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QUESTION 1
What is a primary competitive advantage of Rulerunner Service?
A. Actions only return TRUE or FALSE.
B. It is decoupled from Taskmaster so it can be used with other applications.
C. It is the only capture product with claims of being rule driven.
D. It is open source.

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 2
Which of the following is TRUE?
A. Taskmaster Server pushes work to machines dedicated to a specific task.
B. Taskmaster clients ask Taskmaster server if there is any work to be done.
C. Only one Taskmaster client may perform a given Task.
D. Batch routing depends on the Taskmaster server configuration.

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 3
The two main databases serviced by Taskmaster Server are called:
A. Alpha and Beta.
B. Test and Production.
C. Maintenance and Security.
D. Admin and Engine.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 4
“Pass Any Exam. Any Time.” – 2 IBM 000-M93: Practice Exam A different workflow must be used when .
A. images come from different sources
B. there is more than one verify operator involved
C. the underlying data structure for the batch is different
D. there is a mult-processor Rulerunner station involved

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 5
Document Separator Sheets are an example of using which types of Page Identification?
A. Position and OCR.
B. OCR and Pattern Match.
C. Pattern Match and Intellocate.
D. Barcodes and Position.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 6
Quattro is:
A. an alternative to using VMWare clients.

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QUESTION NO: 1

With workload management, an Administrator can set aside S-Blades to be used exclusively with a given database?
A. 1
B. 2
C. all

D. 0
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 2
Which of the following is TRUE about the GROOM TABLE command?
A. You must first run the nzstop command as the nz user from the host command line.
B. GROOM can materialize the results of previous ALTER TABLE ADD/DROP column commands.
C. The table being groomed will be locked exclusively during the groom operation.
D. GROOM is an administrative command that must be run by a DBA.
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 3
Which of the following statements about Netezza privileges is NOT true?
A. Privileges are additiveou cannot remove a privilege from a user who has been granted that privilege as a member of a group.
B. Object owners automatically have full access to their objects.
C. Users with privileges on an object can pass that object to others by default.
D. By default, newly created objects have no privileges associated with them.
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 4

Which of the following statements can be used to create a temporary table?
A. SELECT INTO #TEMPTABLE col1, col2 FROM MYTABLE;
B. CREATE TEMP TABLE AS TEMPTABLE SELECT col1, col2 FROM MYTABLE;
C. CREATE TEMPORARY TABLE MYTABLE SAMEAS MYOTHERTABLE;
D. None of the above.
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 5
Is it CORRECT that if a table is distributed randomly, ZoneMaps are not used?
A. ZoneMaps are not used at all.
B. ZoneMaps are used in the exact same way as in any other distribution.
C. ZoneMaps are used only when statistics are not up to date.
D. None of the above.
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 6
Which of the following statements about external tables is NOT accurate?
A. Querying external tables is about the same speed as querying normal tables.
B. Loading data via external tables is about the same speed as using the native nzload utility.
C. External tables can be used to load remote data files via an ODBC or JDBC connection.
D. External tables can be used to load or unload data from Netezza.
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 7

Which of the following is NOT true of the GENERATE STATISTICS command?
A. The only difference between EXPRESS and FULL statistics is how dispersion is calculated.
B. The user can specify whether FULL or EXPRESS statistics are calculated.
C. ZoneMaps are disabled for the duration of the GENERATE STATISTICS command.
D. It requires specific permissions.
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 8
Which of the following options best completes this statement? When a query is compiled, .
A. exactly one snippet is generated representing the entire query
B. one snippet is generated for each join within the query
C. the number of snippets generated depends on a number of factors, including the complexity of the query
D. one snippet is generated for each TB of data scanned
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 9
Which of the following is MOST TRUE of how Netezza stores data?
A. Netezza is a columnar database.
B. Netezza is a row-based database.
C. Netezza uses a form of columnar compression, but stores data in a row-based format.
D. Netezza stores data in a format determined by ZoneMaps.
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 10

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1. Which of the following components collects and parses the live database traffic used to trigger a real-time alert when a security policy rule is broken?
A. The Real Time Communications Framework
B. The Change Audit System
C. The Policy Engine
D. The Live Report Builder Answer: C
2. What is Guardium’s primary storage mechanism for logs and audit information?
A. Data can only be stored in flat files on the collector (one file per S-TAP).
B. Data storage can only be managed individually by each S-TAP, with audit data stored locally on the data server in _ flat files.
C. Data is stored on the collector in a normalized relational database.
D. Data is stored locally on each server with an S-TAP but is managed centrally through the collector. Answer: C
3. In a Guardium environment where data servers can talk to the collector, what is the relationship between the S-TAP and the collector appliance?
A. There exists no relationship since the S-TAP and the collector are incompatible Guardium entities.
B. The S-TAP reports database activity to the collector for policy management and auditing.
C. A collector can only interact with one S-TAP for policy management and auditing.
D. The collector sends the S-TAP information about its policies so it knows what traffic to intercept. Answer: B
4. Which of the following best describes the role of the aggregator in a Guardium environment?
A. The aggregator is a Guardium appliance that collects and consolidates information from multiple collectors to a single Aggregation Server, allowing for reporting across the enterprise.
B. The aggregator is the Guardium appliance that communicates with mainframes.
C. The aggregator is a Guardium appliance that allows a collector and a Central Policy Manager to communicate and is required in multi-collector environments.
D. The aggregator is another name for the Central Policy Manager. Answer: A
5. How is authentication and encryption implemented between collectors, aggregators and the Central Policy Manager in a multi-tier Guardium environment?
A. Using an encrypted file containing the system password that must be copied to the Central Policy Manager and collectors.
B. A System Shared Secret is specified through the GUI for each collector and the Central Policy Manager.
C. The Central Policy Manager scans the network for Guardium collectors and performs a security handshake with each appliance.
D. The communication between collectors and the Central Policy Manager is based on unsecured network packets. Answer: B

