Question: 1
An operator notices that a job on the system is causing poor performance. The job is a root process and the administrator has concluded itis not important and can be stopped. Shortly after stopping the process, it starts again. Which of the following commands will list repeating scheduled tasks?
A. at -l
B. jobs -l
C. sched -l
D. crontab -l

Answer: D
Question: 2
What command will an operator use to check if the system has NFS3 filesystems currently defined?
A. lsnfs3
B. lsnfs -v 3
C. lsfs -v nfs3
D. lsfs -t nfs3

Answer: C
Question: 3
Which of the following commands will show how manyphysical partitions are available on active hdisk1?
A. lspv hdisk1
B. lsvg -p hdisk1
C. lsattr -p hdisk1
D. lsdev -E -l hdisk1

Answer: A
Question: 4
An existing directory ‘/history_logs’ contains too manyfiles, so the ‘ls’ command fails. How can the operator determine the number of files in the directory?
A. df -k /history_logs | wc
B. find /history_logs | wc -n
C. cat /history_logs | ls -l | wc -l
D. find /history_logs -type f | wc -l

Answer: D
Question: 5
An operator must check the status of print queues on a regular basis. Which of the following commands can be used to check on all the print queues?
A. lslp -a
B. qchk -A
C. enq -s ALL
D. lpstat -p ALL
Answer: B
Question: 6
What is the correct command to display the current working directory?
A. echo $PWD
B. echo $pwd
C. echo $CWD
D. echo $cwd

Answer: A
Question: 7
Which of the following AIX storage concepts is correct?
A. A filesystem can span multiple physical volumes.
B. A physical volume can belong to more than 1 volume group.
C. A logical volume can have up to 2 copies in each of 2 volume groups.
D. The size of a filesystem is always the same size as its logical volume.

Answer: A
Question: 8
A user created a file name ‘.newfile’ in the /save directory, but doesn’t see the file when listing the directory contents. Which command will verify the file is in the directory?
A. ls -a /save
B. ls -e /save
C. lsdir -E /save
D. lsdir -A /save

Answer: A
Question: 9
An operator is editing a file using a keyboard without arrow keys. What key can be used to move the cursor one character to the right?
A. n
B. j
C. k
D. l

Answer: D
Question: 10
The man page for ommand?shows the following syntax: The man page for ?ommand?shows the following syntax: command [ -a | -b ] Which of the following statements is true regarding this entry?
A. Either the or flag may be used, but not both.Either the ? or ? flag may be used, but not both.
B. If the flag is used then the flag also must be usedIf the ? flag is used then the ? flag also must be used
C. One of the -a or -b flags must be used, but not both at the same time.
D. Both the and flags may be used together, but neither are mandatoryBoth the ? and ? flags may be used together, but neither are mandatory
Answer: D

QUESTION 1
An application is creating hashes of each file on an attached storage device. Which of the following will typically occur during this process?
A. An increase in the amount of time it takes for the system to respond to requests
B. Reduced risk of an attack
C. Increased risk of an attack
D. A reduction in the amount of time it takes for the system to respond to requests

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 2
You have been assigned to configure a DMZ that uses multiple firewall components. Specifically, you must configure a router that will authoritatively monitor and, if necessary, block traffic. This device will be the last one that inspects traffic before it passes to the internal network. Which term best describes this device?
A. Screening router
B. Bastion host
C. Proxy server
D. Choke router

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 3
A distributed denial-of-service (DDOS) attack has occurred where both ICMP and TCP packets have crashed the company’s Web server. Which of the following techniques will best help reduce the severity of this attack?
A. Filtering traffic at the firewall
B. Changing your ISP
C. Installing Apache Server rather than Microsoft IIS
D. Placing the database and the Web server on separate systems

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 4
Which of the following is considered to be the most secure default firewall policy, yet usually causes the most work from an administrative perspective?
A. Configuring the firewall to respond automatically to threats
B. Blocking all access by default, then allowing only necessary connections
C. Configuring the firewall to coordinate with the intrusion-detection system
D. Allowing all access by default, then blocking only suspect network connections
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 5
Which of the following is most likely to pose a security threat to a Web server?
A. CGI scripts
B. Database connections
C. Flash or Silverlight animation files
D. LDAP servers
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 6
What is the first tool needed to create a secure networking environment?
A. User authentication
B. Confidentiality
C. Security policy
D. Auditing

