. GBP

D. NZD
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 3
Today’s spot value date is the 30th of June. What is the maturity date of a 2-month EUR deposit deal today? Assume no bank holidays.
A. 27th August
B. 30th August
C. 31st August
D. 1 September

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 4
How many GBP would you have to invest at 0.55% to be repaid GBP 2,000,000.00 (principal plus interest) in 90 days?
A. GBP 1,997,253.78
B. GBP 1,997,291.34
C. GBP 1,997,287.67
D. GBP 1,997,250.00
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 5
From the following GBP deposit rates:
1M (30-day) GBP deposits 0.45% 2M (60-day) GBP deposits 0.50% 3M (91-day) GBP deposits 0.55% 4M (123-day) GBP deposits 0.65% 5M (153-day) GBP deposits 0.70% 6M (184-day) GBP deposits 0.75%
Calculate the 3×4 forward-forward rate.
A. 0.60%
B. 0.949%
C. 1.074%

D. 0.933%
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 6
What is EONIA?
A. Volume-weighted average overnight EUR deposit rate
B. Volume-weighted average overnight EUR LIBOR
C. Arithmetic average overnight EUR deposit rate
D. ECB overnight lending rate

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 7
Which of the following is not a negotiable instrument?
A. CD
B. FRA
C. BA
D. ECP
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 8
Which of the following is a Eurocurrency deposit?
A. A 3-month deposit of USD 10,000,000.00 offered by a US bank in New York
B. A 3-month deposit of USD 10,000,000.00 offered by the US branch of a UK bank in New York
C. A 3-month deposit of USD 10,000,000.00 offered by a US bank in London
D. A 3-month deposit of GBP 10,000,000.00 offered by the UK branch of a US bank in London

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 9
What is the maximum maturity of an unsecured USCP?
A. One year
B. 270 days
C. 183 days
D. 5 years

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 10
Which party usually takes an initial margin in a classic repo?
A. The buyer
B. The seller
C. Neither
D. Both

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 11
What are the primary reasons for taking an initial margin in a classic repo?
A. Counterparty risk and operational risk
B. Counterparty risk and legal risk
C. Collateral illiquidity and counterparty risk
D. Collateral illiquidity and legal risk

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 12
What happens when a coupon is paid on bond collateral during the term of a classic repo?
A. Nothing
B. A margin call is triggered on the seller
C. A manufactured payment is made to the seller
D. Equivalent value plus reinvestment income is deducted from the repurchase price

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 13
A CD with a face value of EUR 10,000,000.00 and a coupon of 3% was issued at par for 182 days and is now trading at 3.10% with 120 days remaining to maturity. What has been the capital gain or loss since issue?
A. -EUR 52,161.00
B. -t-EUR 47,839.00

C. -EUR 3,827.67
D. Nil
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 14
You have taken 3-month (92 days) deposits of CAD 12,000,000.00 at 1.10% and CAD 6,000,000.00 at 1.04%. Minutes later, you quote 3-month CAD 1.09-14% to another bank. The other dealer takes the CAD 18,000,000.00 at your quoted price. What is your profit or loss on this deal?
A. CAD 2,722.19
B. CAD 460.00

C. CAD 3,220.00
D. CAD 2,760.00
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 15
A 7% CD was issued at par, which you now purchase at 6.75%. You would expect to pay:
A. The face value of the CD
B. More than the face value
C. Less than the face value
D. Too little information to decide

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 16
The tom/next GC repo rate for German government bonds is quoted to you at 1.75-80%. As collateral, you sell EUR 10,000,000.00 nominal of the 5.25% Bund July 2012, which is worth EUR 11,260,000.00, with no initial margin. The Repurchase Price is:
A. EUR 10,000,500.00
B. EUR 10,000,486.11
C. EUR 11,260,563.00
D. EUR 11,260,547.36
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 17
The tom/next GC repo rate for German government bonds is quoted to you at 1.75-80%. As collateral, you sell EUR 10,000,000.00 million nominal of the 5.25% Bund July 2012, which is worth EUR 11,260,000.00. If you have to give an initial margin of 2%, the Repurchase Price is:
A. EUR 11,035,336.41
B. EUR 11,035,351.74
C. EUR 11,039,752.32
D. EUR 11,039,767.65
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 18
A bond is trading 50 basis points special for 1 week, while the 1-week GC repo rate is 3.25%. If you held GBP 10,500,000.00 of this bond, what would be the cost of borrowing against it in the repo market?
A. GBP 7,551.37
B. GBP 6,544.52
C. GBP 5,537.67
D. GBP 1,006.85
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 19
If EUR/USD is quoted to you as 1.3050-53, does this price represent?
A. The number of EUR per USD
B. The number of USD per EUR
C. Depends on whether the price is being quoted in Europe or the US
D. Depends on whether the price is being quoted interbank or to a customer
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 20
The seller of a EUR/RUB NDF could be:
A. a potential buyer of EUR against RUB
B. speculating on an appreciation of the Russian Rouble
C. expecting rising EUR/RUB exchange rates
D. a seller of Russian Rouble
Correct Answer: B

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QUESTION 1
The control failings involving Barings and Daiwa highlight the critical importance of what operational risk management practice?
A. the taping of conversations between counterparties
B. model signing-off and implementation controls
C. the separation between front/back office duties
D. the existence of contingency plans

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 2
The maximum term for which a London Certificate of Deposit may be issued is:
A. 1 year
B. 3 years
C. 5 years
D. 10 years

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 3
A collateral pool can be defined as:
A. assets lent by members of a payment system collectively available to the system as collateral to enable them to obtain funds in specific circumstances
B. liabilities owned by members of a payments system collectively available to the system as collateral to enable them to obtain funds in specific circumstances
C. assets owned by members of a payment system collectively available to the system as collateral to enable them to obtain funds in specific circumstances
D. assets swapped by members of a payment system collectively available to the system as collateral to enable them to obtain funds in specific circumstances

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 4
The prompt sending and checking of confirmations is considered a best practice when dealing in:
A. amounts higher than USD 10,000,000.00 or the equivalent in other currencies
B. amounts higher than USD 1,000,000.00 or the equivalent in other currencies
C. any amount unless dealt via a broker
D. any amount by any counterparty

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 5
When should discrepancies between front-office and back-office systems be resolved?
A. by the end of the trading day
B. on the next business day
C. on the value date
D. as soon as they become apparent

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 6
What is a nostro bank account?
A. an account held with another bank
B. an account another bank holds with you
C. a trust account
D. a suspense account

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 7
What is a feature of multilateral netting?
A. there are no more than two participants involved in the netting process
B. there is no redistribution of default risk
C. there is a central clearing house
D. no legal entity is required

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 8
You have two nostro accounts in USD, one account is long USD 5 million and the other is short USD 5 million. What action should be taken to reconcile the accounts?
A. No action is required. The credit interest earned on the credit balance will offset the debit interest incurred on the short balance
B. You should borrow USD 5 million to cover the short balance and leave the long balance as it is
C. You should lend the surplus USD 5 million in order to overdraft charges on the short balance with the interest earned on the loan
D. You should instruct the bank with the long balance to pay USD 5 million to the other bank

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 9
Physical securities reconciliation software packages are based on:
A. SWIFT message type 5XX
B. SWIFT message type 2XX
C. SWIFT message type 320
D. SWIFT message type 400

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 10
Which of the following is the main objective of position-keeping?
A. measuring market exposure
B. defining capital adequacy
C. evaluating country risk
D. monitoring counterparty credit risk

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 11
How many characters does a BIC have? (Under ISO standard 9362, 2nd edition)
A. 6 or 9 characters
B. 9 or 12 characters
C. 7 or 10 characters
D. 8 or 11 characters