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QUESTION NO: 1
What are two types of work item approvals? (Choose two.)
A. approval
B. certification
C. review
D. validation
E. confirmation
Answer: A,C
QUESTION NO: 2
Which attribute is used to assign a work item to a team area?
A. owner
B. category
C. component
D. stream
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 3
What is the Jazz Team Build component?
A. A component that provides build awareness to the team
B. A component that helps you create a team for a new project
C. A component that provides reporting capabilities from a data warehouse
D. A component that helps you manage versions of source files
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 4
In a work item comment, what is happening when “@” followed by a user ID (for example, “@clara”) is added?
A. The addressee receives a notification that she was mentioned in the comment.
B. The work item is automatically assigned to the addressee.
C. A review is created, and the addressee is added as a reviewer.
D. The comment is only visible to the addressee that is mentioned. Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 5
What are three ways builds are scheduled and initiated? (Choose three.)
A. at a continuous interval in minutes on selected days
B. at a particular time for defined days
C. by a user with appropriate permissions
D. automatically after a user saves a change
E. By adding the keyword “@build” in a work item comment
Answer: A,B,C
QUESTION NO: 6
What is the repository workspace?
A. a server-side entity that tracks items that have been placed under source control
B. a local workspace that holds a copy of specific sets of file versions that are stored in Rational Team Concert
C. the Eclipse workspace used when Rational Team Concert is launched by using the Eclipse client
D. the local copy of the latest file versions on a Rational Team Concert stream
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 7
Which capabilities does Rational Team Concert support out-of-the-box?
A. process configuration, reporting, and business process management
B. task tracking, planning, and source control management
C. build automation, performance testing, and test virtualization
D. planning, real time dashboards, and use-case modeling
Answer: B QUESTION NO: 8

A project manager is creating a new plan view and does not like the default display. What are the other plan view display options?
A. Work Breakdown, Taskboard, and Roadmap
B. Load, Progress (Hours), and Progress (Size)
C. Tree, Bars, and Folder
D. Tree, Taskboard, and Kanban
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 9
Roles can be defined at which levels?
A. project and timelines
B. project and team area
C. team area and timelines
D. Iteration and release
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 10
How do you make use of a process template?
A. By adding the team members to the process template
B. By specifying the process template when you create a project area.
C. By associating a process template to the current iteration.
D. By creating a process template category for the project
Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 11
A customer expects a work item with an appropriate “Planned for” attribute to show on a team’s iteration plan, but the work item is missing from the plan view. What is the most likely reason?
A. The work item’s owner is unassigned.
B. The work item’s owner is not part of the team owning the plan.
C. The work item’s Filed Against category is not associated to the team owning the plan.
D. The work item’s due date is set to a date after the iteration’s end date.
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 12
What is associated with a project area and is a collection of practices, rules, and guidelines?
A. process
B. Team area
C. work item
D. rule set
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 13
Which three Rational Team Concert clients support reporting? (Choose three.)
A. RTC client for Microsoft Visual Studio IDE
B. RTC web client
C. RTC Eclipse client
D. RTC context-aware search tool
E. RTC commande-line interface
Answer: A,B,C
QUESTION NO: 14
What does the filled-in shape icon shown below indicate in Team Artifacts view?

A. Files in that component have been checked out.
B. All files from that component have been loaded into a local sandbox.
C. There are incoming changes in that component.
D. There are outgoing changes in that component.
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 15
A work item appears in a plan when which two conditions are met? (Choose two.)
A. The Filed Against field has the work item category linked to the team area that owns the plan.
B. The Due Date field of the work item is on or before the end date of the plan.
C. The work item is assigned to a member of the team that owns the plan.
D. The Planned For field in the work item matches the Iteration field of the plan.
E. The work item is created by a member of the team area that owns the plan.
Answer: A,D
QUESTION NO: 16
Which two build types are supported with Rational Team Concert? (Choose two.)
A. personal builds
B. composite builds
C. public builds
D. parallel builds
Answer: A,C
QUESTION NO: 17
Which three work item types appear by default in the Scrum template? (Choose three.)
A. epic
B. milestone
C. defect
D. retrospective
E. sprint
Answer: A,C,D QUESTION NO: 18

What are three notification mechanisms in Rational Team Concert? (Choose three.)
A. email notification
B. Short Message service
C. feed of changes
D. pop-up alerts
E. blog
Answer: A,C,D
QUESTION NO: 19
A team wants to benefit from synchronous collaboration by using instant messaging. Which statement is true about Rational Team Concert support for instant messaging?
A. Rational Team Concert does not integrate with instant messaging tools.
B. Teams can use chat features only if they are using the IBM Sametime instant messaging product.
C. Rational Team Concert provides instant messaging capabilities, and no other tool is needed to initiate chats.
D. Teams members can initiate chats when they configured Rational Team Concert to integrate with an instant messaging tool
Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 20
In the Eclipse client, which statement best describes the Event Log?
A. It displays all the precondition actions for source control actions.
B. It shows information delivered by news feeds.
C. It provides a simplified interface to create new defects.
D. It is used to create new events for a project team.
Answer: B