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 7
Irina has contracted with a company to provide Web design consulting services. The company has asked her to use several large files available via an HTTP server. The IT department has provided Irina with user name and password, as well as the DNS name of the HTTP server. She then used this information to obtain the files she needs to complete her task using Mozilla Firefox. Which of the following is a primary risk factor when authenticating with a standard HTTP server?
A. HTTP usescleartext transmission during authentication, which can lead to a man-in-the- middle attack.
B. Irina has used the wrong application for this protocol, thus increasing the likelihood of a man-in- the-middle attack.
C. A standard HTTP connection uses public-key encryption that is not sufficiently strong, inviting the possibility of a man-in-the-middle attack.
D. Irina has accessed the Web server using a non-standard Web browser.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 8
Requests for Web-based resources have become unacceptably slow. You have been assigned to implement a solution that helps solve this problem. Which of the following would you recommend?
A. Enablestateful multi-layer inspection on the packet filter
B. Implement caching on the network proxy server
C. Enable authentication on the network proxy server
D. Implement a screening router on the network DMZ

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 9
You have discovered that the ls, su and ps commands no longer function as expected. They do not return information in a manner similar to any other Linux system. Also, the implementation of Tripwire you have installed on this server is returning new hash values. Which of the following has most likely occurred?
A. Atrojan has attacked the system.
B. A SQL injection attack has occurred.
C. A spyware application has been installed. D. A root kit has been installed on the system.
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 10
Which of the following organizations provides regular updates concerning security breaches and issues?
A. IETF
B. ISO
C. ICANN
D. CERT
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 11
You have been asked to encrypt a large file using a secure encryption algorithm so you can send it via e-mail to your supervisor. Encryption speed is important. The key will not be transmitted across a network. Which form of encryption should you use?
A. Asymmetric
B. PGP
C. Hash
D. Symmetric

QUESTION: 1
With regard to databases, what is normalization?

A. The process of reducing the cardinality of a relation
B. The process of organizing and refining relations
C. The process of duplicating data to reduce the number of tables
D. The process of limiting data stored in a table to a specific range of values
Answer: B
QUESTION: 2 Which three pieces of information did E.F. Codd describe as necessary to retrieve a data value from a relational database?
A. Attribute, domain, and tuple
B. Entity, relation name, and domain
C. Table name, primary key, and entity
D. Attribute, relation name, and primary key

Answer: D
QUESTION: 3
What is a virtual table?

A. A virtual table is a relation created as the result of data manipulation; it exists only in computer memory, and is not a permanent part of the database.
B. A virtual table is a relation stored in the database; it is used when multiple users access the same relation in a database.
C. A virtual table is a relation derived from the database data dictionary; it contains metadata about a base relation. A virtual table is a relation derived from the database? data dictionary; it contains metadata about a base relation.
D. A virtual table is a relation that consists of primary and foreign keys for a particular set of relations in a database.
Answer: A

QUESTION: 4 Your enterprise has reached the conceptual design phase for a database project. What is the desired goal at the end of this design phase?
A. A set of normalized relations
B. A reviewed entity-relationship (ER) model
C. An entity-relationship (ER) model with no redundant data
D. A set of denormalized relations

Answer: B
QUESTION: 5
In which phase of database design do you identify entities, attribute domains, and relationships?