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 12
You have just opened a position in EUR/USD that you run overnight. What risk is present?
A. settlement, counterparty and equity risk
B. only counterparty risk
C. only currency and interest rate risks
D. settlement, counterparty and market risk

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 13
What type of documentation is recommended for repos in the international markets?
A. An Overseas Securities Lenders Agreement
B. A ISDA Master Repurchase Agreement
C. A SIFMA/ICMA Global Master Repurchase Agreement
D. An International Securities Lenders Agreement

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 14
If the EUR/USD is quoted to you as 1.1050-53, what does this price represent?
A. EUR per USD
B. USD per EUR
C. the interest rate differential between EUR and USD
D. the fact that one USD is worth more than one EUR

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 15
In FX swaps, the rate of the spot leg
A. may be freely chosen by the quoting party as long as both parties agree on it
B. must always be fixed immediately at the current mid rate, to reflect the rate at the time the deal was made
C. should be fixed immediately within the current spread, to reflect current rates at the time the transaction was made
D. should always be fixed off the current spread in order not to be mistaken for a spot FX transaction

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 16
Under normal circumstances, which of the following is a non-negotiable instrument?
A. a Medium Term Note
B. a Bankers Acceptance
C. a Money Market Deposit
D. a Treasury Bill Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 17
Your money market dealer has lent GBP 5,000,000.00 at 4 3/4% for 6 months (183 days). How much must the counterparty pay back to you in capital plus accrued interest at maturity?
A. GBP 5,117,123.29
B. GBP 5,119,075.00
C. GBP 5,119,075.34
D. GBP 5,120,729.17

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 18
Today is the fixing date for 6×9 FRA that you sold at 5.50% and for which the FRABBA LIBOR is now 6.00%. Which of the following is true?
A. You will pay a cash settlement to the counterparty
B. You will receive the cash settlement
C. There is no cash settlement pending
D. There is insufficient information to make a determination

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 19
The notional amount in an interest rate swap is:
A. the sum of all the fixed and floating rate payments
B. the net difference between fixed and floating rate payments
C. the principal amount on which floating and fixed interest payments is calculated
D. the amount at which the two counterparties can close-out their transaction

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 20
What does “modified following business day convention” mean?
A. a convention whereby a transaction is dated the following business day, unless that day extends into the next month, in which case it is dated the preceding business day
B. a convention whereby a transaction is dated the following business day
C. a convention whereby a transaction is dated the preceding business day
D. a convention whereby a transaction is dated the next business day that corresponds to the same numerical day of the month as the preceding payment

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 21

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QUESTION 1
A developer needs to deliver a large-scale enterprise application that connects developer chooses an EJB 3.1-compliant application server, which three are true about the EJB business component tier? (Choose three.)
A. Load-balancing is NOT a guarantee for all EJB 3.1 containers.
B. Clustering is guaranteed to be supported by the EJB 3.1 container.
C. Thread pooling can be optimized by the Bean Provider programmatically.
D. Bean Providers are NOT required to write code for transaction demarcation.
E. Support for server fail-over is guaranteed for an EJB 3.1-compliant application server.
F. EJB 3.1 compliant components are guaranteed to work within any Java EE 6 application server

Correct Answer: ACF Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
The EJB tier hosts the business logic of a J2EE application and provides system-level services to the business components problems include state maintenance, transaction management, and availability to local and remote clients.
The EJB 3.1 specification does not address “high-end” features like clustering (not B), load-balancing (A) and fail-over (not E).
F: The target platform for EJB is Java EE.

QUESTION 2
A developer examines a list of potential enterprise applications and selects the most appropriate technologies to use for each application.
For which two applications is EJB an appropriate solution? (Choose two.)
A. To render a GUI for mobile clients.
B. As a container for web-tier components including JSP.
C. As a Web service endpoint accessed by non-Java clients.
D. To receive and respond to HTTP Post requests directly from a web browser.
E. As an online shopping cart which can persist across multiple sessions with a single client.

Correct Answer: CE Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 3
Which two statements are true? (Choose two.)
A. Typically, remotely accessible objects should be coarse-grained.
B. If a client accesses an enterprise bean locally such access must be mediated by the EJB container.
C. A given enterprise bean’s transaction information is immutable because it is deployed across various containers.
D. If a container provides services NOT required by the EJB specification, then that container is NOT considered to be an EJB container.
E. An enterprise bean’s transaction Information can be accessed by external tools only if the information is contained in an XML deployment descriptor.
Correct Answer: BD Explanation Explanation/Reference:

D: An EJB container is nothing but the program that runs on the server and implements the EJB specifications. EJB container provides special type of the environment suitable for running the enterprise components. Enterprise beans are used in distributed applications that typically contains the business logic.
Incorrect answers:
A: Remotely accessible objects should be fine-grained

QUESTION 4
Assume you would like to receive notification from the container as a stateless session bean transitions to and from the ready state.
Which of the following life cycle back annotations would you use? (Choose one.)
A. @PostConstruct, @PostDestroy
B. @PostConstruct, @PreDestroy
C. @PreConstruct, @PostDestroy
D. @PostConstruct, @PostDestroy, @Remove
E. @PostConstruct, @PreDestroy, @Remove

Correct Answer: B Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
The Lifecycle of a Stateless Session Bean The EJB container typically creates and maintains a pool of stateless session beans, beginning the stateless session bean’s lifecycle. The container performs any dependency injection and then invokes the method annotated @PostConstruct, if it exists. The bean is now ready to have its business methods invoked by a client.
At the end of the lifecycle, the EJB container calls the method annotated @PreDestroy, if it exists. The bean’s instance is then ready for garbage collection.
Lifecycle of a Stateless Session Bean:

Note: An enterprise bean goes through various stages during its lifetime, or lifecycle. Each type of enterprise bean (stateful session, stateless session, singleton session, or message-driven) has a different lifecycle.
Reference: http://docs.oracle.com/javaee/6/tutorial/doc/giplj.html
QUESTION 5
Which API must an EJB 3.1 container make available to enterprise beans at runtime? (Choose one)
A. The JXTA 1.1 API
B. The MIDP 2.0 API
C. The Java SE 6 JNDI API
D. The Java SE 5 JDBC API

Correct Answer: CD Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 6
A developer wants to write a stateful session bean using the following interface as local business interface:
1.
package acme;

2.
public interface Bar {

3.
public void bar ();

4.
}
Assuming there is not an ejb-jar.xml file, which code can be inserted into Lines 4-6 below to define the
bean with the ejb name of BarBean?

1.
package acme;
2.
import javax.ejb.*;
3.
import java.io.*;
4.
5.
6.
7.
}

A. @Stateful public class BarEJB implements Bar { public void bar () {}
B. @Stateful (name = “Bar”) public class Barbean implements Bar { public void bar () {}
C. @Stateful public class BarBean implements Serializable, Bar { public void bar () {}
D. @Stateful (name = “bar”) public class BarBean implements Serializable, Bar { public void bar () throws java.rmi.RemoteException {}

Correct Answer: C Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 7
A developer creates a stateful session bean that is used by many concurrent clients. The clients are written
by other development team; and it is assumed that these clients might not remove the bean when ending
their session. The number of concurrent sessions will be greater than the defined bean cache size.

The developer must consider that the state of the session bean can be influenced by either passivation or
timeout.
Which three actions should the developer take to make the bean behave correctly in passivation and
timeout situations? (Choose three.)