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QUESTION NO: 1
A customer is considering a PureFlex Express but they insist on using their own rack. Which of the following is the correct response for the PureSystem technical specialist?
A. The PureSystem nodes may be installed in a BladeCenter H with an RPQ
B. The chassis must be installed in an IBM rack specific to the PureFlex
C. The chassis may be installed in an IBM rack specific to the BladeCenter
D. Customers may use a non PureSystem rack, but it is not the preferred method
Answer: D Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 2
A customer is considering a PureFlex Express. The customer wants redundant high speed Ethernet and redundant native Fibre Channel connections. Which of the following is the minimum number of switch bays required and number of switch bays remaining available for expansion?
A. 2 and 2
B. 2 and 4
C. 4 and 0
D. 4 and 4
Answer: C Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 3
A customer wants a single PureFlex Express chassis with internal storage virtualization, two 4-socket Power nodes, and three 2-socket x86 nodes. Which of the following is the number of open node bays remaining unused?

A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. 3
Answer: C Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 4
A customer currently runs virtualized server environments on x86 and AIX. There are different teams and management for each platform, as well as different teams for storage, networking, etc. The customer wants to virtualize all department applications and consolidate resources. What is the most efficient way for a specialist to determine who is a decision maker or an influencer or a recommender?
A. Talk to the CIO or CTO
B. Talk to the Purchasing Agent to determine who makes decisions for server platforms
C. Talk to the x86 Development Manager on how they are able to get workloads to run on x86 or AIX
D. Talk to leaders in multiple organizations to understand how IT solution purchases have been funded
Answer: A Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 5
A business partner sales specialist and the business partner technical specialist are calling on a medium sized prospect that is designated as business partner led. The prospect raised several very technical specific questions comparing PureFlex Enterprise with a Cisco UCS. Which of the following IBM resources should the technical specialist engage first to address those questions?
A. Competeline
B. Supportline
C. IBM Cisco alliance team
D. Distributor configuration specialist

Answer: A Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 6
A customer is looking over a configuration for a PureFlex System Express offering and is questioning a Lab Services line item with a quantity of three. The customer asks what this means. Which of the following is the correct description?
A. Provides PureFlex training for up to three customer personnel.
B. Up to three PureFlex compute nodes will be configured for the customer prior to shipment.
C. A three day services engagement to implement the PureFlex chassis, management, storage, and primary node.
D. An extension of three days to the included services engagement that is part of standard installation of a PureFlex purchase.
Answer: C Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 7
A PureFlex prospect asks what is the Power compute node feature that is the equivalent of vMotion on the x86 compute node. Which of the following is the equivalent?
A. Live Partition Mobility
B. Virtual IO Server (VIOS)
C. Live Application Mobility
D. N_Port ID Virtualization (NPIV)
Answer: A Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 8
A prospect is considering a Flex System solution that has one p260 node and four x240 nodes. Virtualization hypervisors will be deployed on all five nodes. What component needs to be included for this solution to function?

A. Internal disk
B. Flex System V7000
C. Flex System Manager
D. Converged network switches
Answer: C Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 9
Which of the following Storwize V7000 advanced functions allows for the retention of both the image mode and managed mode disks during migration, and provides seamless fail over in the event of a failure after the migration?
A. FlashCopy
B. Global Mirror
C. VDisk Mirroring
D. Thin Provisioning
Answer: C Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 10
A PureFlex Express prospect has a need for several very small partitions. Which of the following is the minimum percentage of a core needed to define an LPAR in a PureFlex POWER7+ compute node using PowerVM?
A. 1%

B. 5%
C. 10%
D. 0.1%
Answer: B Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 11
A technical specialist needs to identify and reduce the risk for a new PureFlex foundation

implementation Which of the following is an IBM requirement for the technical specialist?
A. Meet with the SMEs to perform a TDA
B. Meet with the CFO to review the financial plan
C. Meet with the IBM Storage Specialist to review the implementation plan.
D. Meet with the IBM Client Executive to review the PureFlex implementation plan
Answer: A Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 12
A customer is contemplating two POWER-based solutions to run a compute intensive application. One option using IBM BladeCenter PS704 blades and another using IBM PureFlex p460 Compute Nodes. Which of the following attributes would make an IBM PureFlex solution attractive over IBM BladeCenter?
A. L3 cache size
B. Power requirements
C. CPU clock frequency
D. Number of I/O options
Answer: C Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 13
A PureFlex Enterprise prospect would like all of the services below. Which of the following must be covered by a separate contract in addition to the standard IBM Lab Services?
A. Account Advocate
B. External SAN integration
C. Three year Warranty Service
D. Two annual microcode analyses
Answer: B Explanation:

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QUESTION: 1
Which of the following are important concerns in software architecture?

A. Describing the significant elements of a system their interfaces their collaborations and their composition
B. Selecting the key structural elements and interfaces for composing a system
C. Composing structural and behavioral elements into logical subsystems
D. Creating a detailed class design
E. Specifying significant behavior in terms of collaborations among structural elements
Answer: A,B,C,E

QUESTION: 2
What is an iteration Workflow?

A. Some action that a role performs, which provides a meaningful result in the context of the project
B. A collection of activities within an iteration which are related to a major “area of concern”
C. A sequential view of the process, describing a typical workflow within an iteration of a given phase
D. A cycle of inception Elaboration, Construction, Transition.
Answer: D
QUESTION: 3
Which of the following is true about the generalization relationship?

A. It is represented by a dashed arrow
B. It is represented by a diamond symbol.
C. It is a special form of aggregation
D. It is often called inheritance

Answer: D
QUESTION: 4 Which of the following statements are true concerning the Development Case?(Select all that apply)
A. You can use it to specify the degree of formality associated with an artifact
B. It is fixed during inception and does not generally change over the course of a project
C. You can use it to specify the tools used to produce an artifact
D. It tells you which artifacts to produce

Answer: A,C,D
QUESTION: 5
How is a class represented in basic UML Notation?