A. Logical
B. Physical
C. Application
D. Conceptual

Answer: D
QUESTION: 6 Consider the Dept1_Parts and Dept2_Parts relations shown in the exhibit. Which of the following SQL statements would create a set difference of the two relations with the widest variety of Structured Query Language dialects?
A. SELECT * FROM Dept1_Parts EXCEPT(SELECT PartJD FROM Dept2_Parts);
B. SELECT * FROM Dept1_Parts MINUS (SELECT Part_ID FROM Dept2_Parts);
C. SELECT * FROM Dept1_Parts DIFFERENCE (SELECT Part_ID FROM Dept2_Parts);
D. SELECT * FROM Dept1_Parts WHERE Part_ID NOT IN
(SELECT Part_ID FROM Dept2_Parts);
Answer: D
QUESTION: 7
Consider the Information Engineering diagram shown in the exhibit. Building_ID, R_ID,
Room_Count and Room_Num are integer numbers, whereas Bldg_Name, Location and
Res_Name are all represented by variable-length strings with a maximum of 20 characters.
Which SQL statement best implements the RESIDENT relation shown in this diagram?
A.CREATE TABLE RESIDENT (
R_ID INTEGER NULL PRIMARY KEY, Room_Num FLOAT,
Res_Name VARCHAR, Building_ID INTEGER NULL,
FOREIGN KEY Building_ID REFERENCES BUILDING (Building_ID));
B.CREATE TABLE RESIDENT (
R_ID INTEGER NOT NULL PRIMARY KEY, Room_Num BINARY,
Res_Name VARCHAR (20), Building_ID INTEGER NOT NULL,
FOREIGN KEY Building_ID REFERENCES BUILDING (Building_ID));
C.CREATE TABLE RESIDENT (
R_ID INTEGER NOT NULL PRIMARY KEY, Room_Num INTEGER,
Res_Name VARCHAR (20), Building_ID INTEGER NOT NULL);
D.CREATE TABLE RESIDENT (
R_ID INTEGER NOT NULL PRIMARY KEY,
Room_Num INTEGER, Res_Name VARCHAR (20),
Building_ID INTEGER NOT NULL,
FOREIGN KEY Building_ID REFERENCES BUILDING (Building_ID));
Answer: D
QUESTION: 8
Which term describes one or more database operations that are executed as a single unit?
A. Update
B. Transaction
C. Encapsulation
D. Operational group

Answer: B
QUESTION: 9 Your enterprise is involved in planning a database project. The exhibit shows the result of one phase of the database design life cycle. Which term best describes the diagram shown in the exhibit?

A. Information Engineering (IE) data model
B. Corporate data model
C. Database requirements model
D. ERD model
Answer: B

QUESTION: 10

Consider the following relations shown in the exhibit. Which of the following SQL statements
would return the Customers2 relation from the Customers relation?

A. SELECT * FROM Customers WHERE Satisfaction_Rate <= 80 OR Satisfaction_Rate >= 90;
B. SELECT * FROM Customers WHERE Satisfaction_Rate IN (80 AND 90);
C. SELECT *FROM Customers WHERE Satisfaction_Rate >= 80 AND Satisfaction_Rate <= 89;
D. SELECT * FROM Customers WHERE Satisfaction_Rate
BETWEEN (80, 90);

Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 1
In Rational Developer for System z File Manager, which template is constructed without the use of any source code to help derive the record layout?
A. Copybook template
B. Segmented copybook template
C. Dynamic template
D. Segmented template
Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 2
Which mechanism or feature can be used to integrate custom build processes involving multiple preprocessors for use in Rational Developer for System z?
A. Menu Manager
B. CARMA
C. Property Group
D. the extensible error feedback mechanism
Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 3
When creating a “DB2 for z/OS” database connection via the Data perspective, which type of driver does the database manager use to enable interaction with the host database?
A. ODBC driver
B. JDBC driver
C. C++ driver
D. MySQL driver
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 4
IBM 000-051: Practice Exam
When using the IBM?SCLM Developer Toolkits, you can use the SCLM view to work directly with host artifacts such as COBOL or PL/I programs. Which modes does the SCLM view provide?
A. SCLM Developer mode and SCLM Explorer mode
B. SCLM Projects mode and SCLM Explorer mode
C. SCLM Developer mode and SCLM Projects mode
D. SCLM Projects mode and SCLM Group mode
Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 5
You can set varying tracing levels in the Preferences of Rational Developer for System z. What does this Trace level setting allow you to do?
A. set the amount of trace detail generated for each plug-in
B. set the number of trace files stored for each plug-in
C. set the file size of the trace file generated
D. set the frequency of trace
Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 6
To debug a program inside a local project on the z/OS Projects view, the program must be built with the “/DEBUG” link option and which other option?
A. the “ADATA” compiler option
B. the “LIST” compiler option C. the “/TEST” compiler option D. the “/OUT” link option
Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 7
To see the SQL statements (not the generated COBOL source) in the listing while interactively debugging with Debug Tool, what must be used to compile the source program?
A. IBM COBOL compiler on Windows
B. Enterprise COBOL compiler V4.2 or above
IBM 000-051: Practice Exam
C. the DB2 stand-aloneprecompiler
D. the integrated DB2 coprocessor
Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 8
What information does the Remote System Explorer (RSE) user log file “rsecomm.log” contain?
A. Datastore action logging
B. RSE’s reading and writing of PDS member or a sequential data set, and the time stamp of each read and write
C. the RSE server’s handling of commands from the client, and the communication logging of all services relying on RSE
D. standard output (stdout) and standard error output (stderr)
Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 9
When debugging a program on the Debug perspective, users can select one or more variables on the Variables view for inspection. When selected by the users, the selected variables will be added to which view?
A. Debug console
B. Monitors view
C. Modules view
D. Debug view
Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 10
When using single service projects, which method(s) allow(s) users to include comments from the COBOL source code in the generated XSD and WSDL files?
A. top-down method only
B. bottom-up method only
C. command-line batch processor only
D. either the bottom-up method or the command-line batch processor
IBM 000-051: Practice Exam
Answer: D