A. Release references to resources in a @Remove annotated method.
B. Re-establish references to resources in an @Init annotated method.
C. Release references to resources in a @PreDestroy annotated method.
D. Release references to resources in a @PrePassivate annotated method.
E. Re-establish references to resources in a @PostActivate annotated method.
Correct Answer: CDE Explanation

Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 8
A stateful session bean contains a number of instance variables. The types of instance variables A and B are serializable. Instance variable B is a complex type which is populated by many business calls, and can, therefore, not be refilled by the client without starting all over. A helper instance variable C is defined as having a Serializable type, and can hold all the information which is in variable B. for example, B is of type XML-DOM tree and C of Type String.
Which two solutions, when combined, maintain the state of the session bean over a passivation and activation by the container? (Choose two.)
A. The value of helper variable C is used to create the value of Instance variable B in the beans no-arg constructor.
B. The value of helper variable C is used to create the value of instance variable B in a @postcreate annotated method.
C. The value of helper variable C is used to create the value of instance variable B in a @postActivate annotated method.
D. Instance variable A must be made null and instance variable B must be converted to a Serializable type and assigned to another instance variable in a @preDestroy annotated method.
E. Instance variable A must be defined transient. Instance variable B must be converted to a Serializable type, set to null, and assigned to the instance variable C in a @PrePassivate annotated method.

Correct Answer: CE Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 9
A developer writes a stateful session bean FooBean with one remote business interface Foo. Foo defines an integer / setter method pair implemented as:
10.
private int value;

11.
public void setValue (int i) {value = i; }

12.
public int getValue () {return value; }
A session bean ClientBean has a business method doSomething and an ejb-ref with ejb-ref-name “fooRef” that is mapped to FooBean’s Foo interface.
11.
@Resource private SessionContext SessionCtx;

12.
public void doSomething () {

13.
Foo foo1 = (Foo) sessionCtx.lookup(“fooRef”);

14.
Foo foo2 = (Foo) sessionCtx.lookup(“fooRef”);

15.
foo1.setvalue(1);
Which statement is true after the code at line 15 completes?
A. Foo1.getValue () = = 0 and foo2.getValue() = = 0
B. Foo1.getValue () = = 0 and foo2.getValue() = = 1
C. Foo1.getValue () = = 1 and foo2.getValue() = = 0
D. Foo1.getValue () = = 1 and foo2.getValue() = = 1
Correct Answer: D Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Foo1 and Foo2 references the same object.
QUESTION 10
A developer writes a stateless session bean FooBean with one remote business interface FooRemote containing one business method foo. Method foo takes a single parameter of application-defined type MyData.
11.
public class MyData implements java.io.Serialization {

12.
int a;

13.
}
Methods foo is implemented with the FooBean class as:
11.
public void foo (MyData data) {

12.
data.a = 2;

13.
}
Another session bean within the same application has a reference to FooRemote in variable fooRef and calls method foo with the following code:
11.
MyData data = new MyData();

12.
data.a = 1;

13.
fooRef.foo(data);

14.
System.out.printIn(data.a);
What is the value of data.a when control reaches Line 14 of the client?
A. 0
B. 1
C. 2

Correct Answer: B Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 11
Which two statements are correct about stateless session beans? (Choose two.)
A. The bean class may declare instance variables.
B. The lifetime of the bean instance is controlled by the client.
C. The container may use the same bean instance to handle multiple business method invocations at the same time.
D. The container may use the same bean instance to handle business method invocations requested by different clients, but not concurrently.

Correct Answer: AC Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
* A: Stateless session beans are EJB’s version of the traditional transaction processing applications, which are executed using a procedure call. The procedure executes from beginning to end and then returns the result. Once the procedure is done, nothing about the data that was manipulated or the details of the request are remembered. There is no state.
These restrictions don’t mean that a stateless session bean can’t have instance variables and therefore some kind of internal state. There’s nothing that prevents you from keeping a variable that tracks the number of times a bean has been called or that tracks data for debugging. An instance variable can even hold a reference to a live resource like a URL connection for writing debugging data, verifying credit cards, or anything else that might be useful.
A stateless session bean is relatively easy to develop and also very efficient.
C: Stateless session beans require few server resources because they are neither persistent nor dedicated to one client. Because they aren’t dedicated to one client, many EJB objects can use just a few instances of a stateless bean. A stateless session bean does not maintain conversational state relative to the EJB object it is servicing, so it can be swapped freely between EJB objects. As soon as a stateless instance services a method invocation, it can be swapped to another EJB object immediately. Because there is no conversational state, a stateless session bean doesn’t require passivation or activation, further reducing the overhead of swapping. In short, they are lightweight and fast!
* The Lifecycle of a Stateless Session Bean Because a stateless session bean is never passivated, its lifecycle has only two stages: nonexistent and ready for the invocation of business methods. The EJB container typically creates and maintains a pool of stateless session beans, beginning the stateless session bean’s lifecycle. The container performs any dependency injection and then invokes the method annotated @PostConstruct, if it exists. The bean is now ready to have its business methods invoked by a client.
At the end of the lifecycle, the EJB container calls the method annotated @PreDestroy, if it exists (not B). The bean’s instance is then ready for garbage collection.
QUESTION 12
A developer wants to release resources within a stateless session bean class. The cleanup method should be executed by the container before an instance of the class is removed. The deployment descriptor is NOT used.
Which three statements are correct? (Choose three.)
A. The cleanup method may declare checked exceptions.
B. The cleanup method must have no arguments and return void.
C. The cleanup method is executed in an unspecified transaction and security context.
D. The developer should mark the cleanup method with the @PreDestroy annotation.
E. The developer should mark the cleanup method with the @PostDestroy annotation.
F. The cleanup method is executed in the transaction and security context of the last business method Invocation.

Correct Answer: BCD Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 13
A developer creates a stateless session bean. This session bean needs data from a remote system. Reading this data takes a long time. Assume that the data will NOT change during the life time of the bean and that the information to connect to the remote system is defined in JNDI.
Which statement describes how to manage the data correctly?
A. Read the data in the bean’s constructor.
B. The data can only be read in the bean’s business methods.
C. Read the data in a method which is annotated with @PrePassivate.
D. Read the data in a method which is annotated with @PostActivate.
E. Read the data in a method which is annotated with @PostConstruct.
Correct Answer: E Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 14
Suppose an EJB named HelloWorldBean is deployed as a standalone ejb-jar. Assuming the HelloWorldBean is implemented as follows: Which HelloWorldBean methods are accessible by another EJB within the same ejb-jar?

A. All of the methods declared in HelloWorldBean
B. All of the methods declared in HelloWorld and HelloWorldBean
C. All of the public methods declared in HelloWorldBean
D. All of the public methods declared in HelloWorld and all of the methods declared in HelloWorldBean Correct Answer: C

Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 15
Given the following stateless session bean: How would you change the EJB to prevent multiple clients from simultaneously accessing the sayHello method of a single bean instance?

A. Convert sayHello into a synchronized method
B. Execute the call to generateLocalizedHello in a synchronized block
C. Convert generateLocalizehello into a synchronized method
D. Convert HelloWordBean into a singleton bean
E. No changes are needed

Correct Answer: A Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
*
It is not possible for two invocations of synchronized methods on the same object to interleave. When one thread is executing a synchronized method for an object, all other threads that invoke synchronized methods for the same object block (suspend execution) until the first thread is done with the object.

*
When a synchronized method exits, it automatically establishes a happens-before relationship with any subsequent invocation of a synchronized method for the same object. This guarantees that changes to the state of the object are visible to all threads.
Reference: The Java Tutorial, Synchronized Methods
QUESTION 16
Given singleton bean FooEJB:

How many distinct FooEJB bean instances will be used to process the code on the lines 101-105?
A. 0
B. 1
C. 2

Correct Answer: B Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Java has several design patterns Singleton Pattern being the most commonly used. Java Singleton pattern belongs to the family of design patterns, that govern the instantiation process. This design pattern proposes that at any time there can only be one instance of a singleton (object) created by the JVM.
QUESTION 17
A developer writes a Singleton bean that holds state for a single coordinate: An update thread acquires an EJB reference to CoordinateBean and alternates between invoking SetCoordinate (0, 0) and SetCoordinate (1, 1) in a loop.