A. Arrow
B. Rectangle containing the object’s name
C. Oval
D. Rectangle with three compartments
E. Stick figure
Answer: D

QUESTION: 6
Which of the following are models in Rational Unified Process? (Select all that apply)

A. Construction Model
B. Implementation Model
C. Requirements Model
D. Design Model

Answer: B, D
QUESTION: 7 Which of the following workflow details belong to the Configuration & Change Management discipline? (Select all that apply)
A. Manage Baseline and Releases
B. Change and Deliver Configuration items
C. Manage iteration
D. Manage Change Requests
E. Define the System
Answer: A,B,D

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Question: 1
By examining a DB2 accounting report, how can you determine if DASD I/O contention is a factor in a poor performing application?
A. Divide the number of get pages by the number of synchronous I/Os.
B. Divide the synchronous I/O wait time by the number of synchronous I/Os.
C. Divide the asynchronous I/O wait time by the number of synchronous I/Os.
D. Divide the class 2 elapsed time by the number of synchronous I/Os.
Answer: B

Question: 2
Which three statements are correct for automatic management of buffer pool storage in DB2 9? (Choose three.)
A. You do not need to ALTER BUFFERPOOL with AUTOSIZE(YES) to enable thi functionality.
B. DB2 provides sizing information to WLM.
C. DB2 communicates to WLM each time allied agents encounter delays due to read I/O.
D. DB2 periodically reports BPOOL size and random read hit ratios to WLM.
E. The automatic altered buffer pool sizes are resized to the original with the recycle of th D sub-system.
Answer: B, C, D

Question: 3
There is a suspected problem with catalog table space DSNDB06.SYSDBASE. Should a problem be discovered, which series of tasks could you run to analyze and resolve the problem?
A. Run DSN1CHKR against DSNDB06.SYSDBASE; run REPAIR DSNDB06.SYSDBASE a necessary.
B. STOP DSNDB06.SYSDBASE; run REPAIR DBD against DSNDB06.SYSDBASE as necessary.
C. START DSNDB06.SYSDBASE ACCESS(UT); run DSN1CHKR against DSNDB06.SYSDBASE; run REPAIR DSNDB06.SYSDBASE as necessary, START DSNDB06.SYSDBASE ACCESS(RW).
D. STOP DSNDB06.SYSDBASE; run CHECK DATA to validate RI constraints; run DSN1CHKR DSNDB06.SYSDBASE; run REPAIR DSNDB06.SYSDBASE as necessary, START DSNDB06.SYSDBASE.
Answer: C
Question: 4
Which privilege is required to use the ACCESS command?
A. DISPLAY
B. STARTDB
C. MONITOR
D. ACCESSDB
Answer: B
Question: 5

You have to recover your complete DB2 system by image copies and the RECOVER utility. You start the recovery with DSNDB01.SYSUTILX and DSNDB01.DBD01. Which table space must be recovered next?
A. DSNDB01.SPT01
B. DSNDB01.SYSLGRNX
C. DSNDB06.SYSCOPY
D. DSNDB06.SYSDBASE
Answer: C

Question: 6
Within which two DB2 address spaces may the execution of a DB2 stored procedure occur? (Choose two.)
A. Workload Manager SPAS
B. Database Services (DBM1)
C. DB2-established SPAS
D. Distributed Data Facility (DDF)
E. System Services (MSTR)
Answer: A, B

Question: 7
Which two accounting trace classes must be active when tracing package and DBRM related activity? (Choose two.)
A. class 1
B. class 2
C. class 3
D. class 5
E. class 7
Answer: A, E

Question: 8
You create a system level point-in-time recovery conditional restart control record with SYSPITR value of FFFFFFFFFFFF. Afterwards, you run the RESTORE SYSTEM utility. Which statement is correct?
A. RESTORE SYSTEM does not do anything, because this SYSPITR value indicates a “no peration”.
B. The specified LRSN is an IBM internal SYSPITR value, reserved for serviceability only.
C. RESTORE SYSTEM fails because the SYSPITR value is outside the range of valid log points.
D. The whole DB2 data sharing group is recovered without log truncation.
Answer: D
Question: 9
What is a benefit of using the in-memory work file in DB2 9?
A. Improves performance using TEMP database.
B. Avoids I/Os for the declared global temporary tables.
C. Improves performance for small sorts.
D. Sorts a large number of rows faster.

Answer: C

Question: 10
A user job runs a very long time without commit and then the application bends. The job pdated a critical table that is used by many applications. The back out is taking a long ime. hichstatement describes the appropriate action to take?
A. Cancel the DB2 system since this is a critical resource that is needed by many applications.
B. Issue the -CANCEL THREAD(token) NOBACKOUT.
C. Let DB2 continue with the back out.
D. Restart the system using the LBACKOUT=AUTO system parameter.
Answer: C

Question: 11
You are migrating your DB2 subsystem from version 8 to DB2 9. You have already used the user-defined RTS tables in version 8 and you are planning to also use RTS in version 9. Which two statements are true? (Choose two.)
A. DSNRTSDB is integrated into the DB2 9 catalog.
B. The existing the real-time statistics data is copied from your user-defined tables to catalog tables as part of the migration to CM.
C. You can safely drop your user-defined RTS database once you are in ENFM.
D. You should keep your user-defined RTS database until you have fully migrated to NFM.
E. Execute DDL in member DSNTESS in SDSNSAMP to create the RTS database.
Answer: A, C