QUESTION 1
A company has recently incurred financial loss, due to a crashed server that resulted in the loss of critical
data.
Which two vSphere 6.x features should this company implement to protect against losing critical data due
to physical server failure? (Choose two.)

A. Virtual Volumes
B. Enhanced vMotion Capability
C. High Availability
D. Fault Tolerance

Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 2
A company has recently reported a financial loss and has identified that a major part of their expenses is
the maintaining and managing of their virtualized network in the data center.
The company needs a solution that would help cut down on their operating expenditures.
What should the company do to solve this issue?

A. Virtualize the physical servers.
B. Implement a management platform for IT services on vSphere and other hypervisors.
C. Remove all physical servers which are not in use.
D. Increase the number of physical servers.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 3
After configuring Fault Tolerance for critical servers, an administrate notices that protected virtual
machines run slower than usual.
What is the reason for performance reduction of these virtual machines?

A. Hosts have lower bandwidth for Fault Tolerance logging.
B. Virtual machines are usually slow after Fault Tolerance logging.
C. The storage space on the host is low.
D. Virtual machines are running memory intensive applications.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 4
What are two advantages of Network I/O Control? (Choose two.)
A. Monitors the virtual machine storage.
B. Performs load-based teaming.
C. Enforces network bandwidth limit on the virtual distributed switch.
D. Enforces traffic isolation.

Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 5
Which three vSphere 6.x features require a shared storage infrastructure to work properly? (Choose three.)
A. Storage Policy Based Management
B. vSphere Distributed Switch
C. Fault Tolerance
D. Distributed Power Management
E. Dynamic Resource Scheduler

Correct Answer: ABD QUESTION 6
An administrator has finished configuring vSphere HA in their IT environment. Which component does the administrator remove from the infrastructure to save cost?
A. Storage clusters
B. Network stack
C. Dedicated standby hardware
D. Standard switches

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 7
Which statement about standard switches is true?
A. Performs Port Mirroring simultaneously for virtual machines in all port groups
B. Performs Port Mirroring for virtual machines in the same port group.
C. Bridges traffic between virtual machines in other port groups.
D. Bridges traffic internally between virtual machines in the same port group.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 8
Which vSphere 6.x feature would you choose for offsite disaster recovery?
A. Distributed Power Management
B. vSphere HA
C. vSphere Data Protection
D. Dynamic Resource Scheduler

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 9
An IT administrator working in a space agency has just in installed some applications that are critical for a
satellite launch mission.
The administrator wants the applications to work irrespective of any operating system failure.
Which vSphere 6.x feature should the administrator use?

A. vSphere HA
B. vSphere Fault Tolerance
C. vSphere Replication
D. vSphere Data Protection

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 10
Which vSphere 6.x storage service provides array-based operations at the virtual disk level?
A. Local storage
B. Virtual Volumes
C. Virtual SAN

D. Datastores Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 1
Consider the following statement:
$buffer = a string;
Also consider that a file named test.txt contains the following line of text: One line of test text.What is the
output of the following lines of code? $file = “test.txt”;
open (OUT, “<$file”) || (die “cannot open $file: $!”); read(OUT, $buffer, 15, 4);
print $buffer;

A. a strOne line of test
B. a stOne line of tes
C. a strOne line of tes
D. a stOne line of test

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 2
Consider the following lines of code:
@array1 = (“apples”, “oranges”, “pears”, “plums”); foreach (@array1) {print “$_\n”};
What is the result of these lines of code?