At the same time, ten reader threads each acquire an EJB reference to CoordinateBean and invoke getCoordinate () in a loop.
Which represents the set of all possible coordinate values [X, Y] returned to the reader threads?
A. [0, 0]
B. [1, 1]
C. [0, 0], [1, 1]
D. [0, 0], [0, 1], [1, 0], [1, 1] Correct Answer: C

Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 18
Assume a client will be accessing a Singleton bean.
Which client views is a Singleton bean capable of exposing? (Choose two)

A. Web Service
B. Message listener
C. EJB 2.x Remote Home
D. EJB 3.x local business
E. Java Persistence API entity

Correct Answer: AB Explanation Explanation/Reference:
Singleton session beans are appropriate in the following circumstances.
*
State needs to be shared across the application.

*
A single enterprise bean needs to be accessed by multiple threads concurrently.

*
The application needs an enterprise bean to perform tasks upon application startup and shutdown.

*
The bean implements a web service. (A)
B: An interceptor method you define in a separate interceptor class takes an invocation context as argument: using this context, your interceptor method implementation can access details of the original session bean business method or message-driven bean message listener method invocation. Singleton Interceptors If your interceptors are stateless, you can use an OC4J optimization extension to the EJB 3.0 specification that allows you to specify singleton interceptors. When you configure a session bean or message-driven bean to use singleton interceptors and you associate the bean with an interceptor class, OC4J creates a single instance of the interceptor class that all bean instances share. This can reduce memory requirements and life cycle overhead.
Note:
Singleton session beans offer similar functionality to stateless session beans but differ from them in that
there is only one singleton session bean per application, as opposed to a pool of stateless session beans,
any of which may respond to a client request. Like stateless session beans, singleton session beans can
implement web service endpoints.

Reference: The Java EE 6 Tutorial, What Is a Session Bean?
Reference: Oracle Containers for J2EE Enterprise JavaBeans Developer’s Guide, How do you use an
Enterprise Bean in Your Application

QUESTION 19
A developer writes a Singleton bean that uses the java Persistence API within a business method:

Two different concurrently executing caller threads acquire an EJB reference to PersonBean and each invoke the getPerson () method one time. How many distinct transaction are used to process the caller invocations?
A. 0
B. 1
C. 2

Correct Answer: B Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Only one transaction is required. LockType READ allows simultaneous access to singleton beans.
Note: READ
public static final LockType READ For read-only operations. Allows simultaneous access to methods designated as READ, as long as no WRITE lock is held.
Reference: javax.ejb, Enum LockType
QUESTION 20
Given the following client-side code that makes use of the session bean Foo:
10. @EJB Foo bean1;
12. @EJB Foo bean2;
// more code here
20.
boolean test1 = beanl.equals(bean1);

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QUESTION 1
This solution is hosted Software as a Service or SaaS-dedicated Chat solution. It provides both automated and live agent chat modes of operation with seamless escalation from automated to live. (Select one.)
A. Avaya One Touch Video
B. Avaya Automated Chat
C. Avaya Customer Connections Mobile
D. Avaya CallBack Assist

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 2
Which three statements best describe the business challenges that Avaya Aura. Contact Center can solve? (Select three.)
A. Provide a consistent, high quality customer experience
B. Voice channel is overloaded
C. Use agents for tasks customers could do themselves
D. High agent turnover due to low job satisfaction

Correct Answer: BCD
QUESTION 3
Which Assisted Experience Management product or solution integrates seamlessly with Avaya Interaction Center? (Select one.)
A. Avaya Aura. Call Center Elite
B. Avaya Intelligent Customer Routing
C. Avaya Context Store
D. Avaya Aura. Contact Center

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 4
Which of the following are products, applications, and solutions that reside within the Experience Layer of the CEM Framework? (Select four.)
A. Avaya Proactive Contact
B. Avaya Outbound Contact Express
C. Avaya Control Manager
D. Avaya Interaction Center
E. Avaya Proactive Outreach Manager
F. Avaya Aura. Orchestration Designer
Correct Answer: ABDE

QUESTION 5
Which are three business challenges that Avaya Proactive Contact can solve? (Select three.)
A. Keep operational cost down
B. Keep existing customers
C. Cost effective ways to grow business, increase revenue
D. Voice channel is overloaded
Correct Answer: ABC QUESTION 6
Which three statements best describe the business challenges that Avaya Media Processing Server (MPS) can solve? (Select three.)
A. Increasingly demanding customers
B. Outbound system complexity and reliability
C. Increase Return on Investment (ROI)
D. Cost control

Correct Answer: ABC QUESTION 7
Which definition applies to Avaya Aura. Orchestration Designer? (Select one.)
A. Cloud application that listens to the relevant social networks, collects items posted, then processes those items
B. An application which provides a visual, graphical design tool for developing service
C. A real-time and historical reporting application for Contact Center Environments
D. A centralized administration solution for managing the key Avaya Contact Center and Unified Communication products in a solution

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 8
Which are Avaya Call Management System (CMS) deployment options? (Select four.)
A. Dell 620 server for the mid range capacity option
B. Dell 720 server for Enterprise capacity option
C. Virtual (OVA on VMWare) Mid or high capacity configuration
D. Dell 620 server for the low range capacity option
E. HP NB56000c-cg server for Enterprise capacity option

Correct Answer: ABCD QUESTION 9
Which Proactive product or solution must have RT_Socket installed for skill-based pacing for campaigns? (Select one.)
A. Avaya Proactive Outreach Manager
B. Avaya Proactive Contact
C. Avaya Outbound Contact Express

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 10
Which of the Avaya Media Processing Server hardware options is quoted in the Enterprise Configurator tool? (Select one.)
A. Media Processing Server 500
B. Media Processing Server 1000
C. Media Processing Server 1500

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 11
With Avaya Aura Experience Portal, the Avaya provided server offer includes which of the following applications that installs the operating system? (Select one.)
A. Experience Portal OS Wizard
B. Experience Portal Ignition Wizard
C. Enterprise Linux Installer
D. Enterprise Implementation Tool

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 12
Which third-party components must be provided by the customer for Avaya One Touch Video? (Select four.)
A. End customer initiating the call workstation
B. Server-class host system with Siebel
C. Web firewall to separate Internet from Enterprise demilitarized zone
D. Web Server for hosting content
E. Server-class host system with Red Hat Enterprise Linux

Correct Answer: ACDE
QUESTION 13
With regard to Avaya Outbound Contact Express, which of these applications must run on customer provided hardware? (Select four.)
A. Agent message queue
B. Campaign manager
C. Script manager
D. Supervisor applications
E. IP Office Administrative Apps
F. Avaya Speech Analytics Desktop Client

Correct Answer: BCDE
QUESTION 14
Avaya Control Manager provides a single administration platform for which of the following Avaya applications? (Select four.)
A. Avaya Proactive Contact
B. Avaya Operational Analyst
C. Avaya Aura. Contact Center
D. Avaya Aura. Call Center Elite
E. Avaya Aura. Communication Manager

Correct Answer: ACDE
QUESTION 15
Which Avaya Aura. Workforce Optimization packages are licensed on a per agent seat basis? (Select three.)
A. Avaya Quality Monitoring Package
B. Avaya Workforce Management Package
C. Avaya Social Media Analytics Package
D. Avaya Workforce Optimization Package
E. Avaya Coaching and eLearning Package
Correct Answer: ABD
QUESTION 16
Which are software component provided by the Avaya Contact Flow Analytics turnkey solution? (Select three.)
A. Tivoli software
B. Oracle Business Intelligence Enterprise Edition (OBIEE)
C. Contact Flow Analytics software
D. Red Hat Enterprise Linux (RHEL) 5.6 Operating System
E. Advanced Interactive executive (AIX) 6.1