Question: 12
You are planning the migration of your DB2 subsystem from version 8 to version 9. Rebinding existing packages is highly recommended, but you are also worrying about potential problems that might occur with new access paths after rebind. Which action gives you the option to rebind packages with the ability to fall back to the original access path if performance problems are encountered?
A. Use REBIND PACKAGE option PLANMGMT(BASIC) or (EXTENDED). B. Use REBIND PACKAGE option REOPT(ONCE).
C. Use REBIND PACKAGE option OPTHINT.
D. Use REBIND PACKAGE option KEEPDYNAMIC(YES).
Answer: A

Question: 13
A number of jobs are waiting for an allied connection to access a DB2 subsystem. What should be done to increase the number of allied connections that can be allocated concurrently?
A. Increase the value of MAXDBAT.
B. Increase the value of CTHREAD.
C. Increase the value of MAXKEEPD.
D. Increase the value of MAXDS.
Answer: B
Question: 14

A DB2 subsystem is being migrated/converted from DB2 Version 8 to DB2 9. The subsystem currently has these characteristics: new DB2 9 functions are not available; no DB2 9 objects can exist; the subsystem cannot fall-back to CM (conversion mode); the subsystem cannot fall-back to Version 8; the subsystem cannot coexist with any Version 8 systems in a data sharing group. Which mode describes the DB2 subsystem?
A. CM* (conversion mode*)
B. ENFM (enabling-new-function mode)
C. ENFM* (enabling-new-function mode*)
D. NFM (new-function mode)
Answer: B

Question: 15
Which two statements regarding system parameters are true? (Choose two.)
A. Indexes can now be mapped to 8K and 16K buffer pools assigned by default using the system parameter IDXBPOOL.
B. Implicit table space data sets are always defined at create time without a system parameter to override this behavior.
C. Indexes can be compressed for an entire subsystem by setting the IDXCOMP system parameter to YES.
D. The default for BIND option DBPROTOCOL can no longer be specified using the system parameter DBPROTCL.
E. The amount of work file storage used by any one agent cannot be controlled via system parameters.
Answer: A, D

Question: 16
Which two methods can be used to configure the use of a SSL secure port on a DB2 for z/OS server? (Choose two.)
A. Specify “Y” in the SECURE column of SYSIBM.SYSLOCATIONS.
B. Specify a secure port value in the PORT column of SYSIBM.SYSLOCATIONS.
C. Update the DDF statement in the BSDS using DSNJU003.
D. Specify the TCP/IP port number in the DRDA SECURE PORT field of the Distributed Data Facility Panel 2 (DSNTIP5).
E. Specify the value of the secure port in the DRDA PORT field of DSNTIP5.
Answer: C, D

Question: 17
In a data sharing system, a system programmer observes very high page p-lock contention. Which two actions can they take to reduce this contention? (Choose two.)
A. Reduce row level locking for objects used in high volume transactions.
B. For table spaces defined with LOCKSIZE ANY, use ISOLATION(UR) for high volume query transactions using these objects.
C. ALTER heavy used table spaces to use COMPRESS NO.
D. Ensure heavy used indexes are defined with COPY NO.
E. ALTER heavy used table spaces to use TRACKMOD NO.
Answer: A, E Question: 18

An accounting report shows high class 3 times. Which three could contribute to the class 3 times? (Choose three.)
A. elapsed time
B. not accounted time
C. page latch
D. service task switch
E. synchronous I/O
Answer: C, D, E

Question: 19
The DB2-supplied SQL Procedure Processor stored procedure DSNTPSMP requires which two for execution? (Choose two.)
A. DB2 for z/OS REXX Language Support
B. Workload Manager SPAS with NUMTCB=1
C. Workload Manager SPAS with NUMTCB > 1
D. Optimization Service Center
E. Java Virtual Machine
Answer: A, B

Question: 20
A customer has just migrated their DB2 system to V9 new function mode. They currently use the BACKUP SYSTEM utility and have optionally dumped the backup to tape. Which action should be performed to only use the system level backup that was taken to disk?
A. Run the DSNJU003 utility and modify the system point in time backup record to have DUMPSTATE=NONE.
B. Use the BACKUPTYPE(DASD) keyword on the RESTORE SYSTEM utility.
C. Use the TAPEDUMP(NORECSYS) keyword on the BACKUP SYSTEM utility when the backup is taken.
D. Set the RESTORE_RECOVER_FROMDUMP system parameter to NO.
Answer: D

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QUESTION 1
Which of the following applies to nickname usage?

A. Nicknames cannot be created for views.
B. An MQT definition cannot contain nicknames.
C. Nicknames cannot be specified in SQL/XML statements embedded in static SQL.
D. For each nickname referenced in a query, the authorization ID of the statement must have at least CONTROL authorization.
Answer: C
QUESTION 2
Given the following table:

EMP
EMPNO NAME DEPTNO SALARY
===== ====== ======= =======
0010 JOSH D95 30000
0020 JENNA D98 25000
0030 DYLAN D95 10000
0040 TRACY D90 33000

and the following trigger definition:
CREATE TRIGGER track_chgs
AFTER UPDATE ON emp
REFERENCING NEW_TABLE AS ntable
FOR EACH STATEMENT MODE DB2SQL
BEGIN ATOMIC
INSERT INTO changes
SELECT empno, current timestamp FROM ntable;
END;
After executing the following SQL statements:
UPDATE emp SET deptno = ‘D98’ WHERE deptno = ‘D95’;
INSERT INTO emp VALUES(‘0050’, ‘KEN’, ‘D90’, 35000);
UPDATE emp SET salary=salary – 500 WHERE salary > 35000;
UPDATE emp SET salary=salary + 1000 WHERE salary <= 25000;
What value will be returned by this query?
SELECT count(*) FROM changes