A. apples oranges pears plums
B. apples oranges pears plums
C. apples
D. apples oranges pears plums

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 3
Consider the following program code:
%hash = (small => 8oz, medium => 16oz,large => 32oz); @keys = sort(keys(%hash));
for ($i = 0; $i < 3; $i++) { print($hash{$keys[$i]}\n);

}
What is the result of executing this program code?

A. The code will fail at line 1 because a hash cannot contain both numeric and string data.
B. The code will execute without error but will output nothing.
C. The code will output the following: 32oz 16oz 8oz
D. The code will output the following: large medium small
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 4
Which statement will print the capital attribute of the $kansas object?
A. print (“capital”=>$kansas);
B. print {$kansas}=>(capital);
C. print (capital)<={$kansas};
D. print $kansas->{“capital”};

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 5
Consider the following program code:
@array = (10, Masami, 10..13, Niklas);
for ($i = 1; $i < $#array; $i++)
{
print($array[$i] );
}
What is the result of executing this program code?

A. The code will output the following: Masami 10 11 12 13
B. The code will output the following: 10 Masami 10 11 12 13
C. The code will output the following: 10 Masami 11 12 13 Niklas
D. The code will output the following: Masami 10 11 12 13 Niklas

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 6
Consider the following program code:

$x = 10;
LOOP: while ($x < 15)
{
print ($x );
if ($x >= 14 && $x <= 20)
{
$x += 2;
redo LOOP;
}
else
{
$x++;
}
What is the result of executing this program code?

A. The code will output the following: 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19
B. The code will output the following: 10 11 12 13 14 16 18 20 22
C. The code will output the following: 10 11 12 13 14 16 18 20
D. The code will output the following: 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 7
Assuming $a = 2, which of the following evaluates as false?
A. “False”
B. $a
C. $a < 0
D. 1
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 8
Consider the following program code:
$y = 1;
$x = 2;
$z = 3;
do
{
print ($y );

} while ($y eq 2);
do
{
print ($x );
}
until ($x eq 2);
print ($z );
What is the result of executing this program code?

A. The code will output the following: 1 2 3
B. The code will output the following: 3
C. The code will output the following: 2 3
D. The code will output the following: 3 2 1

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 9
Which line of code represents the correct syntax to establish a reference to a database handle?
A. $dbh = DBI::connect(“dbi:mysql:myPhoneBook”);
B. $dbh = DBD:->connect(“dbi::mysql::myPhoneBook”);
C. $dbh = DBD::connect(“mysql:dbi:myPhoneBook”);
D. $dbh = DBI->connect(“dbi:mysql:myPhoneBook”);

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 10
Consider the following program code:
$val = 5;
if ($val++ == 6)
{
print(“True “);
}
else
{
print(“False “);
}
if ($val++ == 6)
{
print(“True “);
}
else

{
print(“False “);
}
What is the output of this code?

A. False False
B. False True
C. True False
D. True True

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 1

Which statement is true about importing data from Microsoft Word?
A. Tables are stripped off.
B. OLE objects are stripped off.
C. Bulleted lists are stripped off.
D. Auto-numbered section numbers are stripped off.
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 2

Which two user types can create a Change Proposal System? (Choose two.)
A. Administrator
B. Project Manager