Correct Answer: BDE
QUESTION 17
Which two operating systems are supported on customer provided hardware for Avaya Interaction Center? (Select two.)
A. Mac OS X
B. Windows 7 Professional Edition
C. Linux OS
D. Windows Vista Enterprise Edition

Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 18
The Experience Layer enables organization to do which of following three key activities? (Select three.)
A. Optimize the workforce
B. Connect to the Back-Office
C. Contextual Awareness
D. Best/1:1 Matching

Correct Answer: BCD
QUESTION 19
Which of the following apply to the Avaya Customer Experience Management Design layer? (Select three.)
A. Connect and Share Services
B. Trouble Isolation
C. Multi-tenancy Support
D. Workflows and Application Simulation
E. End-to-End Experience Design

Correct Answer: CDE
QUESTION 20
In addition to the Experience Layer, which two layers are part of the seven layers that make up the Avaya Customer Experience Management (CEM) Framework? (Select two.)
A. Implementation Layer
B. Design Layer
C. Collaboration Layer
D. Performance Layer

Correct Answer: BD

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QUESTION 1
An administrator wants to provide users restricted access. The users should only be able to perform the following tasks:

Create and consolidate virtual machine snapshots

Add/Remove virtual disks

Snapshot Management
Which default role in vCenter Server would meet the administrator’s requirements for the users?
A. Virtual machine user
B. Virtual machine power user
C. Virtual Datacenter administrator
D. VMware Consolidated Backup user

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 2
Which two roles can be modified? (Choose two.)
A. Administrator
B. Network Administrator
C. Datastore Consumer
D. Read-Only

Correct Answer: BC QUESTION 3
An administrator with global administrator privileges creates a custom role but fails to assign any privileges
to it.
Which two privileges would the custom role have? (Choose two.)

A. System.View
B. System.Anonymous
C. System.User
D. System.ReadOnly

Correct Answer: AB QUESTION 4
An administrator wishes to give a user the ability to manage snapshots for virtual machines. Which privilege does the administrator need to assign to the user?
A. Datastore.Allocate Space
B. Virtual machine.Configuration.create snapshot
C. Virtual machine.Configuration.manage snapshot
D. Datastore.Browse Datastore

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 5
An object has inherited permissions from two parent objects. What is true about the permissions on the object?
A. The common permissions between the two are applied and the rest are discarded.
B. The permissions are combined from both parent objects.
C. No permissions are applied from the parent objects.
D. The permission is randomly selected from either of the two parent objects.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 6
What is the highest object level from which a virtual machine can inherit privileges?
A. Host Folder
B. Data Center
C. Data Center Folder
D. VM Folder

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 7
Which three Authorization types are valid in vSphere? (Choose three.)
A. Group Membership in vsphere.local
B. Global
C. Forest
D. vCenter Server
E. Group Membership in system-domain

Correct Answer: ABD
QUESTION 8
Which three components should an administrator select when configuring vSphere permissions? (Choose three.)
A. Inventory Object
B. Role
C. User/Group
D. Privilege
E. Password
Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 9
In which two vsphere.local groups should an administrator avoid adding members? (Choose two.)
A. SolutionUsers
B. Administrators
C. DCAdmins
D. ExternalPDUsers

Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 10
An administrator has configured three vCenter Servers and vRealize Orchestrator within a Platform Services Controller domain, and needs to grant a user privileges that span all environments.
Which statement best describes how the administrator would accomplish this?
A. Assign a Global Permission to the user.
B. Assign a vCenter Permission to the user.
C. Assign vsphere.local membership to the user.
D. Assign an ESXi Permission to the user.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 11
Which two methods are recommended for managing the VMware Directory Service? (Choose two.)
A. Utilize the vmdir command.
B. Manage through the vSphere Web Client.
C. Manage using the VMware Directory Service.
D. Utilize the dc rep command.

Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 12
What are two sample roles that are provided with vCenter Server by default? (Choose two.)
A. Virtual machine User
B. Network Administrator
C. Content Library Administrator
D. Storage Administrator

Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 13
Which three services can be enabled/disabled in the Security Profile for an ESXi host? (Choose three.)
A. CIM Server
B. Single Sign-On
C. Direct Console UI
D. Syslog Server
E. vSphere Web Access

Correct Answer: ACD
QUESTION 14
An administrator would like to use the VMware Certificate Authority (VMCA) as an Intermediate Certificate Authority (CA). The first two steps performed are:
Replace the Root Certificate

Replace Machine Certificates (Intermediate CA)
Which two steps would need to be performed next? (Choose two.)
A. Replace Solution User Certificates (Intermediate CA)
B. Replace the VMware Directory Service Certificate (Intermediate CA)
C. Replace the VMware Directory Service Certificate
D. Replace Solution User Certificates
Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 15
Which three options are available for ESXi Certificate Replacement? (Choose three.)
A. VMware Certificate Authority mode
B. Custom Certificate Authority mode
C. Thumbprint mode
D. Hybrid Deployment
E. VMware Certificate Endpoint Authority Mode

Correct Answer: ABC QUESTION 16
Lockdown Mode has been enabled on an ESXi 6.x host and users are restricted from logging into the Direct Console User Interface (DCUI).
Which two statements are true given this configuration? (Choose two.)
A. A user granted administrative privileges in the Exception User list can login.
B. A user defined in the DCUI.Access without administrative privileges can login.
C. A user defined in the ESXi Admins domain group can login.
D. A user set to the vCenter Administrator role can login.

Correct Answer: AB QUESTION 17
Strict Lockdown Mode has been enabled on an ESXi host.
Which action should an administrator perform to allow ESXi Shell or SSH access for users with administrator privileges?
A. Grant the users the administrator role and enable the service.
B. Add the users to Exception Users and enable the service.
C. No action can be taken, Strict Lockdown Mode prevents direct access.
D. Add the users to vsphere.local and enable the service.

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 18
A common root user account has been configured for a group of ESXi 6.x hosts.
Which two steps should be taken to mitigate security risks associated with this configuration? (Choose two.)
A. Remove the root user account from the ESXi host.
B. Set a complex password for the root account and limit its use.
C. Use ESXi Active Directory capabilities to assign users the administrator role.
D. Use Lockdown mode to restrict root account access.

Correct Answer: BC QUESTION 19
An administrator wants to configure an ESXi 6.x host to use Active Directory (AD) to manage users and groups. The AD domain group ESX Admins is planned for administrative access to the host.
Which two conditions should be considered when planning this configuration? (Choose two.)
A. If administrative access for ESX Admins is not required, this setting can be altered.
B. The users in ESX Admins are not restricted by Lockdown Mode.
C. An ESXi host provisioned with Auto Deploy cannot store AD credentials.
D. The users in ESX Admins are granted administrative privileges in vCenter Server.

Correct Answer: AC QUESTION 20
Which two advanced features should be disabled for virtual machines that are only hosted on a vSphere system? (Choose two.)
A. isolation.tools.unity.push.update.disable
B. isolation.tools.ghi.launchmenu.change
C. isolation.tools.bbs.disable
D. isolation.tools.hgfsServerSet.enable

Correct Answer: AB

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QUESTION 1
What makes Avaya’s Fabric Connect fundamentally different to traditional IP networks?