A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
Answer: C

QUESTION 3
After executing the following SQL statements:
CREATE TABLE tab1 (
col1 INT NOT NULL,
col2 CHAR(1),
PRIMARY KEY(col1));
CREATE TABLE tab2
( col1 INT ,
col2 CHAR(1),
FOREIGN KEY (col1) REFERENCES tab1(col1)
ON DELETE CASCADE
ON UPDATE NO ACTION );
INSERT INTO tab1 VALUES(1, ‘A’);
INSERT INTO tab1 VALUES(2, ‘B’);
INSERT INTO tab2 VALUES(3, ‘A’);
INSERT INTO tab2 VALUES(2, ‘B’);
UPDATE tab1 SET col1 = col1 + 1;
DELETE FROM tab1 WHERE col2 = ‘B’;
What values will be returned by the following SQL statement? SELECT col1, col2 FROM tab2

A. COL1 COL2
==== ====
2 ‘A’

B. COL1 COL2
==== ====
2 ‘B’

C. COL1 COL2
==== ====
3 ‘A’

D. COL1 COL2
==== ====
2 ‘B’
3 ‘A’

Answer: B
QUESTION 4
Three applications A, B, and C run concurrently and access the same table on a database server.
Application A inserts new data to the table. Applications B and C, among other processes, issue
two different queries against the table multiple times within their respective Units of Work (UOW).
Application A always receives an identical set of results from its query within the UOW, however,
almost every result set returned by a query to the application B within the UOW is different.
This is unacceptable and must be resolved. What would be the most efficient method ensuring
that data is read/reread with full consistency in application B?
A. Bind the application B with isolation level RR.
B. Bind the application B with isolation level RS.
C. Include the WITH RR clause in the query select statement of the application B.
D. Have the application B issue a share for read lock on the table for the duration of the query.
Answer: C
QUESTION 5 Which of the following trigger definitions will ensure that the city column, EMP_CITY, in the EMP table always contains a string value with all upper-case characters when new rows are added?
A. CREATE TRIGGER upper_case_city BEFORE INSERT ON emp REFERENCING NEW AS n FOR EACH ROW MODE DB2SQL BEGIN ATOMIC SET n.emp_city=UPPER(n.emp_city); END
B. CREATE TRIGGER upper_case_city BEFORE INSERT ON emp REFERENCING NEW_TABLE AS n FOR EACH STATEMENT MODE DB2SQL BEGIN ATOMIC SET n.emp_city=UPPER(n.emp_city); END
C. CREATE TRIGGER upper_case_city BEFORE INSERT ON emp REFERENCING NEW AS n FOR EACH ROW MODE DB2SQL BEGIN ATOMIC INSERT INTO emp VALUES(n.emp_id, n.emp_name, n.emp_address, UPPER(n.emp_city)); END;
D. CREATE TRIGGER upper_case_city INSTEAD OF INSERT ON emp REFERENCING NEW AS n FOR EACH ROW MODE DB2SQL BEGIN ATOMIC INSERT INTO emp VALUES(n.emp_id, n.emp_name, n.emp_address, UPPER(n.emp_city)); END
Answer: A
QUESTION 6 Given the code:

try {
Class.forName(“com.ibm.db2.jcc.DB2Driver”);
conn = DriverManager.getConnection(url, user, pwd);
. . .
}
The conn variable represents an instance of which of the following classes?

A. Connection
B. DriverManager
C. DB2Connection
D. JavaConnection
Answer: A
QUESTION 7
Given the following code:
public static void javastp( int inparm,
int[] outparm,
ResultSet[] rs
)
throws SQLException
{
Connection con;
// fill in connection code
PreparedStatement stmt = null;
String sql = “SELECT value FROM table01 WHERE index = ?”;
//Prepare the query with the value of index
stmt = con.prepareStatement( sql );
stmt.setInt( 1, inparm );
//Execute query and set output parm
rs[0] = stmt.executeQuery();
outparm[0] = inparm + 1;
//Close open resources
if (stmt != null) stmt.close();
if (con != null) con.close();
return;
}
Which of the following statements would correctly initialize the variable con?

A. con = DriverManager.getConnection( “jdbc:default” );
B. con = DriverManager.getConnection( “jdbc:connection” );
C. con = DriverManager.getConnection( “default:connection” );
D. con = DriverManager.getConnection( “jdbc:default:connection” );
Answer: D

QUESTION 8
Given the following EMPLOYEE table:

EMPNO FIRSTNAME LASTNAME
———– —————– —————
000010 CHRISTINE HAAS
000020 MICHAEL THOMPSON
000030 SALLY KWAN
000050 JOHN GEYER
000060 IRVING STERN

If the following Java pseudo code is executed in the sequence shown below:
Class.forName(“com.ibm.db2.jcc.DB2Driver”);
Connection conn =
DriverManager.getConnection(“jdbc:db2://mydb2:50000/sample”, “db2user”, “db2pwd”);
String stmt = “SELECT * FROM employee ORDER BY empno”;
PreparedStatement ps = conn.prepareStatement(stmt);
ResultSet rs = ps.executeQuery();
rs.afterLast();
What is the result of the afterLast() method call?