C. Database Manager
D. a Custom user with the power to create users
Answer: C,D

Version: Demo
1.When can an acknowledgement be created?
A. When others are working on the event.
B. When operations staff makes a request.
C. When an event indicator is visible in the Navigator.
D. When a situation fires and the administrator wants to be first to acknowledge the event. Answer: C
2.Which workspace chart best represents the proportional value of each data point to the whole.?
A. Pie Chart
B. Bar Chart
C. Plot Chart
D. Circular Gauge Chart Answer: A
3.What is the purpose of the connectors in a Common Event Console?
A. The Event Handler is incorporated to pass events.
B. Connect to an event repository for the Common Event Console.
C. Retrieve event data to be displayed in the Common Event Console.
D. Send messages to the Message Log view from the Common Event Console. Answer: C
4.How is it determined if a situation is associated with a Navigator item?
A. Launch the Situation Editor from the toolbar.
B. Right click the Required Navigator Item and select Situations.
C. Select the properties for the Navigator Item and click Situations.
D. Filter the situations for the Navigator item by Associated with Navigator Item. Answer: B
5.Where are attributes to be displayed in a workspace view selected?
A. In the Query tab of each workspace Properties.
B. In the Filters tab of each workspace Properties.
C. In the Query tab of each workspace view’s Properties.
D. In the Filters tab of each workspace view’s Properties. Answer: D
6.When is persistent event monitoring useful in IBM Tivoli Monitoring (ITM)?
A. To count the number of events in ITM.
B. To determine when a situation is needed.
C. To determine whether a condition is consistent or intermittent.
D. To determine when more agents must be deployed across a ITM environment. Answer: C
7.How are new managed systems groups created?
A. They are created when IBM Tivoli Monitoring is installed.
B. They are created in the Manage Tivoli Enterprise Monitoring Services.
C. They are created using the Object Editor under the Managed Systems Group tab.
D. They are created with the Situation Editor within the Tivoli Enterprise Portal client. Answer: C
8.What are the three default user groups provided with Tivoli Enterprise Portal?
A. Administrator, Diagnostic Users, Operator
B. Administrator, Application Users, Operator
C. Application Users, Diagnostic Users, Operator
D. Administrator, Diagnostic Users, Application Users Answer: A
9.What is used to quickly switch from one workspace to another in the Desktop Portal Client?
A. Link
B. Launch
C. Bookmark
D. Graphic Icon Answer: A

Exam Name: IBM Maximo Asset Management V7.1 Implementation
Version: Demo
Question: 1
Where are the majority of Maximo properties defined?
A. logging.properties
B. Logging application
C. mxserver.properties
D. System Properties application

Answer: D
Question: 2
A client has assigned a frequency of every three months and has three jobs to be added to the Job Plan sequence table window. The first Job Plan is for every three months, the second Job Plan is for every six months, and the third Job Plan is for the annual maintenance. What is the sequence to be set for the six month Job Plan?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 6
D. 12

Answer: B
Question: 3
When configuring the inventory reorder options, which statement is correct?
A. Internal requests will only be generated as an approved purchase order.
B. External requests will only be generated as an unapproved purchase order.
C. External or internal requests can be generated as an approved purchase order.
D. External or internal requests will only be generated as an unapproved purchase request.

Answer: C
Question: 4
For which types of records can a purchasing limit be set for a user?
A. PR, PO, receipt, invoice
B. MR, PR, PO, receipt, invoice
C. PR, PO, MR, invoice, contract
D. MR, PR, PO, receipt, invoice, contract
Answer: C
Question: 5
Which statement is correct?
A. The classification of a rotating Asset is determined from the classification belonging to its rotating item. The value of an Asset specification record is always updateable.
B. The classification of a rotating Asset is determined from the classification belonging to its rotating item. The value of an Asset specification record is determined from the
C. The classification of a rotating Asset can be entered by the user and the Asset specification is derived from the classification you enter. The value of an attribute can be entered
D. There is no relationship with the item specification.

E. The classification of a rotating Asset is enterable only if its rotating item has no classification of its own. When the classification has been entered by the user on the Asset, the
F. Otherwise, they are read-only and are determined from the corresponding attribute’s value on the item specification.

Answer: B
Question: 6
At which level is the purchase order (PO) option Require Approval to Convert PR to PO or Contract set?
A. Site
B. Item Set
C. Organization
D. Company Set

Answer: C
Question: 7
What is the most important step in the process of creating Safety Plans?
A. identification of Hazards
B. identification of Precautions
C. associating Safety Plan to Job Plans
D. establishing Lockout/Tagout procedures

Answer: A
Question: 8
When creating a purchase contract, what is the purpose of checking the Change Price on Use field?
A. It specifies that the price in the purchase order (PO) is only an estimated price.
B. It specifies that when a PO is issued against this contract, the price must be changed.
C. It specifies that the price of a given related item can be changed on related POs or purchase requests.
D. It specifies that the price of a given item specified in the Master Contract is reduced or increased, based on market conditions.
Answer: C
Question: 9
Where is Admin mode turned on and off?
A. Organizations
B. Security Groups
C. System Properties
D. Database Configuration
Answer: D
Question: 10
Which two ways can tool costs be recorded? (Choose two.)
A. Tool Report application

B. When a purchase order for tool rental is received
C. As the Work Order is completed and tool costs are calculated
D. As the tools are checked out from a tool room and returned to a tool room
E. As the tools are checked out from a tool room and returned to a tool room, and tool usage is recorded against a Work Order

Answer: B, E