A. It uses MPLS in new and more efficient ways
B. It uses OSPF to do the routing, based on the MAC address
C. It uses a new Avaya proprietary protocol to get away from IP with all its limitations
D. It enables a dynamic, agile and resilient network where Services need only be configured at the edge

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 2
How are Avaya’s Core Ethernet Switches differentiated from other Switches in the industry? (Select the two correct options)
A. They consistently implement our differentiating capabilities regardless of the ‘size’ of the network
B. They use a unique Clustering technology
C. They are smaller and lighter
D. They support the Spanning Tree Protocol

Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 3
We are at the beginning of an emerging market defined by which two of the following key inflection points? (Select two)
A. Consumerization of IT
B. Client-server computing
C. ATM to the desktop
D. Cloud computing and networking

Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 4
Select the three best reasons for giving administrators their own login and only the access privileges they need for their job. (Select three)
A. Increases the amount of software that needs to be installed
B. Increases network security
C. Helps to reduce downtime due to configuration errors
D. Allows provisioning changes to be tracked by individual user

Correct Answer: BCD
QUESTION 5
Your colleague is finalizing an Avaya Aura project with a customer. He found out that some of the existing non-Avaya edge switches will also need to be replaced and asks you “What kind of savings do Avaya Edge Switches offer over the competition?” Which three of the following reasons would you offer him? (Select three)
A. Avaya Edge Switches can run on DC power, which enable up to 30% energy savings.
B. Huge time savings because there is no need provision each phone and each edge switch manually.
C. It eliminates human error in ensuring that the correct VLAN and QoS setting get assigned to each device automatically.
D. When Miercom tested the ERS 4548GT-PWR series for example, they found that on D average it was 20-25% more energy efficient than the Cisco Catalyst 3750-X solution and the HP E4500 series solution and 50% more efficient than the Juniper EX 4200.

Correct Answer: ACD
QUESTION 6
While discussing a proposition with a prospective customer, they ask what the most important value propositions are that Avaya Data Center Solutions bring to the table. (Select the four most important value propositions)
A. Cost – Minimizing and Simplifying
B. Operations – Improving Time-to-Service
C. Performance – Applications are optimized
D. Availability – of business operations
E. Scalability – Built for Seamless Growth
F. Virtualization – of server capacity

Correct Answer: CDEF
QUESTION 7
A customer asks you about the benefits of stacking Avaya’s Edge Switches. Which three of the following responses are correct? (Select three)
A. Stacks share a single Power Supply, therefore save costs
B. Stacks offer scalability. Units can be added as needed – up to eight
C. Stacks are managed as a single entity
D. Stacks protect against unit or cable failure with fail-safe stacking
Correct Answer: ACD
What makes Avaya’s Fabric Connect fundamentally different to traditional IP networks?

A. It uses OSPF to do the routing, based on the MAC address
B. It uses a new Avaya proprietary protocol to get away from IP with all its limitations
C. It uses MPLS in new and more efficient ways
D. It enables a dynamic, agile and resilient network where Services need only be configured at the edge

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 9
Two things that help to make the IT department more cost efficient include? (Select two)
A. Automating repetitive tasks
B. Having multiple administrators share the same PC
C. Installing admin software on every admin computer
D. Reducing the learning of multiple user interfaces

Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 10
Avaya has a distinct advantage in the market because, unlike other vendors, our Fabric solution is not exclusive to only the largest and most expensive products. Which Avaya products currently support for our Fabric Connect technology? (Select three)
A. ERS 3500 (typically used at the Branch Edge)
B. VSP 9000 and ERS 8800 (typically used in the Core)
C. ERS 4800 and VSP 4000 (typically used at the Wiring Closet Edge)
D. VSP 7000 (typically used at the Data Center Edge)
QUESTION 11
Which three of the following characteristics represents the key highlights of ERS 4800 models? (Select three)
A. Stackable Chassis compatibility
B. Support for 1/10 Gig SFP+ uplinks
C. IPv6 forwarding of data traffic
D. Avaya Fabric Connect services to the wiring closet

Correct Answer: ACD
QUESTION 12
A customer is questioning the time savings provided by Avaya’s “Auto Unit Replacement”. He says that replacing the unit is only a small part of the whole process. Configuring the new unit can take a long time. How could you respond?
A. Explain that Miercom tested Avaya’s claim back in 2011 and stated “When replacing a unit in a Stack, the new unit was able to boot up, load the configuration and become operational in two minutes and 11 seconds’.
B. Make your point by saying that a well-trained Avaya engineer can replace a unit in just over ten minutes.
C. Make sure that the customer understands that “Auto Unit Replacement” only means the physical replacement of that unit and does not include configuration.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 13
How does Avaya VENA Fabric Connect help to reduce time-to-service? (Select two)
A. Provisioning changes only need to be made to the edge of the network rather than to every device and link
B. It replaces multiple legacy protocols with a vastly simplified implementation, extending VLANs Fabric-wide
C. It uses industry standard CLI commands
D. It uses MPLS in its core

Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 14
Avaya Wireless solutions address the market with which three of the following key enablers: (Select three)
A. Emergency services
B. Removing a need for wireless transmission
C. Enabling BYOD
D. Relying on a carrier’s network for wireless
E. Next generation unified WLAN

Correct Answer: ADE
QUESTION 15
Which Avaya Switch is ideally suited to deliver today’s pressing need for flexible, high-speed Ethernet connectivity in the high-performance Data Center Top-of-Rack (ToR) role?
A. V5P7000
B. ERS4800
C. VSP9000
D. ERS 5000

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 16
You have a large enterprise customer who requires a next-generation solution for a mission- critical Data Center that supports their requirements for multi-tenancy. Select the product that meets their requirements for a future-ready platform (40/100 Gigabit Ethernet) and cost- effectively facilitates service integration.
A. ERS8600
B. VSP9000
C. ERS8800
D. ER5 8300

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 17
The Shortest Path Bridging (SPB) standard is supported by multiple vendors. Which of the following features are added to create Avaya’s Fabric Connect technology, our extended implementation of SPB? (Select three)

A. Cloud based virtualization
B. Unicast and Multicast support
C. High-availability at the Edge
D. Layer 3 support

Correct Answer: ACD
QUESTION 18
Which two of the following are key benefits of Virtual Provisioning Services?
A. Hands-off configuration of the Avaya physical network devices based on predefined rules
B. The on-box element management tool
C. The WLAN software and the Site Model Designer

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QUESTION NO: 1
Which of the following Oracle products provides a comprehensive Integrated Development Environment (IDE)?
A. Oracle Enterprise Pack for Eclipse
B. Oracle JDeveloper
C. Oracle Service Registry
D. Enterprise Manager
Answer: A,B Explanation: A: Oracle Enterprise Pack for Eclipse is a free set of certified plug-ins, enabling WebLogic developers to support Java EE and Web Service standards. Oracle Enterprise Pack for Eclipse supports development with technologies including Database, Java SE, Java EE, Web Services, XML, Spring Framework and Oracle Fusion Middleware.
B: Oracle JDeveloper is a free integrated development environment that simplifies the development of Java-based SOA applications and user interfaces with support for the full development life cycle.
Incorrect answers
Oracle Service Registry and Enterprise Manager are not development tools.
QUESTION NO: 2
Which of the following statements best describes how the deployment supports closed-loop governance?
A. The Metadata Repository is integrated with the operational systems to link operational metrics to the assets to ensure that the assets perform asintended.
B. The Metadata Repositories deployed in each environment are chained to share asset usage information.
C. A closed-loop governance framework is deployed on a clustered server to monitor the governance activities.
D. Production systems are integrated to the developer desktops to validate the requirements against the implemented code.
Answer: B,C Explanation: SOA Software’s Policy Manager and Service Manager combine to form a comprehensive closed-loop SOA Governance solution.
Closed loop means:
*
Defining and managing actionable policies in a governance solution at design-time

*
Enforcing these policies via deep integration with a management solution at run-time

*
Auditing that these policies are being enforced

*
Using industry standards (WS-Policy, WS-MEX) where appropriate for information exchange Closed loop infrastructure enables demand and Value Management

*
Collect performance, usage and exception statistics at run-time

*
Track these statistics via the governance solution

*
Use live, audited information to drive value-based decisions about the effectiveness of different services and organizations