A. A SQLWarning is thrown.
B. An SQLException is thrown.
C. The cursor is positioned after the end of the resultset.
D. The cursor is positioned before the beginning of the resultset.
Answer: B
QUESTION 9
A developer uses DB2 Add-Ins for Eclipse and the DB2 Universal JDBC driver to write an
application that accesses DB2 for z/OS and DB2 for i5/OS. The New Database Connection
wizard returns the following error message when the database connection is attempted:
“Problems encountered while trying to establish connection xyz.
Explanation: ‘No license present.'”
What is the most likely reason for this error?

A. The COM.ibm.db2.jcc.license class was not included in the project. B. The user profile specified is not recognized by the target database.
C. The db2jcc_license_cisuz.jar file is not specified in the Java classpath.
D. The current user does not have the license required to log into the server operating system.
Answer: C
QUESTION 10
Given the following Java code snippet:
Connection con;
PreparedStatement pstmt;
int numUpd;
Which of the following illustrates the proper use of parameter markers?
A. UPDATE ? SET PHONENO = “55555” WHERE EMPNO = ?
pstmt.setString(1,”EMPLOYEE”);
pstmt.setString(2,”000010″);

B. UPDATE ? SET PHONENO = ? WHERE EMPNO = EMPLOYEE
pstmt.setString(1,”EMPLOYEE”);
pstmt.setString(2,”4567″);

C. pstmt = con.prepareStatement(“UPDATE EMPLOYEE SET PHONENO = ? WHERE
EMPNO = ?”);
pstmt.setString(1,”4657″);
pstmt.setString(2,”000010″);

D. pstmt = con.prepareStatement(“UPDATE ? SET PHONENO = “5555” WHERE EMPNO
= ?”);
pstmt.setString(1,”EMPLOYEE”);
pstmt.setString(2,”000010″);

Answer: C

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QUESTION 1
Which uvbackup option uses an existing list of files to be backed up?
A. uvbackup -f filename
B. uvbackup -v filename
C. uvbackup -file filename
D. uvbackup -cmdfil filename
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 2
When converting an account from UNIX to Windows, which method will handle the conversion?
A. Use FTP from Windows to UNIX
B. Use ‘uvbackup’ on UNIX and ‘uvrestore’ on Windows
C. Use a utility like LAPLINK to transport the files
D. Use ‘uvbackup’ on the UNIX system and ‘cpio’ utility on Windows system

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 3
Which command can A Certkiller .com user use to clear the data stack built either from a DATA statement in a paragraph or a BASIC program?
A. CLEARDATA
B. CLEARSTACK
C. STACKCLEAR
D. CLEAR.DATASTACK
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 4
Which command displays a list of files being used by a UniVerse process?
A. LISTFL
B. LIST.DF

C. PORT.STATUS FILEMAP
D. PORT.STATUS filename
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 5
What file needs to be altered on the UNIX server when defining the port for UniVerse ODBC?
A. /etc/hosts
B. /uv/services
C. /etc/services
D. /usr/services

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 6
With UNIX file system partitions set at 4K blocks, what is the largest separation that can be used when creating static hashed files to prevent groups being split between disk blocks?
B. 4
C. 8
D. 16
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 7
Administrators can add a test in the LOGIN paragraph of a UniVerse account to prevent a phantom from executing statements in the paragraph by testing which variable?
A. @TTY
B. @USERNO
C. @phantom

D. @LOGNAME
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 8
Which command can administrators use to set the default printer for all interactive UniVerse users?
A. DEFAULT.PTR
B. SETPTR.DEFAULT
C. spool.config (UNIX ONLY)
D. LOGIN paragraph in UV account
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 9
Administrators use the GROUP.STAT command to display
A. information about the record distribution in a file.
B. the list of users assigned to a specific printer group.
C. the list of printers assigned to a specific user group.
D. a list of users assigned to a specific operating system level group.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 10
A Certkiller .com user reports the error ‘unable to execute driver script’ when trying to print on a UNIX system. The most likely cause is
A. ‘usd’ not running.
B. incorrect permissions on driver script.
C. ‘usd’ was started with non-default spool directory.
D. driver script improperly specified in the sp.config file.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 11
Which command will allow administrators to alter print job specifications after a print job is in the UV spooler queue?
A. The SETPTR command
B. The ‘lp’ shell command
C. The ‘usm’ shell command
D. None, specifications cannot be altered

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 12
A Certkiller .com user reports that $<50> is appearing at the start of each screen when executing a TCL query. What should the administrator check?
A. The HEADING clause in the query
B. The user’s current PTERM settings
C. Contents of the PTERM file in the UV account
D. The terminal definition in the terminfo database

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 13
To ensure a VOC item has not been modified, administrators can compare the item against the default NEWACC VOC item using which command?
A. VVOC
B. VCATALOG VOC
C. count VOC and count NEWACC, then DIFF them
D. compare two select lists of each VOC content
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 14
One method to ensure optimal VOC performance is to store multiple line paragraphs and complex sentences in
A. the BP file and access directly by name.
B. the UV account and access by a global command.
C. the DICT of the VOC and access directly by DICT pointer.
D. any other file and access by a remote pointer in the VOC.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 15
How would an administrator make ‘LONGNAMES ON’ the default for new accounts created on an existing installation?
A. Execute the ‘LONGNAMES ON’ in each new account
B. In the UV account execute ‘LONGNAMES ON NEWACC’
C. Manually set verb ‘CREATE.FILE’ to ‘LONGNAMES ON’ in NEWACC
D. Set ‘LONGNAMES ON’ in uvconfig file, then stop UV, then start UV