*
Provide developers with up to the minute information about a service in runtime to inform their decisions about which services to use

*
Manage supply and demand to ensure maximum efficiency and benefit from SOA

The products share a common registry and metadata repository to ensure seamless integration and offer active governance. Closed-loop governance will:

*
Ensure defined policies are enforced ** When you define a policy for a service you have to KNOW categorically that it is being enforced ** Generate audit trails for run-time and design-time policy compliance

*
Measure the real-world value of SOA ** Not just theoretical value ** How many applications are using each service, and how much are they using it ** NOT how many applications have asked to use a certain capacity of each service

*
Manage, monitor and control relationships between consumers and providers ** Enforced contracts ** Capacity planning Change management
The diagram below shows the relationships between SOA governance, security and management, demonstrating how SOA Policy Management forms a closed loop of policy, metrics, and audit.

http://www.soa.com/images/img_closed_loop.gif

QUESTION NO: 3
Which of the following are common uses of an Attribute Service?
A. to maintain metadata pertaining to audit log entries and attestation reports
B. to acquire data that are necessary to make access-control decisions
C. to securely supply personally identifiable information to applications
D. to determine which security policy is assigned to a Web Service
Answer: B,C Explanation: The Attribute Service(AS) retrieves user information from an attribute store. The AS retrieves user information associated with a user from variety of authoritative identity stores including, but not limited to, LDAP and database stores.

QUESTION NO: 4
Conventional Management and Monitoring tools focus and produce metrics on which one of the
following?
A. holistically across heterogeneous systems
B. metrics that measure individual resources
C. metrics that focus on understanding the relationship and Interactions between component
D. metrics that capture the combined behavior of several components interacting with the shared component
Answer: B
Explanation: Conventional tools tend to focus and produce metrics on individual resources which
is
inadequate for an agile shared services computing environment.

Note:
A metric is a unit of measurement used to report the health of the system that is
captured from the monitored infrastructure components. Metrics from all monitored
infrastructure components are stored and aggregated in the Management Repository,
providing administrators with a rich source of diagnostic information and trend
analysis data.

Reference: Oracle Reference Architecture,Management and Monitoring, Release 3.0
QUESTION NO: 5
Which of the following statements are true about perimeter security?
A. Though it is often associated with network security, it also applies to physical security measures as fences and locked doors.
B. It is most effective when there is only one perimeter. For example, when inner perimetersare established, they reduce the effectiveness of outer perimeters.
C. The Demilitarized Zone (DMZ) is the most protected zone of the network, which should be reserved for only the most sensitive data.
D. Connections should not be permitted to span more than one perimeter or firewall.
E. Perimeter security can be a component of a defense-in-depth strategy.
F. Perimeter security is most effective for protection against insider threats.
Answer: A,D,E
Explanation: A: Your inner perimeter consists of the doors, windows and walls of your building(s).
Protecting your inner perimeter is usually accomplished with locks, keys and alarm systems.

D: E: Defense in depth is a security strategy in which multiple, independent, and mutually reinforcing security controls are leveraged to secure an IT environment. Defense in depth should be applied so that a combination of firewalls, intrusion detection and prevention, user management, authentication, authorization, and encryption mechanisms are employed across tiers and network zones. Defense in depth is compatible with perimeter security in that network perimeters (or more generically, protection zones) can make up part of the defense in depth strategy.
Reference: Oracle Reference Architecture,Security, Release 3.1

QUESTION NO: 6
Which three primary components form IT Strategies from Oracle (ITSO)?
A. Enterprise Technology Strategies
B. Maximum Availability Architecture
C. Enterprise Solution Designs
D. Oracle Reference Architecture
E. Oracle Enterprise Architecture Framework
F. Oracle Unified Method
Answer: A,C,D
Explanation: ITSO is made up of three primary elements.
Enterprise Technology Strategies (ETS)
Enterprise Solution Designs (ESD)
Oracle Reference Architecture (ORA)

Reference: IT Strategies from Oracle, An Overview, Release 3.0

QUESTION NO: 7
Which of the following are the implications of the architecture principle, “Asset-centric approach must be applied to engineering processes”?
A. The development Infrastructure must support asset-centric engineering.
B. Assets must be associated with meaningful metadata that can be used to discover and interpret the assets.
C. Solutions developed must beintegrated and tested early and often.
D. Existing assets must be reused to fulfill whole or part functionality when available.
Answer: B Explanation: The underlying core principle of ORA Engineering is asset sharing and enterprise development through an integrated asset management approach. Most organizations use a Software Configuration Management (SCM) or Version Control System (VCS) for managing the code and configuration assets. These tools are great for managing the versioning of assets produced but they don’t maintain the metadata of the assets. Without metadata assets are not organized in context and it is hard to discover them. ORA recommends an asset-centric engineering process, where an Asset Manager is used to address the challenges posed by the traditional approaches. The Asset Manager is typically an enterprise-scoped Metadata Repository working in concert with SCMs and other types of asset repositories.
Reference: Oracle Reference Architecture,Software Engineering, Release 3.0
QUESTION NO: 8
What shortcomings of the Version Control Systems drive the need for a Metadata Repository?
A. Version Control Systems are not easily searchable.
B. Version Control Systems lack robust metadata that allows developers to determine relevance.
C. Version Control Systems don’t provide the level of consumer tracking and reporting necessary to support software reuse.
D. Version Control Systems do not allow the asset versions to be rolled back to a previousstate
Answer: B Explanation: The underlying core principle of ORA Engineering is asset sharing and enterprise development through an integrated asset management approach. Most organizations use a Software Configuration Management (SCM) or Version Control System (VCS) for managing the code and configuration assets. These tools are great for managing the versioning of assets produced but they don’t maintain the metadata of the assets. Without metadata assets are not organized in context and it is hard to discover them. ORA recommends an asset-centric engineering process, where an Asset Manager is used to address the challenges posed by the traditional approaches. The Asset Manager is typically an enterprise-scoped Metadata Repository working in concert with SCMs and other types of asset repositories.
Reference: Oracle Reference Architecture,Software Engineering, Release 3.0

QUESTION NO: 9
Which of the following are true statements about the benefits of standardizing on a common security framework?
A. Security requirements no longer need to be specified for eachindividual application; the framework will automatically determine what security needs to be applied.
B. A common set of security services and information can be used across the organization, promoting Infrastructure reuseand minimizing inconsistencies.
C. Secure application integrationis made easier via standardization on a preferred subset of technologies and options.
D. Administration and auditing are improved due to rationalization and standardization of identities, attributes, roles, policies, and so on.
E. Interoperability amid federation are easier to achieve via the adoption of common security and technology standards.
Answer: A,B,E
Explanation: In order to provide security in a consistent manner, a common set of infrastructure,

e.g. a security framework, must be used. The purpose of this framework is to rationalize security across the enterprise by:
*
Establishing a master set of security data that reflect the policies, IT resources, participants and their attributes across the entire domain of security

*
Mapping organizational structures, computing resources, and users to roles in a way that clearly depicts access privileges for the organization

*
Maintaining fine-grained access rules based on roles that have been established for the organization

*
Propagating the master security data to individual applications and systems that enforce security (A)

*
Detecting changes to security data residing on systems that have not been propagated from the master source of record, and sending alerts regarding these inconsistencies

*
Providing common security services, such as authentication, authorization, credential mapping, auditing, etc. that solutions can leverage going forward in place of custom-developed and proprietary functions (B)

*
Facilitating interoperability between systems and trust between security domains by acting as a trusted authority and brokering credentials as needed(E)