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 16
What service must be running to open the UniVerse Administration Control Panel?
A. UniRPC service
B. UniVerse REXEC service
C. UniVerse telnet service
D. UniVerse Resource services

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 17
On UNIX, A Certkiller .com user may stop a PHANTOM process before its completion by force logging out the process using which option?
A. “ps -ef | grep username”, then “kill -9 username”
B. “ps -ef | grep uv”, then LOGOUT user initiating the PHANTOM
C. “ps -ef | grep uv”, then locate the process then “kill -9 parentname”
D. At either TCL or O/S level type “STATUS ME”, obtain process id, then type “LOGOUT -pid”

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 18
With transaction logging active, frequent backups allow administrators to minimize the time it takes to restore and roll-forward recovery in the event of
A. data files being damaged.
B. user interrupting the ‘write’ process.
C. transaction buffer space being compromised.
D. an unscheduled interrupt in the BASIC program.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 19
Which command requests control of a particular printer?
A. P.ATT <channel>
B. SETPTR <channel>
C. SP.ASSIGN <channel>
D. ASSIGN.PTR <channel>

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 20
Which TCL command recommends an optimum file type, modulo and separation?
A. HASH.AID
B. HASH.HELP
C. FILE.STAT
D. HASH.TEST
Correct Answer: B

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QUESTION 1
Given the following two programs (subroutine is cataloged): PROGRAM MAIN SUBROUTINE SUB1 COMMON X COMMON Y X=1 X=2 ENTER SUB1 Y=3 PRINT “X = “:X RETURN END END What will be printed when the program MAIN is executed?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. Nothing will be printed

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 2
Given the program segment, after execution what is the value of ‘B’? A = 3 B = (A = 4) PRINT B
A. 0
B. 1
C. 3
D. 4
E. 7
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 3
Which command will hold the screen cursor in position after accepting user input?
A. INPUT X,1
B. INPUT X,1_
C. INPUT X,1:
D. INPUTHOLD X
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 4
Which BASIC statement will select the F.CUSTOMERS file using the index built on the CITY attribute?
A. SELECT F.CUSTOMERS WITH CITY = “DENVER”
B. SELECTINDEX CITY FROM F.CUSTOMERS = “DENVER”
C. SELECTINDEX “CITY”, “DENVER” FROM F.CUSTOMERS

D. SELECT FROM F.CUSTOMERS USING CITY = “DENVER”
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 5
Which command allows a program to delete a record while retaining it’s READU lock?
A. REMOVE
B. DELETE
C. REMOVEU

D. DELETEU

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 6
Which conversion code will convert non-printable characters contained in a string to the printable character “.” (period) or “~” (tilde)?
A. MC
B. MP
C. MCP

D. MCT
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 7
Which command will read a record into a dimensioned array?
A. READ
B. PARSE
C. MATREAD

D. MATBUILD
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 8
A. COUNT(STRING,CHAR(253))
B. COUNT(STRING,CHAR(254))

C. DCOUNT(STRING,CHAR(254))
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 9
Which command will create only the dictionary portion for a file named TEST.FILE?
A. CREATE DICT TEST.FILE
B. CREATE DICT FILE TEST.FILE

C. FILE.CREATE DICT TEST.FILE
D. CREATE.FILE DICT TEST.FILE
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 10
Which command will create only the data portion of a file named TEST.FILE?
A. CREATE.FILE DATA TEST.FILE
B. FILE.CREATE TEST.FILE DATA
C. CREATE DATA FILE TEST.FILE

D. CREATE TEST.FILE DATA FILE
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 11
The first field, first position of a data defining dictionary item for a hashed file must contain which value?
A.F
B.
D

C.
PA

D.
PQ
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 12
Which field on a D type dictionary item for a hashed data file contains the attribute (field) number?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 6
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 13
Which field contains the ‘column heading’ on a ‘I’ type or ‘V’ type dictionary item (attribute) on a hashed file?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 4
D. 5
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 14
The correct entry to affect a left justified column width of 15 characters on a dictionary item is
A. 15L
B. 15-L
C. LEFT-15
D. 15-LEFT
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 15
Which command will create a secondary index on a hashed file named TEST.FILE using the ‘NAME’ field (attribute)?
A. INDEX.CREATE NAME TEST.FILE
B. CREATE.INDEX TEST.FILE NAME
C. CREATE INDEX NAME TEST.FILE
D. CREATE NAME INDEX ON TEST.FILE
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 16
Which command line will create a secondary index on a file named TEST.FILE using the ‘NAME’ dictionary to ensure an empty NAME field will not be included in the index?
A. INDEX.CREATE TEST.FILE NAME -NULL
B. CREATE.INDEX TEST.FILE NAME -EMPTY
C. CREATE NO.NULL INDEX TEST.FILE NAME
D. CREATE.INDEX TEST.FILE NAME NO.NULLS
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 17
Which option contains the value for field one on a VOC record that defines a PROC?
A. PQ
B. PC
C. PA
D. PRC
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 18
To define a PARAGRAPH in a VOC file, which is the correct value for field one?
A. PA
B. PQ
C. PG
D. PH
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 19
Which keyword will direct results of the statement “LIST TEST.FILE ATTR1 ATTR2 ATTR3” to the system printer?
A. -P
B. PTR
C. LPTR
D. PRINTER
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 20
Which command will create an SQL table named TEST.TABLE?
A. CREATE-TABLE TEST.TABLE
B. CREATE.TABLE TEST.TABLE
C. CREATE TABLE TEST.TABLE
D. CREATE-TABLE SQL TEST.TABLE
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 21

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