*
Centrally managing security policies for SOA Service interactions
The security framework should provide these types of capabilities as a value-add to the existing infrastructure. The intent is not to discard the capabilities built into current applications, but rather to provide a common foundation that enhances security across the enterprise. Security enforcement can still be performed locally, but security data should be modeled and managed holistically.
Incorrect:
C: Not a main goal.
D: Ease of administration and auditing is not a main goal here.
Reference: Oracle Reference Architecture,Security, Release 3.1, 4.1.1 Purpose of a Security Framework

QUESTION NO: 10
You are developing an Integration component that uses customer data. The source system defines customer data in a different format than expected. Which of the following options best describes how you would develop the component?
A. Create an object representation of customer data and use itin the component.
B. Externalize the data transformation by mapping the source data format to a canonical data format.
C. The data formats are different, so it is not possible to develop the component.
D. Write data from the source system into a database and read it back in the expected format.
Answer: A Explanation:
Note: It is quite common to encounter use cases that require transformation of information from one format to another, especially in the area of enterprise integration. Source systems and target systems may use very different representations of data and in some cases, a canonical data model might be used as a common intermediate format. In some cases, the transformation is a simple field-to-field mapping whereas in other cases it is a complex manipulation and conversion of data. It should be possible to visually map the source and target representations with the ability to enrich the elements to support both simple and complex data transformations.
QUESTION NO: 11
The Service-Oriented Integration (SOI) architecture includes an event-handling capability as illustrated and described in the Process View. Which statement best describes the rationale for including event handling in the SOI architecture?
A. Event-Driven Architecture (EDA) is a subset of SOI, so including event handling provides the EDA part of SOI.
B. The event-handling capability allows arbitrarily complex events to be handled by the architecture; i.e. Complex Event Handling (CEP) is part of the SOI architecture.
C. AH other interactions within the architecture are upper layers calling lower layers. The event- handling capability allows a Connectivity Service to call a Business Service, thus providing the ability to lower layers to call upper layers in the architecture.
D. The event-handling capability allows a back-end system that is included in the SOI to initiate action because something important has occurred within the back-end system.
E. By employing a publish-and-subscriber message approach, the event-handling capacity allows the SOI architecture to handle high-volume message traffic because publish-and-subscribe handles higher message volumes than request-response.
Answer: D Explanation:
Note:
Events allow one system (event emitter) to notify other systems (event sink) that
something of interest has changed. There are two broad categories of event types:

*
Business Event – A business event is an event that is of business relevance and would be readily understood by a business person.

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Technical Event – A technical event is an event that is relevant to IT but not directly relevant to the business.
As illustrated by the figure below, in this architecture all events are routed to the Business Process Layer and the appropriate business processes are executed for that event. Essentially this is a mechanism for a lower level in the architecture stack, the Connectivity Layer, to initiate actions that might include interactions with all other levels in the architecture. This is essential since the generated event will likely be backend system specific; therefore it is likely that the data must be normalized and some amount of custom logic may be required to convert the event into an event that is backend system agnostic.

Reference: Oracle Reference Architecture, Service-Oriented Integration, Release 3.0
QUESTION NO: 12
Service-Oriented Integration is based on creating a catalogue of SOA Services that expose existing capabilities from back-end systems. Which statement best describes how an SOA Service relates to the existing back-end systems?
A. Each SOA Service exposes the functionality from only a single back-end system to ensure the decoupling of SOA Services.
B. An SOA Service should expose the low-level interface of the back-end system to ensure that all back-end system capabilities are fully exposed.
C. An SOA Service should expose higher-level business capabilities by encapsulating the lower level Interfaces of the back-end systems.
D. Each SOA Service should expose only one isolated capability of the back-end systems to ensure isolation between SOA Service calls in composite applications.
E. All access to a back end system should be through a single SOA Service to ensure the back- end system will net become overloaded by service requests.
F. An SOA Service should connect to at least two back-end systems; otherwise the SOA Service is just duplicating the existing interface to the back-end system.
Answer: C Explanation: The primary purpose of the Business layer in the architecture is to define and automate the business processes external to, and independent of, the specific backend systems used in the organization. This isolates the business process from backend system changes,
and conversely, isolates the backend systems from business process changes.
De-coupling the business processes from the backend systems simplifies changes and
maintenance for business processes and backend systems.
The Business layer generally provides the greatest and most measurable business value.

Reference: Oracle Reference Architecture, Service-Oriented Integration, Release 3.0
QUESTION NO: 13
You need to redesign your application to improve performance. The potential solution requires the data to be kept in memory for faster access. The in-memory data requires full support for SQL with BI queries and there is no need to scale out further. Which Oracle product would you choose to implement your solution?
A. Oracle Coherence
B. Oracle TimesTen
C. Oracle TUXEDO
D. Oracle VM
Answer: B Explanation: Oracle TimesTen In-Memory Database (TimesTen) is a full-featured, memory-optimized, relational database with persistence and recoverability. It provides applications with the instant responsiveness and very high throughput required by database-intensive applications. Deployed in the application tier, TimesTen operates on databases that fit entirely in physical memory (RAM). Applications access the TimesTen database using standard SQL interfaces. For customers with existing application data residing on the Oracle Database, TimesTen is deployed as an in-memory cache database with automatic data synchronization between TimesTen and the Oracle Database.

QUESTION NO: 14
Which of the following statements about asset-centric engineering is true?
A. Project assets are maintained at each individual project level in an asset-centric engineering.
B. Asset-centric engineering promotes an integrated asset management approach in which assets are shared across the enterprise.
C. Asset-centric engineering uses multiple enterprise repositories to store and maintain the assets.
D. Asset-centric engineering requires that everything related to the assets,including metadata and payload, should be stored in the same repository.
Answer: D Explanation: The underlying core principle of ORA Engineering is asset sharing and enterprise development through an integrated asset management approach. Most organizations use a Software Configuration Management (SCM) or Version Control System (VCS) for managing the code and configuration assets. These tools are great for managing the versioning of assets produced but they don’t maintain the metadata of the assets. Without metadata assets are not organized in context and it is hard to discover them. ORA recommends an asset-centric engineering process, where an Asset Manager is used to address the challenges posed by the traditional approaches. The Asset Manager is typically an enterprise-scoped Metadata Repository working in concert with SCMs and other types of asset repositories.
Reference: Oracle Reference Architecture,Software Engineering, Release 3.0

QUESTION NO: 15
Which statements are true with regard to authorization checks being done in the Mediation Layer?
A. Performing authorization checksin the Mediation Layer provides a centralized approach to securing SOA Services.
B. Performing authorization checks in the Mediation Layer requires that all secured SOA Services be accessed via the same protocol.
C. Performing authorization checks in the Mediation Layer requires that all secured SOA Services be accessed only via the Mediation Layer.
D. Performing authorization checks in the Mediation Layer eliminates the need for role-based authentication.
E. Performing authorization checks in the Mediation Layer requires that user authentication be based on username and password.
Answer: A,D Explanation: Mediation is a key component in the overall architecture providing the decoupling between consumers and providers.
A: Although not always required, leveraging the authorization capability within the Mediation Layer provides a centralized approach to securing SOA Services.
Note: In addition to run time Service endpoint discovery, SOA infrastructure can provide additional value by acting as an intermediary and mediator between consumers and providers. For example, intermediaries can bridge the technology gaps between the two parties. Among their many capabilities are:
*
Translate (map) security credentials between different users/groups/roles or between different credential types

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Translate, or transform request and response messages

*
Accept requests via one transport or protocol and forward them on using a different transport or protocol (not B)

*
Route messages based on content within the request message (Content-based routing)

*
Route messages based on security policies

*
Add or remove security measures such as encryption and certificates

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Invoke multiple Service providers as part of a single Service request

*
Audit and/or log requests

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Deny requests based on access policies (SLAs, Usage Agreements)

*
Capture response time metrics and usage metrics

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Monitor and report on error conditions
Reference: Oracle Reference Architecture, Service-Oriented Integration, Release 3.0

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